Killtest 分享BI0-120 题库
Killtest 分享2B0-020 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. Exam: 2B0-020ES NetSight AtlasTitle:Version: DEMO1. Which of the following device communication methods is used by MIB Tools?A. SNMPv1B. SNMPv3 CredentialC. SNMPv3 ProfileD. Max Access/Super UserE. All of the aboveF.A and C onlyAnswer: E2. Which of the following definition(s) best describes the difference between managers and agents in SNMPv1 and SNMPv3?A. In SNMPv1, the manager and agent were distinctly different but performed overlapping functions. Managers resided on workstations; agents on remote devices.B. In SNMPv3, a distributed interacting collection of SNMP entities can reside on both management workstations and remote devices. Because each entity implements a portion of SNMP capability, an entity can act as an agent, a manager, or a combination of the two.C. In SNMPv1, the manager and agent were distinctly different and performed discrete functions: the manager ran applications; the agent provided functionality. Managers resided on workstations; agents on remote devices.D.Aand BE.B and CF.All of the aboveAnswer: E3. A MIB not supported on all devices should be assigned to which SNMP Request Group, when defininga FlexView?A. Group 1B. Group 2C. Group 3D. Group 4E. All of the aboveF. B or C onlyAnswer: F4. What are the three predefined groups in Inventory Manager Network Elements?A. Chassis, Device Type and IPB. Chassis, Matrix and X-PeditionC. Matrix, SmartSwitch and X-PeditionD. Matrix, X-Pedition and IPAnswer:A5. How can network masks be displayed in CIDR notation in Router Services Manager?A. By selecting CIDR in the Network Mask option of Tools > OptionsB. By selecting CIDR in the device properties windowC. By selecting Dot Delimited in the Display option of Tools > OptionsD. It is not possible to have network masks displayed in CIDR notationAnswer:A6. The MIB Tools Utility allows you to do all of the following, EXCEPTA. View object definitionsB. Set object valuesC. Change IP addresses on devicesD. Search for objectsE. Browse the MIB databaseAnswer: C7. Which of the following statements are true about FlexViews?A. You can use the FlexView editor to define as many FlexViews as you want.B. You can create custom tabs to display desired MIB information.C. The FlexView Wizard is not available with Atlas Lite.D. All of the aboveE. A and C onlyAnswer: D8. What is the name of the file that defines the absolute path to your NetSight Plug-In applications?A. PlugIn.detailsB. commonC. NetSight.propertiesD. Atlas.configAnswer: C9. The relationship among remote devices in each map is automatically generated by Console when you click the Retrieve button.A. TrueB. FalseAnswer: B10. What are the three tabs in the left panel of Inventory Manager?A. Devices, Traps, ArchivesB. Network Elements, Firmware Management, Configuration ManagementC. Details View, Archives, ChassisD. Properties, VLAN, CompassAnswer: BThis document was created with Win2PDF available at . The unregistered version of Win2PDF is for evaluation or non-commercial use only. This page will not be added after purchasing Win2PDF.。
Killtest 分享HD0-300 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. Exam: HD0-300Help Desk ManagerTitle:Version: DEMOThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.1.An upcoming production rollout could heavily impact normal off-shifts. You decideto move schedules to cover the upcoming increase in calls. After the staff expressestheir concerns about having to work the new shifts with little warning, you stilldecide to implement your off-schedule shift change.Which leadership trait does this show?A. the ability to encourage team participationB. the ability to discourage one-person dominationC. the ability to execute a plan despite adverse conditionsD. the ability to identify unpopular decisions as still necessaryAnswer: D2.Who is ultimately responsible for an employee's success or failure?A. the employeeB. the employee's mentorC. the employee's managerD. the employee's team leaderAnswer: A3.What are three benefits of mentoring programs? (Choose three)A. They help team members improveB. They help retain personnel with optimal skills.C. They allow team members potential growth opportunities.D. They help team members develop strategic vision statements.Answer: A,B,C4.Your support organization has 20 frontline analysts. The Call Management Systemproduces performance reports that show the amount of time each analyst is on thephone, performing wrap-up work, and not available. Reports also show the numberof calls taken and the average talk-time per agent.Based on these reports, what should the manager do to improve the supportorganization's performance?A. publish trend reports for the group as a wholeB. publish a list of agents ranked by who has the most talk time.C. Recognize and reward the individual who handles the most callsD. Recognize and reward the individual who has the least :not available" timeAnswer: A5.A customer could not get through to a support representative when calling the HelpDesk in the morning. He had to call back later.Which metric captures this situation?The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.A. Time in QueueB. Abandonment RateC. Average Speed of AnswerD. First Call Resolution RateAnswer: B6.What should be addressed in a support center's marketing plan?A. the support center's budget requirementsB. the support center's staffing requirementsC. the support center's implementation timelinesD. the support center's role in the corporate visionAnswer: Danizational development needs are determined by which three methods?(Choose three)A. project analysisB. position profilingC. skill gap analysisD. individual assessmentAnswer: B,C,D8.Which three technologies enable Help Desks to achieve their performance goals?(Choose three)A. Automatic Call DistributorB. Interactive Voice ResponseC. Intra-monthly Monitoring SystemD. Extra-diem Reporting ApplicationE. Customer Relationship ManagementAnswer: A,B,E9.Which statement about contract staffing is true?A. Contract employees can only be let go by their company.B. Contract employees receive more benefits than full-time employeesC. Contract employees may hinder teamwork if they do not work closely with full-timeemployeesD. Contract employees are allowed to work hours that are not specifically defined bytheir company.Answer: C10.What are three ways to maintain a balanced and positive outlook when adapting to new situations, priorities, or demands? (Choose three)A. concentrate on common goals during times of disagreementB. develop interests outside of work to provide a stress-free zoneC. identify trends in service, and then develop resources to meet those trendsD. create a personal network of advisors with whom you can share problems and concerns.Answer: A,B,D11.Your Help Desk is 24x7 and covers support for many areas throughout the country. An upcoming snow storm is expected to cause power outage.What helps you prepare for the upcoming days?A. call answer plansB. contingency plansC. UPS usage reportsD. Gap analysis reportsAnswer: B12.Which three metric calculations impact customer satisfaction? (Choose three)A. Average Talk TimeB. Abandonment RateC. First Call Resolution RateD. Averaged Speed of AnswerE. Average After Call Work TimeAnswer: B,C,D13.Which practice is important in improving the supportive atmosphere found in an open and positive work environment?A. use of visual status boardsB. empowerment from managementC. access to computer telephony technologiesD. specific statement of performance expectationsAnswer: B14.Which two service parameters are normally addressed in a Service Level Agreement? (Choose two)A. call flowsB. training materialC. products supportedD. days and hours of serviceAnswer: C,D15.Service Level Agreements document the level of service provided as well as the level at which that service is provided by which two parties?A. customerB. stake holderC. service providerD. Help Desk managerE. Service-level managersAnswer: A,C16.You want to be prepared for a potential decrease in workforce scheduling based ona decrease in customer service requests. What are the three most likely reasons for a reduction in call volume? (Choose three)A. Customers are better trainedB. Customers are more experiencedC. Business functions are outsourcedD. System are more stable and mature.E. Overall business/workforce is reduced.Answer: A,B,D17.What are three functions of an effective support organization in managing unresolved support issues? (Choose three)A. recording unresolved issuesB. resolving customer issuesC. escalating unresolved issuesD. monitoring unresolved issuesE. communicating the status of issuesAnswer: C,D,E18.You are supporting someone from a different culture. How can you improve your communication? (Choose three)A. speak slowly and loudlyB. pause to verify understandingC. encourage the person to ask for clarificationD. use proper/standard language expressions (eliminate slang)Answer: B,C,D19.Which traits should a Help Desk manager look for an analyst to determine if theanalyst can effectively multitask?A. handles stress and prioritizeB. takes the initiative and is creativeC. takes chances and switches topicsD. changes perspectives often and is self sufficientAnswer: A20.How can you pursue continuous learning to stay current with industry standards? (Choose two)A. create an individual development planB. conduct monthly performance reviewsC. volunteer for projects that require you to leam new informationD. communicate a need for change by providing a compelling business rationale Answer: A,C。
Killtest 分享QQ0-200 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : QQ0-200Title:Version : DemoHDI qualified help desk senior analyst(hdsa)1. Which three are characteristics of a strategically-thinking help desk? (Choose three)A. Transactional focus.B. Reactive focus.C. Proactive focus.D. Information giving focus.E. Integrated focus.Answer: BCD2. When designing a help desk technology infrastructure, which two components are most commonly included? (Choose two)A. Interactive Voice Response.B. Web server.C. Telephony system.D. Call logging system.Answer: CD3. An upset, frustrated customer asks to speak to the help desk manager. What is your most appropriate response? (Choose 1)A. It would be easier to resolve this call if you calm down.B. I am sorry, but my manager is not available at the moment. May I get her to call you back?C. I am sorry, but my supervisor does not handle these situations, I can assist you.D. I appreciate your frustration with this; I have experienced this same problem many times.Answer: B4. When communicating with a customer, it is best to avoid _____. (Choose two)A. Apologies.B. Empathising.C. Use of slang.D. Technical terms.Answer: CD5. You are speaking to a customer who has an incident that requires you to perform further research before you can apply a resolution. You document the situation and the impact. What is the best action to take next? (Choose 1)A. Close the call.B. Develop a multi-functional team to address the situation.C. Ask your team colleagues to concentrate on this problem with you.D. Explain to the customer what will happen next.Answer: D6. Which question should you ask to best assess a customer's experience and knowledge level? (Choose 1)A. What is the error code you see?B. Have you ever had this error before?C. What were the circumstances that led to this situation?D. Have you spoken with the systems administrator?Answer: C7. Which are two characteristics of active listeners? (Choose two)A. They demonstrate sympathy.B. They use the customer's name.C. They avoid using verbal attends.D. They listen for, and recognise, emotion words.Answer: BD8. What are the two most important points to remember in order to manage a call successfully? (Choose two)A. Create a problem-solving work-flow.B. Use the same terminology as the customer.C. Clearly document the situation and the steps taken.D. Give the customer something to do.Answer: BC9. Which are two characteristics of active listeners? (Choose two)A. They acknowledge the customer.B. They know the process for escalating a problem.C. They restate/paraphrase to ensure understanding.D. They understand that evidence and reasoning are critical.Answer: AC10. What are two purposes of an on-going (event) survey? (Choose two)A. To evaluate overall satisfaction levels with products.B. To measure the quality of a single interaction.C. To assess satisfaction levels with all help desk services.D. To trend levels of customer satisfaction between annual (periodic) surveys.Answer: BD11. What are the three best methods for building rapport among departments within the support organisation? (Choose three)A. Active Networking.B. Involvement in Project management.C. Participation in company-wide events and initiatives.D. Involvement in cross-functional teams.Answer: ACD12. A help desk analyst is on the phone with a customer and does not know the solution for the problem. What is the best technique for them to use to disengage from the call? (Choose 1)A. I have the information. I will get back to you as soon as possible.B. Allow me to check this further, I will call you at 10:00 with an update.C. Let me research this, I will call you back as soon as I have a resolution.D. Permit me to check with some other members of my team, I will get back to you as soon as I review this with them.Answer: B13. What are the two most important purposes of an annual survey? (Choose two)A. To assess IT technical support.B. To evaluate overall satisfaction levels.C. To identify changes customers feel are valuable.D. To measure changes in products and services from the previous year.Answer: BC14. Which two business needs must be considered when allocating priorities? (Choose two)A. The impact on the business.B. The customers status.C. The customers location.D. Service level agreement commitments.Answer: AD15. What is the best description of multi-tasking? (Choose 1)A. Delegating all responsibility along with all tasks.B. Completing one job before starting the next one.C. Starting tasks and handing them to subordinates to complete.D. Being capable of handling a variety of problems at the same time.Answer: D16. What are two of the best ways to demonstrate confidence when on the telephone with a customer? (Choose 1)A. Using a confident tone, tell them you dont have a resolution for their incident yet but you are finding out by using the knowledgebase.B. Using a confident tone, tell the customer you are new to the desk and are transferring their call.C. Using a confident tone, ask the customer to call a 2nd line team, and provide their telephone number.D. Using a confident tone, tell the customer that you are unable to help them until tomorrow.Answer: A17. You think one of your help desk analysts is suffering from stress. Which two physical signs best indicate the analyst is experiencing stress? (Choose two)A. They have a new wardrobe of clothes.B. They seem tense and often have white knuckles.C. They bite their fingernails.D. They have a pallid complexion.E. They often seem short of breath.Answer: BE18. Why is it important to record and analyse customer complaints? (Choose 1)A. To gain insight into customer perceptions.B. To identify customers who are never satisfied.C. To prove that other IT groups are meeting customer expectations.D. To demonstrate that customers are not aware of service level agreements.Answer: A19. How can the help desk be of strategic benefit to the organisation? (Choose one)A. It increases staff levels.B. It is a useful source of information.C. It ensures rigid adherence to operational policies.D. It ensures that customers speak only to the help desk personnel.Answer: B20. You are a help desk analyst and you are having difficulty understanding a customer from another country. What is the best action for you to take? (Choose 1)A. Ask the customer if there is someone else who speaks your language more fluently who could assist.B. Ask the customer to email you instead.C. Tell the customer you are sorry but you cannot understand him, and suggest he calls back another time.D. Tell the customer you will send him a user manual.Answer: A。
Killtest 分享QQ0-100 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : QQ0-100Title :Version : DemoHDI qualified help desk analyst(hda)1. An analyst has conveyed incorrect information to a customer. Which action demonstrates personal accountability?A. The analyst has another analyst call the customerB. The analyst closes the call and moves to the next callC. The analyst calls the customer back to correct the informationD. The analyst calls the customer back and blames the incorrect information on bad documentation Answer: C2. For which two reasons do help desk's log all calls? (Choose two.)A. Allows ticket monitoringB. Measure frequency of callsC. Prove the help desk is rightD. Provide an audit trail of activitiesAnswer: BD3. In which four circumstances is it appropriate to use open questions? (Choose three.)A. When your time is limitedB. When you need to build rapportC. When you need the customer to elaborateD. When you have exhausted your possibilitiesAnswer: BCD4. Why are customer satisfaction surveys important?A. They reveal what abandon rate is acceptableB. They reveal how the help desk is perceived by the customerC. They determine the percentage of first call resolution (FCR)D. They determine what level of support the customer is receivingAnswer: B5. A customer calls with a printing problem. You start the troubleshooting process by asking some simple questions. The customer admits that this is his first time using a computer Which three questions should be used to obtain necessary information to solve the problem? (Choose three.)A. Ask the customer if he is the only one who can print to this printerB. Ask the customer if a start button or disk icon appears on the screenC. Ask the customer if he has experienced any problems recently with any other applicationsD. Guide the customer through checking the printer connection and making sure the power is turned on Answer: ACD6. What is the primary role of support service?A. To track problems and bugsB. To provide quality assistanceC. To provide technical resolutionsD. To provide the customer with a knowledge-baseAnswer: B7. A customer calls you in a frantic state. The customer has a big presentation in an hour and cannot get the presentation to print. You ask questions about the problem, but the customer keeps talking about what will happen to her if she does not have the presentation ready. Which two actions should you take to get the customer's attention? (Choose two.)A. Empathise with the customerB. Tell the customer to "snap out of it"C. Regularly use the customer's first nameD. Raise your voice when asking questionsAnswer: AC8. What are three reasons for providing consistent service? (Choose three.)A. To guarantee professionalismB. To instill confidence in your customerC. To ensure a commitment to excellenceD. To ensure empathy to customer needsAnswer: ABC9. What is a key benefit of a knowledge-base system?A. Increases call volumeB. Saves time and moneyC. Decreases network trafficD. Requires lower maintenanceAnswer: B10. What should you do to assess a customer level of knowledge? What should you do to assess a customer? level of knowledge?A. Ask open questionsB. Ask closed questionsC. Provide more detailed explanationsD. Assume the customer has a basic level of knowledgeAnswer: A11. Which two organisational characteristics are typically found in a supportive workplace environment? (Choose two.)A. High employee moraleB. Low employee turnoverC. High adherence to policiesD. Low superior-subordinate interactionAnswer: AB12. What is the number one goal of support services?A. To give technical support to anyone who callsB. To resolve all calls requiring technical supportC. To obtain information for any questions that are askedD. To keep the customer performing at the highest level possibleAnswer: D13. You are having a trouble understanding a customer with a strong accent. The first thing you should do is ______?A. Find someone else who can understand the customer betterB. Tell the customer you are having difficulty understanding themC. Ask the customer is there is someone else in their organisation for you to talk toD. Inform the customer that you cannot understand them and there is nothing you can do to help them Answer: B14. What two considerations need to be made when sharing workspace? (Choose two.)A. Maintain a clean environmentB. Discretion and courtesy when decoratingC. Share only with persons with similar likes/dislikesD. None, each person needs to take care of it themselvesAnswer: AB15. Which two are characteristics of a team player? (Choose two.)A. CourtesyB. ConformityC. ParticipationD. IndependenceAnswer: AC16. Which two are the primary purpose of an annual (periodic) survey? (Choose two.)A. Determine management bonusesB. Identify changes to products, services and processesC. Measure performance of individual analysts at the help deskD. Evaluate customer satisfaction with products, services, and personnelAnswer: BD17. Which technique will best optimise talk time?A. Analyst asks clarifying questionsB. Analyst uses business languageC. Customer should be prepared to actively listenD. Analyst adjusts to customer pace and competence level Analyst adjusts to customer? pace and competence levelAnswer: D18. What are two benefits of encouraging customers to follow standard procedures? (Choose two.)A. Improves quality and accuracyB. Helps customers make better decisionsC. Results in customers calling less frequentlyD. Keeps customers up-to-date on new applications Answer: AB19. Which three approaches help create a positive business reputation? (Choose three.)A. When you hear complaints about your organisation, change the subjectB. Have a good attitude and never speak negatively about your organisationC. See what you can do to assist any co-worker who is unhappy or experiencing problemsD. Try to have a positive and memorable effect on every person you communicate with each day Answer: BCD20. Which two are effective techniques for dealing with stress? (Choose two.)A. Take long breaksB. Set realistic goals/objectivesC. Exercise and observe good nutrition practicesD. Use high energy drinks, e.g., coffee, caffeine drinks to keep energy levels upAnswer: BC。
Killtest 分享EW0-200 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : EW0-200Title:Version : DEMOExtreme networks associate(ena)The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.1. Which CLI command would you use to create a default route with a metric of 5 and a gateway of10.0.0.1?A. CONFIG IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 10.0.0.1 5B. CONFIG IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 5 10.0.0.1C. CREATE IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 10.0.0.1 5D. CREATE IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 5 10.0.0.1Answer:A2. An Extreme Switch is shipped with a pre-configured VLAN called DEFAULT that has all switch ports as tagged members.A. TRUEB. FALSEAnswer: B3. How would you stop a scheduled configuration download from happening? Use the CLI command:A. cancel configuration downloadB. download configuration cancelC. configuration download cancelD. delete configuration downloadAnswer: B4. Given the following information, select the option that would allow you to change the active ExtremeWare version to 6.1.9b11 upon reboot.The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.A. use image primaryB. download config primaryC. use config primaryD. download image primaryAnswer:A5. The default administrator login name for a new Extreme switch was entered as ADMIN (all caps). This will allow the administrator access to the CLI.A. TRUEB. FALSEAnswer: B6. ExtremeWare, pre-installed on every Extreme Networks ?chipset switch, combines industry standard protocols to ensure interoperability with legacy switches and routers, QoS for bandwidth management and traffic prioritization in today networks.A. TRUEB. FALSEAnswer:A7. Which step would you take to configure a VLAN to only allow IP-related traffic?A. config <vlan> protocol ipB. config protocol <vlan> ipC. config ip protocol <vlan>D. None of these.Answer:A8. Extreme Networks switches build their forwarding database from the incoming packet field information containing the:A. Source MAC address.B. Destination MAC address.C. Source IP address.D. Destination IP address.Answer:A9. The CLI console port utilizes a serial cable for physical switch to terminal connection.A. TRUEB. FALSEAnswer:A10. Which CLI command will you use to change the CLI prompt from the default display to Switch02?A. CONFIG SNMP SYSLOCATION Switch02B. CONFIG SNMP SYSNAME Switch02C. CONFIG CLI PROMPT Switch02D. CONFIG CLI DISPLAY Switch02Answer: B11. In spanning tree, the designated bridge is the bridge with the:A. least-cost path to the root bridgeB. highest bridge priorityC. lowest port cost on all portsD. None of theseAnswer:A12. In ExtremeWare, active VLANs that are configured with ports and an IP address and configured to forward IP and run a routing protocol will have their subnet advertised.A. TRUEB. FALSEAnswer:A13. A 802.1Q tag is a marker inserted between the source and destination MAC addresses fields of the Ethernet frame.A. TRUEB. FALSEAnswer: B14. Which of the following protocol filter/s is/are predefined in ExtremeWare?A. OSPFB. TCPC. NETBIOSD. All of theseAnswer: C15. What CLI command is used to disable learning of incoming RIP routes on an interface?A. disable rip learning <VLAN>B. configure rip rxmode none <VLAN>C. configure rip interface <VLAN> passiveD. None of theseAnswer: B16. Which statement is true? In a PC, the configured default gateway:A. Is always within the PC IP (sub) network.B. Is always outside the PC IP (sub) network.C. Is always behind a router.D. Can be anywhere.Answer:A17. This type of OSPF router has its router interfaces connected into multiple OSPF areas.A. ASBR.B. ABR.C. DR.D. BDR.Answer: B18. Which CLI command would you use to configure the switch to ignore STP for selected VLANs?A. enable ignore-stp vlan <stpd>B. enable ignore-bpdu stpd <stpd> vlan <vlan>C. enable ignore-bpdu stpd <stpd>D. enable ignore-stp vlan <vlan>Answer: D19. Which of the following CLI commands would you use to enable ECMP for RIP?A. enable rip route sharingB. enable route sharing ripC. enable iproute sharingD. None of these, ecmp is not supported by RIPAnswer: D20. If you wish to silently drop all traffic destined for IP network 100.219.10.0/24 with a gateway of10.219.10.1/24 and without receiving any ICMP messages that would otherwise be generated, which CLI command would you execute?A. configure iproute delete 100.219.10.0/24 gateway 10.219.10.1B. configure iproute default 100.219.10.0/24C. configure iproute add blackhole 100.219.10.0/24 gateway 10.219.10.1D. configure iproute add blackhole 100.219.10.0/24Answer: D。
Killtest 分享NS0-510 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : NS0-510Title :Version : DEMONCIE - Backup & Recovery Implementation EngineerExam1.Which two technologies serve as the basis for SnapVault-based backups? (Choose two.)A.QSMB.VSMC.SyncMirrorD.SnapshotCorrect:A D2.Which NetApp backup and recovery solution is best for backing up remote office heterogeneous data storage?A.Snapshot copiesB.SnapManagerC.SnapVaultD.Open System SnapVaultCorrect:D3.From which three platforms does Open Systems SnapVault support backup and restore? (Choose three.)A.IBM AIXB.SunOSC.HP HP-UXD.LinuxE.Windows NT, Windows 2000, and Windows Server 2003F.SGI IRIXCorrect:A C D4.What are three components of an Open Systems SnapVault (OSSV) installation? (Choose three.)A.Primary SystemB.Secondary SystemC.OSSV agent installed on the primary systemD.OSSV agent installed on the secondary systemApp primary systemCorrect:A B C5.The NearStore VTL provides a masking function to control Host access to virtual devices.A.TrueB.FalseCorrect:A6.The SnapVault Secondary is configured for user access of qtrees via NAS. How do you restore a file?A.by using SnapRestoreB.by using the SnapVault GUIC.by users with sufficient privilegesD.by only storage administrators with sufficient privilegesCorrect:C7.A-SIS optimization can be configured at _____.A.the volume level onlyB.the aggregate level onlyC.both the aggregate and volume levelsD.the qtree levelCorrect:A8.What are two applications that can manage Open Systems SnapVault-based backup environments via NDMP? (Choose two.)App Protection ManagerB.Legato NetworkerC.Symantec NetBackupD.Syncsort Backup ExpressCorrect:A D9.SnapVault is a disk-based backup solution that _____. (Choose three.)A.enables backup of heterogeneous primary storage systems to a NetApp secondary storage systemB.enables restoration of data from a SnapVault secondary storage system, with minimum downtime and better reliability than tape-based backup and restoreC.requires both NetApp primary and secondary storage systemsD.enables data stored on multiple NetApp storage systems to be backed up to a central secondary system as read-only Snapshot copiesCorrect:B C D10.When a SnapVault Secondary requests an incremental backup from the primary, the SnapVault Primary creates a new snapshot and compares it to the most recent ONTAP-scheduled snapshot in order to identify the changed data blocks.A.TrueB.FalseCorrect:B11.Which two events occur when a volume with qtrees is backed up using SnapVault from Primary to Secondary? (Choose two.)A.Qtrees in Primary are stored as qtrees on Secondary.B.Qtrees in Primary are stored as directories on Secondary.C.Restores of original volume from Secondary to Primary are done as a qtree.D.Restores of original volume from Secondary to Primary are done as a volume.Correct:B C12.What is the maximum number of concurrent A-SIS sessions on a NetApp controller?A.2B.4C.8D.16Correct:C13.Without the nearstore_option license installed, what are the total concurrent SnapVault transfer streams for the FAS3020/3050?A.16 for FC drives and 8 for SATA drivesB.8 for FC drives and 16 for SATA drivesC.32 for FC drives and 16 for SATA drivesD.16 for FC drives and 32 for SATA drivesCorrect:A14.Which two NetApp products support heterogeneous storage environments? (Choose two.)A.NearStore VTLB.SnapVaultC.OSSVD.StoreVaultCorrect:A C15.SnapVault supports a multi-vendor storage infrastructure environment.A.TrueB.FalseCorrect:B16.In which two situations is Snapshot the preferred strategy for backup and recovery? (Choose two.)A.when file systems or raw partitions consist of a single LUNB.when file systems span multiple LUNs via Volume Manager Enterprise or a similar productC.when selective restoration of files within the LUN is a requirementD.when offloading the majority of backup overhead from the host system is a requirementCorrect:A D17.SnapVault allows data to be _____.A.centralized for enterprise-wide data management and allows backup applications to control native backup and recovery facilities in NetApp storage systemsB.recovered from a corrupted database, application, or damaged file system in less than a minute, regardless of the size of the volume being restoredC.backed up via Snapshot and transferred on a scheduled basis to a destination NearStore applianceD.virtualized and tightly integrated with Microsoft NTFS, providing a layer of abstraction between application data and its physical storageCorrect:C18.What are three NetApp backup and recovery solutions based on Snapshot technology? (Choose three.)A.SnapVaultB.OSSVC.VTLD.SnapManager productsCorrect:A B D19.Tape backups are widely used because they are considered the most secure form of media backup.A.TrueB.FalseCorrect:B20.What is RTO?A.the amount of time that an organization will NOT have access to lost data while the data is being recoveredB.the amount of time that an organization will take to recover their dataC.the time-out period for remote device accessD.the recorded time of the data outageCorrect:AThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.。
Killtest 分享E20-537 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : E20-537Title :Version : DemoNetworked Storage-ns exam for Storage adminsitrators1. What is the fully functional state of a Virtual Data Mover?A. loadedB. mountedC. PermUnloadedD. TempUnloadedAnswer: A2. What is a recommended use for SnapSure?A. as a Disaster Recovery solutionB. for production files system mirroringC. as a source for incremental backupsD. for full production file system restores when the PFS is corruptedAnswer: C3. Which command is used to create a new user on the Data Mover for FTP?A. nas_userB. nas_newuserC. server_userD. server_ftpuserAnswer: C4. Which procedure configures Windows users' home directories on a Celerra CIFS server?A. Configure the homedir file with the path for each domain userEnable the home directory option on the Data MoverExport the appropriate path as the share name HOMEEdit the profile of each users account.B. Configure the homedir file with the path for each domain userEnable the home directory option on the Data MoverCreate a directory in the correct location for each userEdit the profile of each existing user's account.C. Configure the homedir file with the path for each domainExport the path as the share name HOMEEnable the home directory option on the Data MoverEdit the profile of each user account using the %user% variableD. Configure the homedir file with the path for each domainEnable the home directory option on the Data MoverCreate a directory in the correct location for each userEdit the profile of each user account using the %user% variableAnswer: B5. Which protocols are available when configuring DNS on a Data Mover?A. TCP and IPB. UDP and IPC. TCP and UDPD. UDP and ICMPAnswer: C6. With a Celerra, what is a file system creation requirement?A. a file system must reside on a non-root slice volume that is not in useB. a file system must reside on a non-root meta volume that is in useC. the slice volume must be at least 2 MB to accommodate a file systemD. the meta volume must be at least 2 MB to accommodate a file systemAnswer: D7. What is stored in a Virtual Data Mover's root file system?A. NTPB. Local GroupsC. Usermapper configurationD. FTP root directoryAnswer: B8. What is the default authentication method used in Windows Active Directory, Native Mode?A. LMB. NISC. NTLMD. KerberosAnswer: D9. Which assigns the Fibre Channel WWN?A. Name serverB. Operating systemC. System AdministratorD. Hardware manufacturerAnswer: D10. Click the Exhibit button.The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.What will happen if one of the trunking network paths fails (indicated by the X)?A. I/O will pass on both pathsB. The Data Mover will failoverC. All I/O will pass on active path onlyD. I/O will wait until the failed path becomes availableAnswer: C11. Which two [2] methods stop all ICMP traffic to a network?A. Deny ICMP at a routerB. Block ICMP at a switchC. Block the port on a firewallD. Enable VLAN ports at the switchAnswer: AC12. Which storage template is available in a NS Integrated system that uses ATA physical drives?A. CX_Standard_Raid_5B. CX_All_4Plus1_Raid_5C. ATA_CX_Standard_Raid_1D. ATA_RAID3_HS_4+1_8+1Answer: D13. What is one characteristic of internal usermapper?A. runs on Control StationB. no separate installation requiredC. coexist with External usermapper is recommendedD. requires post DART code installation on the Control Station from the Celerra Application disk Answer: B14. What is the default type of a Celerra file system?A. ufsB. uxfsC. mgfsD. rawfsAnswer: B15. Celerra quotas are turned off. How does that affect the existing user and group quota information?A. it will be lostB. it is maintainedC. it will still be activeD. it becomes unavailableAnswer: B16. When the getreason command is used, which status identifies that a Data Mover needs to be replaced?A. contactedB. connectedC. dos bootedD. powered offAnswer: D17. What is used for centralized user and group management in a UNIX environment?A. NISB. UFSC. UDPD. NTLMAnswer: A18. Which solution does Celerra Replicator provide?A. asynchronous file system replication over an iSCSI linkB. synchronous file system replication over an iSCSI linkC. asynchronous file system replication over an IP linkD. synchronous file system replication over an IP linkAnswer: C19. What is one replication choice available with Celerra Replicator?A. remoteB. checkpointC. synchronousD. semi-synchronousAnswer: A20. What is the external RJ45 ported network device name of an NS system Data Mover?A. ethB. aceC. anaD. cgeAnswer: D。
Killtest 分享NS0-153 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : NS0-153Title :Version : DEMONetwork Appliance Storege Networking1.If you change the setting for the option cifs.neg_buf_size, you need to terminate CIFS on the storage appliance and do a restart for the changes to take effect.A.TrueB.FalseCorrect:A2.If the client is a CIFS client, locks are __________.A.advisoryB.mandatoryC.orderedD.optionalCorrect:B3.To view per client NFS statistics on the storage appliance, options nfs.per_client_stats.enable must be turned on.A.TrueB.FalseCorrect:A4.Three methods of creating a LUN are: *lun setup *lun map *FilerViewA.TrueB.FalseCorrect:A5.Applications, such as databases, running on NAS or iSCSI or FC SAN must be __________________.A.prepared for snapshots by flushing buffers to disk and momentarily suspending activity.B.disconnected from their storage resources during the snapshot.ing dynamic multipathing during a backup.D.mirrored with a host-based volume manager to be backed-up.Correct:A6.To export volumes and directories automatically on reboot, include them in the /etc/exports file.A.TrueB.FalseCorrect:Aing the output below, a co-worker determined that these are type "Solaris" LUNs. What would your determination be? lun show -m LUN pathMapped to LUN ID --------------------------------------------------- /vol/vol1/lun0 solaris-igroup0 0 /vol/vol1/lun1 solaris-igroup10 /vol/vol1/qtree1/lun2 solaris-igroup2 0 /vol/vol1/qtree1/lun3 solaris-igroup3 0A.These are type "Solaris" LUNs.B.These are NFS LUNs, but the exact OS cannot be determined.C.Not enough information is given here. Run the lun show -v command to get the information requested.D.Not enough information is given here. Run the lun map command to get the information requested. Correct:C8.Which one of the following will enable "symlink_strict_security"?A.options cifs.symlink_strict_security onB.cifs shares -change -symlink_strict_securityC.options symlink_strict_security=trueD.options symlink_strict_security=onCorrect:B9.To configure a storage system as a member of an active directory, the time on the storage system must be synchronized with the time on the Domain Controller.A.TrueB.FalseCorrect:A10.The writeable snapshot that is created for a LUN clone depends on ___________.A.mirroring.B.the snapshot taken at the time the clone was created.C.exclusive access to the volume.D.the data in the original LUN not changing.Correct:B11.Which command is the most appropriate for troubleshooting a multiprotocol authentication problem?A.wccB.rdfile /etc/rcC.priv set advancedD.sysstat 1Correct:A12.A quota target can be defined as _______________.A.the maximum amount of disk space in a volume.B.the maximum number of files in a disk.C.a user, group, or qtree to which a quota is applied.D.a specific disk space threshold.Correct:C13.Which three are used for creating LUNs on the storage appliance? (Choose 3)A.lun createB.lun setupC.FilerViewD.lun configCorrect:A B C14.What is the outcome of this command? lun create -b /vol/vol2/.snapshot/testsnap/lun0 /vol/vol2/lun0.cloneA.It creates a duplicate of the clone process of lun0.B.It creates a clone of the writeable snapshot of lun0.C.It creates a writeable snapshot of lun0.D.It creates a snapshot "testsnap" of vol2.Correct:C15.Which security method encrypts the data?A.IPSecB.CHAPC.LUN maskingD.Header and Data DigestsCorrect:A16.____________ is the default cfmode for new installations of Data ONTAP 7.2.A.single imageB.mixedC.partnerD.dual fabricCorrect:A17.Which command would you use to verify that the iSCSI service is running?A.license add iSCSIB.iscsi serviceC.iscsi statusD.iscsi protocolCorrect:C18.If you believe you have a FC SAN performance problem, which NetApp utility or command would gather both your Solaris host and storage appliance data for analysis?A.poststatB.perfstatC.prestatD.sio_ntap.exeCorrect:B19.What is the definition of the cifs setup command?A.It displays the mount point of all shared directories.B.It displays the names of all mounted directories on the storage system.C.It displays the prompts for CIFS configuration information.D.It displays a list of the users on the storage system.Correct:C20.UNIX allow file access based on __________.A.GID or UID and UNIX permissions.B.NT ACLs and UNIX permissions.C.NT ACLs and SID.D.GID or UID and ACLs.Correct:A。
Killtest 分享NS0-502 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : NS0-502Title:Version : DEMONetApp Certified Implementation Engineer-SAN and VirtualizationThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.1. Click the Exhibit button.You see the following error on the storage controller's console or messages file.What is the most likely cause for this error?A. portal group misconfigurationB. iSCSI CHAP misconfigurationC. iSNS misconfigurationD. IPsec misconfigurationAnswer: B2. What would you use to share a data LUN among multiple servers where each server has simultaneous write access?A. host-based BootBIOSB. host-based multipathingC. host-based volume managerD. host-based clustered file systemAnswer: D3. Click the Exhibit button.In the diagram shown, a portset is created on controller 1 with the command: controller1>portset create -f ntapportset 0b. This portset is bound to the igroup with all the initiators in it.How many paths can host 1 see to a LUN on controller 1?A. six pathsB. four pathsC. eight pathsD. two pathsAnswer: D4. What are three relevant perfstat counters to check for unaligned I/O that do not fall on the WAFL boundary? (Choose three.)A. wp.partial_writeB. vvol_read.io_validC. read/write_align_histo.XXD. read/write_partial_blocks.XXE. xinode content missesAnswer: ACD5. Click the Exhibit ButtonThe table highlights the space management policy that is defined for a particular flexvol, acmevol. Based on the information provided in the table, which action will the storage controller take when it runs out of space in the volume?A. It will try deleting Snapshot copies first to reclaim space before trying to grow the volume.B. It will grow the volume before deleting Snapshot copies.C. It will only try deleting Snapshot copies to reclaim space and will not grow the volume.D. It is irrelevant since fractional_reserve is 0%.Answer: C6. Which utility on Windows 2003 and Windows 2008 can be used to collect information about firmwareand driver versions for an Emulex LP1xxxx/LPe1xxx HBA?A. EMutilB. SANutilC. fcp configD. SANsurferE. HBAnywhereAnswer: E7. Which utility on Solaris 10 can be used to collect information about firmware and driver versions for an Emulex LP1xxxx/LPe1xxxx HBA?A. EMutilB. SANutilC. hbainfoD. SANsurferE. HBAnywhereAnswer: E8. Which utility on Solaris 10 can be used to collect information about firmware and driver versions for a Qlogic QLAxxx/QLExxxx HBA?A. EMutilB. SANutilC. cfgadminD. SANsurferE. HBAnywhereAnswer: D9. An organization currently has a NetApp Fibre Channel block-based solution. With limited budget and resources, they want to create a new disaster recovery site that utilizes a NetApp solution.What would the optimal solution include?A. SnapMover and Fibre Channel at the disaster recovery site for all hostsB. SnapMirror and iSCSI at the disaster recovery site for all hostsC. Fibre Channel at both locations using ftp to replicate storageD. MetroCluster and NASAnswer: B10. A company has a Fibre Channel environment and wants to connect a new host in a remote data center using 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable and needs to support 2 Gb speeds.What is the maximum distance of the cable run supported in this situation?A. 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable supports up to 500 meters at 2 Gb.B. 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable supports up to 10000 meters at 2 Gb.C. 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable supports up to 150 meters at 2 Gb.D. 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable supports up to 300 meters at 2 Gb.Answer: D11. Click the Exhibit button.The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Given the information provided in the diagram, what is the appropriate FC topology?A. point-to-pointB. switched fabricC. arbitrated loopD. ringAnswer: B12. Which FC SAN topology provides the best performance and scalability?A. cascadeB. core-edgeC. full meshD. partial meshAnswer: BThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.13. Click the Exhibit button.Based on the diagram shown, what is the appropriate FC switch topology?A. full meshB. core-edgeC. full cascadeD. partial meshAnswer: B14. Click the Exhibit button.Based on the diagram shown, what is the appropriate FC switch topology?A. core-edgeThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.B. full meshC. partial meshD. partial cascadeAnswer: C15. A 200-GB LUN is created in an empty 500-GB volume with the volume guarantee option set to Volume. LUN reservation is enabled and the fractional reserve is set to 100 and scheduled snapshots are disabled.Directly after LUN creation, what is the maximum free space available in the volume?A. 200 GBB. 300 GBC. 400 GBD. 500 GBAnswer: B16. A 100-GB thinly provisioned LUN is allocated to a Windows host. 100 GB of data is written into the LUN. The current capacity utilization on the disk array as well as the host is 100%. 50 GB of data is deleted from the LUN. Space reclaimer has NOT been run.What is the current capacity utilization on both the host and the disk array?A. 50% on the host, 100% on the disk arrayB. 100% on the host, 50% on the disk arrayC. 50% on the host, 50% on the disk arrayD. 100% on the host, 100% on the disk arrayAnswer: A17. A customer has a four-node SUN cluster configuration. Each node has two, dual-ported HBAs.What is the minimum number of igroups that need to be created to map a LUN to the cluster?A. 1B. 2C. 4The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.D. 8Answer: A18. Zoning by World Wide Port Name (WWPN) is deployed and a host HBA is replaced.Which zone change needs to be made?A. No changes are necessary.B. The zone configuration should be changed to include the port to which the HBA is connected.C. The zone configuration should be changed to include the WWPN of the new HBA; the old WWPN will be automatically dropped.D. The zone configuration should be changed to include the WWPN of the new HBA and to remove the WWPN of the old HBA.Answer: D19. Which three protocols can be used for communications between a host running SnapDrive for Windows and the NetApp Storage Controllers? (Choose three.)A. http:B. https:C. ftp:D. RPCE. sshAnswer: ABD20. Any newly installed system with Data ONTAP 7.3.1 supports which cfmode?A. dual_fabric onlyB. single_imageC. partnerD. mixedAnswer: B10 / 10。
Killtest 分享NS0-310 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : NS0-310Title:Version : DemoNetwork Appliance Solution Architect-Backup and Restore1. In which of the two following instances does VTL helps in performance versus tape?A. Streaming multiple streamsB. Slow Data NetworksC. Millions of small filesD. Small number of large filesAnswer:AB2. Which one of the following OSSV clients are integrated with SnapManager for Exchange?A. SyncSort Backup ExpressB. CommVault QiNetixC. Bakbone NetVaultD. None of the aboveAnswer: D3. Which one of the following is NOT controlled by SnapManager for Exchange?A. SnapMirrorB. SnapshotsC. SnapRestoreD. VSS Snapshots for NetApp OSSVAnswer: D4. Customer wants to backup non-NetApp storage using NetBackup. They want easy online access to long history of backups. Which one of the disk-based NetApp solution should be proposed?A. VTLB. SnapVault for NetBackupC. NDMPD. OSSVAnswer: B5. A destination volume for backups and data retention is known as a _________?A. VaultB. Secondary VolumeC. Mirror plexD. ClusterAnswer: B6. Looking at the diagram below, which one of the following is the supported configuration?A. (A) SnapVault, (B) OSSV. (C) SnapVault, (D) Async SnapMirror, (E) NDMPB. (A) SnapVault, (B) SnapVault. (C) SnapMirror, (D) SnapMirror, (E) NDMPC. (A) NDMP, (B) SnapVault. (C) SnapMirror, (D) SnapMirror, (E) NDMPD. (A) SnapVault, (B) OSSV. (C) SnapMirror, (D) SnapMirror, (E) NDMPAnswer: D7. A customer wants to deploy DFM into an existing SnapVault environment to manage the SnapVault backup schedules. What will occur?A. DFM will Auto discover all existing SnapVault schedulesB. The command line schedules will be automatically ignoredC. Newly created DFM schedules will take precedence over command line schedulesD. Both schedulers will continue to run independentlyAnswer: D8. What OSSV command could you use to measure the network throughput on an OSSV primary?A. snapvault statusB. ossv statusC. snapvault perfD. ossv perfAnswer:A9. Which backup mechanism is most closely tied to snapshots?A. VolCopyB. SnapLockC. SnapVaultD. NDMPAnswer: C10. What are the two key components of SnapVault for NetBackup?A. NearStore option licenseB. FAS 980C. NetBackup Enterprise 6.0 MP3 or laterD. NetBackup 5.0 or laterAnswer:AC11. Which methodology CANNOT be used to allow for a single file restore from tape to a NetApp FAS system?A. SnapMirror to tapeB. NetBackup with NDMPC. NetBackup without NDMPD. The dump commandAnswer:A12. Where is SnapVault snapshot scheduling controlled?A. PrimaryB. SecondaryC. Primary and SecondaryD. FilerViewAnswer: C13. What is the maximum number of simultaneous SV/OSSV streams allowed to/from the FAS270?A. 4B. 8C. 16D. 128Answer: B14. Which three of the following tools can be used to manage OSSV?A. Legato NetWorker.B. BakBone NetVault.C. CommVault QiNetixD. Syncsort Backup ExpressAnswer: BCD15. A customer with OSSV has used the SnapVault/SnapMirror bundle to convert their OSSV destination to R/W for testing. The testing was a success and they would like to copy their changes back to the OSSV primary. How can this be done?A. OSSV resyncB. FTPC. SnapMirror resyncD. None of the aboveAnswer: D16. A customer wants to use SnapVault to backup snapshots from a traditional volume. Which one of the following will impact SnapVault performance?A. Application running on the hostB. Number of disks in the destination's Root VolumeC. Volume type on the destinationD. Frequency of SnapVault transfersAnswer: D17. Customer wants to do a nightly backup that is locked down for compliance purposes. Which product will you use?A. SnapLockB. SnapMirrorC. SnapVaultD. LockVaultAnswer: D18. A customer has backed up a SnapVault volume on a SnapVault secondary to tape. The steps to recover data from tape to the SnapVault primary will be:A. Tape->secondary volume->primary volumeB. Tape->primary volumeC. Tape-> LREP-> primary volumeD. BothA and BAnswer: D19. A customer has an Oracle Database with a RTO of 1 hour, but a RPO of 5 minutes. How can they achieve this with minimal WAN traffic?A. SnapVault every 5 minutesB. SnapMirror Every 5 minutesC. SnapVault the Database files every hour and SnapMirror the logs every 5 minutesD. Use Rman to backup to tape every hourAnswer: C20. How can you make a SnapVault destination volume read-write?A. SnapVault breakB. SnapMirror/SnapVault bundleC. Cannot do itD. SnapVault destinations are already read-write Answer: B。
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NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT
▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇ
The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. Exam: BI0-120
Cognos 8 BI Administrator Title:
Version: Demo
1. When the administrator is monitoring the status of services in the server administration tool, what does the list contain?
A. services that are running or stopped only
B. all services listed in Cognos Configuration
C. services that are running or on standby only
D. all services that are set to true in Cognos Configuration
Answer: D
2. What status can no longer process report requests but can accept and process control requests?
A. paused
B. standby
C. stopped
D. unknown
Answer: C
3. Which type of logging indication can show user calls that are made from Cognos 8 components?
A. audit logging
B. trace logging
C. event logging
D. performance logging
Answer: A
4. At what level should the logging be set to capture the following set of details?
user account management and runtime usage of Cognos 8,
use requests, and
service requests and responses.
A. trace
B. basic
C. request
D. minimal
Answer: C
5. Under what circumstances would full logging level be most appropriately used?
A. Whenever users cannot access the data.
B. Whenever detailed troubleshooting is required.
C. Whenever more than one dispatcher has been configured.
D. Whenever the default configuration for logging has been changed. Answer: B。