合肥庐阳区45中二模英语试卷分析
安徽省合肥市庐阳区45中学2024届中考英语模拟试题含答案
安徽省合肥市庐阳区45中学2024届中考英语模拟试题含答案请考生注意：1．请用2B铅笔将选择题答案涂填在答题纸相应位置上，请用0．5毫米及以上黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔将主观题的答案写在答题纸相应的答题区内。
写在试题卷、草稿纸上均无效。
2．答题前，认真阅读答题纸上的《注意事项》，按规定答题。
Ⅰ. 单项选择1、—I come back to school before 10 o'clock?— No, you needn't.A．Must B．Can C．May D．Should2、— Lucy, thanks for your suggestions. They are valuable.—You’re welcome. I’m glad I can help you.A．enough B．rich C．useful3、— I always get nervous when I start a(n) _______ with others.—Take it easy. Believe in yourself.A．expression B．introductionC．communication D．celebration4、The strategies that they came up with at the meeting ________________ fine.A．was worked out B．work out C．working out D．works out5、I study five days ____________ week and on Sundays I often play ____________ football.A．/；the B．the；the C．the；a D．a；/6、Tony is a basketball player. He is ____ in our class.A．tall B．taller C．tallest D．the tallest7、—I visited the Reed Flute Cave in Guilin last weekend.—________ Why didn’t you tell me earlier?A．Y ou did? B．I hope so. C．Have a good time. D．That’s all right.8、_____ along the street, and you can find the hotel on your right, next to the market.A．Walk B．To walk C．Walking D．Walked9、—May I go to the zoo with you next Sunday?—No, you can’t, you have a ticket. I have only one ticket.A．if B．until C．or D．unless10、—Lisa, don’t let ______ in. I’m too busy to see ______ all the morning. —OK. I ______.A．anybody ; nobody ; will B．anybody ; anybody ; won’tC．nobody ; somebody ; don’t D．somebody ; anybody ; knowⅡ. 完形填空11、Vivian Maier was an American street photographer born in New York City. Although born in the U.S., it was inFrance that Maier 1 most of her youth. Maier returned to the U.S. in 1951 where she worked 2a nanny for over 40 years. A nanny is a person who takes care of young children in the children's own home.A nanny's job is not easy. In her free time, 3 ,Vivian begun to try the art of photography. She spent her days off walking along the4 of Chicago and taking photographs. Vivian would take photos that she5 from the eyes of others secretly. Most people did not know they were taken in the pictures. She took over 150,000 photographs during her lifetime,6 of the people and buildings of Chicago, New York City, and Los Angeles, although she also travelled and photographed worldwide.During her lifetime, Vivian's photographs were unknown and unpublished. Many of her photos were never printed because of 7 . She never got married. She had no children either. She lived a 8 life and became even poorer in her old age.A Chicago collector, John Maloof, happened to find some of Vivian's photos at the market. He decided to 9Vivian's photographs on the website. Thousands of people showed their great 10 in them. Vivian's works have become famous around the world since then.Vivian Maier opened one of the most attractive windows of American life in the second half of the twentieth century.1．A．paid B．took C．spent D．cost2．A．as B．for C．with D．of3．A．whatever B．however C．whenever D．wherever4．A．rivers B．mountains C．villages D．streets5．A．appeared B．hid C．fell D．smiled6．A．partly B．nearly C．mainly D．closely7．A．time B．effort C．money D．health8．A．rich B．hard C．wonderful D．hopeful9．A．give B．drop C．buy D．put10．A．interest B．hobby C．attention D．abilityⅢ. 语法填空12、At the age of fifteen, I met 1．Australia teacher. He taught us English. One day, he wrote an English poem 2．the blackboard and asked us the meaning. There was a long silence. 3．（unlucky）,the teacher4．(choose) me to answer the questions. I said in a low v5．,“Sorry, I don’t know.”That’s always my reply to difficult qustions.To my surprise, he spent the rest of the class 6．(explain) my answer. He said “I don’t know is a wrong answer.”Y ou should at least have some ideas about the questions, no matter how difficult it is. It doesn’t mean that you don’t know. It means that you are not 7．(confidence), and you are afraid of making 8．(mistake).” I was shocked by 9．(he) words. He was right. From then on, I said goodbye to the wrong answer“I don’t know”,b10．any answers was better than that one. Now I always try my best to find a proper answer.Ⅳ. 阅读理解A13、The Building That MovesEveryone knows that buildings don’t move. They can’t change the way they look. However, architect(建筑师) David Fisher wants to change that.Fisher has an amazing idea. He wants to make __-story buildings that change shape. Each floor will move around slowly. The floors will move at different speeds. Because of this, the shape of the building is always changing. “These buildings will never look the same,” says Fisher.His idea is an interesting one. However, Fisher doe sn’t stop there. He also wants the building to be “green”. The building will make its own energy. In most buildings, only the top floor has a roof(屋顶). In Fisher’s building, each floor will have its own roof. Each roof has solar panels(太阳能板). This means a lot more solar energy. Also, machines between each floor of the building will catch the wind. They will turn the wind into energy.Fisher’s ideas sound impossible. However, that’s what people also said before humans traveled into space!根据短文内容，选择最佳选项，并在答题卡上将选定答案的字母标号涂黑。
2021届合肥四十五中高三英语第二次联考试卷及答案解析
2021届合肥四十五中高三英语第二次联考试卷及答案解析第一部分阅读（共两节，满分40分）第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项ANAME: JohnFAVORITE SPORT: Basketball FAVORITE SNACK: PizzaHOBBY: Photography PET: Beagle named MaxFUNNIEST MOMENT: “On Max's birthday, we sang the ‘Happy Birthday’ song to him and he got a big treat. A month later, my family sang ‘Happy Birthday’ to me. Max got so excited because he remembered the song. He whined(嘀咕) when he didn't get a treat, so we gave him one.”NAME: SarahFAVORITE SPORT: Track and field FAVORITE SNACK: GranolaHOBBY: Guitar PET: Cat named LuluFUNNIEST MOMENT: “One day in my kindergarten, I opened my snack bag and found a tennis ball and a sock! My little brother had played his first practical joke. Thanks, Bryan!”NAME: PaulFAVORITE SPORT: Baseball FAVORITE SNACK: Apple with peanut butterHOBBY: Making comics PET: Tropical fishFUNIEST MOMENT: “In a school play, I was supposed to say the line ‘Stop right there, cowboy!’ Devin was playing the cowboy, and 1 said, ‘Stop right there, Devin!’ It was supposed to be a serious part of the play, but Devin cracked up. Then everybody else laughed, too, including me.”NAME: ScottFAVORITE SPORT: Soccer FAVORITE SNACK: BananasHOBBY: Drawing dinosaursPET: Hermit crab named HermieFUNNIEST MOMENT: “One night, we were camping in a state park. I heard a loud thumping(砰砰作响) outside the tent. I was sure that it was a bear! I used my flashlight to look around the campsite(野营地) and saw a little toad hopping away, going thump, thump, thump!”1.Whom will you get in touch with if you also like taking photos?A.Scott.B.Sarah.C.John.D.Paul.2.Where did Sarah find the tennis ball and the sock?A.At her friend's birthday party.B.In her kindergarten.C.In her school.D.In a state park.3.Outside the tent, what thumped that night?A.A bear.B.A cat.C.A fish.D.A toad.BA Bridge Linking Art and the AudienceAccording to a 2018 report, people aged between 16 and 24 make up about 15 percent of the population but only 10 percent of museum-goers. Similarly, people aged over35 go half as much as you would expect from their population size. We have reached the point of recognising the disconnection between art and the audience but haven’t yet determined how to bridge the gap. Two answers to tackling this challenge lie in telling a greater diversity of art histories and communicating these stories in more accessible ways.In 2018, a radio program called Art Matters was started with the aim of discussing art from a pop-culture viewpoint with topics that would engage younger and more diverse audience. It offers an accessible pathway to art history with conversations on different topics. Art history is about storytelling; art content shines when there is an effort to bring audience along for the discussion.More traditional institutions are paying attention. Recently theGettyMuseumissued a social-media challenge for people to recreate paintings using items they had at home. Users displayed incredible creativity, and the museum was flooded with submissions. This reaction proves that there is a potential desire for the audience to engage with art topics if the format is appealing. Since many people feelintimidatedand think that there’s a base level of understanding required to join the conversation, the Getty initiative serves as a reminder that there are many pathways to engaging with it.Another result of the Getty challenge was the exposure given to a diversity of artworks. The famous opera singer Peter Brathwaite, for example, made scores of attractive recreations highlighting centuries of black paintings. His efforts opposed the idea that there were not many historical paintings of black figures. It is extremely important that we do a better job of showing the complex and diverse stories that are represented in art.Social media have offered a platform for people who have not traditionally had a seat at the table. Anyone can recognise a gap in the field and address it. Accounts have gathered tens of thousands of followers. They are the proof that there is hunger to hear these art histories, and these themes work brilliantly for museum programming.But there is only so much that can be done without the museums and galleries changing meaningfully from within. We need to see a better balance of these stories represented in permanent collections. We also need a much wider diversity of people and interests represented on board. Ensuring that art-and writing and talking about art-is able to continue on the rising generation of storytellers, inside and outside of institutions, getting the funding and support they need to paint a brighter picture for the part.4. What challenge is the author trying to tackle?A. People doubt a great diversity of artworks.B. Fewer and fewer young people go to museums.C. Art appears too distant from common audience.D. Adult audience has a different understanding of art.5. What does the underlined word “intimidated” in Paragraph 3 probably mean?A. Tired.B. Worried.C. Annoyed.D. Surprised.6. In the author’s opinion, the museums and galleries should ________.A. make the art history stories accessible in a traditional way.B. change meaningfully for activities like the Getty challenge.C. limit the number of storytellers both in and out of institutions.D. improve the permanent collections by adding famous artworks.7. We can conclude from the passage that common audience ________.A. lacks the channels to understand and talk about art history.B. prefers to view artworks and hear art stories on social media.C. feels satisfied with people and interests represented on board.D. refuses to engage with diverse art topics and art history stories.C“They’re harming your brain.” “They’re ruining your eyes.” “They’re turning you into a violent person.” The words said publicly against video games are so common, but are these worries founded on actual science? Countless studies have offered different opinions on whether video games are bad for you. We’ve rounded up themost notable reports and studies below, so you can weigh up the evidence for yourself.In 2013,psychologist(心理学家) Simone Kuhn studied the influences of spending long hours on video games on the brains of young adults and found that several areas became bigger than before. These areas are connected with highercognitive functions(认知功能), memory formation andfinemotor(精细运动) function.Last year, psychologists said that video game players who favour violent games are more likely to be violent when offline. Dr. Mark Appelbaum of the American Psychological Association said that there was a relation between violent video game use and increases in violent behaviour.Dr. Daphne Bavelier is an expert in the field of Brain & Cognitive Sciences. Bavelier presented the audience with a colour-word test, where non-gamers are easily puzzled by the test, and those who spend long periods playing on their computers are more likely to pass the test with flying colours.“Actually, those video game players have many other advantages in terms of attention,” said Bavelier, “and one part of attention which is also improved for the better is our ability to follow the movements of objects.”“So, in a sense, when we think about the influence of video games on the brain, it’s very similar to the influence of wine on the health. There are some very poor uses of wine. There are some very poor uses of video games. But when drunk in reasonable amounts, and at the right age, wine can be very good for health,” said Bavelier.8. What can be learned from Simone Kuhn’s study？A. Video games make you happier.B. Video games make your brain grow.C. Video games play a key role in memory.D. Video games teach you how to learn fast.9. What was Dr. Mark Appelbaum’s attitude towards video games？A. He was against them.B. He was hopeful of them.C.He was in favour of them.D. He was uncertain about them.10. Which of the following may Dr. Daphne Bavelier agree with？A. Video games fix attention problems.B. Video games make kids do well in exams.C. Video games encourage violent behaviour.D. Video games help increase colour knowledge.11. Why are the uses of wine mentioned in the last paragraph？A. To remind people to avoid video games.B. To show the disadvantages of video games.C. To help people learn more about video games.D.To ask people to make good use of video games.DThere is nothing ordinary about this little boy's adorable experience with his musical heroes.5-year-old Taylor Hooper was just one of the 35,0000people who were attending the Foo Fighters concert in Belfast, Norther Ireland last week. Not only is the American rock group his favorite band, it was also his first ever concert.Taylor's mother, Nikki Hooper, says that she and her husband have always been huge fans of the Foo Fighters. In addition to traveling far and wide to see their shows, they even named their son after the drummer, Taylor Hawkins. So when the band played in their home city, they decided it was finally time for their son to see their beloved rock and rockers in concert.“He's been listening to them since he was born — mainly because his dad and I are super fans.” Mrs Hooper told BBC. “We called the event organizers and they said it would be no problem, but that we should know it would be a loud music event, so we gotTaylorsome special headphones. When we got there everyone was so welcoming to him.”Throughout the show, the audience continuously madeTaylorand his parents move closer to the stage. Furthermore, Mrs. Hooper helped her son stand out from the crowd by making him a sign that said he was a 5-year-old attending his first concert.When Foo Fighters front man Dave Grohl finally saw the sign and read it aloud into the microphone, the crowd began chanting for them to bring the youngster onto the stage. That's exactly what he did. When the stage managers brought the boy to the stage, Grohl asked Taylor to show the crowd how to dance．The small boy then danced to the whole song, making him an “Inter net wonder”.Taylordidn't just walk away from the show with memories, either;the band also invited him backstage to give him a number of gifts, includinga pair of Taylor Hawkins's drumsticks.12. What is Foo Fighters in the passage?A. I's a music show.B. It's a music band.C. It's a pop song.D. It's a music fan.13. We can learn from Paragraph 3 that_______．A. the organizers refused to let the child watch the showB. there was nothing wrong for the child to watch the showC. the organizers suggested the kid take care of the loud noiseD. the child felt so scared that he didn't want to go to the stage14. How did 5-year-old Taylor Hooper cause people's attention?A. By shouting loudly.B. By running to the singers.C. By holding a sign showing his age.D. By dancing to the whole song.15. How didTaylorfeel about his first ever concert?A. Worried.B. Scared.C. Sorry.D. Pleased.第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
合肥二模2024试卷答案解析英语作文
合肥二模2024试卷答案解析英语作文解析与启示The English essay section of the Hefei Second Mock Exam 2024 presents a comprehensive assessment of students' writing skills and comprehension of the language. The essay topics are designed to challenge students' ability to analyze, synthesize, and express ideas in a coherent and logical manner. The answers and explanations provided in the answer key offer valuable insights into the criteria used for scoring and the areas where students can improve their writing.Firstly, the essay topics require a deep understanding of the subject matter and the ability to formulate a clear and focused argument. Students are expected to demonstrate their knowledge of the topic, as well as their ability to apply critical thinking skills in analyzing and evaluating different perspectives. The answers provide guidance on how to structure an essay effectively, including the introduction, body paragraphs, and conclusion.In the body paragraphs, students are advised to support their arguments with relevant examples, facts, and quotes.This not only adds credibility to their arguments but also demonstrates their ability to integrate different sources of information into their writing. The answers also highlight the importance of using transition words and phrases to enhance the flow and coherence of the essay.Another key aspect emphasized in the answers is the use of appropriate language and grammar. Students are encouraged to use a variety of sentence structures and vocabulary to express their ideas effectively. The answers provide examples of well-written sentences and paragraphs, which students can use as a reference for improving their own writing.Moreover, the essay section also tests students'ability to express their opinions and perspectives in a clear and convincing manner. The answers emphasize the importance of maintaining a consistent and logical flow of ideas throughout the essay. Students are advised to avoid digressions and ensure that each paragraph contributes to the overall argument of the essay.Finally, the answers provide valuable feedback on common errors and weaknesses in students' writing. Thisfeedback helps students identify areas where they need to improve and provides guidance on how to address these issues in future writing tasks.In conclusion, the English essay section of the Hefei Second Mock Exam 2024, along with its accompanying answers and explanations, offers a comprehensive overview of students' writing skills and provides valuable insightsinto how to improve them. By carefully analyzing the answers and applying the suggestions provided, students can enhance their writing abilities and prepare themselves for success in future exams and academic pursuits.**合肥二模2024试卷答案解析英语作文解析与启示** 合肥二模2024试卷的英语作文部分全面评估了学生的写作技能和语言理解能力。
合肥二模2024试卷答案解析英语作文
合肥二模2024试卷答案解析英语作文全文共10篇示例，供读者参考篇1Oh my gosh, the second mock exam in Hefei in 2024 was super challenging, but don't worry, I'm here to give you all the answers and explain them to you in a simple way!First up, let's talk about the multiple-choice questions. The key to cracking these questions is to read the passage carefully and understand the main idea. Make sure to eliminate the wrong answers first to increase your chances of getting it right.For the reading comprehension section, remember to look for keywords in the questions that will help you find the answers in the passage. Don't panic if you can't find the answer right away, just take a deep breath and keep looking.When it comes to the writing section, make sure to follow the instructions carefully and organize your ideas in a clear and logical way. Remember to check your grammar and spelling before you finish.Overall, the most important thing is to stay calm and focused during the exam. Don't let the pressure get to you, and remember to believe in yourself. You've got this!So, keep practicing and improving your English skills, and you'll ace the next exam for sure! Good luck!篇2Hi everyone! Here are the answers and explanations for the 2024 Hefei Second Mock Exam in English! Let's dive in!1. A) The correct answer is AExplanation: In this question, we need to choose the correct option that describes the picture. Option A is the best choice as it accurately depicts the scene shown in the picture.2. C) The correct answer is CExplanation: This question asks about the main idea of the passage. Option C is the correct answer as it summarizes the passage accurately.3. B) The correct answer is BExplanation: In this question, we need to identify the mistake in the sentence. Option B is the correct answer as it corrects the error in subject-verb agreement.4. A) The correct answer is AExplanation: This question asks about the synonym of a word. Option A is the correct answer as it is the synonym of the given word.5. D) The correct answer is DExplanation: In this question, we need to choose the correct form of the verb. Option D is the correct answer as it follows the grammar rules for verb tenses.I hope these answers and explanations help you understand the questions better! Keep up the good work and keep practicing your English skills! Good luck with your studies!篇3Oh my goodness! I can't believe they actually have analysis for the 2024 second exam in Hefei! Let me tell you all about it in my own words, like a little kid.So, in the English exam, we had to answer lots of questions about reading, writing, and listening. It was pretty tough, but Ithink I did okay. Let me explain the answers to some of the questions.For the reading section, there was a passage about animals and their habitats. The answers were mostly about where the animals live and what they eat. It was important to pay attention to details in the text to get the right answers.In the writing section, we had to write a story about our favorite holiday. I wrote about my trip to the beach with my family. I talked about playing in the sand and building sandcastles. The key to writing a good story is to use lots of descriptive words to make it interesting.Lastly, the listening section was a bit tricky. We had to listen to conversations and answer questions about them. Some of the questions were about what the people were doing or where they were going. It was important to listen carefully and take notes.Overall, the exam was challenging but fun. I'm proud of myself for trying my best. I hope this analysis helps you understand the answers better. Good luck with your exams, everyone!篇4Oh my gosh! The second model exam for 2024 in Hefei is finally over! That was so tough, but I think I did pretty well. Now, let's go through the answers and explanations together!In the listening section, I heard a lot of different voices and accents, but I managed to catch most of the information. For question 1, the answer was "B", and it was about a boy talking about his favorite hobby. Question 2 was "A", which was about a girl asking for directions to the library. And question 3 was "C", which was about a man talking about his weekend plans.Next up was the reading section, which was a bit tricky. For question 4, the answer was "C", as the passage mentioned the importance of recycling. Question 5 was "B", and it was about a famous scientist's discovery. And question 6 was "A", as the passage was discussing the benefits of exercise.Moving on to the writing section, I wrote a composition about my dream vacation to Paris. I included all the important details like the Eiffel Tower, the Louvre, and French pastries. I hope the examiner likes it!Overall, I think I did a great job on the test. I studied hard and paid attention in class, and it really paid off. I can't wait to see my results! Good luck to everyone else who took the examtoo! Let's keep working hard and improving our English skills together!篇5Oh, hi everyone! Today, I'm going to give you some awesome tips on how to tackle the English section of the 2024 second mock exam in Hefei. Are you ready? Let's go!First of all, make sure to read the questions carefully before starting to answer them. It's super important to understand what the question is asking you to do. If you're not sure, don't be afraid to ask your teacher for clarification.When it comes to writing an essay, remember to include an introduction, body paragraphs, and a conclusion. Your introduction should grab the reader's attention and introduce your topic. The body paragraphs should include your main points and supporting details. And don't forget to wrap it all up nicely in your conclusion.For multiple-choice questions, eliminate the answers that are obviously wrong first. Then, think about the reasons why the remaining answers might be correct. This will help you make an educated guess if you're not sure of the answer.Lastly, practice, practice, practice! The more you practice English, the better you'll get. Try reading English books, watching English movies, and listening to English songs. You'll be a pro in no time!So, there you have it, some tips to help you ace the English section of the 2024 second mock exam in Hefei. Good luck, and remember, you've got this!篇6Oh my goodness, the Heifei second mock exam 2024 is so tough! But no worries, I'm here to help you understand the answers and explanations.In the listening section, we had to listen carefully to choose the right answers. Remember to pay attention to the keywords and don't get tricked by the distractors. Make sure you are familiar with different accents and intonations too.For the reading section, make sure to read the passage carefully before answering the questions. Pay attention to details and don't rush through the questions. Maybe you can underline key information in the passage to help you find the answers faster.In the writing section, remember to plan your essay before you start writing. Organize your ideas coherently and use a variety of vocabulary and sentence structures. Don't forget to check for grammar and spelling mistakes before you submit your paper.Overall, practice makes perfect! Keep practicing your English skills, reading, writing, listening, and speaking regularly to improve your English proficiency. Don't give up and keep working hard! Good luck for your next exam!篇7Hey guys! Today I'm gonna talk about the answers and explanations for the English paper of the second mock exam in 2024 in Hefei. Let's get started!Section A: Reading1. A2. B3. C4. A5. BSection B: Vocabulary1. D2. C3. A4. B5. ASection C: Grammar1. A2. C3. B4. D5. ASection D: WritingFor the writing section, the topic was about my favorite hobby. I chose to write about playing basketball. I talked about why I love basketball and how it helps me relax and stay healthy.I also mentioned how it's a great way to make friends and havefun. I made sure to use good vocabulary and grammar throughout my writing.Overall, I think the exam was pretty easy. I tried my best and hope to get a good score. Remember, practice makes perfect, so keep studying and improving your English skills!That's it for my answers and analysis of the English paper in the second mock exam in 2024 in Hefei. Good luck to everyone! See you next time!篇8Hello everyone! Today I'm going to talk about the answers and explanations for the 2024 Hefei Second Mock Exam in English. Let's get started!Question 1:Answer: B - 12 peopleExplanation: The passage clearly states that there are 6 boys and 6 girls, so the total number of people is 12.Question 2:Answer: A - swimming and runningExplanation: The passage mentions that Tom likes swimming and running, so the correct answer is swimming and running.Question 3:Answer: C - 3 hoursExplanation: The passage states that it takes 1 hour to read 20 pages, so it will take 60 pages divided by 20 pages per hour, which equals 3 hours.Question 4:Answer: D - The weather was sunny and hot.Explanation: The passage describes the weather as sunny and hot, so the correct answer is that the weather was sunny and hot.Question 5:Answer: B - The history museumExplanation: The passage mentions that they visited the history museum, so the correct answer is The history museum.I hope this helps you understand the answers better. Good luck with your exams!篇9Oh wow, the English exam in the second mock test in Hefei in 2024 was so tough! But don't worry, I'll help you understand the answers and explanations.First question is about reading comprehension. The answer to the first question is A, because the story mentions that the girl loves to dance. The second question's answer is C, because the passage describes the boy as shy. And the last question's answer is B, because the passage says the weather was beautiful.Next is the grammar section. For question 1, the answer is "has been studying" because it is a present perfect continuous tense. Question 2's answer is "didn't like" because it is past simple tense. Question 3's answer is "will be watching" because it is future continuous tense.Now for the writing section. Remember to write in complete sentences and use proper punctuation and capitalization. Make sure to include an introduction, body paragraphs, and a conclusion. Don't forget to check your grammar and spelling!And that's it for the English exam answers and explanations! Keep practicing and you'll do great next time. Good luck!篇10Oh my gosh, the second mock test for 2024 in Hefei was soooo hard! But don't worry, I'm here to help explain the answers to you in a super fun and easy way.For the English section, let's start with the comprehension passage. The answer to question 1 is 'B', question 2 is 'C', question 3 is 'A', and so on. Make sure you read the passage carefully to find all the answers.Next, let's move on to the grammar questions. Remember to check the tense, subject-verb agreement, and word order in each sentence. If you're not sure, try reading the sentence out loud to see if it sounds right.For the vocabulary section, make sure you understand the meaning of each word before choosing the correct synonym or antonym. You can also try thinking of a sentence using the word to help you remember its meaning.Lastly, for the writing section, remember to use proper grammar, punctuation, and spelling. You can also try to include some creative ideas or personal experiences to make your writing more interesting.So there you have it, a quick and easy guide to acing the Hefei second mock test for 2024. Good luck, and I know you'll do great!。
2024合肥二模英语作文分析
2024合肥二模英语作文分析The 2024 Hefei English mock exam has presented a uniqueset of challenges, particularly in the composition section.It's clear that the exam setters aimed to assess not only the students' language proficiency but also their criticalthinking and creativity.One of the key aspects of the composition was the requirement to integrate current social issues into the writing. This called for a deep understanding of both the English language and the socio-cultural context of the topics discussed, ensuring that the essays were both informative and relevant.The prompt for the essay was open-ended, allowingstudents to choose their own angle and develop their arguments. This freedom, however, also demanded a high levelof originality and the ability to construct a coherent and persuasive argument.Another notable feature was the emphasis on the use of advanced vocabulary and complex sentence structures. The exam expected students to demonstrate their mastery of thelanguage by employing a rich and varied linguistic repertoire.The inclusion of a reflective component in the essay wasa strategic move by the examiners. It encouraged students to not only present information but also to engage in self-reflection, adding a personal touch to their writing.The time constraint for the composition was another test of the students' ability to organize their thoughts quickly and express them concisely. This aspect of the exam highlighted the importance of effective time management in academic writing.In conclusion, the 2024 Hefei English mock exam composition section was a comprehensive evaluation of the students' English writing skills. It required a balance of linguistic accuracy, critical thinking, creativity, and personal reflection, setting a high standard for future English language assessments.。
2020-2021学年合肥市庐阳高中高三英语二模试题及答案解析
2020-2021学年合肥市庐阳高中高三英语二模试题及答案解析第一部分阅读（共两节，满分40分）第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项AChildren under the age of 18 will be allowed up to three hours per week to play video games, according to a notice issued by China's National Press and Publication Administration. Online game companies are required to provide services to minors — from8 to 9 p. m. on Fridays, Saturdays, Sundays and legal holidays — as a way to safeguard their physical and mental health. Children are playing more and more online games these days. Is it time to limit their online gaming time? What role do parents have? Readers share their opinions.RizlaredOnline games are addictive, but if children are taught how to manage in a sensible and responsible manner then it is no longer a threat(威胁).To achieve this, parents need to set examples for not being glued to their phones. Teaching is and always will be the best solution to such problems.AndrewGood policy. By limiting time spent on online games, kids can spend time doing more useful things to develop their potential. They can go outside and run, jump and swim instead of sitting on a couch at home and playing with a smart phone.AdamIt is often seen that parents argue with children over cellphones. Most parents can hardly set and enforce the time limit for its daily usage. Some forcibly take away their cellphones, but it will ruin trust and relationship. Even worse, it will make their kids hate them.PinkExcessive(过度的）gaming is purely a waste of time and energy for minors and has a negative effect on both physical and mental health. The gaming industry should not put profit- flaking interests as its priority (优先事项) . They should act in a socially responsible way toprovide an environment for children to ensure their well-being and development.LaurenThere would be a loophole(漏洞). Children could use their parents’ or other adults’ IDs to avoid real-name registration, thus making it impossible to put this policy in effect. Parents ly need to strengthen guidance andsupervision to keep their children from gaming addiction.1. What should kids do according to Andrew?A. Play online games.B. Play with a smart phone.C. Study all the time.D. Go in for outside activities.2. What does Pink advise the gaming industry to do?A. Pay attention to its profit.B. Focus on kids’ health.C. Be responsible for kids’ surroundings.D. Persuade kids lo play more games.3. What role do parents have according to the passage?A. They keep hold of their phones.B. They set examples for their kids.C. They limit their kids’ time.D. They blame kids for addiction.BLosing your ability to think and remember is pretty frightening. We know the risk of dementia (痴呆症) increases with age. But if you have memory slips you probably needn’t worry. There are pretty clear differences between signs of dementia and age-related memory loss.After age 50, it’s quite common to have trouble remembering the namesof people, places and things quickly, says Dr. Kirk Daffner of Brigham and Women’s Hospital inBoston.The brain ages just like the rest of the body. Certain parts become smaller, especially areas in the brain that are important to learning, memory and planning. Changes in brain cells can affect communication between different regions of the brain. And blood flow can be reduced as blood vessels narrow.Forgetting the name of an actor in a favorite movie, for example, is nothing to worry about. But if you forget the plot of the movie or don’t remember even seeing it, that’s far more concerning, Daffner says.When you forget entire experiences, he says, that’s “a red flag that something more serious may be involved”. Forgetting how to operate a familiar object like a microwave oven, or forgetting how to drive to the house of a friend you’ve visited many times before can also be signs of something going wrongBut even then, Daffner says, people shouldn’t panic. There are many things that can cause confusion andmemory loss, including health problems like temporary stoppage of breathing during sleep, high blood pressure, or depression, as well as medications (药物) like antidepressants.You don’t have to figure this out on your own. Daffner suggests going to your doctor to check on medications, health problems and other issues that could be affecting memory. And the best defense against memory loss is to try to prevent it by building up your brain’s cognitive(认知的) reserve, Daffner says.“Read books, go to movies, take on new hobbies or activities that force one to think in novel ways, ” he says. In other words, keep your brain busy and working. And also get physically active, because exercise is a known brain booster4. Why does the author say that one needn’t be concerned about memory slips?A. Not all of them are related to one’s age.B. Not all of them are symptoms of dementia.C. They occur only among certain groups of people.D. They are quite common among fifty-year-old people.5. Which memory-related symptom should people take seriouslyA. Totally forgetting how to do one’s daily routines.B. Inability to recall details of one’s life experiencesC. Failure to remember the names of movies or actorsD. Occasionally confusing the addresses of one’s friends.6. What should people do when signs of serious memory loss show up?A. Check the brain’s cognitive reserve.B. Stop medications affecting memory.C. Turn to a professional for assistance.D. Exercise to improve their well-being7. What is Dr. Daffner’s advice forfight against memory loss?A. Having regular physical and mental checkups.B. Taking medicine that helps boost one’s brain.C. Engaging in known memory repair activities.D. Staying active both physically and mentallyCThe founder of Earth Day was Gaylord Nelson, a U.S. Senator fromWisconsin. During the late 1960s, Americans witnessed the uninvited side effects of high productivity. Factories and power plants were sending out smoke and industrial waste while Americans were using petrol for their massive(大量的) cars, making air pollution almostsynonymous withthe nation’s development.What moved Senator Nelson to action was the 1969 massive oil spill inCalifornia, the largest in theUnited Statesat that time. The spill proved to be an environmental nightmare as it had a significant effect on marine life,killing about 3,500 sea birds, as well as marine animals such as dolphins, elephant seals and sea lions, fueling public anger. Inspired by the student antiwar movement at that period of time, Nelson found it an appropriate time to direct the energy of the students towards a fight for environmental protection. He decided that it was time to educate the Americans on the need to protect the environment. Thus Earth Day was born in 1970, and public environmentalawareness took centre stage.On 22ndApril 1970, millions of Americans took to the street and thousands of students marched to appeal for a healthy, sustainable environment. There was now a new synergy(协同作用) among different groups which had previously been fighting their causes related to the environment. Their fight for environmental conservation became so overwhelming that affected businesses were forced to follow environmental standards if they wanted to continue their operations.As it became more apparent that environmental issues were not just localized ones but a global concern, the year 1990 saw Earth Day reach out to many more around the world. Earth Day 1990 helped pave the way for the 1992 United Nations Earth Summit inRio de Janeiro, bringing together many nations for a united effort towards protecting the environment.8. Which of the following can replace the underlined phrase “synonymous with” in paragraph 1?A. familiar withB. opposite toC. different fromD. equal to9. Why did Nelson found Earth Day?A. To support students’ antiwar movement.B. To draw people’s attention to the seriousness of the oil spill.C. To arouse American’s awareness of environmental conservation.D. To educate Americans to protect marine life threatened by oil spill events.10. What can be inferred from the passage?A. Businesses would like to follow environmental standards.B. Earth Day united people to fight for environmental protection.C. It was the side effects of high productivity that led Nelson to take action.D. The 1992 United Nations Earth Summit made Earth Day known to more countries.11. The passage mainly talks about_______.A. how Earth Day came into beingB. why Earth Day was so significantC. who the founder of Earth Day wasD. what Earth Day meantto the worldDThere are 8.8 million blind people in India. In fact, there are 36 million blind people worldwide and a quarter of them are in India; however, many cases of blindness in India are curable. The poor in India have limited access to primary eye healthcare and often do not eat foods rich in micronutrients, like vitamins and minerals, which play an important role in maintaining good eye health.Many people worldwide are not even aware that they may have a vision (视力) problem simply because they do not get their eyes tested every year with a doctor, who tests for the functioning of the eye muscles (肌肉), as well as common diseases like night blindness. This exam is strongly recommended by experts because some changes in vision, which the patient may take longer to notice, can be found easily in this way.Certain simple changes in diet and lifestyle can ensure better eye health for you. These include drinking plenty-of water, not smoking, and eating brightly color1 ed and leafy fruit and vegetables. Wearing sunglasses protects your eyes from the sun, which damages otherwise healthy eyes. Learn about your family's eye disease history, and be on the lookout for any problem about your vision. Make sure that you see a doctor immediately for early intervention(干预) if you see any of these signs of worsening eye health.If you or a loved one needs to cure blindness or other eye diseases, turn to a crowdfunding (众筹) platform. A group of eye health caregivers have fundraised with crowdfunding platform ImpactGuru to raise money to perform operations on the eyes of blind women in south Asia. Running an online fundraiser enables both doctors and patients to find a way out of the dark. If you want eye care to develop, start a fundraiser today.12. Why are there so many blind people in India?A. There is a lack of eye hospitals in India.B. People pay no attention to their eyes at all.C. Poor Indians lack food good for eye health.D. The environment damages their eyes.13. What does the author suggest in Paragraph 2?A. Examining your eyes annually.B. Strengthening muscles every day.C. Raising the awareness of physical health.D. Attaching importance to self-examination.14. Which of the following may do harm to your eyes?A. Smoking a lot.B. Wearing sunglasses.C. Drinking much water.D. Watching brightly-color1 ed pictures.15. What does the author want to show in the last paragraph?A. How to start a fundraiser online.B. The importance of raising money.C. The role of crowdfunding in eye care.D. What should bedone to raise money.第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
安徽省合肥市庐阳区2022-2024年中考英语二模试题分类汇编：补全对话+
安徽省合肥市庐阳区2022-2024年中考英语二模试题分类汇编补全对话2024年安徽省合肥市庐阳区中考二模英语试题三、补全对话根据对话内容，从文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Tom, your Chinese is so good.B: Thanks. 31A: Why? Your company does business with Chinese?B: 32 We love Chinese movies. We watch a Chinese movie every week. We check the latest movies online. And then we look at the reviews about them. 33A: Good, I haven’t seen any Chinese movies. Can you choose one for me?B: Of course. What kind of films are you interested in? Music movies, action movies or war movies? Chinese war films are quite excellent.A: Which movie is your favorite?B: 34A: I heard of it before. What’s the main idea about it?B: 35A．You can see many movies.B．Where does the movie take place?C．No, you might not believe this.D．That must be The Battle at Lake Changjin.E．Everyone in my company can speak Chinese.F．Well, if you want to know it, see it yourself.G．Finally we decide whether to see it or not.2023年安徽省合肥市庐阳区中考二模英语试题八、补全对话7选5A: Lily, Mother’s Day is around the corner. 51B: Yes, of course. I have decided to send my mum a painting which is painted by myself.A: 52B: It is about my mum sitting around flowers.A: Does the painting have any meaning?B: Yes. 53 By the way, what would you send to your mother?A: I haven’t decided it yet. Maybe I will travel with my mother.B: 54A: Chaohu Lake. My mum likes eating fish.B: 55A: Thanks. So are you.A．Where do you want to go?B．What’s your painting about?C．How do you like the painting?D．Do you have any good ideas?E．It describes my love to her.F．You are a nice girl.G．Is it a place I know?2022年安徽省合肥市庐阳区中考二模英语试题三、补全对话7选5根据对话内容, 从文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项, 其中有两个为多余选项。
合肥市二模英语试卷分析
合肥市二模英语试卷分析2021年合肥市高三英语二模试卷整体难度适中，对听、读、写能力考查全面，对各种技能考查也专门到位。
试卷的设计和考查的内容依据新课标《考试大纲》和《考试说明》的相关要求，语言知识的覆盖范畴操纵在“课程标准”中所列语法项目表和“考试说明”中所列词汇表内：对语言运用能力的考查范畴和考查方式与考试说明中的能力考查要求保持一致，难度上贴近高考。
在考查考生基础知识的同时，侧重考查考生的英语学科核心素养，专门是在语篇的选择上，注意把情感、态度、价值观教育融入题材中，注重社会道德的价值取向，能力考查比较全面。
设置问题时，既关注能力的覆盖面，也注重其层次性和梯度。
在较高的层次考查学生对语篇信息的整体把握、明白得、分析和运用能力。
现对整个试卷分析如下：听力部分。
考查考生对口头语言材料的明白得以及从中猎取信息的能力。
要求考生听明白有关日常生活中所熟悉话题的简短独白和对话。
听力材料内容符合中学生的认知水平和语言能力。
阅读明白得。
阅读文章话题如下：A篇介绍4个大剧场；第21题学生定位文章信息不难，然而题干Why的明白得不当会误选D。
B篇话题涉及炒股方面，专门是亲小孩的网上查找上市公司资料，父亲的实地调研公司；亲小孩的长线投资，父亲的短线交易……这些专业知识学生难以明白得，做题难度较大。
第24题学生大多依照字面意思选择C，本题语境made money in the dotcom boom but got his fingers when the bubble burst，学生应学会从转折词but 作出正确判定。
C篇讲述了性别差异下导致的语言差异。
其中第30题明白得作者的态度略难，学生要学会从文本中找出I have decided that …what fun would i t be if …,答案就迎刃而解。
D篇要紧讲述土壤微生物和人体微生物功能的相似处。
其中第33题和34题考查点相似，整体出题比较简单。
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2020合肥45中九年级第二阶段模拟调研英语试卷第二部分英语知识运用（共两大题，满分30分）V. 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21.--I want to get some change,but I can't find a bank here.--I know______next to the People's Hospital.A.itB. thatC.oneD. this答案：C解析：考查代词。
It特指上文提到的某物；that代替上文提到的某物，一般用于比较结构中；one代替上文提到的同类事物中的某一个；this一般用于指代下文即将提到的某物或事件。
根据句意选C。
22.If you are in trouble,Mike is always willing to_______a hand.A. wantB.shakeC.waveD.lend答案：D解析：考查动词搭配。
lend a hand意为“向...伸出援手，给予...帮助”。
Shake 意为“握手，动摇”，一般搭配为shake hands表握手；wave意为“挥手”。
23. If you're ______ in the open air,the sun and stars can help you find your way.A. lonelyB.lostC.sleepyD.thirsty答案：B解析：考查形容词词义。
be lost in sth. 在...迷路24.--The teacher's_______is really good.He must be from an English-speaking country.--But he is from Russia in fact.A.pronunciationB.voiceC.backgroundD.memory答案：A解析：考查名词词义。
pronunciation发音，voice嗓音，background背景，memory记忆，根据句意可以判断A选项最符合。
25.--When will you hand in your report,Sarah?--Sorry,I _____it.Tomorrow will be OK.A.don't completeB.won't completeC.haven't completedD.didn't complete答案：C解析：考查时态。
该题属于没有明显时间状语的时态判断题，根据句意可以判断“我现在还没有完成”，所以用现在完成时态。
26.Jack is so crazy about football that he______misses a chance of playing it.A. alwaysuallyC.oftenD.never答案：D解析：考查频率副词。
根据句意“杰克对足球如此着迷，以至于从来没有错过一次踢足球的机会。
”27.The theater will close down ______ more money can be raised to support it.A. soB.unlessC.sinceD.when答案：B解析：考查连词。
so所以，引导原因状语从句；unless除非，引导条件状语从句；since自从；因为，引导时间状语/原因状语从句；when当...时候，引导时间状语从句。
根据句意“这家电影院即将倒闭，除非筹到钱来支持它。
28.We were lucky to meet Bryan in the hotel.He was just _____ and leaving for the airport.A. checking outB.calling backC.lying downD.dropping by答案：A解析：考查动词短语。
check out 办理退房；call back收回，回电；lie down躺下；drop by顺便拜访。
观察题干中中关键词”in the hotel”，所以选择A.29.--We are sure to win.They're already three points ______ us.--You can't take it lightly.A.againstB.behindC.withD.for答案：B解析：考查介词。
根据句意“我们肯定会赢，他们已经落后我们三分了”，所以选B。
注意：take it lightly 意为掉以轻心，视同儿戏。
拓展：关于take的几个短语。
Take it easy 放轻松，别紧张；take it seriously 认真对待； take a deep breath 深呼吸30.--How about taking a taxi there? It's faster.--_______ It's rush hour now,so it may take longer.A.Sounds great.B.Promise!C.Better not.D.Take it easy.答案：C解析：考查交际用语。
根据关键词“rush hour”意为上下班高峰期，交通拥挤时间。
所以推断“不要乘出租车”，故选C。
VI.完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
AAn old man lived in a village.He was one of the 31 people in the world.The whole village disliked him. He was always unhappy.When people tried to cheer him up, he would rudely turn them away.People 32 from him because of his bad mood(心情）, It was unusual and impolite to feel happy around him.He made the rest of the 33 feel unhappy as well.But one day—the day he turned eighty years old, in fact— a(n) 34 thing happened. The man's mood suddenly changed.He was no longer rude or,angry. 35 , he seemed calm and kind. The villagers said among themselves,"The old man is" 36 ”The whole village went to see him. They couldn't believe that his 37 could change so suddenly.One of the villagers asked the old man,"What happened to you?”“Nothing special has happened,in fact," the man said. " For 38 years I've been looking for happiness, and it was no use. And then I decided to live without 39 and just enjoy life.That's why I'm happy now.”It's important to realize that your mood can 40 the moods of those around you. Everyone has bad days sometimes.If someone tries to cheer you up,don't be rude to them.Just try to accept their help.31.A.happiest B.rudest C.richest D.wisest答案：B解析：考查形容词词义。
根据“the whole village disliked hm.”可以推断31空缺一个贬义词，所以选C。
rude粗鲁的。
32.A.put away B.gave away C.stayed away D. took away答案：C解析：考查动词短语辨析。
Put away 放好，储存；give away 赠送，捐赠；stay away 远离，外出； take away 拿走，取走。
根据句意”因为他糟糕的心情让人们都远离他。
”33.A.village B.town C.city D.country答案：A解析：考查名词词义。
根据文中第一段第一句”an old man lived in a village.”34.A.terrible mon C.funny D.unbelievable答案：D解析：考查形容词词义。
terrible 可怕的，糟糕的；common普通的，大众的；funny风趣的，滑稽的；unbelievable难以置信的。
根据下文内容提示“The man's mood suddenly changed.He was no longer rude or,angry.”故选D。
35.A.Instead B.Finally C. Besides D.Anyway答案：A解析：考查副词词义。
instead相反，反而；finally最后；besides除此之外；anyway无论如何，不管怎么样。
根据上下文，选A。
36.A.shouting B.smiling C.sleeping D.jumping答案：B解析：考查动词词义。
根据下文“The whole village went to see him. They couldn't believe...”可以推断老人前后态度的反差，只有B选项符合答案。
37.A.plan B.design C.mood D.interest答案：C解析：考查名词词义。
根据上文”The man's mood suddenly changed.”38.A. fifty B.sixty C.seventy D.eighty答案：D解析：考查数词。