2017年广州市花都区中考一模英语试题

2017年广州市花都区中考一模英语试题
2017年广州市花都区中考一模英语试题

花都区2017学年第二学期九年级调研测试

英语试题

(时间:120 分钟;总分:110 分)

一、语法选择(共5 15 题, , 每小题1 1 分, ,共共 5 15 分)

从阅读下面短文,按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求,从1 1~15 各题所给出的A A 、B B 、C C 、D D 项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

Tom brought a box of biscuits to a summer camp. He ate a few and 1 the rest under his bed. After lunch, he found that the box 2 . He went to tell his camp coach 3 it.

The next day, the coach saw a boy 4 Tom’s biscuits behind a tree. Then, he came up with

5 idea to solve the problem. He found Tom and said to him, “I know

6 took away your biscuits. Will you

7 me teach him a lesson?”

“Well, yes…are you going to punish 8 , sir?”Tom asked. “No, I am not,”the coach explained 9 . “That would only make him 10 you. I 11 you to write to your mother and ask for more biscuits.”

Tom received another box of biscuits by mailing 12 his mother a few days later. “Now,”said the coach, “go and share them with the boy who stole your biscuits.”Tom didn’t understand why the coach asked him to do this, 13 he still followed his suggestion.

Half an hour later the coach saw the two boys come up the hill, arm in arm. The boy was trying

to ask Tom to take his toy robot in payment ( 赔偿) for the stolen biscuits. At the same time, Tom was refusing the gift from his new friend. He said that a few biscuits 14 not so important.

In some situations, forgiveness( 原谅) is 15 than punishment.

1. A. puts B. putting C. put D. was put

2. A. was stolen B. stole C. steals D. is stolen

3. A. about B. in C. to D. for

4. A. ate B. eats C. eating D. was eaten

5. A. a B. an C. / D. the

6. A. what B. when C. that D. who

7. A. help B. helps C. helped D. helping

8. A. he B. him C. his D. himself

9. A. patiently B. patient C. more patient D. more patiently

10. A. hates B. hated C. to hate D. hate

11. A. wants B. wanting C. want D. wanted

12. A. on B. from C. for D. by

13. A. and B. so C. but D. or

14. A. is B. was C. are D. were

15. A. good B. well C. best D. better

二、完形填空(共共0 10 题, , 每小题1 15 .5 分, ,共共0 10 分)

从阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从16~25 各题所给的A A 、B B 、C C 、D D 项中选出最佳选项,

并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

When the meeting was over, Bob stood up and knocked on the table, spilling( 洒) his coffee

everywhere. "How embarrassing!" Everyone laughed, and soon we were all telling stories of our most embarrassing moments. It came around to Frank who sat 16 listening to the others. Frank began slowly," I 17 up in San Pedro. My Dad was a 18 , and he loved the sea.

But it was a 19 work. Most of the time he would have to stay out until he caught enough to feed his big 20 —not just my mother and me, but also for his parents and the other relatives." Frank continued, “Every time he drove me to 21 , he would kiss me. It was so 22 for me. I was twelve years old! ”

“I remember the day I thought I was too old for a good-bye kiss. When we reached school, he tried to 23 me as usual, but I stopped him and said,' No, Dad. I'm too old for a kiss ' It was the

first time I had ever talked to him that way, and he had a 24 looked on his face.

My Dad looked at me for the longest time, and his eyes started to tear up. I had never seen him cry. He said,“You are a big boy now. I won't kiss you anymore.'"

For the moment, tears began to run down Frank's face. "It wasn't long after that when my Dad went to sea and 25 came back. You don't know what I would give to have my Dad give me just one more kiss.”

16.A. quietly B. proudly C. angrily D. slowly

17.A. cleaned B. woke C. gave D. grew

18.A. sailor B. worker C. fisherman D. doctor

19.A.funny B. hard C. new D. popular

20.A. house B. family C. car D. bag

21.A. school B. office C. work D. shopping

22.A. happy B. exciting C. lucky D. embarrassing

23.A. kiss B. hold C. look at D. talk to

24.A. happy B. surprised C. friendly D. strict

25.A. always B. suddenly C. never D. sometimes

三、阅读(共两节,满分 5 45 分)

第一节阅读理解(共共2 20 0 题, , 每小题2 2 分, , 共4 40 0 分)

从阅读下列短文,从26~45 各题所给的A A 、B B 、C C 、D D 项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该

项涂黑。

(A)

Mr. Swales was talking about what people did all day. He also wanted to find out what his students wanted to be when they grew up. He called on Billy Mitzer first.

"My daddy works in a bank," Billy Mitzer said. "I guess I want to work in a bank too. There's lots of money in the bank."

"My parents have a store, but I want to be an airline pilot." Emmy DiSalvo said.

He was about to call on Jodie when the girls in the back row burst out laughing.

Shirley yelled, "Jodie's Daddy is a garbageman(垃圾清理员)! Pee-yoo!"

Everybody in the class laughed out loud. Everybody except Jodie, that was. She felt her face

turn bright red. She looked around the whole classroom. Everyone was laughing. Some kids were even holding their noses.

"It's not funny," Mr. Swales went on. "Garbage is a serious matter. I think you should all

apologize to Jodie. And after that, you're all going to write Jodie's father, Mr. Harris, a nice letter to

tell him how much you are grateful for what he does for all of us. In other words, keeping our city clean."

Jodie started crying out in the hall. She didn't want to cry in front of everybody, but she

couldn't hold back any more. Mr. Swales came to comfort her, "I'm sorry this happened," he said. "But remember, hard work done well is something to be proud of. There's nothing wrong with being

a garbageman, absolutely not."

Then he added, "Although garbage is…dirty, every day garbegemen collect the dirty and

smelly garbage and throw it in the truck. Then everything's nice and clean. Isn’t that something we

should be proud of?"

Hearing this, Jodie swept the tears in her eyes and a smiled appeared on her face. “I get it, Mr. Swale.”Then she went back to the class and said proudly.

"My dad is a garbageman!" she said, "Everybody makes garbage, but my Daddy takes it all away."

26. Why did Jodie cry out in the hall?

A. Because her teacher laughed at her.

B. Because her father's work was very hard.

C. Because the classroom was too noisy.

D. Because her classmates laughed at her father.

27. How did Mr. Swales advise the students to apologize to Jodie’s father?

A. By sending him an e-mail.

B. By writing him a letter.

C. By giving him a call.

D. By making him a gift.

28. In what order did the events take place?

a. Jodie stopped crying and smiled.

b. Mr. Swales asked his students about their dream jobs.

c. Jodie's classmates made jokes about her father’s job.

d. Jodie felt embarrassed and started crying.

e. Mr. Swales went to comfort Jodie.

A. b-d-e-c-a

B. b-c-d-e-a

C. c-b-e-a-d

D. d-c-b-a-e

29. What do you think of Mr. Swales?

A. Wise

B. Brave

C. Active

D. Hard-working

30. What can be inferred from this passage?

A. No pain, no gain.

B. Where there is a will, there is a way.

C. Work has no difference in itself.

D. Love me, love my dog.

B

How does it feel for a foreigner to become famous in China? The 22-year-old Kazakh singer Dimash Kudaibergenov, who recently becomes famous in China, may be the best person to provide the

answer.

Dimash Kudaibergenov was born in a family of singers in May, 1994. Then he entered the

entertainment business officially in 2010. He was the winner of the Grand Prix Salvic Bazaar 2015 in Vitebsk in Russia. Dimash rose to fame in January when he first took part in “Singer 2017”, a singing

competition TV show in China. Before he sang, his handsome outlook was the focus. But when he opened his mouth, he won the hearts of all the Chinese audience.

Before he came to China, one of his three wishes was to see pandas. And that came true last Sunday when he was named the ambassador( 大使) for “I'm in China”in Chengdu in Southwest China’s Sichuan province, the first stop of the “I'm in China”program.

His other two wishes were taking part in the TV show and meeting Jackie Chan. Now all three wishes have come true. But that’s not all. He even got a chance to feed pandas, received a gift from

Jackie Chan and became a household name after the singing contest.

“I am grateful that the visit to Chengdu provided me a chance of close contact with pandas. I hope I can travel across China to see its different landscapes,”said Dimash. “I love China! I’m in

China.”

Apart from feeding pandas, Dimash was also invited to savor Sichuan hotpot, a famous local dish, and visit Wide and Narrow Alley. During the tour he said he was inspired by the tour and plans

to hold a concert in Chengdu, a hometown of many Chinese pop stars and winners of talent shows. “The Kazakh people are very fond of Chinese culture, and I think people here will also enjoy our Kazakh culture.”He added.

31. How old was Dimash when he won the Grand Prix Salvic Bazaar 2015 in Vitebsk in Russia?

A. 20 years old.

B. 21 years old.

C. 22 years old.

D. 23 years old

32. Which of the following is Not Dimash's wish?

A. To see pandas.

B. To visit Wide and Narrow Alley.

C. To meet Jackie Chan.

D. To take part in the TV show.

33. The underlined word “household”in Paragraph 4 means __________.

A. popular

B. active

C. lively

D. usual

34. What is true about Dimash?

A. Chinese audience loved his outlook more.

B. He is planning to hold a concert in Chengdu.

C. His three wishes were not achieved yet.

D. He produced the “I'm in China”program.

35. From the passage, what did Dimash think of China?

A. He liked Chengdu best in China.

B. He thought Kazakh culture was better.

C. He enjoyed his trip in China.

D. He thought Chinese culture was better.

C

36. What's the best title for this passage?

A. Say no to bullying.

B. Behaviors of bullying.

C. Ways to help those who get bullied.

D. Cyber bullying.

37.How many behaviors of bullying are mentioned in the passage?

A. 6.

B. 7.

C. 8.

D. 9.

38. Which of the following is about cyber bullying?

A. Tom always takes away other people's books without permission.

B. Jane posted Mary's photo on the Internet without asking her.

C. Kevin doesn't allow Ben to join in their football game.

D. Jerry often makes jokes about people around him.

39. Who is not the right person to ask for help when you get bullied?

A. A parent.

B. A teacher.

C. A friend.

D. A stranger.

40. What is the purpose of the passage?

A. To tell students the differences between bullying and cyber bullying.

B. To encourage students to fight against cyber bullying outside school.

C. To let parents know how to protect their children from getting bullied.

D. To tell students what bullying is and how to deal with bullying.

D

About thirty years ago, China was known as the “Bicycle Kingdom”. But the two-wheeled transports were soon replaced by their fuel-powered competitors ( 对手).

Recently, normal bikes are seen across China, with an increasing number of people choosing riding instead of driving to schools, to workplace or to go sightseeing. The introduction of

bike-sharing plan, led by new companies, like Ofo and Mobike, has brought the heat to a new level.

According to the research made the first week of this year, there were about 5.85 million users

of Mobike while Ofo had 1.4 million users. People can unlock the shared bikes by using their Smartphones. The bikes are set with GPS and can be left anywhere in public for the next user. They

are popular among many Chinese people as they provide an effective way to the“last mile”problem,

which means the final part of a person’s journey. “In places where the underground cannot reach, where it’s difficult to change from one kind of transport to another, it’s so easy to get where you want to go with Mobike,”Hu Hong, 29, told AFP. She rides to her Shanghai Company every day. However, the plans also have some problems, such as illegal( 违法) parking, damage and stealing. Last month, two nurses in Beijing were caught by policemen for five days for putting locks

on two shared bikes. And in December, a man who stole a shared bike was put in prison for 3 months and had to pay 1,000 yuan.

Now, Chinese service runners are trying to solve these problems. For example, Mobike sets a

100-point score for each user. Points will be taken away when bad behavior happens. Once a score drops below 80, the price of renting a bike will rise to 100 yuan per 30 minutes, up from 0.5-1 yuan.

41. What makes shared bikes different from normal ones?

A. They can be seen everywhere in China.

B. They can be unlocked by Smartphones.

C. They can be used to go sightseeing.

D. They can be ridden to workplaces.

42. The underlined word "they" in Paragraph 3 refers to _________.

A. Smartphones

B. GPS

C. The bikes

D. People

43. Why were the two nurses caught by policemen?

A.They stole a shared bike.

B. They locked the shared bikes.

C. They took the bikes home.

D. They lost the bikes.

44. Which of the following is NOT the problem of the bike-sharing plan?

A. Users always destroy the bikes.

B. Users park the bikes everywhere.

C. The bikes are sometimes stolen.

D. The number of bikes is increasing.

45. Peter's score is 60 now. If he wants to rent a Mobike for 1 hour, how much should he pay for it?

A. 100

B. 150

C. 200

D. 300

第二节阅读填空(共 5 小题;每小题1 分,满分5 分)

阅读短文及文后A~E 选项,选出可以填入46~50 各题空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

In Thailand, people do not eat with chopsticks, like in China, Japan, and Korea. They use

spoons and forks. 46.______________ Most food is already cut. If you need to cut things, use the side of your spoon first and then use your fork. 47._______________ If you are right-handed, keep

the spoon in your right hand and the fork in your left hand.

48.________________ The rice is not on the same plate with the other food. It is not necessary

to finish all your rice or all your food. It is good to leave a little on your plate. If you eat anything, it

means you want more.

49.________________ The host (主人)will ask you two or three times if you want more food. It is the same with whatever you are drinking. During the meal, never empty your cup or glass. When it is less than half full, your host or neighbor will fill it again. 50._______________ Always refill(再加满)your neighbor’s glass. This means that you must keep an eye on your neighbor’s

glass all through the meal.

A.They never use knives.

B.Never fill your own glass.

C.People always offer you more food.

D.The spoon is more important than the fork.

E.People usually have rice in a different bowl.

四、写作(共三节,满分5 35 分)

第一节单词拼写(共 6 6 小题;每小题1 1 分,满分 6 6 分)

,根据下列句子及所给单词的首字母写出所缺单词。在填写答卷时,要求写出完整单词。(每

空限填一词)

51. She likes drawing, so she often draws pictures in her s_______ time.

52. We must stop people from cutting down trees because our Earth is in d_______.

53. My birthday is coming. I want to i_______ some of my friends to my birthday party.

54. Don’t run so f________! I can’t catch up with you.

55. Please don’t w________ about Jim. He can take good care of himself.

56. Travelling a_______ the world is popular nowadays because people can enjoy different views in foreign countries.

第二节完成句子(共7 7 小题;每小题2 2 分,满分 4 14 分)

根据所给的汉语内容,用英语完成下列句子。(每空限填一词)

57 . 多激动人心的电影啊!这是我看过的最好的电影之一。

_______ _______ _______ movie! This is one of the best movies I’ve ever seen.

58. 雨太大了,我们不能出去玩。还是呆在家里吧!

The rain is _______ heavy for us _______ play outside. We’d better stay at home.

59. 读书很重要。你每周花多长时间读书呢?

Reading is very important. _______ _______ do you _______ _______ books each week?

60. 去年植树节,孩子们种了很多树。

Last year, a lot of trees ________ ________ by the children on Tree-planting Day.

61. 现在交通非常繁忙,我不知道他们什么时候才能到达广州。

The traffic is very heavy now. I don’know _______ _______ ________ _________ in Guangzhou.

62. 学好英语对你来说是一件很有用的事。

_______ very _______ for you _______ _______ English well.

63. Peter 是非常开朗的男孩。他可以和班上的每个同学都成为好朋友。

Peter is a very out-going boy. He can _______ _______ _______ everyone in his class.

第三节书面表达(共 1 题,满分15 分)

建设平安校园是我们每个人的责任与义务。作为一名学生,我们应该珍惜自己的生命,

更应该注意自己的人身安全。假如你是学校的学生会主席 Li Hua ,请你就安全问题,向全校

学生发出倡议,写一封安全倡议书。

内容提示:1. 禁止携带危险物品;

2. 不得打架斗殴;

3. 上学途中遵守交通规则;

4. 远离坏人,晚上不在外逗留;

5. 其他…

注意:1. 参考词汇:紧急情况(emergency))

2. 词数0 80 字左右(文章开头已给出,不计入总词数);

3. 不得透露学校、姓名等任何个人信息,否则不予评分。

Dear students,

As we know, safety is the most important thing in our lives.

___________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________ Yours,

Li Hua

2016 学学年第二学期花都区九年级调研测试试

英语参考答案

。一、语法选择。(15 小题,每小题1 分,共15 分)

1-5: CAACB 6-10: DABAD 11-15: CBCDD

二、完形填空。(10 小题,每小题1.5 分,共15 分)

16-20: ADCBB 21-25: ADABC

三、阅读(共两节,满分45 分)

第一节阅读理解。(20 小题,每小题2 分,共40 分)

26-30: DBBAC 31-35: BBABC 36-40: ADBDD 41-45: BCBDC

第二节阅读填空(5 小题,每小题1 分,共5 分)

46-50:ADECB

三、写作(三节共35 分)

第一节根据给出的首字母补全单词,使句子的意思完整。(6 小题,每小题1 分,共6 分)评分原则:写出了单词的基本词根,并且是正确的则给0.5 分。注意词根必须正确,且写出来的单词也是可在字典中查找到的。

51. spare

52. danger (dangerous 给0.5;单词拼错则不给分,其余答案均不给分)

53. invite (invitation、inviting、invited 给0.5;单词拼错则不给分,其余答案均不给分)

54. fast(其余答案均不给分)

55. worry (worried, worries, worrying 给0.5; 单词拼错则不给分,其余答案均不给分)

56. around (其余答案均不给分)

第二节。完成句子。(7 小题,每小题2 分,共14 分)

57. What an exciting (写对What 1 分,小写得0.5 分;an 0.5 分;exciting 0.5 分,写成excited

不得分)

58. too, to(每空1 分)

59. How long spend reading/on(每空0.5 分)

60. were planted (were 写成be 动词的其他形式得0.5 分;planted 写成plant 的其他形式得0.5 分,如plant, plants, planting)

1

61. when they will\can arrive(每空0.5 分)

62. It’s, useful to learn/study(每空0.5 分)

63. make friends with (写对make 0.5 分,其他形式不给分;friends 1 分,friend 0.5 分;with 0.5 分)

第三节书面表达(共 1 题,满分15 分)

Dear students,

As we know, safety is the most important thing in our lives. So, we should try our best to make sure we are safe. Here are some tips to help keep us safe.

First of all, we mustn’t bring dangerous things to school, such as knives, lighters and so on, because they may hurt other people. Second, we can’t fight with our classmates or quarrel with them. Instead, we should get on well with them. Third, it’s very necessary for us to obey the traffic rules on our way to school or we may have accidents. Finally, we all should stay away from bad people and never stay outside alone at night.

All in all, I think it is very important for us to keep safe. When we meet an emergency, we

can turn to our parents or teachers for help. If everyone can follow the rules, I’m sure all of us can live in peace.

Yours,

Li Hua

【必备】广东省2017年中考英语真题试题(含答案)

2017年广东省初中生毕业考试 英语 一、听力理解(本大题为A、B、C、D四部分,共25小题,每题1分,共25分) A. 听单句话(本题有5小题,每小题1分,共5分) 根据所听句子的内容和所提问题,选择符合题意的图画回答问题,并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑,每小题听一遍。 1. What time did jenny have breakfast this morning? A B C 2. How tall is Amy? A B C 3. Where is Jane going to meet her friend? A B C 4. Which is Mark’s favorite su bject? A B C 5. What is Sarah doing? A B C

B. 听对话(本题有10小题,每小题1分,共10分) 根据所听内容,回答每段对话后面的问题,在每小题所给出的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案,并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每段对话听两遍。 听第一段对话,回答第6小题。 6. What’s the problem with George’s homework? A. Spelling mistakes. B. Grammar mistakes. C. Awful handwriting. 听第二段对话,回答第7小题。 7. What is the boy going to do tomorrow afternoon? A. Play basketball B. play football. C. Play volleyball. 听第三段对话,回答第8小题。 8. How much is one tea set with eight cups? A. 40 yuan. B. 160 yuan. C. 200 yuan. 听第四段对话,回答第9小题。 9. How does the woman like the city? A. She is not used to the weather there. B. She thinks the traffic there is very good. C. She likes the shopping environment there. 听第五段对话,回答第10小题。 10. Why is the girl going to the bookstore tomorrow? A. She wants to spend time there reading. B. Some of the books there will be cheaper. C. Her father will be free and drive her there. 听第六段对话,回答第11-12小题。 11. Where does the conversation take place? A. At a dining hall B. At a restaurant. C. At a noodle factory 12. What place does the woman prefer? A. A table by the window. B. A table in the smoking area. C. A table near the non-smoking area. 听第七段对话,回答第13-15小题。 13. How did the man book the room? A. On the phone B. On the Internet C. From a tourist office. 14. For how many nights is the man going to stay? A. One night B. Three nights. C. Four nights. 15. What does the man ask for? A. His ID card. B. Another 150 yuan. C. A room facing the sea. C. 听独白(本题有5小题,每小题1分,共5分) 请根据所听内容,在每小题所给的三个选项中,选出一个能完成句子的最佳答案,并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑,独白听两遍。 16. ____________ was the first to arrive at the camp. A. Tony B. David C. the leader 17. The weather was ______________ on that day. A. cool B. warm C. hot 18. The campers went to the beach _____________. A. in the morning B. in the afternoon C.in the evening 19. The skill Tony liked most was how to _____________. A. get away from snakes B. deal with wild dogs C. tell the time 20. Tony didn’t take the drumming lesson because _______________. A. he was sleepy B. he didn’t C. he had to make his bed D. 听填信息(本小题有5小题,每小题1分,共5分) 你将听到的是一篇关于将熊猫运送到荷兰(the Netherlands)的短文。请根据所听内容填写下面的

2017年广州市中考英语模拟试题(二)

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