2019-2020学年河南省郑州市高一上学期期末考试英语 Word版

2019-2020学年河南省郑州市高一上学期期末考试英语 Word版
2019-2020学年河南省郑州市高一上学期期末考试英语 Word版

2019-2020学年上期期末考试

高一英语试题卷

注意事项:

本试卷分四部分,考试时间120分钟,满分150分。考生应首先阅读答题卡上的文字信息,然后在答题卡上作答,在试题卷上作答无效。

第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)

做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1. When will the next bus leave?

A. At 9:30.

B. At 10:00.

C. At 9: 35.

2. What will the boy do this afternoon?

A. Take a walk.

B. Go to the playground.

C. Borrow some books.

3. How many men teachers are there in the school?

A. 85.

B. 75.

C. 160.

4. Where does the conversation probably take place?

A. In the hotel.

B. In the street.

C. In the Old Summer Palace.

5. What is the possible relationship between the two speakers?

A. Clerk and customer.

B. Teacher and student.

C. Manager and job-hunter.

第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料,回答第6,7题。

6. How much is the blue dress?

A. 20 pounds.

B. 30 pounds.

C. 27 pounds.

7. What size dress does the woman want to buy?

A. A medium size.

B. A small size.

C. A big size.

听第7段材料,回答第8,9题。

8. What seems wrong with the woman?

A. She has a high fever.

B. Her head gets hurt.

C. She has a cold.

9. What will the man advise the woman to do?

A. Take some medicine.

B. Have a rest.

C. Work hard.

听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。

10. How does the girl like the idea of studying abroad?

A. Valuable.

B. Easy.

C. Popular.

11. Why does the boy choose China?

A. He came to China as a child.

B. He is interested in Chinese culture.

C. He hopes to make friends in China.

12. Which university will the boy probably choose?

A. Fudan University.

B. Wuhan University.

C. Peking University.

听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。

13. What are the two speakers talking about?

A. An eco-team.

B. An interesting article.

C. An environmentally friendly life.

14. What does the man always do?

A. He drives to the market.

B. He reuses old plastic bags.

C. lie eats green and healthy food.

15. How do the two speakers usually go shopping?

A. On foot.

B. By bicycle.

C. By car.

16. What does the woman suggest doing this weekend?

A. Shopping downtown.

B. Visiting some farmers.

C. Going to the market.

听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。

17. Who are the two novels mainly written for?

A. Boys.

B. Children.

C. Adults.

18. Why did the speaker's mother read a chapter of Harry Potter every night?

A. He and his brothers were too young to read.

B. His mother enjoyed reading a book to children.

C. Both he and his brothers wanted to read the book.

19. When did the speaker read Harry Potter for a second time?

A. When he grew up.

B. When he was a child.

C. When he lived with his brothers.

20. What will the speaker talk about later?

A. His recent poems.

B. Some old Latin words.

C. The life of Harry Potter.

第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)

第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

A

Popular Las Vegas Day Trips by Car

Going to Las Vegas? Here are some nearby places you can drive to while you are there.

Bonnie Springs Ranch

It is one of the best places to rent a horse and see the red canyon(峡谷). It has a large stable area where guided horseback rides are offered. And it also has a restaurant and western theme shows.

The Nevada State Railroad Museum

If you are looking for a fun day trip, the Nevada State Railroad Museum in Boulder City should be at the top of your list. If you want to see Boulder City, be sure to visit during weekends when the museum runs touring trains along the Boulder City branch line. Various presentations, lectures and child-friendly exhibits are offered from Monday to Friday.

Mount Charleston

Fresh air and silence are what you will find at the top of the state's 8th highest mountain located 40 miles northwest of Las Vegas. Mount Charleston feels a million miles away from the city. Things to do include hiking, mountain biking, camping and sightseeing. During the winter the mountains are the perfect place to play in the snow.

China Ranch

It is a hidden treasure that is way off the beaten path. Along with a gift shop and bakery, China Ranch is a great place to go hiking. It is located in the Amargosa River Valley. This area is protected as a national wild and scenic river and one of the few places where the river flows above ground. 21. What can visitors do in Bonnie Springs Ranch?

A. Play by the river.

B. Go hiking.

C. Enjoy horse riding.

D. Camp with their family.

22. When can visitors experience train rides at the Nevada State Railroad Museum?

A. On Fridays.

B. On Sundays.

C. On Mondays.

D. On Tuesdays.

23. Where can visitors buy a gift?

A. In Mount Charleston.

B. In China Ranch.

C. In Bonnie Springs Ranch.

D. In the Nevada State Railroad Museum.

B

I'm standing in a class of wild 14-year-old girls as they throw paper and howl(大声叫喊)with laughter. They won't listen to me.

I was a young girl of 22 and I didn't know what I was doing. I never wanted to teach. I wanted to be a writer. But when I arrived in London, they were short of teachers.

My efforts at teaching were hopeless. When the bell finally rang, I rushed to the staff room, red with anger. The other teachers weren't surprised. "That's 4B, the worst class in the school," one said.

I feared our next meeting, but I couldn't give up. I needed the job, so I gave up formal lessons. Instead, I brought topics for class discussions. One of the liveliest talks was about the arguments they had with their parents. They paid attention and shared about their lives. I was very interested, so I had them write about themselves. Most wrote about families with little money and big problems. As time went on, their articles became a bridge between us. I admired their humor, toughness and insight (洞察力), and I thought they appreciated my interest in their lives.

The musical My Fair Lady was playing in the West End, but they had never seen a live stage performance. I asked if they'd like to see the musical, but they thought I was joking. No teacher had ever suggested taking them out. A few weeks later, 4B and I were sitting in a theater. They loved the music, the costumes and the characters. It was the highlight of their year, and they talked about it for days.

Near the end of -the term, someone knocked on the door of the staff room. The two most rebellious(叛逆的)girls in 4B were there with flowers. I was proud to know I had touched their lives, and they had also touched mine. I enjoyed teaching and getting along with teenagers.

When I returned to Australia several years later, I still wanted to be a writer. For the first time in my life, I stopped dreaming and started writing. My first story was titled, My Fair Ladies. Teaching

wasn't the end of my writing career, but it was the beginning.

24. How were the author's students at the beginning?

A. Wild and unpleasant.

B. Rude and selfish.

C. Frightening and violent.

D. Tough and stupid.

25. What happened after the students began to write articles?

A. They had fewer arguments with their parents.

B. They gradually showed interest in their lives.

C. Their writing skills improved with the author's help.

D. The relationship between the author and her students improved.

26. What can we infer from the last two paragraphs?

A. The author has become a famous writer.

B. The author was popular with her students' parents.

C. The author's teaching experiences enriched her writing.

D. The author started to write because she was bored with teaching.

27. Which might be the best title for the passage?

A. Writing Builds Bridges

B. Happiness Needs Devotion

C. Success Depends on Dreams

D. Confidence Makes Great Changes

C

Born at a dog kennel(养狗场)in Novosibirsk, Maru was sold to a family in the Siberian city of Krasnoyarsk, 800 km away, when she was only 5 months old. However, 6 months later the kennel owner Alla Morozova received a call from the dog's owners informing her that they were allergic(过敏的)to animals and could no longer look after their pet. The contract said that in case the buyers no longer wanted a dog, they should inform Alla first, so she could make arrangements to get it back. She had someone get Maru and accompany her on a train ride back to Novosibirsk, but 200 km into the journey, something went wrong.

"The dog had a panic attack, so she was frightened," Alla told the Siberian Times. "She had been brought by her owners, but then they disappeared somewhere. The noise of the train scared(惊吓)her, so she jumped on the compartment door, kicked the handle to open it, and jumped out of the train as it was getting close to the station in Achinsk, a city between Krasnoyarsk and Novosibirsk." After hearing the news, Alla called her former owners to tell them that Maru was all alone and

scared. She asked them to help her look for the dog, but they refused. "That angered me. They gave the dog away and the load fell off their shoulders," said Alla.

But Alla wasn't about to give up on her dog. She posted messages about her online and gave out leaflets(传单)asking for information. "V olunteers found her in an industrial zone," Alla said. "The dog was very fatigued. She had walked and run for two and a half days. She was lame, and her paws were broken. I'm sure that she was looking for her house. Dogs are very attached to people," Alla added.

A friend of Alla's recently drove Maru to her kennel in Novosibirsk, where she was reunited with her mother and father. She is now undergoing treatment to recover from the suffering of walking 200 km through the Siberian wilderness.

28. What happened to Maru when she was 11 months old?

A. She was sold to another family.

B. She was allergic to her owners.

C. She was given up by her owners.

D. She was well looked after by her owners.

29. Why did Maru jump out of the train?

A. She was frightened by its noise.

B. She was driven by the conductor.

C. She was badly treated by her owners.

D. She wanted to go back to her parents.

30. The underlined word "fatigued" in Paragraph 3 probably means " ".

A. worried

B. excited

C. interested

D. tired

31. What did Alla think of Maru's former owners?

A. Merciless.

B. Selfless.

C. Stubborn.

D. Responsible.

D

Working on a farm and taking care of crops can be hot, time-consuming and difficult. Engineers have long wanted to build robots to lighten the load. But it has proved a difficult task. Robots that walk or roll along the ground can step on the easily damaged plants heavily. And they have to stop working when rain turns fields muddy. "Tarzan", however, could deal with some of those challenges.

Jonathan Rogers is a robotics expert at the Georgia Institute of Technology in Atlanta. When it comes to a farm environment, he realized robots would face many problems. "Many robots tend to get twisted(弯曲的)together or get stuck," he says. What's more, he notes, "It's very hard to leave them out for long periods without a human helping them."

What if the robot could move above the crops? Jonathan Rogers says, "The sloths(树懒)move

from tree branch to tree branch to avoid having to walk around the forest floor." Then his team set out to design a robot that could swing hand to hand along wires hung above the field. He named their invention Tarzan after the jungle-swinging character in a movie.

Tarzan is not the first swinging robot. Mark Spong, a robotics researcher at the University of Texas at Dallas notes that some teams have built robots that do gymnastics or copy mammals. But he says he admires Tarzan for its using swinging movement to save energy and the idea of building a wire structure to move around above crops.

Rogers first predicted that Tarzan could help farmers monitor crops with sensors(传感器)and cameras. But he also said future robots might take water to a particularly thirsty plant or fertilize one that needs nutritional support. And adding a third "hand" could allow such a robot to harvest fruits and vegetables. Finally the robot could move off the farm and into the city, helping deal with the traffic and security.

32. What worried the engineers when they built the farm robots?

A. They took up too much space.

B. They made the farming process slow.

C. They had difficulty exploring in fields.

D. They caused certain damage to crops.

33. What does Jonathan Rogers think about most farm robots?

A. They take much time to make.

B. They get out of date more easily.

C. They depend too much on people.

D. They get used to the environment slowly.

34. What attracts Mark Spong most about Tarzan?

A. Its strong wings.

B. Its low cost.

C. Its creative design.

D. Its powerful engine.

35. How did Jonathan Rogers feel about Tarzan's future?

A. It could be found everywhere.

B. It could be put into more practical uses.

C. It could be used to do all the farm work.

D. It could be popular with working people in cities.

第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)

根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。

When you're selling a product or service, you have two main methods to choose from. You need to decide whether you want to use the hard-sell(强行推销)method or a soft one. 36 Let's take

a look at the difference between the two to determine which one is right for your business.

Nearly every good business employs the soft-sell(软推销)method in some way. With this method, a company can encourage a customer to buy a product or service without seeming too pushy(死缠硬磨的). 37

The soft-sell method often uses promotions like money-back guarantees and free-trial periods. By promising your customers that they'll be happy with their purchase(购买), you can persuade them to give you a chance. 38 That can help your financial goals on track.

39 Choosing to sell your products or services this way will help people know that your business is reliable and easy to work with. Sometimes good word of mouth can make all the difference in how many sales you make.

The soft-sell method is generally the preferred one for most businesses, but that doesn't mean it's perfect. 40 If your competitors, employing a hard-sell method, their aggression could force customers into buying from them instead of you. A hard-sell method is typically a more aggressive way of making a sale. While some people will be turned off by a pushy method, there will always be those who give in to the pressure. So it's important to take that into consideration if you plan to rely only on the soft-sell method.

A. Both methods have advantages and disadvantages.

B. The soft-sell method will also help you win good fame.

C. A salesman tries to sell something using indirect methods.

D. Sometimes a soft method might be easily beaten by a pushy one.

E. "Soft sell" and "hard sell" are known to scholars and businessmen.

F. When you keep your promise, you earn their trust and gain repeat buyers.

G. The idea shows the good of making a purchase while putting customers at ease.

第三部分语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)

第一节完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)

阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

An 18-year-old student at Stanford University was struggling to pay his fees. Not knowing where to turn for money, he 41 a bright idea. He and a friend decided to 42 a musical concert on campus to raise money for their 43 .

They turned to the great pianist Ignacy Paderewski. His manager 44 a guaranteed fee(保证金)of $2,000 for the piano concert. A deal was 45 and the boys began to work to make the concert a 46 .

The big day arrived. But 47 , they had not managed to sell enough tickets. The total 48 was only $1,600. 49 , they went to Paderewski and explained their problem. They gave him the 50 $1,600, plus a check for the balance(余额)of $400. They promised to cash the 51 at the soonest possible. Paderewski tore up the check, 52 the $1,600 and told the two boys to 53 the money they needed for the fees. The boys were 54 , and thanked him heartedly.

It was a small act of 55 . But it clearly marked out Paderewski a 56 human being.

Why should he help the two boys he did not even know? We all 57 situations like these in our lives. And most of us only think, "If I help them, what will happen to me?" The truly 58 people think, "If I don't help them, what will happen to them?" They don't do it expecting something 59 . They do it because they feel it's the 60 thing to do.

41. A. dreamed of B. came up with C. thought highly of D. relied on

42. A. consider B. appreciate C. host D. attend

43. A. education B. performance C. income D. goal

44. A. increased B. accepted C. requested D. paid

45. A. struck B. offered C. ignored D. selected

46. A. tour B. base C. success D. style

47. A. uncertainly B. unluckily C. undoubtedly D. unreliably

48. A. fare B. value C. concert D. collection

49. A. Excited B. Shocked C. Disappointed D. Bored

50. A. equal B. entire C. rest D. extra

51. A. check B. promise C. deal D. charge

52. A. took B. counted C. raised D. returned

53. A. spend B. keep C. borrow D. earn

54. A. interested B. frightened C. amazed D. upset

55. A. mercy B. devotion C. kindness D. concern

56. A. grateful B. sincere C. confident D. generous

57. A. meet with B. respond to C. think about D. deal with

58. A. strong B. great C. faithful D. wealthy

59. A. in peace B. in relief C. in danger D. in return

60. A. important B. wonderful C. fair D. right

第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)

阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式,并将答案填写在答题卡相应的位置上。

Every culture has its own ways to show friendship. On the islands of Hawaii, friendship is part of the “aloha spirit". In the language of the Hawaiians who first 61 (settle) on the islands long ago, aloha had a very special meaning: to be with happiness.

Hawaiians believe that once somebody loves 62 land, they are ready to love their people or community. This is the second 63 (important) sign of friend-ship. It is called lokahi in the Hawaiian language, which means oneness(和谐)with all people. 64 (enjoy)the land, you should not be selfish. The land is 65 everyone who lives on it. Today many different peoples call Hawaii their home. Indeed, Hawaii is a place 66 people make one big community from many smaller 67 (community). Each person gives kokua(help) to other people so that all feel stronger. It is believed 68 the islands can be a paradise(天堂)when people live peacefully. People are told that their actions should be as gentle as the wind that blows from the sea. When problems happen, people 69 (ask) to solve them with understanding. So when the people of Hawaii talk about ohana(family), they are 70 (actual) talking about all those who live on the islands.

第四部分写作(共两节,满分35分)

第一节短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。

修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意:

1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;

2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。

When Mom was 61, she showed signs on the lung cancer. We knew something was wrong and that Mom needs a journey. She suggested a movie and a dinner. But I had another plan. Though Mom had been to the ocean only twice, but she loved the seashore. Her kitchen was decorating with souvenirs(纪念品)from those two trips. I told Mom that we would leave for Jersey Shore. Mom was very excited that she screamed. Once we got Jersey Shore, she began to enjoy the trip, greeting strangers and spending hours collected shells. The morning we left, I found her taking photos of every inch of her bedroom. Short after we returned, Mom passed away. For a long time, Mom's shells stayed in a box. I found it again while searching for something else. I put them in a familiar place as a reminder(提醒物)from a mother which never lost her sense of wonder.

第二节书面表达(满分25分)

假定你是李华,你们班计划为即将回国的美籍外教Peter举行欢送会。请用英语给他写封邮件,邀请他参加。内容包括:

1.活动时间和地点;

2.活动目的和内容;

3.期待他参加。

注意:

1.词数100左右;

2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。

Dear Peter,

Yours,

Li Hua

2019-2020学年上期期末考试

高一英语参考答案

一、选择题(1-60):

1.B

2.C

3.B

4.A

5.C

6.B

7.A

8.C

9.B 10.A 11.B 12.C 13.A 14.B 15.A 16.C 17.B 18.C 19.A 20.B 21.C 22.B 23.B 24.A 25.D 26.C 27.A 28.C 29.A 30.D 31.A 32.D 33.C 34.C 35.B 36.A 37.G 38.F 39.B 40.D 41.B 42.C 43.A 44.C 45.A 46.C 47.B 48.D 49.C 50.B 51.A 52.D 53.B 54.C 55.C 56.D

57.A 58.B 59.D 60.D

二、语言知识运用第二节(61-70):

61. settled 62. the / their 63. most important 64. To enjoy / Enjoying 65. for 66. where 67. communities 68. that 69. are asked 70. actually

三、短文改错:

When Mom was 61, she showed signs on the lung cancer. We knew something was wrong

71. of

and that Mom needs a journey. She suggested a movie and a dinner. But I had another plan.

72. needed

Though Mom had been to the ocean only twice, but she loved the seashore. Her kitchen was

73

decorating with souvenirs (纪念品) from those two trips. I told Mom that we would leave for 74. decorated

Jersey Shore. Mom was very excited that she screamed. Once we got ∧Jersey Shore, she began

75. so 76. to

to enjoy the trip, greeting strangers and spending hours collected shells. The morning we left, I

77. collecting

found her taking photos of every inch of her bedroom. Short after we returned, Mom passed away.

78. Shortly

Fo r a long time, Mom’s shells stayed in a box. I found it again while searching for something else.

79. them

I put them in a familiar place as a reminder (提醒物) from a mother which never lost her sense of

80. who/that

wonder.

(注:第73题,若把but改为yet亦可;第75题,若把that改为so / and或在that前添加so 亦可。)

四、书面表达:

Possible Version I

Dear Peter,

Knowing you will go back home soon, we plan to hold a party for you to show our respect and gratitude. I sincerely invite you to join us.

The party will be held in Room 501 at 7 p.m. this Friday. Sweet moments in your classes will be recalled by means of a short movie. I will give a speech to express our thanks on behalf of all the students and then several wonderful performances will be put on. Finally, students will have photos taken with you and present our gifts.

We would like you to spend the unforgettable evening with us. I sincerely expect your presence and I am looking forward to your early reply.

Yours,

Li Hua

Possible Version II

Dear Peter,

Learning you’re going back home soon, we’ll hold a farewell party for you. I’m writing to invite you to participate.

The party will take place in Classroom 302 this Sunday, which will last from 6 p.m. to 8 p.m. It’s aimed at expressing our gratitude for your kind help. Thanks to your help, we’ve m ade great progress in English learning. Besides, we want to deepen our friendship through the party. At the party, we’ll dance and sing together. In the end, we’ll give you gifts in return for your help. You’re expected to talk about your stay here and your plan for the future.

I’d appreciate it if you could confirm your participation at your earliest convenience.

Yours,

Li Hua

评卷细则

一、机器阅卷部分(共100分)

听力:1-20题,共20小题,每小题1.5分,共计30分。

阅读理解:21-40题,共20小题,每小题2分,共计40分。

完形填空:41-60题,共20小题,每小题1.5分,共计30分。

二、人工阅卷部分(共50分)

(一)英语知识运用第二节(语法填空)

61-70题,共10小题,每小题1.5分,共计15分。

1.单词拼写正确、形式正确,每小题给1.5分。

2.英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。

3.若只写出单词的原形,但形式不正确,不给分。

4.若单词的大、小写字母出错,不给分。

5.若书写较差以致影响评判,不给分。

6.若不在指定答题位置答题,不给分。

7.若用铅笔答题,不给分。

(二)短文改错

本题共10个小题,每小题1分,共计10分。

1.每找准一处错误,改错符号正确、答案正确、且答案写在指定的位置,给1分,不能出现给半分的现象。只允许修改10处错误,多者(从第11处起)不计分。

2.若找准错误,改错符号正确,但答案不正确,不给分。

3.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词,若与此不符,不给分。

4.若找准错误,答案正确,但改错符号不正确,或没有改错符号,或答案未写在指定的位置,不给分。

5.若单词的大、小写字母出错,不给分。

6.若一处错误用两种改错符号,不给分。

7.用文字表述答案,或不用指定符号改错,不给分。

8.凡与该题参考答案不符者,不给分。

9.用铅笔答题,不给分。

注意:

1.给分前,先确定考生改正的错误个数。若多于10处,只评前10处,从第11处起,无论考生答对与否,均不给分。

2.若考生未找够10个错误,按其改正的正确处的个数给分。

3.若考生修改的错误顺序与答案不符,但改错的数量在10个以内,按其改正的正确处的个数给分。

4.修改作答内容时,需要消除(或划掉)改错标示符号和作答内容,否则按照已经作答处理。

(三)书面表达

1.评分原则

(1)本题总分为25分,按5个档次给分。

(2)评分时,首先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。

(3)词数少于80和多于120的,从总分中减去2分。

(4)评分时,应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。

(5)拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。

(6)如果书写较差,以致影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。

(7)如果时态出错较多,从得分中扣除3-5分。

(8)用铅笔答题,不给分。

2.各档次的给分范围和要求

(1)第五档:21—25分。

完全达到了试题规定的任务,完全达到了预期的写作目的。

●覆盖所有内容要点。

●应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。

●语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂的结构或较高级词汇所致。

●具备较强的语言应用能力。

●有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。

(2)第四档:16—20分。

完全达到了试题规定的任务,达到了预期的写作目的。

●虽漏掉1、2个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容。

●应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。

●语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂的语法结构或词汇所致。

●应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。

(3)第三档:11—15分。

基本完成了试题规定的任务,整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。

●虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。

●应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。

●有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。

●应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文内容连贯。

(4)第二档:6—10分。

未恰当完成试题规定的任务,信息未能清楚地传达给读者。

●漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关的内容。

●语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。

●有一些语法结构方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解。

●较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。

(5)第一档:1—5分。

未完成试题规定的任务,信息未能传达给读者。

●明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求。

●语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。

●有较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解。

●缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。

(6)0分

未能传达给读者任何信息:内容太少,无法评判;写的内容均与所要求的内容无关或所写内容无法看清。

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