国际会计课后题答案第七章,第八章整理版
国际会计课后题答案第七章,第八章整理版

一、讨论题7.1比照本章引述的金融工具的3个定义,说明各自的特点。
经济学家和金融界所举的定义都把金融工具界定为金融领域运用的单证:史密斯的定义把金融工具表述为“对其他经济单位的债权凭证和所有权凭证”,而《银行与金融百科全书》的定义中列举了金融领域运用的各种单证。
FASB和IASC所下的定义基础是一致的,都把金融工具界定为现金、合同权利或义务及权益工具。
IASC 的定义较清晰,在指明金融工具是“形成个企业的金融资产并形成另一企业的金融负债或权益工具的合同”后,又分别就金融资产、金融负债和权益工具下了定义。
7.2比照本章引述的衍生金融工具的4个定义,说叫各自的特点。
OECD的定义指叫衍生金融工具是“一份双边合约或支付交换协议”,ISDA定义中的表述是“有关互换现金流量和旨存为交易名转移风险的双边合同”。
后名的表述更清晰。
两个定义都着币指明衍生金融工具价值的“衍生性”,并指明可作为衍生价值的基础的标的。
两者都列举了各种不同的标的。
FASB和IASC所下的定义基本上是致的,更便于作为衍生金融工具交易的会计处理所依据的概念。
讨论时可参照教本中归纳的6项最基本的特征展开〔本章教学要点〔二〕第3点中的(2)也有简括的表述〕。
7.3区分金融资产和负债与非金融资产和负债项日是否等同于区分货币性资产和负债与非货币性资产和负债项日?请予以说明。
不等同。
形成收取或支付现金或另金融资产的合同权利或义务,是金融资产和负债的最摹本的特征,以此〔合同权利或义务〕区别于非金融资产和负债〔参阅教术7 2 1〕,而货币性资产和负债与非货币性资产和负债的区分则是根据这些项目对通货膨胀影响或汇率变动的不同反应而作出的。
二者是完全不相下的两种分类法。
更为币要的是,不要把“货币性金融资产和负债”与“货币性资产和负债”这两个概念相混淆。
前名是指“将按固定或可确定的金额收取或支付的金融资产和金融负债”,只是金融资产和金融负债的特定类别。
7.4衍生金融工具品目繁多,但其基本形式不外乎:(1)远期合同;(2)期货合同:〔3)期权合同:(4)互换〔掉期〕合同。
国际会计答案汇总

Answers of Discussion Questions for International AccountingChapter 18. Given the increased globalization of the last few decades, can small domestic business survive? What advantage and disadvantages do they have compared to MNEs?在近十几年全球化加剧的情况下,国内的小企业能生存下去么?与跨国企业相比,它们有什么优势和劣势?全球化就是在全球的范围内利用各种要素增值。
从这些角度看国内的企业已经做了很多全球化工作。
全球化不一定是大企业的任务,中小企业同样可以全球化。
在全球化的战略上,需要确定三个目标:提高效率,管理风险和适应、学习与创新,才能建立全球竞争优势,利用国家差异获得成本优势,利用全球经营获得规模经济,利用多产品和多市场经营获得范围经济。
优势:除部分未改制的国有中小企业来说,一般来讲,中小企业经营机制灵活,活力较强,二是以市场为导向,贴近市场,贴近用户,市场化程度高。
企业经营灵活,调整快,进入市场快。
三是形成了自身的产业比较优势。
四是很多企业都进行了技术改进,更新了制造设备,改进了技术工艺,企业竞争力得到增强。
劣势:低水平重复建设,存在大量“小而全”。
二是多数中小企业生产设备相对陈旧,技术和工艺比较落后。
三是多数中小企业开发设计能力低,缺少自主创新能力,主要靠模仿,跟随在大企业后面亦步亦趋,难以提供自己的特色产品与服务,难以获得主动发展。
四是中小企业产品多属于劳动密集型,技术含量低,附加值不高,在激烈的市场中难以实现资金的较快积累。
五是财力不足,企业发展和提高缺乏资金支持。
六是人才缺乏,尤其缺乏高素质的管理人才和创新人才。
建议:1.发挥现有优势,克服营销竞争力的诸多问题,采取对策,抓住机遇,赢得挑战。
国际会计第七版英文版课后答案(第七章)

国际会计第七版英文版课后答案(第七章)预览说明:预览图片所展示的格式为文档的源格式展示,下载源文件没有水印,内容可编辑和复制Chapter 7Financial Reporting and Changing PricesDiscussion Questions Solutions1.Historical-based financial statements may be misleading during periods of significant inflation.Many resources may have been acquired in periods when the purchasing power of the monetary unit was much higher. These expenses then typically are deducted from revenues that reflect current purchasing power. The resulting income number is unintelligible. Another problem for statement readers is that the value of assets recorded at their historical acquisition cost is typically understated as a result of inflation. Understated asset values produce understated expenses and overstated earnings.Financial trends are also difficult to interpret, as trend statistics generally include monetary units of different purchasing power. A positive trend in sales may be due to price changes, not real increases in sales.2. A price index is a cost ratio, that is, the ratio of a representative “basket” of goods and servicesconsumed by an average family, compared to the price of that same basket in a benchmark (“base”) year. The price index is invaluable in enabling a statement reader to translate sums of money paid in the past to their current purchasing power equivalents.3.This statement is partly true and shows the confusion thatsurrounds inflation accounting. Inaccounting for changing prices, users must distinguish between general price changes and specific price changes. General prices refer to the prices of all goods and services in the economy. The object of accounting for general price level changes is to preserve the general purchasing power of a company’s money capital. Specific price changes refer to changes in the prices of specific commodities. The object of accounting for specific price changes is to preserve a company’s productive capacity or operating capability.4.The congressman is wrong. The object of inflation accounting is to clarify the distinction betweencapital and income, not to minimize corporate taxes. Inflation accounting shows how much money the company can pay in expenses, taxes, and dividends, while keeping enough resources to maintain its capital.5.Although it is generally conceded in principle that price level-adjusted financial statements are moreuseful than conventional accounting statements during periods of significant inflation, it is a judgment call to identify exactly when price level-adjusted statements become more meaningful. Asa rule of thumb, executives in Brazil use an inflation rate greater than 10 % per month. Investors inGermany or Switzerland may believe that 5 % inflation per year is alarming. Unfortunately, no one has yet developed a formal, rigorous, easy-to-apply definition of meaningfulness.How does one determine whether the benefits of price level-adjusted accounting information exceed the costs? While the costs to generate such information can be measured, it is muchharder to quantify the benefits. Financial accounting deals with information produced by business enterprises for use by external decision makers. Consequently, measurement of the benefits of price level-adjusted information must cover all user groups in an economy. Multiple user groups, uneven distributions of benefits (both within and between groups), and favorable economy-wide spillover effects of price level information complicate the task. Adding international dimensions makes the problem even worse.6.The U.S. approach resembles the price-level adjusted current cost model, whereas the U.K.approach embraces the current cost model. While both require disclosure of the impact ofchanging prices on monetary items, the U.S. approach basically uses the general price level index to compute monetary gains and losses, whereas the U.K. employs specific prices changes by way of its gearing adjustment.1.The International Accounting Standards Board sanctions use of the general price level model orthe current cost framework. Whichever method is employed, these inflation adjustments must be expressed in terms of constant purchasing power as of the balance sheet date. Purchasing powergains or losses are to be included in current income. Firms adjusting their accounts for changingprices must disclose, at a minimum: a) the fact that end-of-period purchasing power adjustmentshave been made, b) the asset valuation framework employed in the primary financial statements,c) the type of inflation index or indexes employed and theirlevel at the end of the period as wellas their movements during the period, and d) the net purchasing power gain or loss on netmonetary items held during the period. Given the options that are available, analysts mustunderstand the differences between the approved inflation accounting methods to be able tocompare companies choosing one option over the other and to assure proper interpretation ofinflation adjusted amounts.2.The historical cost-constant dollar model measures the impact of general price level changes on afirm's reported performance and financial position. The current cost model examines the impact of specific price changes on enterprise income and wealth.The two measurement frameworks are similar in that both attempt to clarify the distinction between capital and income. They differ in reporting objectives. Whereas the historical cost/constant dollar model attempts to preserve the general purchasing power of a firm's original money capital, the current cost model attempts to preserve an entity's physical capital or productive capacity.3.Your authors think that restating foreign and domestic accounts to their current cost equivalentsproduces information that is far more helpful to investor decisions than historical cost methods, whether or not adjusted for changes in general price levels. Such information provides a performance measure that signals the maximum amount of resources that enterprises can distribute without reducing their productive capacity. It also facilitates comparisons ofconsolidated data.10. The gearing adjustment is an inflation adjustment that partially offsets the additional charges toincome associated with assets whose values are restated for inflation (e.g., higher depreciation and cost of sales). This adjustment recognizes that borrowers generally gain from inflation because they can repay their debts with currency of reduced purchasing power. Hence, it is unnecessary to recognize the higher replacement cost of inventory and plant and equipment in the income statement so far as they are financed by debt.11. Accounting for foreign inflation differs from accounting for domestic inflation in two major ways.First, foreign rates of inflation often are higher than domestic rates, which increases potential distortions in an entity's reported results from changing prices. Second, as foreign exchange rates and differential national rates of inflation are seldom perfectly negatively correlated, care must be taken to avoid double-dipping when consolidating the results of foreign operations.12.Double-dipping refers to methods that count the effects of foreign inflation twice in reportedearnings. Earnings are reduced once when cost of sales is adjusted upwards for inflation, andagain when inventories are translated to domestic currency using a current exchange rate, whichyields a translation loss. Since the change in the exchange rate itself was caused by inflation, the result is a double charge for inflation.Exercise Solutions1.This exercise is a good way to test students’ understanding of the various approaches toaccounting for changin g prices. Vestel’s earnings numbers are based on the general price levelmodel whereas Infosys is measuring its performance based on a current cost framework. Modello goes a step further and adjusts its current cost statements for changes in the general price level.Some may feel that current cost data, which is based on the notion of replacement costs, is toosubjective a notion to be reliable. Since general price level data are based on general price level indices, the numbers appearing in Vestel’s income statement are much more objective andfacilitates comparisons among companies using a similar methodology. Moreover, Vestel’sstatements do not violate the historical cost doctrine. Others will argue that the value of stockinvestments are based on discounted future cash flows. Accordingly, the current cost framework provided by Infosys is more germane to investor decisions as it measures the amount of earnings that could be distributed as dividends without reducing the firm’s future dividend gen eratingpotential. Moreover, current cost earnings, including the gearing adjustment , reflects how thefirm is impacted by prices that are more germane to the firm, as opposed to the general public.Some will argue that Modello’s income statement combin es the best of both worlds. However,there is merit to the argument that the income statementshould measure the performance of thefirm and that this is best accomplished with the current cost framework. Since individualinvestors are affected by the g eneral price level, they should adjust their share of a firm’s current cost earnings distributions for general inflation.2. a.Income Statement Historical Price Level Historical Cost-Cost Adjustment Constant Dollar Revenue MXP 144,000,000 420/340 MXP 177,882,353 Operating expenses (86,400,000) 420/340 (106,729,412) Depreciation (36,000,000) 420/263 (57,490,494)Operating income MXP 21,600,000 MXP 13,662,447a Monetary gains(losses) - (73,248,759)Net income MXP 53,280,000 MXP(59,586,312)Balance SheetCash MX(P 157,600,000 420/420 MXP 157,600,000Land 180,000,000 420/263 287,452,471Building 720,000,000 420/263 1,149,809,885Acc. Depreciation (36,000,000) 420/263 (57,490,494)Total MXP 1,021,600,000 MXP 1,537,371,862Owners' equity(beg.) MXP1,000,000,000 rolled forward b MXP 1,596,958,174Net income (loss) 21,600,000 (59,586,312)Owner's equity MXP 1,021,600,000 MXP 1,537,371,862(end)a Monetary loss:CashBeginning balance 1,000,000,000 420/263 1,596,958,174 Purchase ofreal estate ( 900,000,000) 420/263 (1,437,262,356)Rental revenues 144,000,000 420/340 177,882,353Operating expenses (86,400,000) 420/340 106,729,412)157,600,000 230,848,759-157,600,000 Monetary loss (73,248,759)b Beginning equity x price level adjustment = adjusted amount= P 1,000,000,000 x 420/263 = P 1,596,958,1742.b.Cost HC/Constant DollarReturn on Assets 21,600,000 (59,586,312)1,021,600,000 1,537,371,862= 2.1% = -3.9%Cost-based profitability ratios tend to provide a distorted (overstated) picture of a company's operating performance during a period of inflation.3.20X7 20X8Cash MJR 2,500 MJR 5,100Current liabilities (1,000) (1,200)LT-Debt (3,000) (4,000)Net monetary liabilities MJR (1,500) MJR (100)Zonolia Enterprise’s net monetary liability position changed by MJR1,400 during the year (MJR100) –(MJR1,500).4.Nominal Restate for ConstantMJR’s Majikstan GPL MJR’sNet monetary liab.'s MJR 1,500 x 32,900/30,000 = MJR1,645 12/31/X7Decrease during year (1,400) = (1,400)Net monetary liab.'s MJR 100 x 32,900/36,000 = MJR 9112/31/X8Monetary (general purchasing power) gain MJR 1545. Historical Current Cost Current Income Statement Cost Adjustment Cost Revenues MXP 144,000,000 - MXP 144,000,000 Operating expenses 86,400,000 - 86,400,000 Depreciation (36,000.000) 1.8 64,800,000 Net Income (loss) MXP 21,600,000 MXP (7,200,000)Balance SheetCash MXP 157,600,000 - P 157,600,000 Land 180,000,000 1.9 342,000,000 Building 720,000,000 1.8 1,296,000,000 Acc. Depreciation (36,000,000) 1.8 (64,800,000) Total MXP1,021,600,000 MXP 1,730,800,000 Owners' Equity Beg. Balance MXP1,000,000,000 MXP 1,000,000,000 OE revaluation a - 738,000,000Net income (loss) 21,600,000 (7,200,000) Total MXP1,021,600,000 MXP 1,730,800,000a Revaluation of land MXP 162,000,000Revaluation of building 576,000,000MXP 738,000,0006. Solution in 000,000's:MJR8,000 X 137.5/100.0 = MJR11,00020X7 20X8Current cost MJR8,000 MJR11,000Acc. depreciation (1,600) (3,300)aNet current cost MJR6,400 MJR7,700a Current cost depreciation = MJR800 X 137.5/100.0 = 1,100per year for 3 years.7. As no new assets were acquired during the year, we must determine to what extent the MJR3,000 increase in the current cost of Zonolia's equipment exceeded the change in the general price level during the year. The appropriate calculation follows: MJR11,000 - [MJR8,000 X 36,000/30,000]= MJR11,000 - MJR9,600= MJR1,400Alternatively, if we follow the FASB’s sug gested methodology, where calculations are expressed in average (20X8) dollars, current cost depreciation would be computed by reference to the average current cost of the related assets. Thus, Current cost, 12/31/X7 MJR8,000,000Current cost, 12/31/X8 11,000,000MJR19,000,000Average current cost MJR19,000,000/2 = MJR9,500,000Current cost depreciation at 10% = MJR950,000Increase in current cost of equipment, net of inflation (000's): Current Restate for Current cost/Cost Inflation Constant Zonos Current cost, net12/31/X7 MJR6,400 X 32,900/30,000 MJR7,019Depreciation (950) (950)Current cost, net12/31/X8 7,700 X 32,900/36,000 7,037MJR 2,250 MJR968The increase in the current cost of equipment, net of inflation is MJR968. The difference between the nominal renge amount (MJR2,250) and constant renges (MJR968) is the inflation component of the equipment's current cost increase.8. Restate-translate method:Constant Translate $ Equivalentsrenges of constantrengesIncrease in currentcost of equip., netof inflation MJR968,000 X 1/4,800 = $202Translate-restate method:CC (MJR) Translate CC ($) Restate CC/ Constant $U.S. GPLCC, net MJR 6,400,000 x 1/4,800 = $1,333 x 292.5/281.5 = $1,38512/31/X7Dep. (950,000) x 1/4,800 = (198) = (198)CC, net 7,700,000 x 1/4,800 = 1,604 x 292.5/303.5 = 1,54612/31/X8MJR 2,250,000 $ 469 $ 3599.20X7 20X8£m £mTrade receivables 242 270-Trade payables (170) (160)Net monetary working capital 72 110Change in monetary working capital = £38 (£110 - £72) Nominal Restate for Constant£British PPI £Net monetary W/C 72 X 110/100 = 79.212/31/20X7Increase during year 38 = 38.0Net monetary W/C 110 X 110/120 = 100.812/31/20X8Monetary working capital adjustment = (16.4)aa This amount is added to the current cost adjustments for depreciation and cost of sales because trade receivables exceeded trade payables, thus tying up working capital in an asset that lost purchasing power.Gearing adjustment:[(TL – CA)/(FA + I + MWC)] [CC Dep. Adj. + CC Sales Adj. + MWCA]where TL = total liabilities other than trade payablesCA = current assets other than trade receivables and inventoryFA = fixed assets including investmentsI = inventoryMWC = monetary working capitalCC Dep. Adj. = current cost depreciation adjustmentCC Sales adj. = current cost of sales adjustmentMWCA = monetary working capital adjustment= [(128 – 75)/(479 + 220 + 110] [£m 216]= [.066 ] [216]= £14.3The only number I could readily identify in problem 9 is inventory of 220. The next number I could come close on is fixed assets. Looks like the solution above says 479, the text for 08 indicates 473. I could not see where the 110 (MWC) came from. Neither is it clear where the other 3 items in brackets came from. The solution needs to be clearer before I can check the numbers.This gearing adjustment of £14.3 million is subtracted from the current cost of sales and depreciation adjustments. It represents the purchasing power gain from using debt to finance part of the firm's operating assets.a.Nominal Thai Historical Translation U.S.baht inflation c ost/constant rate dollaradjustment baht equivalentInven-tory BHT500,000 x 100/200 = BHT250,000 x .02 = $5,000b.Nominal Translation U.S. U.S. Historicalbaht rate dollar inflation c ost/constantequivalent adjustment dollarsInven-tory BHT500,000 x .02 = 10,000 x 180/198 = $9,090Sorry this seems confusing compared to number 2 where the year end index was in the numerator and either the beginning or average index was in the denominator (e.g. 420/340 or 420/263). It is not clear why we do the opposite here where the Thai price level doubles and we put the 200 in the denominator and 100 in the numerator.c. Most students will prefer the restate-translate method. This approach has merit if general and specific pricelevels move in tandem. If not, neither approach is satisfactory as both are based on a historical cost valuation framework that is generally irrelevant for investment decisions.d. For reasons enumerated in this chapter, we favor restating local currency assets for specific price changesand then translating these current cost equivalents to dollars using the current exchange rate.11. We assume that Doosan Enterprises translates its inventory at the current rate and adjusts its cost ofsales for inflation by simulating what it would have been ona LIFO basis. Two adjustments are necessarybecause local inflation impacts exchange rates used to translate foreign currency inventory balances to dollars.With FIFO inventories, a translation loss is recorded in "as reported" earnings when it is originally translatedto U.S. dollars by a current exchange rate that changed (devalued) during the period. This translation loss isan indirect charge for local inflation. The inflation adjustment (simulated LIFO charge) to increase "as reported" cost of sales to a current cost basis is an additional charge for inflation. Absent some offsettingentry, consolidated results would be charged twice for inflation. To avoid this double charge, the translation loss embodied in reported earnings is deducted from the simulated LIFO charge to arrive at a net U.S. dollarcurrent cost of sales adjustment. Steps in the adjustment process are as follows:1. FIFO inventory subject to simulated LIFO charge KRW10,920,0002. Restate line 1 to January 1 currency units(KRW10,920,000 x 100/120). The result is anapproximation of December 31 LIFO inventory KRW9,100,0003. Difference between FIFO and LIFO inventorybalances (line 1 minus line 2) is the additionallira LIFO expense (current cost adjustment)for the current year. KRW1,820,0004. Translate line 3 to dollars at the January 1exchange rate (KRW1,820,000 ÷ 900). The resultis the additional dollar LIFO expense for thecurrent year $ 2,0225. Calculate the translation loss on FIFO inventory(line 1) that has already been reflected in "asreported" results:a. Translate line 1 at Januaryexchange rate (KRW10,920,000 ÷ KRW900) $ 12,133b. Translate line 1 at December 31exchange rate (L 10,920,000 ÷ KRW1,170) $ 9,333c. The difference is the translationloss in “as reported” results $ (2,800)6. The difference between lines 4 and 5c isthe cost of sales adjustment in dollars:a. Additional dollar LIFO expense fromline 4. $ 2,022b. Less: Inventory translation loss alreadyreflected in "as reported” results (fromline 5c) $ (2,800)c. The difference is the net dollar currentcost of sales adjustment $ (778)Here, the current cost of sales adjustment is negative (i.e., reduces the dollar cost of sales adjustment). This is because the won devalued by more than the differential inflation rate (assuming a U.S. inflation rate close to zero). If the lira devalued by less than the differential inflation rate, the cost of sales adjustment would have been positive.12.1. Cost of fixed assets at 12/31 EUR20,0002. FIFO inventory at 12/31 EUR 8,0003. Total EUR28,0004. Less: Owners' equity at 12/31 EUR 2,0005. Liabilities used to financefixed assets and inventory EUR26,0006. Restate liabilities to beginningof period markka (EUR26,000 X300/390) EUR20,0007. Purchasing power gain EUR 6,0008. Purchasing power gain inpounds (EUR 6,000/EUR 1.5) £4,0009. Translation gain on appliedliabilities(EUR 26,000/EUR 1.5 -EUR26,000/EUR1.95) £4,00010. Net purchasing power gain £ -0-In this case the translation gain on liabilities used to finance nonmonetary assets equals the purchasing power gain because the currency devaluation matched the differential inflation of 30%. Hence, no purchasing power gains would be recognized.Case 7-1 SolutionCase 7.1 Kashmir Enterprises1.a–cHistorical Price Level HistoricalCost Adjustment Cost ConstantIncome Statement RupeesRevenues INR6,000,000 160/144 I NR6,666,667Cost of Sales 2,560,000 160/128 3,200,000Selling & Admin. 1,200,000 160/144 1,333,333Depreciation 160,000 160/128 200,000Interest 240,000 160/160 240,000Monetary gains (losses)a - 741,666Net Income INR1,840,000 INR2,435,000Balance SheetCash INR2,480,000 160/160 I NR2,480,000 Inventory 480,000 160/128 600,000Building 3,200,000 160/128 4,000,000Accu. depreciation (160,000) 160/128 (200,000) Total INR6,000,000 INR6,880,000Accounts payable INR 620,000 160/160 I NR 620,000 Notes payable 2,400,000 160/160 2,400,000 Owners' equity 2,980,000 3,860,000INR 6,000,000 INR6,880,000a Monetary gains/(losses):CashBeg. balance INR 720,000 160/128 INR1,150,000 Down payment (800,000) 160/128 (1,000,000) Sales 6,000,000 160/144 6,666,667Selling & Adm. exp. (1,200,000) 160/144 (1,333,333) Payment on account (2,200,000) 160/144 (2,444,444) Interest (240,000) 160/160 (240,000)INR 2,480,000 INR2,798,890-2,480,000Monetary loss INR (318,890)a Monetary gains and losses:Accounts PayableBeg. balance INR 420,000 160/128 INR525,000 Purchases 2,400,000 160/128 3,000,000Payments on account (2,200,000) 160/144 (2,444,444) INR 620,000 INR1,080,556- 620,000Monetary gain INR 460,556a Monetary gains/(losses):Notes PayablePurchase warehouse INR 2,400,000 160/128 INR 3,000,000 - 2,400,000Monetary gain INR 600,000Net monetary loss: INR(318,890) + INR460,556 + INR600,000 = INR741,666.Current Cost Financial StatementsHistorical Adjustment Current Cost Income Statement Cost F actor EquivalentsRevenues INR6,000,000 - INR 6,000,000Cost of Sales 2,560,000 1.3 3,328,000Selling and adm. 1,200,000 - 1,200,000Depreciation 160,000 1.4 224,000Interest 240,000 - 240,000Net Income INR 1,840,000 INR1,008,000Balance SheetCash INR 2,480,000 - INR 2,480,000Inventory 480,000 1.3 624,000Building 3,200,000 1.4 4,480,000Acc. depreciation 160,000 1.4 224,000Total INR 6,000,000 INR 7,360,000Accounts payable INR 620,000 - INR 620,000Notes payable 2,400,000 - 2,400,000Owners' equity 2,980,000 4,340,000INR 6,000,000 INR 7,360,0002. Your authors favor current cost over historical or historical cost/constant dollar financial statements. Finance theory states that investors are interested in a firm's dividend-generating potential, as the value of their investment depends on future cash flows. A firm's dividend-generating potential, in turn, is directly related to its productive capacity. Unless a firm preserves itsproductive capacity or physical capital(e.g.,plant, equipment, inventories), dividends can’t be sustained over time. Under these circumstances, current cost financial statements give investors information important to their decisions. They show the maximum resources that a firm can distribute to investors without impairing its operating capability.3.Translate-Restate MethodBalance Sheet, Jan. 1Local Currency Trans. Dollar Inflation Historical costRate Equivalents Adjustment Constant $Cash INR 920,000 .025 $23,000 - $23,000Inventory 640,000 .025 16,000 - 16,000 Total INR1,560,000 $39,000 $39,000A/P INR 420,000 .025 $10,500 - $10,500 Owners' equity 1,140,000 .025 28,500 - 28,500 Total INR 1,560,000 $39,000 $ 39,000Income StatementDec. 31Revenues INR 6,000,000 .022 $ 132,000 108/104 $ 137,077 Cost of sales 2,560,000 .022 56,320 108/100 60,825Selling & Adm. 1,200,000 .022 26,400 108/104 27,415 Depreciation 160,000 .022 3,520 108/100 3,802 Interest 240,000 .022 5,280 108/108 5,280Net Income INR 1,840,000 $ 40,480 $ 39,755 Monetary gains (losses)a - - 4,468$44,223a Monetary gains/(losses):CashBeg. Bal INR 920,000 .02 $ 18,400 108/100 $ 19,872Downpayment (800,000) .02 (16,000) 108/100 (17,280) Sales 6,000,000 .02 120,000 108/104 124,615Selling & Adm. (1,200,000) .02 (24,000) 108/104 (24,923)Payments on Acc. (2,200,000) .02 (44,000) 108/104 (45,692) Interest (240,000) .02 (4,800) 108/108 (4,800)INR 2,480,000 $ 49,600 51,792-49,600Monetary loss $ (2,192) Accounts PayableBeg. Bal. INR 420,000 .02 $ 8,400 108/100 $ 9,072Purchases 2,400,000 .02 48,000 108/100 51,840Pmt. on acc. (2,200,000) .02 (44,000) 108/104 45,692INR 620,000 $ 12,400 $ 15,592- 12,400Monetary gain $ 2,820Notes payablePur. W/house Rpe 2,400,000 .02 $ 48,000 108/100 $ 51,840 48,000Monetary gain $ 3,840Netmonetary gain: $(2,192) + $2,820 + $3,840 = $4,468.Balance Sheet Local Trans. Dollar Inflation Historical cost- Dec. 31 Currency Rate Equiv. Adjustment Constant $Cash INR 2,480,000 .02 48,600 108/108 $ 48,600 Inventory 480,000 .02 9,600 108/100 10,368 Building 3,200,000 .02 64,000 108/100 69,120Acc. Dep. 160,000 .02 3,200 108/100 3,456Total INR 6,000,000 $120,000 $ 124,632Acc. payable 620,000 .02 12,400 108/108 $ 12,400Notes payable 2,400,000 .02 48,000 108/108 48,000Trans. adj.b - (9,380) (9,978)Owners' equity c 2,980,000 68,980 74,210Total INR 6,000,000 $120,000 $124,632________________________________________________________________ __b Translation adjustment:Beginning net assets Rpe 1,140,000 (.02 - .025) = $ (5,700) X 108/100 = $(6,156)Increase in net assets Rpe 1,840,000 (.02 - .022) = (3,680) X 108/104 = $(3,822)$(9,380) $(9,978) c Balancing residualRestate - Translate MethodBalance Sheet Local Inflation Historical Cost- Trans. D ollar Jan 1. Currency Adjustment Constant rupee Rate equivalents Cash INR 920,000 128/128 INR 920,000 .025 $ 23,000 Inventory d 640,000 128/128 640,000 .025 16,000Total INR1,560,000 INR1,560,000 $ 39,000Acct. payable INR 420,000 128/128 INR 420,000 .025 $ 10,500Owner's equity 1,140,000 1,140,000 28,500Total INR 1,560,000 INR 1,560,000 $ 39,000d Assumes inventory acquired near year-end.Income StatementYear ended Dec. 31Revenues INR 6,000,000 160/144 INR 6,666,666 .022 $ 146,667Cost of Sales 2,560,000 160/128 3,200,000 .022 70,400 Selling & Adm. 1,200,000 160/144 1,333,333 .022 29,333 Depreciation 160,000 160/128 200,000 .022 4,400Interest 240,000 160/160 240,000 .022 5,280Net Income INR1,840,000 INR1,693,334 $ 37,254 Monetary gains(losses)a- 741,666 .022 16,317INR2,435,000 $ 53,571Balance SheetDec. 31Cash INR 2,480,000 160/160 INR 2,480,000 .02 $ 49,600Inventory 480,000 160/128 600,000 .02 12,000Building 3,200,000 160/128 4,000,000 .02 80,000Acc. deprec. 160,000 160/128 200,000 .02 4,000Total INR 6,000,000 INR 6,880,000 $137,600Acc. payable INR620,000 160/160 INR 620,000 .02 $ 12,400 Notes payable 2,400,000 160/160 2,400,000 .02 48,000Owner's equity 2,980,000 3,860,000 87,770 Translation adj.b - (10,570)Total INR 6,000,000 INR 6,880,000 $137,600________________________________________b Beginning net assets INR1,140,000 (.02 - .025) = $ (5,700)Change in net assets 2,435,000 ).02 - .022) = $(4,870)$(10,570)Both methods are inadequate for American investors because they are based on the historical cost valuation framework. A better reporting procedure is to restate local accounts to their current cost equivalents, then translate these amounts to the reporting currency using the year-end (current) foreign exchange rate. This is illustrated here.Restate (current cost)/Translate (current rate)Cash INR 920,000 - INR 920,000 .025 $ 23,000Inventory 640,000 - 640,000 .025 16,000Total INR 1,560,000 INR1,560,000 $ 39,000Acc. payable INR 420,000 - INR 420,000 .025 $ 10,500Owner's equity 1,140,000 - 1,140,000 28,500。
国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter 8(2020年7月整理).pdf

CHAPTER 8 MANAGEMENT OF TRANSACTION EXPOSURE SUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS ANDPROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. How would you define transaction exposure? How is it different from economic exposure? Answer: Transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency values of the firm’s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpected changes in exchange rates. Unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term.2. Discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure using the forward contract vs. money market instruments. When do the alternative hedging approaches produce the same result?Answer: Hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling or buying foreign currency receivables or payables forward. On the other hand, money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables, thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions. If the interest rate parity is holding, the two hedging methods are equivalent.3. Discuss and compare the costs of hedging via the forward contract and the options contract. Answer: There is no up-front cost of hedging by forward contracts. In the case of options hedging, however, hedgers should pay the premiums for the contracts up-front. The cost of forward hedging, however, may be realized ex post when the hedger regrets his/her hedging decision.4. What are the advantages of a currency options contract as a hedging tool compared with the forward contract?Answer: The main advantage of using options contracts for hedging is that the hedger can decide whether to exercise options upon observing the realized future exchange rate. Options thus provide a hedge against ex post regret that forward hedger might have to suffer. Hedgers can only eliminate the downside risk while retaining the upside potential.5. Suppose your company has purchased a put option on the German mark to manage exchange exposure associated with an account receivable denominated in that currency. In this case, your company can be said to have an ‘insurance’ policy on its receivable. Explain in what sense this is so.Answer: Your company in this case knows in advance that it will receive a certain minimum dollar amount no matter what might happen to the $/€exchange rate. Furthermore, if the German mark appreciates, your company will benefit from the rising euro.6. Recent surveys of corporate exchange risk management practices indicate that many U.S. firms simply do not hedge. How would you explain this result?Answer: There can be many possible reasons for this. First, many firms may feel that they are not reallyexposed to exchange risk due to product diversification, diversified markets for their products, etc. Second, firms may be using self-insurance against exchange risk. Third, firms may feel that shareholders can diversify exchange risk themselves, rendering corporate risk management unnecessary.7. Should a firm hedge? Why or why not?Answer: In a perfect capital market, firms may not need to hedge exchange risk. But firms can add to their value by hedging if markets are imperfect. First, if management knows about the firm’s exposure better than shareholders, the firm, not its shareholders, should hedge. Second, firms may be able to hedge at a lower cost. Third, if default costs are significant, corporate hedging can be justifiable because it reduces the probability of default. Fourth, if the firm faces progressive taxes, it can reduce tax obligations by hedging which stabilizes corporate earnings.8. Using an example, discuss the possible effect of hedging on a firm’s tax obligations.Answer: One can use an example similar to the one presented in the chapter.9. Explain contingent exposure and discuss the advantages of using currency options to manage this type of currency exposure.Answer: Companies may encounter a situation where they may or may not face currency exposure. In this situation, companies need options, not obligations, to buy or sell a given amount of foreign exchange they may or may not receive or have to pay. If companies either hedge using forward contracts or do not hedge at all, they may face definite currency exposure.10. Explain cross-hedging and discuss the factors determining its effectiveness.Answer: Cross-hedging involves hedging a position in one asset by taking a position in another asset. The effectiveness of cross-hedging would depend on the strength and stability of the relationship between the two assets.PROBLEMS1. Cray Research sold a super computer to the Max Planck Institute in Germany on credit and invoiced €10 million payable in six months. Currently, the six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€ and the foreign exchange advisor for Cray Research predicts that the spot rate is likely to be $1.05/€ in six months.(a) What is the expected gain/loss from the forward hedging?(b) If you were the financial manager of Cray Research, would you recommend hedging this euro receivable? Why or why not?(c) Suppose the foreign exchange advisor predicts that the future spot rate will be the same as the forward exchange rate quoted today. Would you recommend hedging in this case? Why or why not?Solution: (a) Expected gain($) = 10,000,000(1.10 – 1.05)= 10,000,000(.05)= $500,000.(b) I would recommend hedging because Cray Research can increase the expected dollar receipt by $500,000 and also eliminate the exchange risk.(c) Since I eliminate risk without sacrificing dollar receipt, I still would recommend hedging.2. IBM purchased computer chips from NEC, a Japanese electronics concern, and was billed ¥250 million payable in three months. Currently, the spot exchange rate is ¥105/$ and the three-month forward rate is ¥100/$. The three-month money market interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the U.S. and 7 percent per annum in Japan. The management of IBM decided to use the money market hedge to deal with this yen account payable.(a) Explain the process of a money market hedge and compute the dollar cost of meeting the yen obligation.(b) Conduct the cash flow analysis of the money market hedge.Solution: (a). Let’s first compute the PV of ¥250 million, i.e.,250m/1.0175 = ¥245,700,245.7So if the above yen amount is invested today at the Japanese interest rate for three months, the maturity value will be exactly equal to ¥25 million which is the amount of payable.To buy the above yen amount today, it will cost:$2,340,002.34 = ¥250,000,000/105.The dollar cost of meeting this yen obligation is $2,340,002.34 as of today.(b)___________________________________________________________________Transaction CF0 CF1____________________________________________________________________1. Buy yens spot -$2,340,002.34with dollars ¥245,700,245.702. Invest in Japan - ¥245,700,245.70 ¥250,000,0003. Pay yens - ¥250,000,000Net cash flow - $2,340,002.34____________________________________________________________________3. You plan to visit Geneva, Switzerland in three months to attend an international business conference. You expect to incur the total cost of SF 5,000 for lodging, meals and transportation during your stay. As of today, the spot exchange rate is $0.60/SF and the three-month forward rate is $0.63/SF. You can buy the three-month call option on SF with the exercise rate of $0.64/SF for the premium of $0.05 per SF. Assume that your expected future spot exchange rate is the same as the forward rate. The three-month interest rate is 6 percent per annum in the United States and 4 percent per annum in Switzerland.(a) Calculate your expected dollar cost of buying SF5,000 if you choose to hedge via call option on SF.(b) Calculate the future dollar cost of meeting this SF obligation if you decide to hedge using a forward contract.(c) At what future spot exchange rate will you be indifferent between the forward and option market hedges?(d) Illustrate the future dollar costs of meeting the SF payable against the future spot exchange rate under both the options and forward market hedges.Solution: (a) Total option premium = (.05)(5000) = $250. In three months, $250 is worth $253.75 = $250(1.015). At the expected future spot rate of $0.63/SF, which is less than the exercise price, you don’t expect to exercise options. Rather, you expect to buy Swiss franc at $0.63/SF. Since you are going to buy SF5,000, you expect to spend $3,150 (=.63x5,000). Thus, the total expected cost of buying SF5,000 will be the sum of $3,150 and $253.75, i.e., $3,403.75.(b) $3,150 = (.63)(5,000).(c) $3,150 = 5,000x + 253.75, where x represents the break-even future spot rate. Solving for x, we obtain x = $0.57925/SF. Note that at the break-even future spot rate, options will not be exercised.(d) If the Swiss franc appreciates beyond $0.64/SF, which is the exercise price of call option, you will exercise the option and buy SF5,000 for $3,200. The total cost of buying SF5,000 will be $3,453.75 = $3,200 + $253.75.This is the maximum you will pay.4. Boeing just signed a contract to sell a Boeing 737 aircraft to Air France. Air France will be billed €20 million which is payable in one year. The current spot exchange rate is $1.05/€ and the one -year forward rate is $1.10/€. The annual interest rate is 6.0% in the U.S. and5.0% in France. Boeing is concerned with the volatile exchange rate between the dollar and the euro and would like to hedge exchange exposure. (a) It is considering two hedging alternatives: sell the euro proceeds from the sale forward or borrow euros from the Credit Lyonnaise against the euro receivable. Which alternative would you recommend? Why?(b) Other things being equal, at what forward exchange rate would Boeing be indifferent between the two hedging methods?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the future dollar proceeds will be (20,000,000)(1.10) = $22,000,000. In the case of money market hedge (MMH), the firm has to first borrow the PV of its euro receivable, i.e., 20,000,000/1.05 =€19,047,619. Then the firm should exchange this euro amount into dollars at the current spot rate to receive: (€19,047,619)($1.05/€) = $20,000,000, which can be invested at the dollar interest rate for one year to yield: $20,000,000(1.06) = $21,200,000.Clearly, the firm can receive $800,000 more by using forward hedging.(b) According to IRP, F = S(1+i $)/(1+i F ). Th us the “indifferent” forward rate will be: F = 1.05(1.06)/1.05 = $1.06/€.5. Suppose that Baltimore Machinery sold a drilling machine to a Swiss firm and gave the Swiss client a choice of paying either $10,000 or SF 15,000 in three months.(a) In the above example, Baltimore Machinery effectively gave the Swiss client a free option to buy up to $10,000 dollars using Swiss franc. What is the ‘implied’ exercise exchange rate?(b) If the spot exchange rate turns out to be $0.62/SF, which currency do you think the Swiss client will choose to use for payment? What is the value of this free option for the Swiss client? (c) What is the best way for Baltimore Machinery to deal with the exchange exposure? Solution: (a) The implied exercise (price) rate is: 10,000/15,000 = $0.6667/SF .(b) If the Swiss client chooses to pay $10,000, it will cost SF16,129 (=10,000/.62). Since the Swiss client has an option to pay SF15,000, it will choose to do so. The value of this option is obviously SF1,129$ Cost Options hedgeForward hedge$3,453.75 $3,1500.5790.64(strike price)$/SF$253.75(=SF16,129-SF15,000).(c) Baltimore Machinery faces a contingent exposure in the sense that it may or may not receive SF15,000 in the future. The firm thus can hedge this exposure by buying a put option on SF15,000.6. Princess Cruise Company (PCC) purchased a ship from Mitsubishi Heavy Industry. PCC owes Mitsubishi Heavy Industry 500 million yen in one year. The current spot rate is 124 yen per dollar and the one-year forward rate is 110 yen per dollar. The annual interest rate is 5% in Japan and 8% in the U.S. PCC can also buy a one-year call option on yen at the strike price of $.0081 per yen for a premium of .014 cents per yen.(a) Compute the future dollar costs of meeting this obligation using the money market hedge and the forward hedges.(b) Assuming that the forward exchange rate is the best predictor of the future spot rate, compute the expected future dollar cost of meeting this obligation when the option hedge is used.(c) At what future spot rate do you think PCC may be indifferent between the option and forward hedge? Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the dollar cost will be 500,000,000/110 = $4,545,455. In the case of money market hedge, the future dollar cost will be: 500,000,000(1.08)/(1.05)(124)= $4,147,465.(b) The option premium is: (.014/100)(500,000,000) = $70,000. Its future value will be $70,000(1.08) = $75,600.At the expected future spot rate of $.0091(=1/110), which is higher than the exercise of $.0081, PCC will exercise its call option and buy ¥500,000,000 for $4,050,000 (=500,000,000x.0081).The total expected cost will thus be $4,125,600, which is the sum of $75,600 and $4,050,000.(c) When the option hedge is used, PCC will spend “at most” $4,125,000. On the other hand, when the forward hedging is used, PCC will have to spend $4,545,455 regardless of the future spot rate. This means that the options hedge dominates the forward hedge. At no future spot rate, PCC will be indifferent between forward and options hedges.7. Airbus sold an aircraft, A400, to Delta Airlines, a U.S. company, and billed $30 million payable in six months. Airbus is concerned with the euro proceeds from international sales and would like to control exchange risk. The current spot exchang e rate is $1.05/€ and six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€ at the moment. Airbus can buy a six-month put option on U.S. dollars with a strike price of €0.95/$ for a premium of €0.02 per U.S. dollar. Currently, six-month interest rate is 2.5% in the euro zone and 3.0% in the U.S.pute the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale if Airbus decides to hedge using aforward contract.b.If Airbus decides to hedge using money market instruments, what action does Airbus need to take?What would be the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale in this case?c.If Airbus decides to hedge using put options on U.S. dollars, what would be the ‘expected’ europroceeds from the American sale? Assume that Airbus regards the current forward exchange rate as an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate.d.At what future spot exchange rate do you think Airbus will be indifferent between the option andmoney market hedge?Solution:a. Airbus will sell $30 million forward for €27,272,727 = ($30,000,000) / ($1.10/€).b. Airbus will borrow the present value of the dollar receivable, i.e., $29,126,214 = $30,000,000/1.03, and then sell the dollar proceeds spot for euros: €27,739,251. This is the euro amount that Airbus is going to keep.c. Since the expected future spot rate is less than the strike price of the put option, i.e., €0.9091< €0.95, Airbus expects to exercise the option and receive €28,500,000 = ($30,000,000)(€0.95/$). This is gross proceeds. Airbus spent €600,000 (=0.02x30,000,000) upfr ont for the option and its future cost is equal to €615,000 = €600,000 x 1.025. Thus the net euro proceeds from the American sale is €27,885,000, which is the difference between the gross proceeds and the option costs.d. At the indifferent future spot rate, the following will hold:€28,432,732 = S T (30,000,000) - €615,000.Solving for S T, we obtain the “indifference” future spot exchange rate, i.e., €0.9683/$, or $1.0327/€.Note that €28,432,732 is the future value of the proceeds under money market hed ging:€28,432,732 = (€27,739,251) (1.025).Suggested solution for Mini Case: Chase Options, Inc.[See Chapter 13 for the case text]Chase Options, Inc.Hedging Foreign Currency Exposure Through Currency OptionsHarvey A. PoniachekI. Case SummaryThis case reviews the foreign exchange options market and hedging. It presents various international transactions that require currency options hedging strategies by the corporations involved. Seven transactions under a variety of circumstances are introduced that require hedging by currency options. The transactions involve hedging of dividend remittances, portfolio investment exposure, and strategic economic competitiveness. Market quotations are provided for options (and options hedging ratios), forwards, and interest rates for various maturities.II. Case Objective.The case introduces the student to the principles of currency options market and hedging strategies. The transactions are of various types that often confront companies that are involved in extensive international business or multinational corporations. The case induces students to acquire hands-on experience in addressing specific exposure and hedging concerns, including how to apply various market quotations, which hedging strategy is most suitable, and how to address exposure in foreign currency through cross hedging policies.III. Proposed Assignment Solution1. The company expects DM100 million in repatriated profits, and does not want the DM/$ exchange rate at which they convert those profits to rise above 1.70. They can hedge this exposure using DM put options with a strike price of 1.70. If the spot rate rises above 1.70, they can exercise the option, while if that rate falls they can enjoy additional profits from favorable exchange rate movements.To purchase the options would require an up-front premium of:DM 100,000,000 x 0.0164 = DM 1,640,000.With a strike price of 1.70 DM/$, this would assure the U.S. company of receiving at least:DM 100,000,000 – DM 1,640,000 x (1 + 0.085106 x 272/360)= DM 98,254,544/1.70 DM/$ = $57,796,791by exercising the option if the DM depreciated. Note that the proceeds from the repatriated profits are reduced by the premium paid, which is further adjusted by the interest foregone on this amount. However, if the DM were to appreciate relative to the dollar, the company would allow the option to expire, and enjoy greater dollar proceeds from this increase.Should forward contracts be used to hedge this exposure, the proceeds received would be:DM100,000,000/1.6725 DM/$ = $59,790,732,regardless of the movement of the DM/$ exchange rate. While this amount is almost $2 million more than that realized using option hedges above, there is no flexibility regarding the exercise date; if this date differs from that at which the repatriate profits are available, the company may be exposed to additional further current exposure. Further, there is no opportunity to enjoy any appreciation in the DM.If the company were to buy DM puts as above, and sell an equivalent amount in calls with strike price 1.647, the premium paid would be exactly offset by the premium received. This would assure that the exchange rate realized would fall between 1.647 and 1.700. If the rate rises above 1.700, the company will exercise its put option, and if it fell below 1.647, the other party would use its call; for any rate in between, both options would expire worthless. The proceeds realized would then fall between:DM 100,00,000/1.647 DM/$ = $60,716,454andDM 100,000,000/1.700 DM/$ = $58,823,529.This would allow the company some upside potential, while guaranteeing proceeds at least $1 million greater than the minimum for simply buying a put as above.Buy/Sell OptionsDM/$Spot Put Payoff “Put”Profits Call Payoff“Call”Profits Net Profit1.60 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.61 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.62 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.63 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.64 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.65 (1,742,846) 60,606,061 1,742,846 0 60,606,061 1.66 (1,742,846) 60,240,964 1,742,846 0 60,240,964 1.67 (1,742,846) 59,880,240 1,742,846 0 59,880,240 1.68 (1,742,846) 59,523,810 1,742,846 0 59,523,810 1.69 (1,742,846) 59,171,598 1,742,846 0 59,171,598 1.70 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.71 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.72 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.73 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.74 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.75 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.76 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.77 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.78 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.79 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.80 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.81 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.82 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.83 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.84 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.85 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529Since the firm believes that there is a good chance that the pound sterling will weaken, locking them into a forward contract would not be appropriate, because they would lose the opportunity to profit from this weakening. Their hedge strategy should follow for an upside potential to match their viewpoint. Therefore, they should purchase sterling call options, paying a premium of:5,000,000 STG x 0.0176 = 88,000 STG.If the dollar strengthens against the pound, the firm allows the option to expire, and buys sterling in the spot market at a cheaper price than they would have paid for a forward contract; otherwise, the sterling calls protect against unfavorable depreciation of the dollar.Because the fund manager is uncertain when he will sell the bonds, he requires a hedge which will allow flexibility as to the exercise date. Thus, options are the best instrument for him to use. He can buy A$ puts to lock in a floor of 0.72 A$/$. Since he is willing to forego any further currency appreciation, he can sell A$ calls with a strike price of 0.8025 A$/$ to defray the cost of his hedge (in fact he earns a net premium of A$ 100,000,000 x (0.007234 –0.007211) = A$ 2,300), while knowing that he can’t receive less than 0.72 A$/$ when redeeming his investment, and can benefit from a small appreciation of the A$. Example #3:Problem: Hedge principal denominated in A$ into US$. Forgo upside potential to buy floor protection.I. Hedge by writing calls and buying puts1) Write calls for $/A$ @ 0.8025Buy puts for $/A$ @ 0.72# contracts needed = Principal in A$/Contract size100,000,000A$/100,000 A$ = 1002) Revenue from sale of calls = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,573 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007234 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)3) Total cost of puts = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,332 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007211 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)4) Put payoffIf spot falls below 0.72, fund manager will exercise putIf spot rises above 0.72, fund manager will let put expire5) Call payoffIf spot rises above .8025, call will be exercised If spot falls below .8025, call will expire6) Net payoffSee following Table for net payoff Australian Dollar Bond HedgeStrikePrice Put Payoff “Put”Principal Call Payoff“Call”Principal Net Profit0.60 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.61 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.62 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.63 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.64 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.65 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.66 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.67 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.68 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.69 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.70 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.71 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.72 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.73 (75,332) 73,000,000 75,573 0 73,000,2410.74 (75,332) 74,000,000 75,573 0 74,000,2410.75 (75,332) 75,000,000 75,573 0 75,000,2410.76 (75,332) 76,000,000 75,573 0 76,000,2410.77 (75,332) 77,000,000 75,573 0 77,000,2410.78 (75,332) 78,000,000 75,573 0 78,000,2410.79 (75,332) 79,000,000 75,573 0 79,000,2410.80 (75,332) 80,000,000 75,573 0 80,000,2410.81 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.82 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.83 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.84 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.85 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2414. The German company is bidding on a contract which they cannot be certain of winning. Thus, the need to execute a currency transaction is similarly uncertain, and using a forward or futures as a hedge is inappropriate, because it would force them to perform even if they do not win the contract.Using a sterling put option as a hedge for this transaction makes the most sense. For a premium of:12 million STG x 0.0161 = 193,200 STG,they can assure themselves that adverse movements in the pound sterling exchange rate will not diminish the profitability of the project (and hence the feasibility of their bid), while at the same time allowing the potential for gains from sterling appreciation.5. Since AMC in concerned about the adverse effects that a strengthening of the dollar would have on its business, we need to create a situation in which it will profit from such an appreciation. Purchasing a yen put or a dollar call will achieve this objective. The data in Exhibit 1, row 7 represent a 10 percent appreciation of the dollar (128.15 strike vs. 116.5 forward rate) and can be used to hedge against a similar appreciation of the dollar.For every million yen of hedging, the cost would be:Yen 100,000,000 x 0.000127 = 127 Yen.To determine the breakeven point, we need to compute the value of this option if the dollar appreciated 10 percent (spot rose to 128.15), and subtract from it the premium we paid. This profit would be compared with the profit earned on five to 10 percent of AMC’s s ales (which would be lost as a result of the dollar appreciation). The number of options to be purchased which would equalize these two quantities would represent the breakeven point.Example #5:Hedge the economic cost of the depreciating Yen to AMC.If we assume that AMC sales fall in direct proportion to depreciation in the yen (i.e., a 10 percent decline in yen and 10 percent decline in sales), then we can hedge the full value of AMC’s sales. I have assumed $100 million in sales.1) Buy yen puts# contracts needed = Expected Sales *Current ¥/$ Rate / Contract size9600 = ($100,000,000)(120¥/$) / ¥1,250,0002) Total Cost = (# contracts)(contract size)(premium)$1,524,000 = (9600)( ¥1,250,000)($0.0001275/¥)3) Floor rate = Exercise – Premium128.1499¥/$ = 128.15¥/$ - $1,524,000/12,000,000,000¥4) The payoff changes depending on the level of the ¥/$ rate. The following table summarizes thepayoffs. An equilibrium is reached when the spot rate equals the floor rate.AMC ProfitabilityYen/$ Spot Put Payoff Sales Net Profit 120 (1,524,990) 100,000,000 98,475,010 121 (1,524,990) 99,173,664 97,648,564 122 (1,524,990) 98,360,656 96,835,666 123 (1,524,990) 97,560,976 86,035,986 124 (1,524,990) 96,774,194 95,249,204 125 (1,524,990) 96,000,000 94,475,010 126 (1,524,990) 95,238,095 93,713,105 127 (847,829) 94,488,189 93,640,360 128 (109,640) 93,750,000 93,640,360 129 617,104 93,023,256 93,640,360 130 1,332,668 92,307,692 93,640,360 131 2,037,307 91,603,053 93,640,360 132 2,731,269 90,909,091 93,640,360 133 3,414,796 90,225,664 93,640,360 134 4,088,122 89,552,239 93,640,360 135 4,751,431 88,888,889 93,640,360 136 5,405,066 88,235,294 93,640,360 137 6,049,118 87,591,241 93,640,360 138 6,683,839 86,966,522 93,640,360 139 7,308,425 86,330,936 93,640,360 140 7,926,075 85,714,286 93,640,360 141 8,533,977 85,106,383 93,640,360 142 9,133,318 84,507,042 93,640,360 143 9,724,276 83,916,084 93,640,360 144 10,307,027 83,333,333 93,640,360 145 10,881,740 82,758,621 93,640,360 146 11,448,579 82,191,781 93,640,360 147 12,007,707 81,632,653 93,640,360 148 12,569,279 81,081,081 93,640,360 149 13,103,448 80,536,913 93,640,360 150 13,640,360 80,000,000 93,640,360。
国际会计练习册答案 (上海财经大学出版社)

第一章练习题解答习题1.名词解释1.1国际会计的概念: 国际会计(International Accounting)。
国际会计内容广阔但研究时间较短,因此,较难有一个确切的定义。
美国加州理工大学教授M.Zafar Iqbal等认为,国际会计是针对国际间经济业务的会计,是对不同国家会计准则的比较,以及世界范围内的会计准则的协调。
而美国会计学家Weirch 和Anderson则进一步将国际会计细化为三个概念,即跨国公司会计(Multinational Corporation Accounting)、比较会计(Comparative accounting)和世界会计(World Accounting)。
1.2跨国公司会计: 从跨国公司会计视角认为国际会计主要是为了处理跨国公司母公司与子公司之间的会计问题,其研究领域较为狭窄,应用范围较为单一,只是停留在国际会计产生的直接动因——国际贸易与跨国公司这一点上,而未将其理论全面化和高度化。
因此,代表的只是国际会计发展的初级对各个国家不同的会计模式进行研究和比较。
包括各国的会计理论、会计准则、会计实务、会计环境等。
1.3比较会计: 相对跨国公司会计而言,比较会计上升到了一定的高度和深度,是由点及面、从具体到抽象的质的飞跃,同时,又是承上启下的关键性转折。
因为它不仅是对跨国公司会计的扩充与深化;更主要的是为世界会计奠定了坚实的基础。
1.4世界会计: 世界会计是从全球的角度出发,致力于建设一套世界各国普遍接受的统一和标准的会计模式,这是国际会计的理想和终极奋斗目标,其意义是显而易见的。
它能使会计更好地为世界经济一体化而服务。
但由于会计受社会环境和经济环境的制约与影响,各个国家的政治、法律、经济及文化背景的巨大差异,使得这一工程必将是艰巨而困难的而只有经历了比较会计这一阶段,通过对各个国家会计情况的分析与对比,才能综合制定出全球统一的会计模式。
因此,世界会计是建立在比较会计基础之上的,目前及未来国际会计研究的重点。
国际会计课后题答案版

国际会计课后题答案版 Pleasure Group Office【T985AB-B866SYT-B182C-BS682T-STT18】第1章国际会计的形成与发展一、讨论题为什么说市场国际化,特别是货币市场和资本市场的国际化是会计国际化的主要推动力国际贸易和国际经济技术合作,促使会计成为一种国际商业语言。
特别是国际货币市场和资本市场的兴起向进入市场的贷款人或筹资者提出了应提供在国际间可比且可靠的财务信息的要求(即国际财务报告趋同化的要求),更成为会计国际化的主要推动力。
跨国公司是否在百分之百地推动会计国际化说明你的观点。
不是。
跨国公司对推动会计国际化有其两面性:一方面,基于其跨国经营和国际筹资的需要,他们希望通过会计国际化来缩小和协调国别差异;另一方面,他们又十分重视利用各国现存的会计差异来谋取财务利益。
后者也推动了各国会计模式和重要会计方法的国际比较研究。
(注意:“会计国际化”大体上与“会计的国际协调化”概念一致,而与国际会计研究中的“国别会计”观点对立)会计随商业活动的扩展而传播,你同意这种说法吗从历史发展的进程谈谈你的看法。
同意。
可主要就前殖民帝国的会计向其原殖民地传播、工业革命后西方会计的发展及在世界范围内的广泛传播以及第二次世界大战以后美国会计的影响在一定程度上主宰着世界各地的会计发展等历史事实,加以讨论。
哪些特定会计方法具有国际性质把外币交易和外币报表的折算引入会计领域,是会计国际化带来的独特问题。
它与由此引发的跨国企业合并和国际合并财务报表与外币折算相互关联和制约的问题,以及各国的物价变动影响在国际合并财务报表中如何处理和调整的问题,从20世纪70年代以来,就成为国际会计研究中既需协调一致但又矛盾重重的“三大难题”。
在世纪之交,金融工具(特别是衍生工具)的创新引发的会计处理问题,给传统的会计概念和实务带来了巨大的冲击,成为各国会计准则机构联合攻关、仍未妥善解决的难题。
此外,国际税务会计也是值得关注的课题。
国际会计课后题答案整理版

国际会计课后题答案整理版第1章国际会计的形成与发展一、讨论题1.1 为什么说市场国际化,特别是货币市场和资本市场的国际化是会计国际化的主要推动力?国际贸易和国际经济技术合作,促使会计成为一种国际商业语言。
特别是国际货币市场和资本市场的兴起向进入市场的贷款人或筹资者提出了应提供在国际间可比且可靠的财务信息的要求(即国际财务报告趋同化的要求),更成为会计国际化的主要推动力。
1.2 跨国公司是否在百分之百地推动会计国际化?说明你的观点。
不是。
跨国公司对推动会计国际化有其两面性:一方面,基于其跨国经营和国际筹资的需要,他们希望通过会计国际化来缩小和协调国别差异;另一方面,他们又十分重视利用各国现存的会计差异来谋取财务利益。
后者也推动了各国会计模式和重要会计方法的国际比较研究。
(注意:“会计国际化”大体上与“会计的国际协调化”概念一致,而与国际会计研究中的“国别会计”观点对立)1.3 会计随商业活动的扩展而传播,你同意这种说法吗?从历史发展的进程谈谈你的看法。
同意。
可主要就前殖民帝国的会计向其原殖民地传播、工业革命后西方会计的发展及在世界范围内的广泛传播以及第二次世界大战以后美国会计的影响在一定程度上主宰着世界各地的会计发展等历史事实,加以讨论。
1.4 哪些特定会计方法具有国际性质?把外币交易和外币报表的折算引入会计领域,是会计国际化带来的独特问题。
它与由此引发的跨国企业合并和国际合并财务报表与外币折算相互关联和制约的问题,以及各国的物价变动影响在国际合并财务报表中如何处理和调整的问题,从20世纪70年代以来,就成为国际会计研究中既需协调一致但又矛盾重重的“三大难题”。
在世纪之交,金融工具(特别是衍生工具)的创新引发的会计处理问题,给传统的会计概念和实务带来了巨大的冲击,成为各国会计准则机构联合攻关、仍未妥善解决的难题。
此外,国际税务会计也是值得关注的课题。
1.5 你对会计国际化和国家化之间的矛盾及其消长有何看法?会计国际化和国家化的矛盾实际上反映了经济全球化与各国的国家利益之间的矛盾及其消长过程。
国际会计课后答案 重点

第一章导论2.会计可以被看做是包括三个部分:计量、披露和审计。
这种分类的优点和缺点是什么?你能提出其他有效的分类吗?Advantage: Some might argue that measurement, disclosure, and external auditing are three distinct (although related) processes, involving different members of the company. For example, corporate attorneys often are involved in disclosure issues, but seldom intervene in measurement ssues. The Board of Directors works with the external auditors but not necessarily with the comptroller s office. Thus, discussion of accounting requirements and voluntary accounting choices in different jurisdictions is simplified by focusing on the three components of accounting. Disadvantage: measurement, disclosure and auditing are interdependent, and should not be viewed in isolation of one another. A company choosing to disclose as little as possible, for example, may use accounting measurement approaches that reduce the information content of financial statements, and select an external auditor who will be relatively lenient in enforcing accounting requirements. One alternative classification might include accounting (measurement and disclosure), and auditing. A second classification might include financial reporting (annual and interim reporting, regulatory filings) and ad hoc disclosure (press releases, analyst meetings, etc). Any classification is arbitrary, and potentially useful depending on its purpose.优势:一些人可能认为测量,披露和外部审计是三个不同的(虽然相关)流程,涉及公司的不同成员。
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一、讨论题
对比本章引述的金融工具的个定义,说明各自的特点。
经济学家和金融界所举的定义都把金融工具界定为金融领域运用的单证:史密斯的定义把金融工具表述为“对其他经济单位的债权凭证和所有权凭证”,而《银行与金融百科全书》的定义中列举了金融领域运用的各种单证。
和所下的定义基础是一致的,都把金融工具界定为现金、合同权利或义务及权益工具。
的定义较清晰,在指明金融工具是“形成个企业的金融资产并形成另一企业的金融负债或权益工具的合同”后,又分别就金融资产、金融负债和权益工具下了定义。
对比本章引述的衍生金融工具的个定义,说叫各自的特点。
的定义指叫衍生金融工具是“一份双边合约或支付交换协议”,定义中的表述是“有关互换现金流量和旨存为交易名转移风险的双边合同”。
后名的表述更清晰。
两个定义都着币指明衍生金融工具价值的“衍生性”,并指明可作为衍生价值的基础的标的。
两者都列举了各种不同的标的。
和所下的定义基本上是致的,更便于作为衍生金融工具交易的会计处理所依据的概念。
讨论时可参照教本中归纳的项最基本的特征展开(本章教学要点(二)第点中的()也有简括的表述)。
区分金融资产和负债与非金融资产和负债项日是否等同于区分货币性资产和负债与非货币性资产和负债项日?请予以说明。
不等同。
形成收取或支付现金或另金融资产的合同权利或义务,是金融资产和负债的最摹本的特征,以此(合同权利或义务)区别于非金融资产和负债(参阅教术),而货币性资产和负债与非货币性资产和负债的区分则是根据这些项目对通货膨胀影响或汇率变动的不同反应而作出的。
二者是完全不相下的两种分类法。
更为币要的是,不要把“货币性金融资产和负债”与“货币性资产和负债”这两个概念相混淆。
前名是指“将按固定或可确定的金额收取或支付的金融资产和金融负债”,只是金融资产和金融负债的特定类别。
衍生金融工具品目繁多,但其基本形式不外乎:()远期合同;()期货合同:()期权合同:()互换(掉期)合同。
这是根据什么标准区分的?互换合同(掉期合同)为什么不是独立的形式昵?
根据的标准是:
()远期合同和期货合同在到期时,不论对主动签约方有利还是不利,主动签约方必须履约。
()期权合同在到期时,主动签约方(持权人、买方)有选择权有利时履约,不利时可以不履约,合同发行方(立权人)则有义务在持权人要求履约时出售或购入合同约定的该项资产。
互换(掉期)台同实际上是两份远期合同的调换,因而不是独市的形式。
说明远期合同与期权合同的共性和特性。
共性是都涉及购买或售出标的物的双边远期合约:其特性见讨论题的解题指引。
为什么衍生金融工具交易长期作为表外业务处理?这会带来什么样的严重后果?
因为长期以来都认为金融工具代表的合同权利和义务小符合资产和负债的定义,而符合定义是确认的前提条件,所以不符合要素定义,其关键在于这些权利和义务不是由于过去的事项形成的。
带来的严重后果是由于衍生金融工具交易形成的收益和损失(报酬和风险)长期游离于表外,使表内信息足以误导投资人和报表的其他使用者。
衍生金融丁具代表的权利、义务是否符合资产、负债定义?
和存开发金融工具会计准则时,部论证了衍生金融工具代表的权利、义务符合资产、负债定史。
可参考教本小和小的论述展开讨论(本章教学要点(四)也有简括的表述)。
如果认为衍生金融工具代表的权利、义务符合资产、负债的定义,那要解决什么问题,才能在资产负债表内列报衍生金融工具呢? 的见解如何?
要解决符合确认标准的问题。
在制定的过程中的见解是有过改变的,从把第项确认标准凸显为“风险与
报酬的实质上转移”,转变为根据一般的确认标准来阐明确认金融工具的条件为“当企业,也只有当企成为金融工具条款的一方”。
同时列举了应予确队的个例子和不予确认的个例子,参见教本(术章教学要点(五)第点中的()和()也有简括的表述)。
你对的见解有何评论?是基本赞同还是不赞同?你个人对又有什么见解?
对基本赞同的观点还是基本赞同的观点,可以展开讨论,让学生自由发表意见,,并且不强求达成倾时性的意见。
讨论的关键则在于:
()明确摒弃的观点的意目是为对所有衍生金融工具,包括期权合同都能在表内确认敞开大门;
()“成为金融工具条款的一方”是否也蕴含着“风险与报酬的转移”,但不定是基本上转移,也可以包括不对等的转移?
你对和的主张,即对所有金融工具包扩基本的和衍生的金融工具都应以公允价值计量的观点有何评论?你认为不去触动基本金融工具的以历史成本(摊余成本)为计量基础的传统习惯,而只要求以公允价优计量衍生工具是否合适?说明其理由。
不去触动基本金融工具以历史成本(摊余成本)为计量基础的传统习惯,对计量可靠性(因为它们一般没有公开市场价格)和与现行法规规章的配套、协调都有好处但形成了基本工具与以公允价值计量的衍生工具在计量基础上的不一致,即采用了“双重”计量标准,而且在实务中,存特定情况下,基本工其也要通过评估等手段确定其公允价值。
把计量基础的确定和确队时点的选择建立在对金融资产分类的基础上,你认为合适吗?有什么利弊得失?可以说,这是种权宜的但务实的做法。
其利在于,如果分类恰当,可以保证计量的可靠性:其弊在于,可以利用对分类的主观判断和变更分类操纵净损益的确定。
现行会计准则和监管规章之所以对允许按摊余历史成本计量的“持有牟到期日
你怎样理解公允价值?公允价优是一种计量观念还是计量基础?对金融工具而言,在哪些情况下能可靠地以公允价值计量。
对于公允价值是一种计量观念还是计量基础,存在着不同的观点。
认为是计量基础的,是以其与历史成本计量基础相对应,说它是计量观念的,是认为公允价值是一个概括性的概念,它可以表现为现时市价、未来现金流量的折现值或是通过恰当的计价模型确定的价值。
但在使用这两个概念时二者并没有严格的界定。
现时市价是最可靠的公允价值。
对金融工具而言,证券(债券和股票)价格能否代表公司价值,取决于市场的有效性。
对于没有上市交易的证券,其公允价值的确定即使通过专业性的等级评定和资产评估,也难以摆脱主管判断的成分。
混合引量模式正是在对小能可靠地以公允价值计量的项目,才仍然以摊余历史成本汁量的。
同时,以公允价值计量衍生工具乃至基本工具(全部金融工具)是为之努力的目标,通过会计估计和计价模型确定公允价值的技术在金融市场发达的国家必将更广泛地使用。
你怎样理解对套期活动的会计处理?为什么和都主张只有在特定条件下才能运用套期活动会计?
套期活动会计是为了存会计记录中反映套期活动的避险效应(即套期工其与被套期项目的风险相互抵消的效应)而设计的,是不符台普遍采用的常规程序的,所以只是存特定条件下才能运用。
其前提是这种套期关系要明确、预先设定、可计量并确实有效.
你怎样区别公允价值套期和现金流量套期?对境外经营净投资套期的会计处理有什么特点?
公允价值套期是指对己确认资产或负债(或它们的可辨认部分)的公允价值变动风险的套期;现金流量套期则是对可以归属于己确认资产或负债或是与预期交易相联系的现金流量变动风险的套期,但规定,以企业报告货币表示的固定价格买、卖资产的未确认的“确定承诺”承受的虽然是公允价价风险,也要作为现金流量套期处理,以避免把现行实务中不确认的“确定承诺”确认为资产或负债。
对境外经营净投资套期的会计处理的特点是:应按照类似于现金流量套期的会计原则进行处理,但与套期有效部分(即①期术投资净额实际余额超过②套期时预计的期未投资净额时,按②;①低于②时按①)相关的套期工具的利得或损失,应按外币折算损益的归类方式进行归类(参词教本【例题】)。
当①低于②时,套期无效部分当然耍按常规程序处理,不适用套期活动会计。