湖南省2020-2021学年高二英语10月联考试题

湖南省怀化市2020-2021学年高二英语10月联考试题本试卷共8页。全卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。

注意事项：

1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。

2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。

3.考试结束后，将本试题和答题卡一并交回。

第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分)

第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

例: How much is the shirt?

A.￡19.15.

B.￡9.18.

C.￡9.15.

答案是C。

1. What are the two speakers talking about?

A. A film.

B. A sports star.

C. A film star.

2. What is Ken doing?

A. Reading English.

B. Talking on the phone.

C. Chatting by QQ.

3. What did the woman think of the film?

A. Boring.

B. Great.

C. Just so so.

4. When will the speaker return the book?

A. Next Monday.

B. This Sunday.

C. This Saturday.

5. Why did the man apologize?

A. He lost the dictionary.

B. He forgot to bring the dictionary.

C. He didn't tell Mr Smith to bring the dictionary.

第二节(共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。

6. Where does the conversation possibly take place?

A. At the phone box.

B. At the supermarket.

C. At the office.

7. What is Gary's phone number?

A. 2772601.

B. 2776201.

C. 2770126.

听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。

8. What are they going to buy?

A. Postcards.

B. Books.

C. Kites.

9. Which one are they going to buy most probably?

A. The one with the dogs.

B. The one with the boats.

C. The one with the lake and the swans.

10. What is the name of the man speaker?

A. Peter.

B. Nancy.

C. Michael.

听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。

11. What's wrong with Miss Flower?

A. She is ill.

B. She is busy.

C. She is out of work.

12. Where is Miss Flower?

A. In the office.

B. At home.

C. In hospital.

13. What is the possible relationship between the speakers?

A. Doctor and patient.

B. Father and daughter.

C. Boss and secretary. 听第9段材料.回答第14至16题。

14. What have they been doing together?

A. Going for a walk.

B. Going sightseeing.

C. Doing good deeds.

15. What can we learn about the woman?

A. She is new here.

B. She is a stranger to the man.

C. She is a girl different from others.

16. What can we learn about the man?

A. He doesn't live here.

B. He knows the city well.

C. He is funny.

听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。

17. Where does the car driver meet the young man?

A. At a hotel.

B. At a bus station.

C. At a railway station.

18. What's the weather like when the story happens?

A. Cloudy.

B. Rainy.

C. Cold.

19. How much will the young man give the driver?

A. 3 dollars.

B. 13 dollars.

C. 15 dollars.

20. What can we know about the talk

A. The young man was fooled twice.

B. The other car driver was honest.

C. The hotel was far from the railway station.

第二部分阅读(共两节，满分50分)

第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C、和D)中，选出最佳选项。

A

Point Reyes

At Point Reyes you will find trails, historic buildings and visitor centers where visitors can enjoy all aspects of the unique area. Visitors can enjoy camping, hiking and biking. Point Reyes National Park also features the Point Reyes Lighthouse and visitor center, and at the visitor center you can learn all about the lighthouse(灯塔)and for the very adventurous tourists a trip down the 308 stairs to the lighthouse is a great option.

Big Sur

Big Sur is a region in California with many wonders to offer visitors. The Los Padres National Forest is an excellent destination for hiking. Throughout the forest there are many trails, including trails allowing visitors to walk along the coastline. In addition, Big Sur is also a fantastic destination for wildlife viewing. This region is one of the few places where the majestic bird can be seen.

Yosemite National Park

Located in central California, Yosemite National Park is an amazing destination for recreational enthusiasts, especially rock climbers. Climbers travel from around the world to take on the challenges presented at Yosemite. There are many other recreational activities to enjoy, including biking, hiking, backpacking and many more. Yosemite Valley has a wide range of attractive sights, and waterfalls.

Joshua Tree National Park

Located in southeastern California, Joshua Tree has some amazing sites to see. There are many nature trails, hiking trails, as well as options for mountain biking and rock climbing. Visitors to Joshua Tree can enjoy the beautiful desert ecosystem. At Joshua Tree you can look into the dense star clouds of the Milky Way, and see clearly. These star clouds are especially dense and bright to the south near the horizon.

21. How do tourists visit the Point Reyes Lighthouse?

A. By bike.

B. On foot.

C. By air.

D. By boat.

22. What can tourists do in Big Sur?

A. Enjoy historic buildings.

B. Hunt birds.

C. See the sea.

D. Climb rocks.

23. Where can you go if you'd like to experience the desert ecosystem?

A. Point Reyes.

B. Big Sur.

C. Yosemite National Park.

D. Joshua Tree National Park.

B

In my life, I make it a rule to avoid using plastic bottles. So when I was invited to visit Sri Lanka for two weeks, I wondered how I could go without using them.

First, I got prepared for the worst. I brought a water bottle that can convert any water from lakes, streams, or hotel taps into clean drinking water through a filter(过滤器). Next, I bought a package of Aquatabs that help purify the water. And I also packed two other water bottles.

When I got to the first hotel, I discovered that there was a large drinking water machine in the main hallway. The guide told us at the initial meeting that we could expect it in many places. However, I became less delighted when he told me later that

many of the hotels bring out the cooler just when we arrive because they know we want to see it. Some will hide it the rest of the time because they'll be able to make money off the sale of small plastic water bottles in the rooms.

This led to my next strategy. If there was no cooler available to the public, I'd ask the hotel staff to refill my bottle whenever I was at a meal. Sure enough, they did, although they usually asked first if I wanted a bottle of water. I could find they weren't pleased by my requests, but they did it anyway. These requests are what drive the broader behavioral changes that we need very much in order to shake single-use culture. Imagine if every single traveler asked for their water bottles to be filled from cooler; I bet the hotel would have one installed the next day.

I ended up not using the filter bottle until I got stuck at Delhi airport for

24 hours, my flight back to Toronto delayed by heavy fog. In the hotel room, I filtered tap water before drinking and was grateful to have that option. I never needed the Aquatabs, but they'll keep until my next camping or backpacking trip.

24. What did the author worry about before visiting Sri Lanka?

A. He might suffer from the terrible weather.

B. He might carry more water during his travel.

C. He migh一have no access to clean drinking water.

D. He might spend more money in buying water bottles.

25. What does the underlined word “convert” in Paragraph 2 probably mean?

A. Fill.

B. Transform.

C. Acquire.

D. Boil.

26. What was the hotel staff's response to the author's requests?

A. Uncertain.

B. Uncomfortable.

C. Unbelievable.

D. Unwilling.

27. What does the author want to say in the last paragraph?

A. He didn't have a good time.

B. He didn't use any water bottles.

C. He didn't enjoy drinking tap water.

D. He didn't feel satisfied with his travel.

C

Spend some time watching flamingos(火烈鸟)and you might think that not much goes on in their tiny heads.

But these elegant birds actually lead complex social lives. Each bird has certain other individuals it prefers to spend time with, and others it avoids. In other words, flamingos have friends.

For five years, Rose and his team observed the daily goings-on of five of the world's six different flamingo species housed at the WWT Slimbridge Wetland Centre in Gloucestershire.

“The partnerships that we see between birds are n on-random. The birds are choosing who to associate with.” Male-female pairs spend time together, but so do same-sex pairs and even groups of three or four. And those relationships can last for many years.

"So there were some flamingos in the group that really didn't care who their partner was for that day, they would flit(轻快地掠过)around and they would have many different relationships with many different birds.” And of course there were other flamingos that were less social butterfly and more alone wolf. But even they had a few close friends. “Those birds that were least social had more investment in a smaller number of social connection with flamingos that they knew really well.”

Rose thinks that flamingos may have evolved(演变)their social lives due to their wetland habitats-in which the resources they need are concentrated in a small area.

If flamingos know their partners, if they know that these six birds, say, are friendly, and they get on with them, they can then waste less energy scrapping and quarreling with other birds that they don't get on with.

By spending time with their friends, flamingos can more efficiently direct their limited time and energy to activities like hunting and mating.

28. What do we know about flamingos?

A. They are very elegant birds with big heads.

B. They make friends with other flamingos they like.

C. Male flamingos only spend time with female ones.

D. They usually change partners every couple of months.

29. What can we learn from the fifth paragraph?

A. Most flamingos don't care who their partner is.

B. Flamingos always don't have close friends.

C. A majority of flamingos are good at social activities.

D. Some flamingos would fly around to find different friends.

30. How do social activities benefit flamingos?

A. By storing food resources.

B. By living a relaxing life.

C. By flying further to get mating.

D. By making the best of their time and energy.

31. What is the best title for the text?

A. Flamingos Can Be Picky About Company

B. Rose And His Research on Wildlife

C. How to Protect the Endangered Flamingos

D. Why do Flamingos Need Partners

D

As the commercialization of 5G accelerates in China, more companies are exploring what smart cities will look like in the 5G times.

US chip giant Intel Corp, for instance, is teaming up with partners such as China Unicorn to build a 5G smart park in Nanjing, to offer a peek into the future of such smart cities.

The future smart city must be data-centric(以数据为中心)and intelligently interconnected. So how to better capture, transmit, store and analyze data will be the center of the future.

Intel's advantages can be found in its hardware and software solutions which can meet demands of multiple scenarios(多情景分析). The company will be devoted to opening cooperation, creating an innovative ecology and working with partners to create an intelligent future.

The company's project, the Future Technological Smart Center in Nanjing, aims to gather a wide range of domestic and foreign partners around artificial intelligence, internet of things, 5G, cloud computing and other technological innovations to explore what future cities will look like.

Intel said the Nanjing project is designed to build industry benchmarks, implement excellent solutions, and offer experience for the construction of smart cities and parks in the Yangtze River Delta region and even the entire country.

A Deloitte report said that China has already included the smart city initiative

in its national strategy and made significant investments in these projects.

Both first-tier cities and small and medium-sized cities are home to smart city projects. The nation has formed many smart city groups across the eastern and southern coastal areas of China, Deloitte said.

Deloitte senior partner Ma Jionglin said in an earlier interview that China is one of the most active countries in the world in building smart cities. With advances in urban management and the increasing emphasis on the work and lifestyle of people, smart cities will be entering a new stage of development.

32. Why is the US Intel company mentioned?

A. To show Intel is a high technical company.

B. To accelerate 5G commercialization in China.

C. To offer a peek into the future of such smart cities.

D. To prove many companies are exploring 5G smart cities.

33. How will Intel Corp create an intelligent future?

A. Through intelligent interconnection.

B. Through the help of foreign partners.

C. Through teamwork and innovative ecology.

D. Through advanced hardware and software technology.

34. What's Ma Jionglin's attitude towards building smart cities in China?

A. Negative.

B. Positive.

C. Critical.

D. Indifferent.

35. What is the text mainly about?

A. The construction process of smart cities.

B. Intel's exploration to build smart cities in China.

C. Chinese national strategy and investments on smart cities.

D. China's leading role in building 5G technology in the world.

第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Many people often find themselves waking up in the middle of the night, unusually awake and excited. Tossing and turning in bed, they are unable to fall asleep. That's

really frustrating. However, there is no need to worry. 36 .

Remain in bed. For you to fall asleep, your heart rate needs to slow down. When you get up, your heart rate goes up. So, avoid going to the bathroom during the night

if you can. Do not eat too little or too much for dinner. Do not drink and fill your bladder(膀胱)before bed. 37 . It may make you fall asleep faster, but it may also disrupt your sleep later in the night.

Stay in the dark. When you cannot sleep, LED lights on printers and cable boxes may be the reason. The same is true for light streaming in through cracks in curtains.

38 . You should cover lights with tape and wear a sleep mask. A popular choice has deep eye cups so your eyes can open and shut while you wear them.

Quiet your mind. Try ways to relax, such as deep breathing, meditation, and mindfulness exercises. 39 . The point is to keep your brain busy with something that is not demanding and is relaxing.

40 . If your wake-up time is 6:30 a. m. and your clock reads 3:00 a. m., do not think Oh no! I have only three hours left! Instead, say to yourself, Oh great!

I have three more hours to sleep!

You have a problem if you wake three times a week for more than three months.

It may affect your quality of life. You need to find a sleep expert who can help identify the cause and fix it.

A. Think in a positive way

B. Keep a calm attitude

C. They may keep you awake

D. Most importantly, avoid drinking in the evening

E. You can do simple math problems in your head

F. Getting up to do some mild exercise is also helpful

G. Here are some effective ways to help you fall asleep again

第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分30分)

第一节 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)

阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的

最佳选项。

As we all know, washing our hands helps stop the spread of illnesses. It seems so 41 , but it took one doctor, many experiments and a lot of opposition before the 42 was accepted.

In 1846, Ignaz Semmelweis was working in a 43 in Vienna. He saw many women dying of a particular type of fever and he wanted to figure out the 44 . So Dr. Semmelweis began experimenting by 45 two groups of women-one with male doctors and medical students 46 their babies and the other with women midwives(产婆)doing that.

It 47 that more women were dying in the ward with the male doctors and medical students. Semmelweis then conducted experiments with 48 conditions, none of which produced any changes in the 49.He tried getting the mothers in the doctors' wards to deliver babies and 50 mental stress and worry, but there were no changes.

51 , Semmelweis discovered one key difference: The doctors and medical students were performing other 52 while the midwives were just there to help deliver babies. Semmelweis then 53 his doctors to wash their hands after completing them and the number of 54 in their wards went down!

Nowadays, no one 55 that handwashing is one of the best things to do for staying healthy and stopping the spread of disease.

41. A. funny B. simple C. crazy D. possible

42. A. program B. notice C. practice D. challenge

43. A. hospital B. school C. company D. restaurant

44. A. story B. trouble C. event D. cause

45. A. comparing B. describing C. grading D. combining

46. A. greeting B. catching C. delivering D. rocking

47. A. came out B. turned out C. got out D. moved out

48. A. necessary B. severe C. available D. different

49. A. care B. cure C. result D. budget

50. A. reduce B. escape C. refuse D. attack

51. A. Clearly B. Luckily C. Gradually D. Finally

52. A. steps B. tasks C. actions D. chances

53. A. warned B. forced C. required D. reminded

54. A. injuries B. accidents C. patients D. deaths

55. A. doubts B. expects C. imagines D. thinks

第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)

阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。

Yuanxiang, a university director in Hubei province, said the university organized

a special online jo

b fair 56 began on March 3 and will run through the 31st, with 587 companies 57 (offer) more than 41, 000 positions to graduates of the university.

On March 18, five universities launched 58 online recruitment(招聘)event to expand job-hunting channels.

The event 59 (attract)1,171 companies and organizations in the 60 (field)of transportation, communication, construction and the internet since the launch.

The Ministry of Education has encouraged graduates 61 (pursue)higher education, join the military, find jobs or start businesses in departments including modern agriculture and public 62 (society) services.

The ministry launched a 24-hour online campus recruitment service 63 late February to help graduates find jobs during the epidemic.

Lin Congyu, senior vice-president of Perfect World Company, said they plan to hire more than 100 college graduates during the spring hiring season, 64 (main)in the gaming and online education sectors(行业).

As the online education sector witnesses rapid 65 (grow)during the epidemic, the company needs more talents with good communication skills and love for students.

第四部分写作(共两节，满分40分)

第一节(满分15分)

上周末，你和同学去生态农场参加了一次采摘活动。请你为班级英语角写一篇英语短文，介绍这次活动，内容包括：

1.农场情况；

2.采摘过程；

3.个人感受。

注意：

1.词数80左右；

2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。

My Weekend

第二节(满分25分)

阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。

I'm an English self-learner, but English is not my first language. Today I am an English teacher. I would like to say that failures are not disastrous. Have faith, keep moving on, and never give up hope, and you will see your hard work pay off.

I was a slow learner when I was little. Before five, I couldn't even speak in full sentences. Unlike most other children, I seldom interacted with others; I neither cried nor threw tantrums. My extreme quietness made my parents wonder if I was mentally slow, but they were not sure. Actually, I have to confess that my memories of my early childhood are quite unclear.

My learning problems were the result of my mother taking some medicine when she became pregnant with me. Although I was born without any physical defects(缺陷), the medicine did affect my early intellectual development. When I was in elementary school, I learned very slowly and was as quiet as a doll. While my teacher was teaching, my mind often wandered outside the classroom to the playground. As a fifth grader, I finally started interacting with my classmates. That was the first time in my memory that I had some friends.

After heading at full speed for my junior high education, my learning situation got stuck in the mud again. In my country, students entering junior high school had to take an IQ test. It was a test for schools to evaluate students’learning abilities so that they could arrange them into different levels of classes based on their IQ test scores. I was placed in the “bottom class” as a result of my below-average IQ score. Most of my teachers taught us using easy and slow methods because they considered us incapable of learning much. However, I never wanted to lose faith that I might one day succeed. To prove that when God closes a door, He will definitely

open up a big window, a miracle occurred. That's when I discovered a strong passion for English.

注意：

1.续写词数应为150左右；

2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

At the age of 13, I found myself deeply interested in English.

My story proves everyone has the ability to learn.