2020年北京市朝阳区初三一模英语试卷 含答案

2020年北京市朝阳区初三一模英语试卷 含答案
2020年北京市朝阳区初三一模英语试卷 含答案

北京市朝阳区九年级综合练习(一)

英 语 试 卷 2020. 5 学校 班级 姓名 考号

考 生 须 知

1. 本试卷共12页,满分120分,考试时间120分钟。

2. 在试卷和答题卡上准确填写学校名称、班级、姓名和考号。

3. 试题答案一律填涂或书写在答题卡上,在试卷上作答无效。

4. 在答题卡上,选择题用2B 铅笔作答,其他试题用黑色字迹签字笔作答。

5. 考试结束,请将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 听力理解(共30分) 一、听对话,从下面各题所给的A 、B 、C 三幅图片中选择与对话内容相符的图片。每段对话你将听两遍。(共5分,每小题1分) A. B. C. A. B. C. A. B. C. A. B. C.

1. 2.

3.

4.

5.

A. B. C.

A. B. C.

二、听对话或独白,根据对话或独白的内容,从下面各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选择

最佳选项。每段对话或独白你将听两遍。(共15分,每小题1.5分)

请听一段对话,完成第6至第7小题。

6. Where is the man going?

A. Eastern Bank.

B. National Library.

C. Holiday Hotel.

7. Which bus will he take?

A. Bus No. 12.

B. Bus No. 15.

C. Bus No. 18.

请听一段对话,完成第8至第9小题。

8. What’s Jane busy with?

A. Her summer camp.

B. Her plan for a trip.

C. Her final exam.

9. What does Jane think of going camping?

A. It’s cheap.

B. It’s not safe.

C. I t’s close to nature.

请听一段对话,完成第10至第11小题。

10. Where are the two speakers?

A. In a restaurant.

B. In a bank.

C. In a post office.

11. How much should the man pay?

A. $2.

B. $3.

C. $5.

请听一段对话,完成第12至第13小题。

12. What’s the boy’s first problem?

A. His pronunciation is poor.

B. He forgets a lot of new words.

C. He can’t follow his English teacher.

13. What can help the boy to understand the teacher?

A. Seeing English movies.

B. Joining an English club.

C. Listening to more tapes.

请听一段独白,完成第14至第15小题。

14. Why do many westerners like to talk about their families?

A. Because they marry at an early age.

B. Because they are proud of their large families.

C. Because their family relations are very close.

15. Which is the safest way to start a conversation about westerners’ families?

A. Judging by the rings they wear.

B. Asking some general questions.

C. Listening to what they say carefully.

三、听独白,记录关键信息。独白你将听两遍。(共10分,每小题2分)

请根据所听到的独白内容和提示词语,将所缺的关键信息填写在答题卡的相应位置上。

知识运用(共25分)

四、单项填空(共10分,每小题1分)

从下面各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选择可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

21. —When do you usually get up on weekends, Lucy?

— _______ eight o’clock in the morning.

A. On

B. In

C. For

D. At

22.Nancy is a good student. She studies hard _______ she also likes to help others.

A. and

B. so

C. but

D. or

23. Which is __________, traveling by air or by train?

A. popular

B. more popular

C. most popular

D. the most popular

24. Is there _______ useful on science? I’m looking for information about this topic.

A. everything

B. something

C. anything

D. nothing

25. — May I put my car here?

— No, you _______. Put it over there, please.

A. mustn’t

B. needn’t

C. shouldn’t

D. wouldn’t

26.— We don’t have enough meat in the fri dge.

— I _______ some more in the supermarket soon.

A. buy

B. will buy

C. bought

D. have bought

27. Mr. Black is our English teacher. He ______ in our school since 2011.

A. teaches

B. is teaching

C. taught

D. has taught

28.My mother always wants me _______ more vegetables for dinner.

A. eat

B. eating

C. eaten

D. to eat

29. My sister ______ to the party yesterday. She had a good time with her friends.

A. invites

B. invited

C. was invited

D. is invited

30. — Excuse me, could you tell me ______?

— My name is Kate Green.

A. what is your name

B. what was your name

C. what your name is

D. what your name was

五、完形填空(共15分,每小题1.5分)

阅读下面的短文,掌握其大意,然后从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选择最佳选项。

During summer vacations, I would volunteer at the pet rescue (救助) centre, so I could see a lot of dogs. Minnie was the funniest-looking dog I'd ever seen by far. Her body looked like a sausage. Her hair was too thin to 31 her body. Her eyes always seemed surprised, and her tail was so short that it looked like a rat’s tail.

She looked so strange that her 32 didn’t want her any more. She was brought to the centre. But I thought, “Minnie was kind and sweet. No one should laugh at her strange looking.”So I gave Minnie a good bath and 33 her in the newspaper: “Funny-looking dog, kind and sweet, needs loving 34 .”

Later, a boy called me, but I warned him that Minnie was 35 . However, the boy told me that his grandfather’s sixteen-year-old dog had just died. They wanted to keep Minnie very much. Hearing these words, I said that they could take Minnie away. I combed (梳) her hair, and gave her a good bath. Then we waited for them to arrive.

At last, an old car stopped in front of the pet rescue centre. Two kids 36 to the door. They put Minnie into their arms and rushed out to their grandfather, who was waiting in the car. I hurried behind them to see his reaction (反应).

Inside the car, the grandfather put Minnie in his arms and 37 her soft hair. She looked very relaxed and happy. “She’s perfect, and I like her!” the old man said. I was 38 that Minnie had found a good owner. Just at that time, I saw that the grandfather’s eyes were a milky white color—he was blind.

After that summer vacation, I missed Minnie so much. So I went back to the grandfather’s house. The grandfather was walking in the garden with Minnie 39 the way. I could see both of them were happy. “Minnie is the most beautiful dog in my eyes,” said the grandfather, “I’ve 40 felt happier before!” Hearing this, I was pretty happy!

31. A. hide B. warm C. protect D. cover

32. A. owner B. leader C. teacher D. partner

33. A. introduced B. reported C. praised D. advertised

34. A. school B. family C. hospital D. zoo

35. A. sick B. dirty C. ugly D. dangerous

36. A. jumped B. stepped C. walked D. raced

37. A. tidied B. cleaned C. touched D. pulled

38. A. peaceful B. thankful C. careful D. powerful

39. A. leading B. taking C. giving D. making

40. A. just B. ever C. never D. still

阅读理解(共50分)

六、阅读下列短文,根据短文内容,从短文后各题所给的A 、B 、C 、D 四个选项中,选择最

佳选项。(共30分,每小题2分)

A

How to reach us:

Email: rdaeditor@https://www.360docs.net/doc/5d13211807.html,

41. What does the first advertisement ask us to do?

A. To send in some jokes.

B. To share our pets.

C. To talk about kindness.

D. To tell a true story.

Jokes

$50—$100 Got a joke? Send it in for Laughter Is the Best Medicine . Smart Animals Up to $100 Share unusual behavior of pets or wild animals in up to 300 words. Kindness of Strangers

Up to $150

Share your moments of kindness in

100-500 words.

My Story $350 Do you have a life-changing story to tell? What you write must be true and 800—1000 words.

42. Which of the four advertisements offers the most money?

A. Jokes.

B. Smart Animals.

C. Kindness of Strangers.

D. My Story.

43. How can we send our writing in?

A. By phone.

B. By post.

C. By email.

D. By going there.

B

Spam (垃圾邮件) mail is a fact of Internet life. Some of it carries bad things, but the main problem with spam is that it is unpleasant because it fills your mail box with pointless messages.

Most email programs have built-in filters (过滤器) that will discover unwanted messages and put them into a junk folder (垃圾文件夹). You can make the filter learn what you consider to be spam or block certain senders.

Avoid letting your email address appear on websites—spammers search the Internet for email addresses. Be careful who you give your email address to, and if you need to send out several copies of an email, use blind copy instead to cover the other people’s addresses.

Delete (删除) spam emails without opening them. Signs of possible spam are bad spelling in email headers, strange sender addresses, or emails sent at unusual hours. If you do open a spam mail, never reply to it or click on any pictures it may have.

If you receive an unexpected email pretending (伪装) to come from your bank, credit card company or other suppliers, be very careful. If the email asks you to reply, don’t do it! Instead, call up these places or visit their websites.

Consider setting up a second email address and keep one address for your personal use and another for your online communication.

44. What is the main problem with spam?

A. It’s everywhere.

B. It carries bad things.

C. It’s unpleasant.

D. It fills one’s mail box.

45. How many suggestions are there in the passage?

A. Three.

B. Four.

C. Five.

D. Six.

46. What should you do if you receive a spam email?

A. Reply to it quickly.

B. Delete it at once.

C. Click its pictures.

D. Visit its website.

47. Which of the following is the writer’s idea about spam emails?

A. Be careful with them.

B. Don’t be afraid of them.

C. Find interest in them.

D. Try to fight against them.

C

Where did that number come from?

Eleven and Twelve

The reason behind the change in number naming is that eleven comes from the German term ainlif, which translates to “one left”. Twelve follows the same rule. It comes from twalif—“two left”. Why teen is used instead of lif for 13 through 19? There is something sadly lost in history.

911 for US Emergency (急救) Calls

Early phones didn’t use phone numbers—the operator had to connect your call by hand—and this led to the need for an emergency code (信号). But later phone numbers became popular, that changed. In 1967, 911 was chosen as the nationwide emergency call because it was easy to remember and could be quickly dialed (拨) on the phone.

26.2 Miles in a Marathon (马拉松)

The story began with an ancient Greek soldier carrying message from a battlefield (战场) in Marathon to Athens. The modern marathon was born as a flagship event in the first Olympic Games, in 1896, with a distance (距离) of about 25 miles (40 km), as long as the distance from Marathon to Athens. But race organizers for the 1908 Olympic Games in London wanted to add something special. The race began at Windsor Castle and ended at White City Stadium, with runners finishing only after passing the royal (皇室的) box. The distance was 26.2 miles (42.1 km). And since 1924 this distance has been kept in marathon.

28 Days in February

Before using the Gregorian calendar that we use today, one of the first Roman calendars had only 304 days and ten months (March through December), with six months of 30 days and four of 31 days. The second king of Rome improved the old calendar. He added 50 days for January and February. To make the new months longer, he took one day from each of the 30-day months, making 56 days to divide between January and February (or 28 days each). Later January was given one more day to add up to 355 days a year, but February still had 28 days. That’s how it became the shortest month and it stayed that way ever since.

48. Which language do eleven and twelve come from?

A. English.

B. German.

C. French.

D. Russian.

49. When was the number 911 chosen for US emergency calls?

A. In 1896.

B. In 1908.

C. In 1924.

D. In 1967.

50. The marathon distance was made longer at London Olympic Games because ______.

A. the British was a little weak in maths

B. the British didn’t like the Greek story

C. the British loved the royal family very much

D. the British wanted to make the race different

51. How many days were there in each month after the king improved the old calendar?

A. 28, 29 or 31.

B. 28, 30 or 31.

C. 28, 29 or 30.

D. 29, 30 or 31.

D

“T he world has never been a better place to live in” says science writer Matt Ridley, “and it will keep on getting better.”Read on to see how Ridley makes his case. Right or wrong? You decide.

Compared with 50 years ago, when I was just four years old, people now make nearly three times as much money, eat one third more food and expect to live one third longer. In fact, it’s hard to find any areas of the world that’s worse off now than it was then, even though the world population has more than doubled over that period.

One reason we are richer, healthier, taller, cleverer, longer-lived and freer than ever before is that the four most basic human needs—food, clothing, fuel and shelter—have grown much cheaper. Take one example: In 1800, a candle providing one hour’s light cost six hours’ work. In the 1880s, the same light from a lamp took 15 minutes’work to pay for. In 1950, it was eight seconds. Today, it’s half a second. In these terms, we are 43,200 times better off than in1800.

In the United States, rivers, lakes, seas and air are getting cleaner all the time. A car today produces less pollution traveling at full speed than a parked car did from leaks (泄漏) in 1970.

Although the world population is growing, the rate (率) of increase has been falling for 50 years. Across the world, national birth rates are lower now than in 1960, and in the less developed world, the birth rate has almost halved. According to a research report from the United Nations, population will start falling once it reaches 9.2 billion in 2075. After all, there are already seven billion people on earth, and they are eating better and better.

In 1970s, there were 550 billion barrels (桶) of oil reserves (储存) in the world, and in the 20 years that followed the world used up 600 billion. So by 1990, reserves should have been overused by 50 billion barrels. Instead, it is reported there are 900 billion today. They will last for many years and people will find something in place of oil long before they run out.

The more we develop, the more we can develop. The more we invent, the more inventions become possible. For 200 years, pessimists (people who believe that terrible things will happen in future) have had all the headlines—even though optimists have far more often been right. There are some reasons for pessimists. No charity (慈善机构) ever raised money by saying things are

getting better. No journalist ever got the front page writing a story about how terrible things won’t happen. Don’t be a pessimist—dare to be an optimist!

52. Today, providing one hour’s light costs ______.

A. 6 hours’ work

B. 15 minutes’ work

C. 8 seconds’ work

D. 0.5 second’s work

53. Which of the following is true, according to the passage?

A. Things we used to need were much cheaper than they are today.

B. The pollution today is much more serious than it was long ago.

C. Population problem has nearly made the world stop developing.

D. It’s not necessary to be worried about oil reserves in the world.

54. What does the word “optimists” in the last paragraph mean?

A. People who are brave enough to face anything terrible.

B. People who can always tell good things from bad ones.

C. People who have hopeful and happy feelings about life.

D. People who don’t easily believe what they’re told about.

55. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?

A. Never Give Up

B. Cheer Up

C. Don’t Be Sad

D. Think Out

七、阅读短文,根据短文内容,从短文后的五个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。每

个选项只能用一次。(共10分,每小题2分)

Kevin Pearce, snowboard athlete (运动员), has come a long way since his accident on December 31, 2009. 56 ,when he fell and hurt his head. Luckily, he was wearing a helmet (头盔). 57 . He stay ed in hospital for four months. He still can’t remember several weeks of his life after the accident.

Today, Pearce is still working hard to get his health back to 100%. 58 . A year ago, he couldn’t walk straight. Now, he can not only walk, but he can also drive again.

Pearce says he must thank his fans, his friends and especially his family. His parents and elder brothers have been by his side since the accident. 59 . He said he couldn’t have got well so quickly without them.

These days, Pearce is back on the snowboarding circuit (巡回比赛). 60 . He is on

the road again and it is a new beginning for him.

八、阅读短文, 根据短文内容回答问题。(共10分,每小题2分)

Why is Denmark the “kingdom of fairy tales”? Because it was the home of famous writer Hans Christian Andersen. But there might be other reasons, says a new study.

Denmark is the happiest country in the world, according to the 2020 World Happiness Report by the United Nations (UN). The report ranks(排列)156 countries and regions (地区). All the top five happiest countries are from Europe, and three of them are from Scandinavia.

What makes people there happy? The UN considered several reasons.

Money is one. We are happy if we have money to cover our necessities. But extra (额外的) money cannot bring us more happiness. People in Northern Europe know this. From cars to mobile phones, from clothes to buildings, their designs are quite simple. Luxury (奢华) is not there.

Another reason is health. Nordic (北欧的) people have a healthy diet. They love fresh food. “There is not a big fast-food culture and no ready meals. We sit down with our families to eat our meals,” said Trina Hahnemann, a Danish cook.

A harmonious (和谐的) social life also makes us happy, according to the UN report. How about Nordic people? They live in harmony not only with people around, but also with nature. Night life is not popular in Scandinavia. People go home after work for some quality(高品质的)time with family members. Many families have a backyard. Father and child spend hours there

each week, planting flowers and building swings.

Do you want to be happy? Think about the Nordic lifestyle, and happiness is in your own hands.

61. Where does Hans Christian Andersen come from?

62. How many countries of the top five happiest countries are from Scandinavia?

63. Do Nordic people love fresh food or ready meals?

64. What can make people happy according to the passage?

65. What does the writer want to tell us?

书面表达(15分)

九、文段表达 (15分)

根据中文和英文提示,写一封意思连贯、符合逻辑、不少于50词的回信。信的开头和结尾已给出,其词数不计入所完成的回信内。所给英文提示词语仅供选用。请不要写出你的校名和姓名。

66.假设你叫李华,最近和英国朋友Jim通过邮件谈论各自的梦想,他想了解

你的职业梦想。请根据他的问题回复邮件。

提示词语:want to be, reason, think, work hard

·What’s your dream?

·Why do you have that dream?

·What will you do to realize your dream?

To Jim

From Li Hua

Subject My dream

Hi! Jim,

I’m glad to hear from you.______________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________ Yours,

Li Hua

北京市朝阳区九年级综合练习(一)

英语试卷答案及评分参考2020.5

听力理解(共30分)

一、听对话选图(共5分,每小题1分)

1. B

2. C

3. A

4. B

5. A

二、听对话或独白选择答案(共15分,每小题1.5分)

6. B

7. A

8. C

9. B 10. A 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. C 15. B

三、听独白记录关键信息(共10分,每小题2分)

16. school 17. 9:30 18. 20 19. card 20. mothers

知识运用(共25分)

四、单项填空(共10分,每小题1分)

21. D 22. A 23. B 24. C 25. A 26. B 27. D 28. D 29. C 30. C

五、完形填空(共15分,每小题1.5分)

31. D 32. A 33. D 34. B 35.C 36. D 37. C 38. B 39. A 40.C

阅读理解(共50分)

六、阅读短文,选择最佳选项。(共30分,每小题2分)

(A)41. A 42. D 43. C

(B)44. C 45. C 46. B 47. A

(C)48. B 49. D 50. D 51. A

(D)52. D 53. D 54. C 55. B

七、阅读短文,还原句子。(共10分,每小题2分)

56. D 57. C 58. A 59. B 60. E

八、阅读短文,回答问题。(共10分,每小题2分)

61. Denmark.

62. 3.

63. They love fresh food.

64. Money, health and a harmonious social life can make people happy.

65. Nordic lifestyle brings us happiness and happiness is in our own hands.

书面表达(15分)

九、文段表达 (15分)

66. One possible version:

Everyone has his own dream. I want to be a good doctor. The reason is that some doctors saved my life after I was badly hurt in a traffic accident. I was deeply moved by their medical skills. From then on, to be a doctor in the future has always been my dream.

Everyone can realize his dream. I think the first thing I will do is to remember what my dream is. I won’t let it leave my mind. I will also keep telling myself what I want every day. What’s m ore, I will never give up. Though there may be difficulties on the road to my dream, I will always feel confident and work hard.

评分标准

一、选择题答错或不答均不给分。

二、第三大题(听独白记录关键信息),大小写错误不扣分;拼写错误不给分。第20小题

mother拼写正确给1分。

三、第八大题(阅读短文,回答问题), 内容和结构都正确给2分;内容正确,结构不正确,

给1分;内容不正确不给分。

四、第九大题(文段表达),先根据文章整体内容和语言表达确定档次,然后在该档次内评出

分数。具体评分标准如下:

第一档:(15~13分)

完全符合题目要求,观点正确,要点齐全。句式多样,词汇丰富。语言准确,语意

连贯,表达清楚,具有逻辑性。

第二档:(12~9分)

基本符合题目要求,观点正确,要点齐全。语法结构和词汇基本满足文章需要。语

言基本通顺,语意基本连贯,表达基本清楚。虽然有少量语言错误,但不影响整体

理解。

第三档:(8~5分)

部分内容符合题目要求,要点不齐全。语法结构和词汇错误较多,语言不通顺,表

达不够清楚,影响整体理解。

第四档:(4~0分)

与题目有关内容不多,只是简单拼凑提示词语,所写内容难以理解。

听力原文:

北京市朝阳区2020年九年级综合练习(一)英语听力测试现在开始。听力测试共有三道大题,请同学们利用间歇时间答题。

一、听对话,从下面各题所给的A、B、C三幅图片中选择与对话内容相符的图片。每段对

话你将听两遍。

1. W: What’s your favourite fruit, Mike?

M: Apples.

2. W: I can’t find my pen. Have you seen it?

M: Look, it’s on the desk.

3. W: Jack, what do you do after school?

M: I usually play tennis with my friends.

4. W: Which season do you like best?

M: Spring. Because I like flying kites.

5. W: When is Christmas Day, Jim?

M: It’s on December 25th.

二、听对话或独白,根据对话或独白的内容,从下面各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选择

最佳选项。每段对话或独白你将听两遍。

请听一段对话,完成第6至第7小题。

M: Excuse me, which is the way to the National Library?

W: The National Library? It's a bit far from here. You'd better take a bus there.

M: Which bus shall I take?

W: You can take the No. 12 bus.

M: Thanks.

W: You’re welcome.

请听一段对话,完成第8至第9小题。

M: Hello, Jane. How are you these days?

W: Hi, Tom. I’m busy with my final exam.

M: I see. It’s normal that we are busy at the end of the term.

W: Yes. By the way, I’d like to travel to Mount Wuyi for my vacation. But I’m afraid the hotels will be very expensive.

M: What about camping there? It’s cheaper, and closer to nature.

W: Er, it’s not safe enough, I think.

请听一段对话,完成第10至第11小题。

W: What can I get you?

M: I’d like a hot dog, please.

W: OK. Anything else?

M: Can I have a bottle of orange juice, please?

W: Sure. Here’s your hot dog and juice.

M: Thanks. How much are they?

W: $3 for juice and $2 for hot dog, please.

M: OK. Here’s the money.

W: Thank you.

请听一段对话,完成第12至第13小题。

W: Hello! This is English-help Center. Can I help you?

M: Yes. I have some problems with English.

W: What are your problems?

M: First, I can’t get the pronunciation right.

W: Take it easy. Why not join an English club to practice speaking English?

M: OK, I’ll try it. Also I can’t understand the teacher when she talks to the class.

W: Listening to more tapes will help you a lot. Remembering the words of English songs also helps a little.

M: Thank you very much.

W: You’re welcome. I hope your English will improve soon.

请听一段独白,完成第14至第15小题。

Hello, everyone! I’d like to say something about westerners. Many westerners often talk about their families when they meet. They have very close relations so they like to talk about their families. However, it doesn’t mean that every foreigner over 25 or 30 is married and has children. Some westerners never marry at all, and others marry quite late. So before asking questions about their families, look at people’s hands to see if they are wearing a ring and which finger the ring is on. But some married women and men may not wear rings. So when you start a conversation with

either men or women about the family, it is much safer to use more general questions such as “Do you have a large family?”“Is your family with you here?”.

三、听独白,根据所听到的独白内容和卡片上的提示词语,将所缺的关键信息填写在答题

卡的相应位置上。独白你将听两遍。

Good morning! Here is good news for you. The swimming pool next to our school is open tomorrow. The opening time is from 8:00 am to 9:30 pm. It costs 20 yuan to enter the pool. There is a special price—10 yuan, but you must bring your student card with you. You are not allowed to go there every day. On Mondays the pool is only open to mothers and babies, so they can enjoy a quiet time in the water. Please choose the right time if you go.

Thank you for listening.

听力测试到此结束,请同学们继续完成其它试题。

朝阳区初三数学一模试题及答案版

朝阳区初三数学一模试题 及答案版 Updated by Jack on December 25,2020 at 10:00 am

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C. A book. B. A magaz ine. C. In November. B. I n February. C. Some ink. B. A pen cil. B. In a post office. C. At a ticket office. B. She visited her sister. C. She watched a football game. C. A book. A 、B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。 5秒钟的时间阅读每小题。听完后,每小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或 后, 例: A. A n ewspaper. 答案是A 。 1. When does the rainy seas on start? A. In Janu ary. 2. What does the woma n n eed? A. A pen. 3. Where are the two speakers? A. In a supermarket. 4. What did the woma n do last ni ght? A. She saw a movie. 5. What are the two speakers talking about? A. Networks. B. Holidays. 第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,共15分) 听下面4段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几道小题,从每题所给的 听每段对话或独白前,你将有 独白你将听两遍。 听第6段材料,回答第6至7题。 6. Which of the followi ng is the lost girl? 30分) 节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,共7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一道小题,从每题所给的 A 、B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话 你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话你将听一遍。 What is the man going to read? 第一部分:听力理解(共三节, 第士 北京市朝阳区2016年高三一模试卷 英语试卷 2016. 4 本试卷共12页,共150分。考试时长120分钟。考生务必将答案答在答题卡上,在试卷上作答无效。考试结 束 后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 7. What does the man ask the woma n to do? A. Look for the girl by herself. B. Stay at the front of the store. 听第7段材料,回答第8至9题。 8. Why does the man call the compa ny? A. To give advice on the job. B. To express prefere nee for the job. 9. What is the duty of a marketi ng assista nt? A. Travelli ng around in the first six mon ths. B. Doing market research in differe nt cities. C. Collect ing in formatio n and writ ing reports. 听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。 10. What does the speaker suggest competitors do at first? A. Set up a team. B. Choose a topic. 11. What prize can the first-prize winners get? A. Notebook computers. B. Digital cameras. 12. When can the competitors get the result? A. On May 30th. B. On August 15th. 听第9段材料,回答第13至15题。 13. Why does the man take part in the race? A. He is in poor health. B. He is con fide nt of his stre ngth. 14. What does the man think of the young people no wadays? A. They don't get much exercise. B. They seldom watch games on TV. 15. What does the man suggest the woma n do? G C. Go back to the vegetable sect ion. C. To ask for in formati on about the job. C. Register for the competiti on. C. A trip to Australia. C. On October 1st C. He is setting an example for others. C. They love all kinds of popular sports.

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北京市朝阳区2018 年初中毕业考试 知识运用(共40 分) 一、单项填空(共24 分,每小题2 分) 从下列各题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中,选择可以 填入空白处的最佳选项。 1. a . . 5 . A. I B. C. D. 2. 8:00 . A. B. C. D. 3. — , , ? — 's . A. B. C. D. 4. , I . A. B. C D. 5. . . A. B. C. D. 6. — ? — . A. B. C. D. 7. I . A. B. C. D. 8. — ? — a . A. B. C D. 9. . , a , . A. B. C. D. 1 / 15

10 . A. ’t B. ’t C. ’t D. ’t 11 . A. B. C. D. 12. —? — . A. B. C. D. 二、完形填空(共16 分,每小题2 分) 2 / 15

通读下面的短文,掌握其大意,然后从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中,选择最佳选项。 I 12 , I a ! I . I 13 . 14 . I 15 . , ’t I . , . ! I I 16 ’ I I . I , 17 I . I a , I ’t . , I 18 a (生锈的) . a 19 , ’t . I a . 's 20 . , a ’t , . 13. A. B. C. D. 14. A. B. C. D. 15. A. B. C. D. 16. A. B. C. D. 17. A. B. C. D. 18. A. B. C. D. 19. A. B. C. D. 20. A. B. C. D. 阅读理解(共45 分) 三、阅读下列短文,根据短文内容,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、 D 四个选项中,选择最佳选 项。(共30 分,每小题2 分) A ? ’s a . 3 / 15

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北京市朝阳区九年级综合练习(一) 数 学 试 卷 2013.5 学校 姓名 准考证号 一、选择题(本题共32分,每小题4分) 下面各题均有四个选项,其中只有一个..是符合题意的. 1.-3的倒数是 A .13 B .1 3 - C . 3 D .-3 2.“厉行勤俭节约,反对铺张浪费”势在必行.最新统计数据显示,中国每年浪费食物总量折合为粮食大约是200000000人一年的口粮.将200000000用科学记数法表示为 A .8210? B .9210? C .90.210? D .72010? 3. 若一个正多边形的一个外角是72°,则这个正多边形的边数是 A .10 B .9 C .8 D .5 4.如图,AB ∥CD ,E 是AB 上一点,EF 平分∠BEC 交CD 于点F ,若∠BEF =70°,则∠C 的度数是 A .70° B .55° C .45° D .40° 5.掷一枚质地均匀的正方体骰子,骰子的六个面上分别刻有1到6的点数,掷得面朝上 的点数大于4的概率为 A .61 B .31 C .41 D .2 1 6.把方程2630x x ++=化成()2 x n m +=的形式,正确的结果为 A .()2 36x += B .()2 36x -= C .()2 312x += D .()2 633x +=

7.某校春季运动会上,小刚和其他16名同学参加了百米预赛,成绩各不相同,小刚已经知道了自己的成绩,如果只取前8名参加决赛,他想知道自己能否进入决赛,还需要知道所有参加预赛同学成绩的 A . 平均数 B . 众数 C . 中位数 D . 方差 8.如图,将一张三角形纸片ABC 折叠,使点A 落在BC 边上,折痕EF ∥BC ,得到△EFG ;再继续将纸片沿△BEG 的对称轴EM 折叠,依照上述做法,再将△CFG 折叠,最终得到矩形EMNF ,折叠后的△EMG 和△FNG 的面积分别为1和2,则△ABC 的面积为 A . 6 B . 9 C . 12 D . 18 二、填空题(本题共16分,每小题4分) 9.在函数1 2 y x =+中,自变量x 的取值范围是 . 10.分解因式:3m m -= . 11.如图,AB 为⊙O 的弦,半径OC ⊥AB 于点D ,AB =32, ∠B =30°,则△AOC 的周长为 . 12. 在平面直角坐标系xOy 中,动点P 从原点O 出发,每次向上平移1个单位长度或向右 平移2个单位长度,在上一次平移的基础上进行下一次平移.例如第1次平移后可能到达的点是(0,1)、(2,0),第2次平移后可能到达的点是(0,2)、(2,1)、(4,0),第3次平移后可能到达的点是(0,3)、(2,2)、(4,1)、(6,0),依此类推…….我们记第1次平移后可能到达的所有点的横、纵坐标之和为l 1,l 1=3;第2次平移后可能到达的所有点的横、纵坐标之和为l 2,l 2=9;第3次平移后可能到达的所有点的横、纵坐标之和为l 3,l 3=18;按照这样的规律,l 4= ; l n = (用含n 的式子表示,n 是正整数).

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