ACCAF1专业班100道练习题

ACCAF1专业班100道练习题
ACCAF1专业班100道练习题

Z B

C T 1. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Limited company status means that a company is only allowed to trade up

to a predetermined turnover level in any one year.

B. For organizations that have limited company status, ownership and control

are legally separate.

C. The benefit of being a sole trader is that you have no personal liability for

the debts of your business.

D. Ordinary partnerships offer the same benefits as limited companies but are

usually formed by professionals such as doctors and solicitors.

2. Which of the following groups may be considered to be stakeholders

in the activities of a nuclear power station?

(1) The government

(2) Friends of the earth

(3) Employees

(4) Local residents

A. (1)(2) and (3)

B. (1)(2)(3) and (4)

C. (3) only

D. and (4) only

3. Secondary stakeholders is another term for which group of

stakeholders?

A. Internal stakeholders

B. Connected stakeholders

C. External stakeholders

D. Contractual stakeholders

4. ZBCT is a business which is owed by its workers. The workers share

the profits and they each have a vote how the business is run.

Which of the following best describes ZBCT?

A. Public sector

B. Private sector

C. Not-for-profit

D. Co-operative

5. Which of the following is not a legitimate method of influencing

government policy in the interests of a business?

A. Employing lobbyist to put the organization’s case to ministers or civil

servants

B. Giving lawmakers non-executive directorships

C. Offer financial incentives to public official to use their influence on the

organization’s behalf

D. Attempting to influence public opinion, to put pressure on the legislative

Z B

C T agenda

6. is an analysis of statistics on birth and death rate,

age structures of people and ethnic groups within a community.

Which word correctly completes the sentence?

A. Ergonomics

B. Economics

C. Psychographics

D. Demographics

7. The stationery and printing company Sunny Co, has recently

upgraded its computers and printers so that more production has

become automated. Many middle managers will now be made

redundant. This is known as:

A. Downsizing

B. Delayering

C. Outsourcing

D. Degrading

8. For what function in an organization would demographic information

about social class be most relevant?

A. Finance

B. Human Resources

C. Marketing

D. Purchasing

9. ZBCT Co is a large trading company.

Alex is the administration manager and is also responsible for legal and

compliance functions. Amy is responsible for after sales service and ha

responsibility for ensuring that customers who have purchased goods from

ZBCT Co are fully satisfied. Sarenna deals with suppliers and negotiates on

the price and quality of inventory. He is also responsible for identifying the

most appropriate suppliers of plant and machinery for the factory. Frank is the

information technology manager and is responsible for all information systems

within the company.

According to Porter’s value chain, which of the managers is involved in a

primary activity as opposed to a support activity?

A. Alex

B. Amy

C. Sarenna

D. Frank

10. What is the latest stage at which a new recruit to a company should

first be issued with a copy of the company’s health and safety policy

Z B

C T statement? A.

On accepting the position with the company B.

As early as possible after employment C.

After the first few weeks of employment D.

During the final selection interview

11. Which of the following is not an element of fiscal policy?

A. Government spending

B. Government borrowing

C. Taxation

D. Exchange rates

12. Which of the following is associated with a negative Public Sector

Net Cash Requirement?

A. The government is running a budget deficit

B. The government’s expenditure exceeds its income

C. The government is running a budget surplus

D. Public Sector Debt Repayment (PSDR) is high

13. taxes are collected by the Revenue authority from an

intermediary, which attempts to pass on the tax to consumers in the

price of goods.

Which wore correctly completes this statement?

A. Regressive

B. Progressive

C. Direct

D. Indirect

14. The currency in country X is the Krone while country Y uses the Euro.

Country Y has recently experienced an increase in its exchange rate

with Country X. which of the following effects is likely to result in

Country Y?

A. A stimulus to exports in Country Y

B. An increase in the costs of imports from Country X

C. Reducing demand for imports from County X

D. A reducing in the rate of cost push inflation

15. The following, with one exception, are “protectionist measures” in

international trade. Which is the exception?

A. Import quotas

B. Harmonisation of technical standards

C. Customs procedures

D. Tariffs

Z B C T 16. Which of the following organizations might benefit from a period of high price inflation? A. An organization which has a large number of long term payables B. An exporter of goods to a country with relatively low inflation C. A supplier of goods in a market where consumers au=re highly price sensitive and substitute goods are available D. An organization which receives income at a fixed amount predetermined in a long-term contract 17. Which of the following is an example of cyclical unemployment? A. The entry of school leavers into the labour pool each year B. Lay-offs among agricultural labourers in winter C. Automation of ticketing services in tourism D. Recession in the building industry 18. A surplus on the balance of payments usually means a surplus or deficit on the account. Which word correctly complete this statement? A. Current B. Capital C. Financial D. Income statement 19. Northland, Southland, Eastland and Westland are four countries of Asia. The following economic statistics have been produced for the year of 2007. Country N S E W

Change in GDP (%) -0.30 +2.51 -0.55 +2.12

Balance of payments current account ($m) +5550.83 -350.47 -150.90 +220.39

Change in consumer price (%) +27.50 +15.37 +2.25 +2.15

Change in working population employed (%) -4.76 +3.78 +1.76 -8.76

Which country experienced stagflation in the relevant period?

A. N

B. S

C. E

D. W

20. In a free market economy, the price mechanism:

A. Aids government control

B. Allocates resources

C. Reduces unfair completion

D. Measure national wealth

Z B

C T 21. A legal minimum price is set which is below the equllibrrlum price.

What will be the impact of this?

A. Excess of demand over supply

B. Excess of supply over demand

C. An increase in price

D. Nothing

22. Which of the following statements about an organization chart is not

true?

A. An organization chart provides a summary of the structure of a business

B. An organization chart can improve internal communications with a

business

C. An organization chart can improve employees’ understanding of their role

in a business

D. An organization chart can Indicate functional authority but not line authority

within a business

23. Which of the following is a correct definition of “span of control’?

A. The number of employees subordinate in the hierarchy to a give manager

B. The number of level of levels in the hierarchy ‘below’ a given manager’s

C. The length of time between a manager’s decision and the evaluation of it

by his superior

D. The number of employees directly responsible to a manager

24. Which of the following terms is not use by Mintzherg in his

description of organizational structure?

A. Strategic apex

B. Support base

C. Technostructure

D. Operating core

25. Y plc is a growing organisation which has recently diversified into a

number of significant new product markets. It has also recently

acquired another company in one of its overseas markets.

What would be the most appropriate form of organisation for Y plc?

A. Geographical departmentation

B. Divisionalisation

C. Functional departmentation

D. Hybrid structure

26. Which of the following principles of classical management is

challenged by matrix management?

A. Structuring the organization on functional lines .

B. Structuring the organization on geographical lines .

Z B

C T C. Unity of command

D. Decentralisation of decision-making

27. Which of the following statements about the informal organization is

not true?

A. The influence of the informal organization was highlighted by the

Hawthorne Studies, in the way group norms and dynamics

affected productivity

B. Informal organization can pose a threat to employee health and

safety

C. Informal organization can stimulate innovation

D. Managers in positions of authority generally cannot be part of

informal organization

28. Which of the following statements is/are true?

(ⅰ) An informal organization exists with every formal organization

(ⅱ) The objectives of the informal organization are broadly the same as

those of the formal organization

(ⅲ) A strong, close-knit informal organization is desirable within the formal

organization

A. Statement (ⅰ) only

B. Statements (ⅰ) and (ⅲ) only

C. Statements (ⅱ) and (ⅲ) only

D. Statement (ⅲ) only

29. BZ Ness Ltd is an organization with a strongly traditional outlook.

It is structured and managed according to classical principles: specialization,

the scalar chain of command, unity of command and direction. Personnel

tend to focus on their own distinct tasks, which are strictly defined and

directed. Communication is vertical, rather than lateral. Discipline is much

prized and enshrined in the rule book of the company.

From the scenario, what sort of culture does BZ Ness Ltd have, using

Harrison’s classifications?

A. Role culture

B. Task culture

C. Existential culture

D. Power culture

30. Which of the following is not one of the terms used by Hofstede to

describe a key dimension of culture?

A. Power-distance

B. Acquisitive/giving

C. Individualism/collectivism

D. Uncertainty avoidance

Z B

C T

31. Which is the ‘deepest’ set of underlying factors which determine

culture, and the hardest to manage?

A. Values

B. Beliefs

C. Rituals

D. Assumptions

32. Research has indicated that workers in country A display

characteristics such as toughness and the desire for material wealth

and possessions, while workers in country B value personal

relationships, belonging and the quality of life.

According to Hofstede’s theory, these distinctions relate to which of the

following cultural dimensions?

A. Masculinity-feminity

B. Power-distance

C. Individualism-collectivism

D. Uncertainty avoidance

33. Services have certain qualities which distinguish them from products.

Because of their ﹍﹍﹍, physical elements such as vouchers, tickets,

confirmations and merchandise are an important part of service

provision.

Which of the following words most accurately completes the sentence?

A. Intangibility

B. Inseparability

C. Variability

D. Perishability

34. Which of the following is/are objective of human resource

management?

1. To meet the organisation’s social and legal responsibilities relating to

the human resource.

2. To manage an organisation’s relationship with its customers

3. To develop human resources that will respond effectively to change

A. 1 and 2

B. 1 and 3

C. 1

D. 1, 2 and 3

35. Jeff, Jane and Jaitinder work in different departments in the firm XYZ

Co.

They are members of the permanent ‘staff committee’ which meets on a

monthly basis to discuss staff issues as pensions and benefits. Their

Z B

C T purpose is to listen to communication from staff within their department

and raise issues on of their department at committee meetings. What is

the name given to his type of committee?

A. Joint committee

B. Task force

C. Ad hoc committee

D. Standing committee

36. Managers Jill and Paul are talking about how to resolve a business

problem. Jill suggests that a committee should be formed to discuss

the issues. Paul argues that committees are:

(ⅰ) time-consuming and expensive

(ⅱ) they invite a compromise instead of a clear-cut decision

Which of these statements is true?

A. Both (ⅰ) and (ⅱ)

B. (ⅰ) only

C. (ⅱ) only

D. Neither statement is true

37. Diane carries out routine processing of invoices in the purchasing

department of L Co.

Joanne is Diane’s supervisor. Lesley is trying to decide how many staff

will be needed if some proposed new technology is implemented.

Tracey is considering the new work that L Co. will be able to offer and

the new markets it could enter, once the new technology is well

established.

Which member of L Co. carries out tactical activities?

A. Diane

B. Joanne

C. Lesley

D. Tracey

38. Which of the following statements about corporate social

responsibility is true?

(ⅰ) CSR guarantees increased profit levels

(ⅱ) CSR adds cost to organizational activities and reduces profit levels

(ⅲ) Social responsibility may have commercial benefits

(ⅳ)Social responsibility is a concern confined to business organisations

A. (ⅰ), (ⅱ), (ⅲ) and (ⅳ)

B. (ⅰ) and (ⅲ)

C. (ⅱ) and (ⅳ)

D. (ⅲ) only

39. Which of the following is a feature of poor corporate governance ?

Z B

C T A.

Domination of the board by a single individual B.

Critical questioning of senior managers by external auditors C.

Supervision of staff in key roles D. Lack of focus on short-term profitability

40. The tasks of which body include: monitoring the chief executive

officer; formulating strategy; and ensuring that there is effective

communication of the strategic plan?

A. The audit committee

B. The Public Oversight Board

C. The board of directors

D. The nomination committee

41. Which of the following would be included in the principles of

Corporate Social Responsibility ?

(ⅰ) Human right

(ⅱ) Employee

(ⅲ) Professional ethics

(ⅳ) Support for local suppliers

A. (ⅱ) and (ⅲ) only

B. (ⅰ) only

C. (ⅱ) ,(ⅲ) and (ⅳ) only

D. (ⅰ), (ⅱ) and (ⅳ) only

42. Which of the following is subject to the least direct regulation ?

A. Employment protection

B. Corporate social responsibility

C. Professional ethics

D. Corporate governance

43. Which of the following are advantages of having non-executive

directors on the company board ?

1 They can provide a wider perspective than executive directors

2 They provide reassurance to shareholders

3 They may have external experience and knowledge which executive

directors do not possess

4 They have more time to devote to the role

A. 1 and 3

B. 1,2 and 3

C. 1,3and 4

D. 2 and 4

44. What is implied be an ‘accommodation’ strategy, in the context of

corporate social responsibility ?

Z B

C T A. The business is prepared to take full responsibility for its

actions and plans in advance to minimize its adverse impacts

on stakeholders and the environment

B. The business recognizes that it has a problem, and attempts

to minimise or avoid additional obligations arising from it.

C. The business sites its facilities in areas which will benefit

from economic activity, while minimsing environmental impacts

at the sites.

D. The business takes responsibility for its actions in response

to pressure form interest groups or the risk of government

interference if it does not.

45. Three of the following are outputs of a payroll system,and one is an

input to the system. Which is the input ?

A. Credit transfer

B. Time sheets

C. Payroll analysis

D. Pay slips

46. Which of the following does company law require a statement of

finance position to give ?

A. A true and fair view of the profit or loss o the company for the

financial year

B. An unqualified (or ‘clean’) report on the statement of affairs

of the company as at the end of the financial year

C. A true and fair view of the statement of affairs of the

company as at the end of the financial year

D. A qualified report, setting out matters on which independent

auditors disagree with management

47. A……………………………is a program which deals with one particular

part of a computerized business accounting system.

Which of the following terms correctly completes this definition ?

A. Suite

B. Module

C. Spreadsheet

D. Database

48. A spreadsheet software application may perform all of the following

business tasks except one. Which one of the following is the

exception ?

A. The presentation of numerical data in the form of graphs

and charts

B. The application of logical tests to data

Z B

C T C. The application of ‘What if ?’ scenarios

D. Automatic correction of all data entered by the operator into

the spreadsheet

49. The preparation and filing of accounts by limited companies each

year is required by which of the following ?

A. Codes of corporate governance

B. National legislation

C. International Accounting Standards

D. Local Accounting Standards

50. ……………………………..System pool data from internal and external

sources and make information available to senior managers, for

strategic, unstructured decision-marking.

A. Expert

B. Decision Support

C. Executive Support

D. Management Support

51. All the following statements except one describe the relationship

between data and information. Which one is the exception?

A. Information is data which has been processed in such a way

as to be meaningful to the person who receives it.

B. The relationship between data and information is one of its

inputs and outputs

C. Information from one process can be used as data in a second

process

D. Data is always in numerical form whereas information is

always in text form.

52. Which of the following is not an aim of internal controls?

A. To enable the organization to respond appropriately to

business, operational and financial risks

B. To eliminate the possibility of impacts from poor judgment and

human error

C. To help ensure the quality of internal and external reporting

D. To help ensure compliance with applicable laws and

regulations

53. Which of the following statements about internal audit is true?

A. Internal audit is an independent appraisal activity

B. Internal audit is separate from the organization’s internal

control system

C. Internal audit is carried out solely for the benefit of the

Z B

C T organization’s stakeholders

D. The internal audit function reports to the finance director

54. In the context of audit, what are ‘substantive tests’ designed to

accomplish?

A. To establish whether internal controls are being applied as

prescribed

B. To identify errors and omissions in financial records

C. To establish the causes of errors or omissions in financial

records

D. To establish an audit trail

55. All of the following, with one exception, are internal factors which

might increase the risk profile of a business. Which is the exception ?

A. Increased competition

B. Corporate restructuring

C. Upgraded management information system

D. New personnel

56. Which of the following would most clearly present a personnal risk of

fraud ?

A. Segregation of duties

B. High staff morale

C. Staff not taking their full holiday entitlements

D. Consultative management style

57. Which of the following internal controls might be least effective in

preventing fraud, if staff are in collusion with customers ?

A. Physical security

B. Requiring signatures to confirm receipt of goods or services

C. Sequential numbering of transaction documents

D. Authorisation policies

58. Leaders may be distinguished from managers by the fact that do not

depend on……………………………..power in the organization.

A. Person power

B. Expert power

C. Position power

D. Physical power

59. Which of the following writers is not a member of the school of

management thought to which the others belong ?

A. FW Taylor

B. Elton Mayo

Z B

C T C. Abraham Maslow

D. Frederick Herzberg

60. Monica is a manager in the finance department of P Co and she has

several staff working for her. She has become quite friendly with

most of her staff and like her and appreciate that she does everything

she can to attend to their needs. Which type of managerial style does

Monica have ?

A. Impoverished

B. Task Management

C. Country club

D. Dampened pendulum

61. According to Fielder, which of the following are true of

psychologically distant managers ?

1. They judge their staff on the basis of performance

2. They are primarily Task-oriented

3.They prefer formal consultation methods rather than seeking staff opinions

4.They are closer to their staff

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1,2 and 3

D. 1,2,3and 4

62. What is delegated by a superior to a subordinate ?

A. Authority

B. Power

C. Responsibility

D. Accountability

63. Which of the following is not a technique of scientific management or

Taylorism ?

A. Micro-design of iobs

B. Work study techniques to establish efficient methods

C. Multi-skilled teamworking

D. Financial incentives

64. According to research, which of the following statements is true of a

consultative style of management, compared to other styles ?

A. It is most popular among subordinates

B. It is most popular among leaders

C. It encourages the highest productivity

D. It provokes most hostility in groups

Z B

C T 65. Which of the following would be classed as a ‘selection’ rather than a

‘recruitment’ activity ?

A. Job description

B. Designing application forms

C. Screening application forms

D. Advertising vacancies

66. What is the current trend in human resource management ?

A. Centralise recruitment and selection within HR

B. Devolve recruitment and selection to line managers

C. Devolve recruitment and selection to the board

D. None of the above

67. A financial consultancy firm has a job vacancy for a junior office

assistant at one of its offices. Which of the following would be the

most suitable external medium for the job advertisement ?

A. Accountancy journal

B. National newpapers

C. Local newpapers

D. The company web site

68. Sound business argument can be made for having an equal

opportunities policy. Which of the following reasons apply?

1 To show common decency and fairness in lines with business ethics

2 To widen the recruitment pool

3 To attract and retain the best people for the job

4 To improve the organization’s images as a good employer

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

69. Which of the following statements are true?

1 Taking active steps to encourage people from disadvantage groups to apply

for jobs and training is classed as positive discrimination.

2 Diversity in the workplace means implementing an equal opportunities policy.

A. They are both true

B. 1 is true and 2 is false

C. 1 is false and 2 is true

D. They are both false

70. Members of the religious minority in a workplace are frequently

subjected to jokes about their dress and dietary customs, and a bit of

name-calling, by non-religious workmates. They find this offensive

Z B

C T and hurtful – even though their colleagues say it is ‘just a bit of fun’.

What type of discrimination (if any) would this represent?

A. Victimization

B. Indirect discrimination

C. Harassment

D. No discrimination is involved

71. Which of the following is a potential business benefit of a corporate

diversity policy ?

A. Compliance with equal opportunities legislation

B. Respect for individuals

C. Better understanding of target market segments

D. Efficiency in managing human resources

72. Which of the following is most clearly a sign of an ineffective group?

A. There is disagreement and criticism within the group

B. There is competition with other groups

C. Members passively accept work decisions

D. Individuals achieve their own targets

73. A team leader is having difficulties with conflict in the team, due to

‘clashes’ or incompatibilities in the personalities of its members. The

leader draws up a list of options for managing the problem.

Which option, from the following list, would be the least practicable?

A. Education the members about personality differences

B. Encourage the members to modify their behaviors

C. Encourage the members to modify their personalities

D. Remove one of the members from the team

74. At the Soil-Darretty Bros factory, a project team has been put

together by management.

The team is engaged in debating how they are going to approach the task, and

who is going to do what. Some of their first ideas have not worked out but they

are starting to put forward some really innovative ideas: they get quite excited

in brainstorming sessions, and are uninhibited in putting forward their views

and suggestions. Factions are emerging, not only around two dominating

individuals who always seem to disagree.

At what stage of Tuckman’s group development model is this team?

A. Forming

B. Storming

C. Norming

D. Performing

75. In Belbin’s model of team roles, which of the following is most

Z B

C T important for a well-functioning team?

A. A mix and balance of team roles

B. Nine members, so that all roles are filled

C. A focus on functional/task roles, not process roles

D. As few members as possible

76. Which of the following theories suggests that people behave

according to other people’s expectations of how they should behave

in that situation?

A. Group think theory

B. Team identity theory

C. Role theory

D. Hero theory

77. Phil T Luker & Son offers its employees a reward package which

includes salary and company car, its factory is safe and clean and

rather smart. The work is technically challenging and employees are

encouraged to produce innovating solutions to problems.

Which of the rewards offered by the firm is a form of intrinsic reward?

A. The salary

B. The car

C. The factory environment

D. The work

78. Which of the following is not a category in Maslow’s hierarchy of

needs theory?

A. Physiological needs

B. Freedom of inquiry and expression needs

C. Need for affiliation

D. Safety needs

79. Willy Dewitt-Omott works in Sales. There is always a sales

competition at the year end and the winner is likely to be made team

leader. Willy’s quite certain that he will be able to win and that he will

have more responsibility, which he would like, but he would also

have to work much longer hours, and he is quite reluctant to do this

for family reasons.

If an expectancy equation were used to assess Willy’s motivation to work hard

at the end of the year, based on the information given, which of the following

results would you expect to see?

A. Valence would be high, expectancy high, motivation high

B. Valence would be high, expectancy low, motivation low

C. Valence would be around 0, expectancy high, motivation low

D. Valence would around 0, expectancy high, motivation high

Z B

C T

80. The management of Guenguiss Cans Co runs a ‘tight ship’, with

clocking-on timekeeping systems, close supervision and rules for

everything. ‘Well’, says the general manger, ‘if you allow people to

have any freedom at work, they will take advantage and their work

rate will deteriorate’.

Which of Douglas McGregor’s ‘theories’ does this management team

subscribe to?

A. Theory X

B. Theory Y

C. Theory W

D. Theory Z

81. The following, with one exception, are claimed as advantages for job

enrichment as a form of job redesign. Which is the exception?

A. It increases job satisfaction

B. It enhances quality of output

C. It replaces monetary rewards

D. It reduces supervisory costs

82. Trainee Sare is unhappy in her current training programme, because

it is too ‘hands on’: she is required to attempt techniques before she

has had a chance to study the underlying principles first. She spends

the evenings trying to read ahead in the course text-book.

Which of Honey and Mumford’s learning styles is probably Sare’s preferred

style?

A. Reflector

B. Pragmatist

C. Theorist

D. Activist

83. Whcih of the following statement about training is most likely to be

the foundation of an effective training policy?

A. Training is the responsibility of the HR department

B. Training is all cost and no quantifiable benefit

C. The important thing is to do lots of training

D. Training can be an effective solution to some performance problems

84. All the following ,with one exception, are clear benefits of training

and development for an organization. Which is the exception?

A. Increased organizational flexibility

B. Less need for detailed supervision

C. Enhanced employability of staff members

D. Improve succession planning

Z B

C T 85. Which of the following are ‘on the job’ training methods?

(1) Day-release

(2) Job rotation

(3) Coaching

(4) Temporary promotion

A. (3) only

B. (1) and (2) only

C. (2)(3) and (4) only

D. (1)(2)(3)(4)

86. You have been asked to comment on the most effective approach for

training accounts staff in the use of a new payroll system. Which of

the following arguments would you put forward for choosing an

no-the-job approach?

A. Ability of learners to concentrate on the learning process

B. Risk of errors

C. Relevance to the informal customs and practices of the department

D. Application of learned skills to the job

87. Which of the following is not a purpose of performance appraisal?

A. Potential review

B. Reward review

C. Identification of training needs

D. Annual event

88. A manager is assessing the performance of her team members. In

accordance with the appraisal system of the organization, she has

been given a list of characerisstics and performance, with notes on

how to interpret and apply the terms: ‘integrity’, ‘punctuality’ and so

on. She is required to comment how each appraise measures up in

terms of each factor.

Which appraisal technique is this organization using?

A. Overall assessment

B. Grading

C. Behavioural incident

D. Guided assessment

89. Which of the following is likely to be the most ‘objective approach to

apptasial’?

A. Self appraisal

B. Peer appraisal

C. Upward appraisal

D. 360-degredd feedback

Z B

C T 90. Which of the following is not a barrier to effective appraisal?

A. Appraisal is seen as a way of wrapping up unfinished business for the year

B. Appraisal is seen as conforming to Human Resource procedures

C. Appraisal is seen as opportunity to raise workplace problems and issues

D. Appraisal is seen as an annual event

91. If a supervisor in the Sales department requests the help of the HR

Director in a complex disciplinary matter, what direction is the

communication flow?

A. Vertical

B. Horizontal

C. Lateral

D. Diagonal

92. Jared is the leader of a virtual team which stays in contact via e-mail.

Team members send all message to Jared, who forwards them to the

rest of the network.

Which communication pattern is reflected in this situation?

A. The circle

B. The Y

C. The wheel

D. The all-channel

93. Which of the following areas is not an advantage of using e-mail as a

communication tool?

A. Security

B. Speed

C. Multiple recipients

D. Versatility

94. Which of the following is not an attribute of communication through

an informal organizational network or ‘grapevine’?

A. Fast

B. Selective

C. Accurate

D. Up-to-date

95. Which of the following statements about non-verbal communication

is not true?

A. Non-verbal cues can be used to reinforce or undermine spoken message

B. People pay less attention to non-verbal cues than to what is being said

C. Non-verbal cues include tone of voice and silences

D. Nor-verbal cues are a key source of feedback

Z B

C T 96. What is the name given to an approach to ethical decision-making

which considers the ‘right’ decision to be the one which results in the

greatest good to the greatest number of people in a given situation?

A. Utilitarianism

B. Deontology

C. Virtue ethics

D. Corporate social responsibility

97. X plc is trying to get a trading permit, for which it qualifies.

Unfortunately, there is a backlog at the issuing office, and X plc has

been notified that there will be a delay in the processing of its permit.

The divisional manager offers a donation to the issuing office’s staff welfare

fund, if the official concerned will expedite the paperwork.

Which of the following statements is true of his action?

A. It is not unethical, because the money is offered for positive purpose

B. It is not unethical, because X plc is legally entitled to the benefit it is

claiming

C. It constitutes bribery

D. It constitutes grease money

98. Which of the following is an approach to ethics which combines a

concern for the law with an emphasis on mnanagerial responsibility?

A. Compliance based

B. Integrity

C. Environmental based

D. Economic based

99. Which of the following would raise ethical issues for a manufacturer

of fast-moving consumer goods?

(1) The materials used in manufacture of the goods

(2) The quality of the goods

(3) How the goods are advertised

(4) How much its raw materials suppliers pay their staff

(5) How the goods are packaged

A. (2) and (3) only

B. (1) (2) and (3) only

C. (2) (3) and (5) only

D. (1)(2)(3)(4) and (5)

100. You have been asked to work on a major investment decision that

your company will be making, and discover that your brother-in-law

is the managing director of a firm that may benefit from the outcome

of the decision.

应用光学习题解答13年

一、填空题 1、光学系统中物和像具有共轭关系的原因是 。 2、发生全反射的条件是 。 3、 光学系统的三种放大率是 、 、 ,当物像空间的介质的折射率给定后,对于一对给定的共轭面,可提出 种放大率的要求。 4、 理想光学系统中,与像方焦点共轭的物点是 。 5、物镜和目镜焦距分别为mm f 2'=物和mm f 25'=目的显微镜,光学筒长△= 4mm ,则该显微镜的视放大率为 ,物镜的垂轴放大率为 ,目镜的视放大率为 。 6、 某物点发出的光经理想光学系统后对应的最后出射光束是会聚同心光束,则该物点所成的是 (填“实”或“虚”)像。 7、人眼的调节包含 调节和 调节。 8、复杂光学系统中设置场镜的目的是 。 9、要使公共垂面内的光线方向改变60度,则双平面镜夹角应为 度。 10、近轴条件下,折射率为1.4的厚为14mm 的平行玻璃板,其等效空气层厚度为 mm 。

11、设计反射棱镜时,应使其展开后玻璃板的两个表面平行,目的 是。 12、有效地提高显微镜分辨率的途径是。 13、近轴情况下,在空气中看到水中鱼的表观深度要比实际深度。 一、填空题 1、光路是可逆的 2、光从光密媒质射向光疏媒质,且入射角大于临界角I0,其中,sinI0=n2/n1。 3、垂轴放大率;角放大率;轴向放大率;一 4、轴上无穷远的物点 5、-20;-2; 10 6、实 7、视度瞳孔 8、在不影响系统光学特性的的情况下改变成像光束的位置,使后面系统的通光口径不致过大。 9、30 10、10 11、保持系统的共轴性 12、提高数值孔径和减小波长

13、小 二、简答题 1、什么是共轴光学系统、光学系统物空间、像空间? 答:光学系统以一条公共轴线通过系统各表面的曲率中心,该轴线称为光轴,这样的系统称为共轴光学系统。物体所在的空间称为物空间,像所在的空间称为像空间。 2、如何确定光学系统的视场光阑? 答:将系统中除孔径光阑以外的所有光阑对其前面所有的光学零件成像到物空间。这些像中,孔径对入瞳中心张角最小的一个像所对应的光阑即为光学系统的视场光阑。 3、共轴光学系统的像差和色差主要有哪些? 答:像差主要有:球差、慧差(子午慧差、弧矢慧差)、像散、场曲、畸变;色差主要有:轴向色差(位置色差)、倍率色差。 4、对目视光学仪器的共同要求是什么? 答:视放大率| | 应大于1; 通过仪器后出射光束应为平行光束,即成像在无限远,使人眼相当观察无限远物体,处于自然放松无调节状态。 5、什么叫理想光学系统? 答:在物像空间均为均匀透明介质的条件下,物像空间符合“点对应点、直线

光学-经典高考题

光学 经典高考题 (全国卷1)20.某人手持边长为6cm 的正方形平面镜测量身后一棵树的高度。测量时保持镜面与地面垂直,镜子与眼睛的距离为0.4m 。在某位置时,他在镜中恰好能够看到整棵树的像;然后他向前走了6.0 m ,发现用这个镜子长度的5/6就能看到整棵树的像,这棵树的高度约为 A .5.5m B .5.0m C .4.5m D .4.0m 【答案】B 【解析】如图是恰好看到树时的反射光路,由图中的三角形可得 0.4m 0.4m 6cm 眼睛距镜的距离眼睛距镜的距离 树到镜的距离镜高树高+=,即 0.4m 0.4m .06m 0+= L H 。人离树越远,视野越大,看到树所需镜面越小,同理有0.4m 6m 0.4m .05m 0++= L H ,以上两式解得L =29.6m ,H =4.5m 。 【命题意图与考点定位】平面镜的反射成像,能够正确转化为三角形求解。 (全国卷2)20.频率不同的两束单色光1和2 以相同的入射角从同一点射入一厚玻璃板后,其光路如图所示,下列说法正确的是 A . 单色光1的波长小于单色光2的波长 B . 在玻璃中单色光1的传播速度大于单色光2 的传播速度 C . 单色光1通过玻璃板所需的时间小于单色光2通过玻璃板所需的时间 D . 单色光1从玻璃到空气的全反射临界角小于单色光2从玻璃到空气的全反射临界角 答案:AD 解析:由折射光路知,1光线的折射率大,频率大,波长小,在介质中的传播速度小,产生全反射的 临界角小,AD 对,B 错。sin sin i n r = ,在玻璃种传播的距离为cos d l r =,传播速度为c v n =,所以光的传播事件为sin 2sin sin cos sin 2l d i d i t v c r r c r ===,1光线的折射角小,所经历的时间长,C 错误。 【命题意图与考点定位】平行玻璃砖的折射综合。 (新课标卷)33.[物理——选修3-4] (1)(5分)如图,一个三棱镜的截面为等腰直角?ABC ,A ∠为直角.此截面所在平面内的光线沿平行于BC 边的方向射到AB 边,进入棱镜后直接射到AC 边上,并刚好能发生全反射.该棱镜材料的折射率为 眼睛 树 的像

消费者权益保护试题

015版消费者权益保护法知识竞赛试题(附答案) 一、单项选择题 1 ?新修订的《消费者权益保护法》于(C)正式施行。 A.20RR年3月15日 B.20RR年1月1日 C.20RR年3月15日 2?消费者投诉举报电话是(B) A.12348 B.12315 C.11315 3.商品“三包”规定的内容是(A)。 A.包修、包退、包换 B.包修、包赔、包换 C.包赔、包退、包换 4?根据消费者权益保护法的规定,下列关于商品召回的说法,正确的是(A)。(《消费者权益保护法》第十九条) A.经营者应当承担消费者因商品被召回支出的必要费用 B.消费者应当承担商品被召回支出的必要费用 C.经营者在商品召回期间,可以继续销售该商品 5?根据消费者权益保护法规定,经营者提供的机动车、计算机、电视机、电冰箱、空 调器、洗衣机等耐用商品或者装饰装修等服务,消费者自接受商品或者服务之日起(B)内发现瑕疵,发生争议的,由经营者承担有关瑕疵的举证责任。(《消费者权益保护法》第二十 三条) A.3个月 B.6个月 C.12个月 6?根据消费者权益保护法规定,经营者提供的商品或者服务不符合质量要求的,没有国家规定和当事人约定的,消费者可以自收到商品之日起(C)日内退货。(《消费者权益 保护法》第二十四条)

A.五 B.六 C.七 7?消费者在甲商场购买乙公司生产的商品,发现商品质量有瑕疵,要求甲商场退货并赔偿损失。根据消费者权益保护法的规定,下列说法错误的是(C)。(《消费者权益保护法》第二十四条、第四十条) A.甲商场必须退货并赔偿消费者损失 B.甲商场可以向乙公司追偿 C.甲商场无过错 8?根据消费者权益保护法规定,经营者采用网络方式销售商品,消费者按规定无理由退货的,退货的商品应当完好。经营者应当自收到退回商品之日起(C)内返还消费者支付 的商品价款。(《消费者权益保护法》第二十R五条) A.三日 B.五日 C.七日 9?根据消费者权益保护法规定,下列关于网络购物的说法,错误的是(C)。(《消 费者权益保护法》第二十R五条) A.除特定商品外,消费者有权自收到商品之日起七日内退货,且无需说明理由 B.无理由退回商品的运费由消费者承担 C.无理由退回商品的运费由经营者承担 10.根据消费者权益保护法的规定,下列关于格式条款的说法,不正确的是(0。(《消 费者权益保护法》第二十六条) A.经营者不得以格式条款的方式做出排除或者限制消费者权利、减轻或者免除经营者责任、加重消费者责任等对消费者不公平、不合理的规定 B.经营者不得利用格式条款并借助技术手段强制交易 C.经营者在经营活动中使用格式条款的,应当以显著方式提请消费者注意与其有重大利害关系的内容,但无需按照消费者的要求予以说明 11 ?根据消费者权益保护法规定,下列店堂告示中,符合法律规定的是(C)。(《消 费者权益保护法》第二十六条)

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C.D. 5.两束不同频率的平行单色光。、从空气射入水中,发生了如图所示的折射现象(a>)。下列结论中正确的是() A.光束的频率比光束低 B.在水中的传播速度,光束比小 C.水对光束的折射率比水对光束的折射率小 D.若光束从水中射向空气,则光束的临界角比光束的临界角大 6.有一束波长为6×10-7m的单色光从空气射入某种透明介质,入射角为45°,折射角为30°,则 A.介质的折射率是 2 B.这束光在介质中传播的速度是1.5×108m/s C.这束光的频率是5×1014Hz D.这束光发生全反射的临界角是30° 7.如图所示,O1O2是半圆柱形玻璃体的对称面和纸面的交线,A、B是关于O1O2轴等距且平行的两束不同单色细光束,从玻璃体右方射出后的光路如图所示,MN是垂直于O1O2放置的光屏,沿O1O2方向不断左右移动光屏,可在屏上得到一个光斑P,根据该光路图,下列说法正确的是() A.在该玻璃体中,A光比B光的运动时间长 B.光电效应实验时,用A光比B光更容易发生 C.A光的频率比B光的频率高 D.用同一装置做双缝干涉实验时A光产生的条纹间距比B光的大 8.明代学者方以智在《阳燧倒影》中记载:“凡宝石面凸,则光成一条,有数棱则必有一

初中光学经典例题

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消费者权益保护法练习题答案

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消费者权益保护法练习题 一、单项选择题 1.《消费者权益保护法》调整的对象是下列哪项? A.消费者为生产需要购买,使用商品或接受服务时所发生的法律关系 B.各商家为经营需要而发生的购销关系 C.消费者为生活消费需要购买,使用商品或者接受服务而发生的法律关系 D.消费者为营利而进行的购销活动 2.经营者提供商品或者服务有欺诈行为的,应当按照消费者的要求增加赔偿其受到的损失,增加赔偿的金额为消费者购买商品的价款或接受服务的费用的多少倍? A.1倍 B.2倍 C.3倍 D.4倍 3.甲厂生产一种易拉罐装碳酸饮料。消费者丙从乙商场购买这种饮料后,在开启时被罐内强烈气流炸伤眼部,下列答案中最正确的是哪项? A.丙只能向乙索赔 B.丙只能向甲索赔 C.丙只能向消费者协会投诉,请其确定向谁索赔 D.丙可向甲、乙中的一个索赔 4.消费者王某在购买商品后,发现商品存在瑕疵时,下列说法正确的是哪项? A.王某只能向该商品生产者主张赔偿 B.王某可以向该商品的销售者主张赔偿 C.王某既可以向销售者要求赔偿,也可以向生产者要求赔偿 D.若销售者有证据表明该瑕疵是在销售过程中其他销售者所致,有权拒绝赔偿 5.关于《消费者权益保护法》的适用范围,下列说法正确的是()。 A.农民的消费活动不适用《消费者权益保护法》 B.农民的生活消费活动适用《消费者权益保护法》,但购买、使用直接用于农业生产的生产资料时不适用该法 C.人类的所有消费活动均适用《消费者权益保护法》 D.农民购买、使用直接用于农业生产的生产资料,参照《消费者权益保护法》执行 6.消费者对商品进行比较、鉴别和挑选的权利属于()。 A.自主选择权 B.公平交易权 C.知悉权 D.求偿权 答案: 1.C

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1. 2.光电效应方程是什么?物理意义?什么是内光电效应?什么是外光电效应?什么是红移现象? 答:E k =hν –W(v是频率,w是溢出功) 物理意义:如果入射光子的能量hν大于逸出功W,那么有些光电子在脱离金属表面后还有剩余的能量,也就是说有些光电子具有一定的动能。因为不同的电子脱离某种金属所需的功不一样,所以它们就吸收了光子的能量并从这种金属逸出之后剩余的动能也不一样。由于逸出功W 指从原子键结中移出一个电子所需的最小能量,所以如果用Ek 表示动能最大的光电子所具有的动能,那么就有下面的关系式Ek =hν - W (其中,h表示普朗克常量,ν表示入射光的频率),这个关系式通常叫做爱因斯坦光电效应方程。即:光子能量 = 移出一个电子所需的能量(逸出功)+ 被发射的电子的动能。 内光电效应:内光电效应是光电效应的一种,主要由于光量子作用,引发物质电化学性质变化。内光电效应又可分为光电导效应和光生伏特效应 外光电效应:外光电效应是指物质吸收光子并激发出自由电子的行为。当金属表面在特定的光辐照作用下,金属会吸收光子并发射电子,发射出来的电子叫做光电子。光的波长需小于某一临界值(相等于光的频率高于某一临界值)时方能发射电子,其临界值即极限频率和极限波长。临界值取决于金属材料,而发射电子的能量取决于光的波长而非光的强度,这一点无法用光的波动性解释。还有一点与光的波动性相矛盾,即光电效应的瞬时性,按波动性理论,如果入射光较弱,照射的时间要长一些,金属中的电子才能积累住足够的能量,飞出金属表面。可事实是,只要光的频率高于金属的极限频率,光的亮度无论强弱,电子的产生都几乎是瞬时的,不超过十的负九次方秒。正确的解释是光必定是由与波长有关的严格规定的能量单位(即光子或光量子)所组成。这种解释为爱因斯坦所提出。光电效应由德国物理学家赫兹于1887年发现,对发展量子理论及波粒二象性起了根本性的作用。 红移:所谓红移,最初是针对机械波而言的,即一个相对于观察者运动着的物体离的越远发出的声音越浑厚(波长比较长),相反离的越近发出的声音越尖细(波长比较短) 蓝移:蓝移(blue shift)也称蓝位移,与红移相对。在光化学中,蓝移也非正式地指浅色效应。 蓝移是一个移动的发射源在向观测者接近时,所发射的电磁波(例如光波)频率会向电磁频谱的蓝色端移动(也就是波长缩短)的现象。 这种波长改变的现象在相互间有移动现象的参考坐标系中就是一般所说的多普勒位移或是多普勒效应。 3,当两个物点刚能分辨时,其对透镜中心的张角成最小分辨角,由上图可知,它正好与艾里斑对透镜中心的张角相等,即有对某种光学仪器而言,一个物点通过其成的象斑应越小,其分辨率才越高,因此对挂 股俄一起的分辨率定义为最小分辨角的倒数,即有。为提高分辨率,可怎么控制。 答:按几何光学,物体上的一个发光点经透镜成像后得到的应是一个几何像点。而由于光的波动性,一个物点经透镜后在象平面上得到的是一个一几何像点像点为中心的衍斑。如果另一个物点也经过这个透镜成像,则在像平面上产生另一个衍射圆斑。当两个物点相距较远时,两个像斑也相距较远,此时物点是可以分辨的,若两个物点相距很近,以致两个象斑重叠而混为一体,此时两个物点就不能再分辨了。什么情况下两个像斑刚好能被分辨呢?瑞利提出了一个判据:当一个艾里斑的边缘与另一个艾里斑的中心正好重合时,此时对应的两个物点刚好能被人眼或光学仪器所分辨,这个判据称为瑞利判据。 为提高分辨率,可减小波长,增大D(出瞳直径),可浸入油浸,增大数值孔径.

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消费者权益保护法考试及答案

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