罗斯公司理财第六版习题答案第6章
公司理财罗斯课后习题答案人大版

如果该公司当年固定资产净额增加 5000 美元,净营运资本增加额为 5510 美元。
15.a.成长公司应纳税额=0.15×50000+0.25×25000+0.34×10000=17150 盈利公司应纳税额=0.15×50000+0.25×25000+0.34×25000 +0.39×235000+0.34× 8165000
9.如果公司在某一特定时期销售股票比分配股利的数额多,公司对股东的现金流 量是负的。如果公司借债超过它支付的利息和本金,对债权人的现金流量就是 负的。
10.那些核销仅仅是会计上的调整。
11.Ragsdale 公司的利润表如下
利润表 销售收入 销售成本 折旧 息前税前利润 利息 税前利润 所得税(35%) 净利润
c.CFS=股利-新发行股票=8700-6450=2250
d.CFA=CFC+CFS=21500+2250=23750
CFA=OFC-净资本性支出-净营运资本增加额
净资本性支出=固定资产增加净额+折旧=5000+7000=12000
净营运资本增加额=OFC-CFA-净资本性支出=41260-23750-12000=5510
10.最大化现在公司股票的价格和最大化未来股票价格是一样的。股票的价值取 决于公司未来所有的现金流量。从另一方面来看,支付大量的现金股利给股东, 股票的预期价格将会上升。
第二章 1.正确。所有的资产都可以以某种价格转换为现金。但是提及流动资产,假定该资
产转换为现金时可达到或接近其市场价值是很重要的。
7.对于已建立的公司出现负的经营性现金流量可能不是好的表象,但对于刚起步 的公司这种现象是很正常的。
【公司理财】罗斯,中文第六版课后习题详细解答05

第三部分未来现金流量估价第5章估价导论:货币的时间价值财务管理中最重要的问题之一是:未来将收到的现金流量,它在今天的价值是多少?答案取决于货币的时间价值,这也是该章的主题。
第6章贴现现金流量估价本章拓展第5章的基本结论,讨论多期现金流量的估价。
我们考虑了许多相关的问题,包括贷款估价、贷款偿付额的计算以及报酬率的决定。
第7章利率债券是一种非常重要的金融工具。
该章示范如何利用第6章的估价技术来决定债券的价格,我们讲述债券的基本特点,以及财经报章如何报道债券的价格。
我们还将考察利率对债券价格的影响。
第8章股票估价第三部分的最后一章考察股票价格的确定,讨论普通股和优先股的重要特点,例如股东的权利,该章还考察了股票价格的报价。
第5 章估价导论:货币的时间价值◆本章复习与自测题5.1 计算终值假定今天你在一个利率为6%的账户存了10 000美元。
5年后,你将有多少钱?5.2 计算现值假定你刚庆祝完19岁生日。
你富有的叔叔为你设立了一项基金,将在你30岁时付给你150 000美元。
如果贴现率是9%,那么今天这个基金的价值是多少?5.3 计算报酬率某项投资可以使你的钱在10年后翻一番。
这项投资的报酬率是多少?利用72法则来检验你的答案是否正确。
5.4 计算期数某项投资将每年付给你9%的报酬。
如果你现在投资15 000美元,多长时间以后你就会有30 000美元?多长时间以后你就会有45 000美元?◆本章复习与自测题解答5.1 我们需要计算在6%的利率下,10 000美元在5年后的终值。
终值系数为:1.065= 1.3382终值为:10 000美元×1.3382 = 13 382.26美元。
5.2 我们要算出在9%的利率下,11年后支付的150 000美元的现值。
贴现系数为:1/(1.09)11= 1/2.5804 = 0.3875这样,现值大约是58 130美元。
5.3 假定你现在投资1 000美元,10年后,你将拥有2 000美元。
罗斯《公司理财》英文习题答案DOCchap004

公司理财习题答案第四章Chapter 4: Net Present Value4.1 a. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0510 = $1,628.89b. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0710 = $1,967.15c. $1,000 ⨯ 1.0520 = $2,653.30d. Interest compounds on the I nterest already earned. Therefore, the interest earnedin part c, $1,653.30, is more than double the amount earned in part a, $628.89.4.2 a. $1,000 / 1.17 = $513.16b. $2,000 / 1.1 = $1,818.18c. $500 / 1.18 = $233.254.3 You can make your decision by computing either the present value of the $2,000 that youcan receive in ten years, or the future value of the $1,000 that you can receive now.Present value: $2,000 / 1.0810 = $926.39Future value: $1,000 ⨯ 1.0810 = $2,158.93Either calculation indicates you should take the $1,000 now.4.4 Since this bond has no interim coupon payments, its present value is simply the presentvalue of the $1,000 that will be received in 25 years. Note: As will be discussed in the next chapter, the present value of the payments associated with a bond is the price of that bond.PV = $1,000 /1.125 = $92.304.5 PV = $1,500,000 / 1.0827 = $187,780.234.6 a. At a discount rate of zero, the future value and present value are always the same.Remember, FV = PV (1 + r) t. If r = 0, then the formula reduces to FV = PV.Therefore, the values of the options are $10,000 and $20,000, respectively. Youshould choose the second option.b. Option one: $10,000 / 1.1 = $9,090.91Option two: $20,000 / 1.15 = $12,418.43Choose the second option.c. Option one: $10,000 / 1.2 = $8,333.33Option two: $20,000 / 1.25 = $8,037.55Choose the first option.d. You are indifferent at the rate that equates the PVs of the two alternatives. Youknow that rate must fall between 10% and 20% because the option you wouldchoose differs at these rates. Let r be the discount rate that makes you indifferentbetween the options.$10,000 / (1 + r) = $20,000 / (1 + r)5(1 + r)4 = $20,000 / $10,000 = 21 + r = 1.18921r = 0.18921 = 18.921%4.7 PV of Joneses’ offer = $150,000 / (1.1)3 = $112,697.22Since the PV of Joneses’ offer is less than Smiths’ offer, $115,000, you should chooseSmiths’ offer.4.8 a. P0 = $1,000 / 1.0820 = $214.55b. P10 = P0 (1.08)10 = $463.20c. P15 = P0 (1.08)15 = $680.594.9 The $1,000 that you place in the account at the end of the first year will earn interest for sixyears. The $1,000 that you place in the account at the end of the second year will earninterest for five years, etc. Thus, the account will have a balance of$1,000 (1.12)6 + $1,000 (1.12)5 + $1,000 (1.12)4 + $1,000 (1.12)3= $6,714.614.10 PV = $5,000,000 / 1.1210 = $1,609,866.184.11 a. The cost of investment is $900,000.PV of cash inflows = $120,000 / 1.12 + $250,000 / 1.122 + $800,000 / 1.123= $875,865.52Since the PV of cash inflows is less than the cost of investment, you should notmake the investment.b. NPV = -$900,000 + $875,865.52= -$24,134.48c. NPV = -$900,000 + $120,000 / 1.11 + $250,000 / 1.112 + $800,000 / 1.113= $-4,033.18Since the NPV is still negative, you should not make the investment.4.12 NPV = -($340,000 + $10,000) + ($100,000 - $10,000) / 1.1+ $90,000 / 1.12 + $90,000 / 1.13 + $90,000 / 1.14 + $100,000 / 1.15= -$2,619.98Since the NPV is negative, you should not buy it.If the relevant cost of capital is 9 percent,NPV = -$350,000 + $90,000 / 1.09 + $90,000 / 1.092 + $90,000 / 1.093+ $90,000 / 1.094 + $100,000 / 1.095= $6,567.93Since the NPV is positive, you should buy it.4.13 a. Profit = PV of revenue - Cost = NPVNPV = $90,000 / 1.15 - $60,000 = -$4,117.08No, the firm will not make a profit.b. Find r that makes zero NPV.$90,000 / (1+r)5 - $60,000 = $0(1+r)5 = 1.5r = 0.08447 = 8.447%4.14 The future value of the decision to own your car for one year is the sum of the trade-invalue and the benefit from owning the car. Therefore, the PV of the decision to own thecar for one year is$3,000 / 1.12 + $1,000 / 1.12 = $3,571.43Since the PV of the roommate’s offer, $3,500, is lower than the aunt’s offer, you shouldaccept aunt’s offer.4.15 a. $1.000 (1.08)3 = $1,259.71b. $1,000 [1 + (0.08 / 2)]2 ⨯ 3 = $1,000 (1.04)6 = $1,265.32c. $1,000 [1 + (0.08 / 12)]12 ⨯ 3 = $1,000 (1.00667)36 = $1,270.24d. $1,000 e0.08 ⨯ 3 = $1,271.25公司理财习题答案第四章e. The future value increases because of the compounding. The account is earninginterest on interest. Essentially, the interest is added to the account balance at theend of every compounding period. During the next period, the account earnsinterest on the new balance. When the compounding period shortens, the balancethat earns interest is rising faster.4.16 a. $1,000 e0.12 ⨯ 5 = $1,822.12b. $1,000 e0.1 ⨯ 3 = $1,349.86c. $1,000 e0.05 ⨯ 10 = $1,648.72d. $1,000 e0.07 ⨯ 8 = $1,750.674.17 PV = $5,000 / [1+ (0.1 / 4)]4 ⨯ 12 = $1,528.364.18 Effective annual interest rate of Bank America= [1 + (0.041 / 4)]4 - 1 = 0.0416 = 4.16%Effective annual interest rate of Bank USA= [1 + (0.0405 / 12)]12 - 1 = 0.0413 = 4.13%You should deposit your money in Bank America.4.19 The price of the consol bond is the present value of the coupon payments. Apply theperpetuity formula to find the present value. PV = $120 / 0.15 = $8004.20 Quarterly interest rate = 12% / 4 = 3% = 0.03Therefore, the price of the security = $10 / 0.03 = $333.334.21 The price at the end of 19 quarters (or 4.75 years) from today = $1 / (0.15 ÷ 4) = $26.67The current price = $26.67 / [1+ (.15 / 4)]19 = $13.254.22 a. $1,000 / 0.1 = $10,000b. $500 / 0.1 = $5,000 is the value one year from now of the perpetual stream. Thus,the value of the perpetuity is $5,000 / 1.1 = $4,545.45.c. $2,420 / 0.1 = $24,200 is the value two years from now of the perpetual stream.Thus, the value of the perpetuity is $24,200 / 1.12 = $20,000.4.23 The value at t = 8 is $120 / 0.1 = $1,200.Thus, the value at t = 5 is $1,200 / 1.13 = $901.58.4.24 P = $3 (1.05) / (0.12 - 0.05) = $45.004.25 P = $1 / (0.1 - 0.04) = $16.674.26 The first cash flow will be generated 2 years from today.The value at the end of 1 year from today = $200,000 / (0.1 - 0.05) = $4,000,000.Thus, PV = $4,000,000 / 1.1 = $3,636,363.64.4.27 A zero NPV-$100,000 + $50,000 / r = 0-r = 0.54.28 Apply the NPV technique. Since the inflows are an annuity you can use the present valueof an annuity factor.NPV = -$6,200 + $1,200 8A1.0= -$6,200 + $1,200 (5.3349)= $201.88Yes, you should buy the asset.4.29 Use an annuity factor to compute the value two years from today of the twenty payments.Remember, the annuity formula gives you the value of the stream one year before the first payment. Hence, the annuity factor will give you the value at the end of year two of the stream of payments. Value at the end of year two = $2,000 20A08.0= $2,000 (9.8181)= $19,636.20The present value is simply that amount discounted back two years.PV = $19,636.20 / 1.082 = $16,834.884.30 The value of annuity at the end of year five= $500 15A = $500 (5.84737) = $2,923.6915.0The present value = $2,923.69 / 1.125 = $1,658.984.31 The easiest way to do this problem is to use the annuity factor. The annuity factor must beequal to $12,800 / $2,000 = 6.4; remember PV =C A t r. The annuity factors are in theappendix to the text. To use the factor table to solve this problem, scan across the rowlabeled 10 years until you find 6.4. It is close to the factor for 9%, 6.4177. Thus, the rate you will receive on this note is slightly more than 9%.You can find a more precise answer by interpolating between nine and ten percent.10% ⎤ 6.1446 ⎤a ⎡ r ⎥bc ⎡ 6.4 ⎪ d⎣ 9% ⎦⎣ 6.4177 ⎦By interpolating, you are presuming that the ratio of a to b is equal to the ratio of c to d.(9 - r ) / (9 - 10) = (6.4177 - 6.4 ) / (6.4177 - 6.1446)r = 9.0648%The exact value could be obtained by solving the annuity formula for the interest rate.Sophisticated calculators can compute the rate directly as 9.0626%.公司理财习题答案第四章4.32 a. The annuity amount can be computed by first calculating the PV of the $25,000which you need in five years. That amount is $17,824.65 [= $25,000 / 1.075].Next compute the annuity which has the same present value.$17,824.65 = C 5A.007$17,824.65 = C (4.1002)C = $4,347.26Thus, putting $4,347.26 into the 7% account each year will provide $25,000 fiveyears from today.b. The lump sum payment must be the present value of the $25,000, i.e., $25,000 /1.075 = $17,824.65The formula for future value of any annuity can be used to solve the problem (seefootnote 14 of the text).4.33The amount of loan is $120,000 ⨯ 0.85 = $102,000.20C A= $102,000.010The amount of equal installments isC = $102,000 / 20A = $102,000 / 8.513564 = $11,980.8810.04.34 The present value of salary is $5,000 36A = $150,537.53.001The present value of bonus is $10,000 3A = $23,740.42 (EAR = 12.68% is used since.01268bonuses are paid annually.)The present value of the contract = $150,537.53 + $23,740.42 = $174,277.944.35 The amount of loan is $15,000 ⨯ 0.8 = $12,000.C 48A = $12,0000067.0The amount of monthly installments isC = $12,000 / 48A = $12,000 / 40.96191 = $292.960067.04.36 Option one: This cash flow is an annuity due. To value it, you must use the after-taxamounts. The after-tax payment is $160,000 (1 - 0.28) = $115,200. Value all except the first payment using the standard annuity formula, then add back the first payment of$115,200 to obtain the value of this option.Value = $115,200 + $115,200 30A10.0= $115,200 + $115,200 (9.4269)= $1,201,178.88Option two: This option is valued similarly. You are able to have $446,000 now; this is already on an after-tax basis. You will receive an annuity of $101,055 for each of the next thirty years. Those payments are taxable when you receive them, so your after-taxpayment is $72,759.60 [= $101,055 (1 - 0.28)].Value = $446,000 + $72,759.60 30A.010= $446,000 + $72,759.60 (9.4269)= $1,131,897.47Since option one has a higher PV, you should choose it.4.37 The amount of loan is $9,000. The monthly payment C is given by solving the equation: C 60008.0A = $9,000 C = $9,000 / 47.5042 = $189.46In October 2000, Susan Chao has 35 (= 12 ⨯ 5 - 25) monthly payments left, including the one due in October 2000.Therefore, the balance of the loan on November 1, 2000 = $189.46 + $189.46 34008.0A = $189.46 + $189.46 (29.6651) = $5,809.81Thus, the total amount of payoff = 1.01 ($5,809.81) = $5,867.91 4.38 Let r be the rate of interest you must earn. $10,000(1 + r)12 = $80,000 (1 + r)12 = 8 r = 0.18921 = 18.921%4.39 First compute the present value of all the payments you must make for your children’s education. The value as of one year before matriculation of one child’s education is$21,000 415.0A= $21,000 (2.8550) = $59,955. This is the value of the elder child’s education fourteen years from now. It is the value of the younger child’s education sixteen years from today. The present value of these is PV = $59,955 / 1.1514 + $59,955 / 1.1516 = $14,880.44You want to make fifteen equal payments into an account that yields 15% so that the present value of the equal payments is $14,880.44. Payment = $14,880.44 / 1515.0A = $14,880.44 / 5.8474 = $2,544.804.40 The NPV of the policy isNPV = -$750 306.0A - $800306.0A / 1.063 + $250,000 / [(1.066) (1.0759)] = -$2,004.76 - $1,795.45 + $3,254.33= -$545.88 Therefore, you should not buy the policy.4.41 The NPV of the lease offer isNPV = $120,000 - $15,000 - $15,000 908.0A - $25,000 / 1.0810= $105,000 - $93,703.32 - $11,579.84 = -$283.16 Therefore, you should not accept the offer.4.42 This problem applies the growing annuity formula. The first payment is $50,000(1.04)2(0.02) = $1,081.60. PV = $1,081.60 [1 / (0.08 - 0.04) - {1 / (0.08 - 0.04)}{1.04 / 1.08}40]= $21,064.28 This is the present value of the payments, so the value forty years from today is $21,064.28 (1.0840) = $457,611.46公司理财习题答案第四章4.43 Use the discount factors to discount the individual cash flows. Then compute the NPV ofthe project. Notice that the four $1,000 cash flows form an annuity. You can still use the factor tables to compute their PV. Essentially, they form cash flows that are a six year annuity less a two year annuity. Thus, the appropriate annuity factor to use with them is 2.6198 (= 4.3553 - 1.7355).Year Cash Flow Factor PV 1 $700 0.9091 $636.37 2 900 0.8264 743.76 3 1,000 ⎤ 4 1,000 ⎥ 2.6198 2,619.80 5 1,000 ⎥ 6 1,000 ⎦ 7 1,250 0.5132 641.50 8 1,375 0.4665 641.44 Total $5,282.87NPV = -$5,000 + $5,282.87 = $282.87 Purchase the machine.4.44 Weekly inflation rate = 0.039 / 52 = 0.00075 Weekly interest rate = 0.104 / 52 = 0.002 PV = $5 [1 / (0.002 - 0.00075)] {1 – [(1 + 0.00075) / (1 + 0.002)]52 ⨯ 30} = $3,429.384.45 Engineer:NPV = -$12,000 405.0A + $20,000 / 1.055 + $25,000 / 1.056 - $15,000 / 1.057- $15,000 / 1.058 + $40,000 2505.0A / 1.058= $352,533.35 Accountant:NPV = -$13,000 405.0A + $31,000 3005.0A / 1.054= $345,958.81 Become an engineer.After your brother announces that the appropriate discount rate is 6%, you can recalculate the NPVs. Calculate them the same way as above except using the 6% discount rate. Engineer NPV = $292,419.47 Accountant NPV = $292,947.04Your brother made a poor decision. At a 6% rate, he should study accounting.4.46 Since Goose receives his first payment on July 1 and all payments in one year intervalsfrom July 1, the easiest approach to this problem is to discount the cash flows to July 1 then use the six month discount rate (0.044) to discount them the additional six months. PV = $875,000 / (1.044) + $650,000 / (1.044)(1.09) + $800,000 / (1.044)(1.092) + $1,000,000 / (1.044)(1.093) + $1,000,000/(1.044)(1.094) + $300,000 / (1.044)(1.095)+ $240,000 1709.0A / (1.044)(1.095) + $125,000 1009.0A / (1.044)(1.0922) = $5,051,150Remember that the use of annuity factors to discount the deferred payments yields the value of the annuity stream one period prior to the first payment. Thus, the annuity factor applied to the first set of deferred payments gives the value of those payments on July 1 of 1989. Discounting by 9% for five years brings the value to July 1, 1984. The use of the six month discount rate (4.4%) brings the value of the payments to January 1, 1984. Similarly, the annuity factor applied to the second set of deferred payments yields the value of those payments in 2006. Discounting for 22 years at 9% and for six months at 4.4% provides the value at January 1, 1984.The equivalent five-year, annual salary is the annuity that solves: $5,051,150 = C 509.0A C = $5,051,150/3.8897C = $1,298,596The student must be aware of possible rounding errors in this problem. The differencebetween 4.4% semiannual and 9.0% and for six months at 4.4% provides the value at January 1, 1984. 4.47 PV = $10,000 + ($35,000 + $3,500) [1 / (0.12 - 0.04)] [1 - (1.04 / 1.12) 25 ]= $415,783.604.48 NPV = -$40,000 + $10,000 [1 / (0.10 - 0.07)] [1 - (1.07 / 1.10)5 ] = $3,041.91 Revise the textbook.4.49The amount of the loan is $400,000 (0.8) = $320,000 The monthly payment is C = $320,000 / 3600067.0.0A = $ 2,348.10 Thirty years of payments $ 2,348.10 (360) = $ 845,316.00 Eight years of payments $2,348.10 (96) = $225,417.60 The difference is the balloon payment of $619,898.404.50 The lease payment is an annuity in advanceC + C 2301.0A = $4,000 C (1 + 20.4558) = $4,000 C = $186.424.51 The effective annual interest rate is[ 1 + (0.08 / 4) ] 4 – 1 = 0.0824The present value of the ten-year annuity is PV = 900 100824.0A = $5,974.24 Four remaining discount periodsPV = $5,974.24 / (1.0824) 4 = $4,352.43公司理财习题答案第四章4.52The present value of Ernie’s retirement incomePV = $300,000 20A / (1.07) 30 = $417,511.5407.0The present value of the cabinPV = $350,000 / (1.07) 10 = $177,922.25The present value of his savingsPV = $40,000 10A = $280,943.26.007In present value terms he must save an additional $313,490.53 In future value termsFV = $313,490.53 (1.07) 10 = $616,683.32He must saveC = $616.683.32 / 20A = $58,210.5407.0。
英文版罗斯公司理财习题答案

CHAPTER 8MAKING CAPITAL INVESTMENT DECISIONSAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1. In this context, an opportunity cost refers to the value of anasset or other input that will be used in a project. The relevant cost is what the asset or input is actually worth today, not, for example, what it cost to acquire.2. a.Yes, the reduction in the sales of the company’s otherproducts, referred to as erosion, and should be treated as an incremental cash flow. These lost sales are included because they are a cost (a revenue reduction) that the firm must bear if it chooses to produce the new product.b. Yes, expenditures on plant and equipment should be treatedas incremental cash flows. These are costs of the new product line. However, if these expenditures have already occurred, they are sunk costs and are not included as incremental cash flows.c. No, the research and development costs should not be treatedas incremental cash flows. The costs of research and development undertaken on the product during the past 3 years are sunk costs and should not be included in the evaluation of the project. Decisions made and costs incurred in the past cannot be changed. They should not affect the decision to accept or reject the project.d. Yes, the annual depreciation expense should be treated as anincremental cash flow. Depreciation expense must be taken into account when calculating the cash flows related to a given project. While depreciation is not a cash expense that directly affects c ash flow, it decreases a firm’s netincome and hence, lowers its tax bill for the year. Because of this depreciation tax shield, the firm has more cash on hand at the end of the year than it would have had without expensing depreciation.e.No, dividend payments should not be treated as incrementalcash flows. A firm’s decision to pay or not pay dividends is independent of the decision to accept or reject any given investment project. For this reason, it is not an incremental cash flow to a given project. Dividend policy is discussed in more detail in later chapters.f.Yes, the resale value of plant and equipment at the end of aproject’s life should be treated as an incremental cashflow. The price at which the firm sells the equipment is a cash inflow, and any difference between the book value ofthe equipment and its sale price will create gains or losses that result in either a tax credit or liability.g.Yes, salary and medical costs for production employees hiredfor a project should be treated as incremental cash flows.The salaries of all personnel connected to the project must be included as costs of that project.3.I tem I is a relevant cost because the opportunity to sell theland is lost if the new golf club is produced. Item II is also relevant because the firm must take into account the erosion of sales of existing products when a new product is introduced. If the firm produces the new club, the earnings from the existing clubs will decrease, effectively creating a cost that must be included in the decision. Item III is not relevant because the costs of Research and Development are sunk costs. Decisions made in the past cannot be changed. They are not relevant to the production of the new clubs.4. For tax purposes, a firm would choose MACRS because it providesfor larger depreciation deductions earlier. These larger deductions reduce taxes, but have no other cash consequences.Notice that the choice between MACRS and straight-line is purely a time value issue; the total depreciation is the same;only the timing differs.5.It’s probably only a mild over-simplification. Currentliabilities will all be paid, presumably. The cash portion of current assets will be retrieved. Some receivables won’t be collected, and some inventory will not be sold, of course.Counterbalancing these losses is the fact that inventory sold above cost (and not replaced at the end of the project’s life) acts to increase working capital. These effects tend to offset one another.6.Management’s discretion to set the firm’s capital structureis applicable at the firm level. Since any one particular project could be financed entirely with equity, another project could be financed with debt, and the firm’s overall capital structure remains unchanged, financing costs are not relevant in the analysis of a project’s incremental cash flows according to the stand-alone principle.7. The EAC approach is appropriate when comparing mutuallyexclusive projects with different lives that will be replaced when they wear out. This type of analysis is necessary so that the projects have a common life span over which they can be compared; in effect, each project is assumed to exist over an infinite horizon of N-year repeating projects. Assuming that this type of analysis is valid implies that the project cash flows remain the same forever, thus ignoring the possible effects of, among other things: (1) inflation, (2) changing economic conditions, (3) the increasing unreliability of cash flow estimates that occur far into the future, and (4) the possible effects of future technology improvement that could alter the project cash flows.8. Depreciation is a non-cash expense, but it is tax-deductible onthe income statement. Thus depreciation causes taxes paid, an actual cash outflow, to be reduced by an amount equal to the depreciation tax shield, t c D. A reduction in taxes that would otherwise be paid is the same thing as a cash inflow, so the effects of the depreciation tax shield must be added in to get the total incremental aftertax cash flows.9. There are two particularly important considerations. The firstis erosion. Will the “essentialized”book simply displace copies of the existing book that would have otherwise been sold?This is of special concern given the lower price. The second consideration is competition. Will other publishers step in and produce such a product? If so, then any erosion is much less relevant. A particular concern to book publishers (and producers of a variety of other product types) is that the publisher only makes money from the sale of new books. Thus, it is important to examine whether the new book would displace sales of used books (good from the publisher’s perspective) or new books (not good). The concern arises any time there is an active market for used product.10.D efinitely. The damage to Porsche’s reputation is definitely afactor the company needed to consider. If the reputation was damaged, the company would have lost sales of its existing car lines.11.O ne company may be able to produce at lower incremental cost ormarket better. Also, of course, one of the two may have made a mistake!12.P orsche would recognize that the outsized profits would dwindleas more products come to market and competition becomes more intense.Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basic1. Using the tax shield approach to calculating OCF, we get:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationOCF = [($5 × 2,000 –($2 × 2,000)](1 –0.35) +0.35($10,000/5)OCF = $4,600So, the NPV of the project is:NPV = –$10,000 + $4,600(PVIFA17%,5)NPV = $4,7172. We will use the bottom-up approach to calculate the operatingcash flow for each year. We also must be sure to include the net working capital cash flows each year. So, the total cash flow each year will be:Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Sales Rs.7,000 Rs.7,000 Rs.7,000 Rs.7,000Costs 2,000 2,000 2,000 2,000Depreciation 2,500 2,500 2,500 2,500EBT Rs.2,500 Rs.2,500 Rs.2,500 Rs.2,500Tax 850 850 850 850Net income Rs.1,650 Rs.1,650 Rs.1,650 Rs.1,650OCF 0 Rs.4,150 Rs.4,150 Rs.4,150 Rs.4,150Capital spending –Rs.10,000 0 0 0 0NWC –200 –250 –300 –200 950 Incremental cashflow –Rs.10,200 Rs.3,900 Rs.3,850 Rs.3,950 Rs.5,100The NPV for the project is:NPV = –Rs.10,200 + Rs.3,900 / 1.10 + Rs.3,850 / 1.102+ Rs.3,950 / 1.103 + Rs.5,100 / 1.104NPV = Rs.2,978.333. U sing the tax shield approach to calculating OCF, we get:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationOCF = (R2,400,000 – 960,000)(1 – 0.30) + 0.30(R2,700,000/3) OCF = R1,278,000So, the NPV of the project is:NPV = –R2,700,000 + R1,278,000(PVIFA15%,3)NPV = R217,961.704.T he cash outflow at the beginning of the project will increasebecause of the spending on NWC. At the end of the project, the company will recover the NWC, so it will be a cash inflow. The sale of the equipment will result in a cash inflow, but we also must account for the taxes which will be paid on this sale. So, the cash flows for each year of the project will be:Year Cash Flow0 – R3,000,000 = –R2.7M – 300K1 1,278,0002 1,278,0003 1,725,000 = R1,278,000 + 300,000 + 210,000 + (0 – 210,000)(.30)And the NPV of the project is:NPV = –R3,000,000 + R1,278,000(PVIFA15%,2) + (R1,725,000 / 1.153) NPV = R211,871.465. First we will calculate the annual depreciation for theequipment necessary for the project. The depreciation amount each year will be:Year 1 depreciation = R2.7M(0.3330) = R899,100Year 2 depreciation = R2.7M(0.4440) = R1,198,800Year 3 depreciation = R2.7M(0.1480) = R399,600So, the book value of the equipment at the end of three years, which will be the initial investment minus the accumulated depreciation, is:Book value in 3 years = R2.7M –(R899,100 + 1,198,800 + 399,600)Book value in 3 years = R202,500The asset is sold at a gain to book value, so this gain is taxable.Aftertax salvage value = R202,500 + (R202,500 – 210,000)(0.30) Aftertax salvage value = R207,750To calculate the OCF, we will use the tax shield approach, so the cash flow each year is:OCF = (Sales – Costs)(1 – t C) + t C DepreciationYear Cash Flow0 – R3,000,000 = –R2.7M – 300K1 1,277,730.00 = (R1,440,000)(.70) + 0.30(R899,100)2 1,367,640.00 = (R1,440,000)(.70) + 0.30(R1,198,800)3 1,635,630.00 = (R1,440,000)(.70) + 0.30(R399,600) + R207,750 + 300,000Remember to include the NWC cost in Year 0, and the recovery of the NWC at the end of the project. The NPV of the project with these assumptions is:NPV = – R3.0M + (R1,277,730/1.15) + (R1,367,640/1.152) +(R1,635,630/1.153)NPV = R220,655.206. First, we will calculate the annual depreciation of the newequipment. It will be:Annual depreciation charge = €925,000/5Annual depreciation charge = €185,000The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is:Aftertax salvage value = €90,000(1 – 0.35)Aftertax salvage value = €58,500Using the tax shield approach, the OCF is:OCF = €360,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35(€185,000)OCF = €298,750Now we can find the project IRR. There is an unusual feature that is a part of this project. Accepting this project means that we will reduce NWC. This reduction in NWC is a cash inflow at Year 0. This reduction in NWC implies that when the project ends, we will have to increase NWC. So, at the end of theproject, we will have a cash outflow to restore the NWC to its level before the project. We also must include the aftertax salvage value at the end of the project. The IRR of the project is:NPV = 0 = –€925,000 + 125,000 + €298,750(PVIFA IRR%,5) + [(€58,500 – 125,000) / (1+IRR)5]IRR = 23.85%7. First, we will calculate the annual depreciation of the newequipment. It will be:Annual depreciation = £390,000/5Annual depreciation = £78,000Now, we calculate the aftertax salvage value. The aftertax salvage value is the market price minus (or plus) the taxes on the sale of the equipment, so:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (BV – MV)t cVery often, the book value of the equipment is zero as it is in this case. If the book value is zero, the equation for the aftertax salvage value becomes:Aftertax salvage value = MV + (0 – MV)t cAftertax salvage value = MV(1 – t c)We will use this equation to find the aftertax salvage value since we know the book value is zero. So, the aftertax salvage value is:Aftertax salvage value = £60,000(1 – 0.34)Aftertax salvage value = £39,600Using the tax shield approach, we find the OCF for the project is:OCF = £120,000(1 – 0.34) + 0.34(£78,000)OCF = £105,720Now we can find the project NPV. Notice that we include the NWC in the initial cash outlay. The recovery of the NWC occurs in Year 5, along with the aftertax salvage value.NPV = –£390,000 –28,000 + £105,720(PVIFA10%,5) + [(£39,600 + 28,000) / 1.15]NPV = £24,736.268. To find the BV at the end of four years, we need to find theaccumulated depreciation for the first four years. We could calculate a table with the depreciation each year, but an easier way is to add the MACRS depreciation amounts for each of the first four years and multiply this percentage times the cost of the asset. We can then subtract this from the asset cost. Doing so, we get:BV4 = $9,300,000 – 9,300,000(0.2000 + 0.3200 + 0.1920 + 0.1150) BV4 = $1,608,900The asset is sold at a gain to book value, so this gain is taxable.Aftertax salvage value = $2,100,000 + ($1,608,900 –2,100,000)(.40)Aftertax salvage value = $1,903,5609. We will begin by calculating the initial cash outlay, that is,the cash flow at Time 0. To undertake the project, we will have to purchase the equipment and increase net working capital. So, the cash outlay today for the project will be:Equipment –€2,000,000NWC –100,000Total –€2,100,000Using the bottom-up approach to calculating the operating cash flow, we find the operating cash flow each year will be:Sales €1,200,000Costs 300,000Depreciation 500,000EBT €400,000Tax 140,000Net income €260,000The operating cash flow is:OCF = Net income + DepreciationOCF = €260,000 + 500,000OCF = €760,000To find the NPV of the project, we add the present value of the project cash flows. We must be sure to add back the net working capital at the end of the project life, since we are assuming the net working capital will be recovered. So, the project NPV is:NPV = –€2,100,000 + €760,000(PVIFA14%,4) + €100,000 / 1.144NPV = €173,629.3810.W e will need the aftertax salvage value of the equipment tocompute the EAC. Even though the equipment for each product hasa different initial cost, both have the same salvage value. Theaftertax salvage value for both is:Both cases: aftertax salvage value = $20,000(1 –0.35) = $13,000To calculate the EAC, we first need the OCF and NPV of each option. The OCF and NPV for Techron I is:OCF = – $34,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($210,000/3) = $2,400NPV = –$210,000 + $2,400(PVIFA14%,3) + ($13,000/1.143) = –$195,653.45EAC = –$195,653.45 / (PVIFA14%,3) = –$84,274.10And the OCF and NPV for Techron II is:OCF = – $23,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35($320,000/5) = $7,450NPV = –$320,000 + $7,450(PVIFA14%,5) + ($13,000/1.145) = –$287,671.75EAC = –$287,671.75 / (PVIFA14%,5) = –$83,794.05The two milling machines have unequal lives, so they can only be compared by expressing both on an equivalent annual basis, which is what the EAC method does. Thus, you prefer the Techron II because it has the lower (less negative) annual cost.Intermediate11.F irst, we will calculate the depreciation each year, which willbe:D1 = ¥480,000(0.2000) = ¥96,000D2 = ¥480,000(0.3200) = ¥153,600D3 = ¥480,000(0.1920) = ¥92,160D4 = ¥480,000(0.1150) = ¥55,200The book value of the equipment at the end of the project is:BV4= ¥480,000 –(¥96,000 + 153,600 + 92,160 + 55,200) = ¥83,040The asset is sold at a loss to book value, so this creates a tax refund.After-tax salvage value = ¥70,000 + (¥83,040 – 70,000)(0.35) = ¥74,564.00So, the OCF for each year will be:OCF1 = ¥160,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35(¥96,000) = ¥137,600.00OCF2 = ¥160,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35(¥153,600) = ¥157,760.00OCF3 = ¥160,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35(¥92,160) = ¥136,256.00OCF4 = ¥160,000(1 – 0.35) + 0.35(¥55,200) = ¥123,320.00Now we have all the necessary information to calculate the project NPV. We need to be careful with the NWC in this project.Notice the project requires ¥20,000 of NWC at the beginning, and ¥3,000 more in NWC each successive year. We will subtract the ¥20,000 from the initial cash flow, and subtract ¥3,000 each year from the OCF to account for this spending. In Year 4, we will add back the total spent on NWC, which is ¥29,000. The ¥3,000 spent on NWC capital during Year 4 is irrelevant. Why?Well, during this year the project required an additional ¥3,000, but we would get the money back immediately. So, thenet cash flow for additional NWC would be zero. With all this, the equation for the NPV of the project is:NPV = –¥480,000 –20,000 + (¥137,600 –3,000)/1.14 + (¥157,760 – 3,000)/1.142+ (¥136,256 –3,000)/1.143+ (¥123,320 + 29,000 + 74,564)/1.144NPV = –¥38,569.4812.I f we are trying to decide between two projects that will notbe replaced when they wear out, the proper capital budgeting method to use is NPV. Both projects only have costs associated with them, not sales, so we will use these to calculate the NPV of each project. Using the tax shield approach to calculate the OCF, the NPV of System A is:OCF A = –元120,000(1 – 0.34) + 0.34(元430,000/4)OCF A = –元42,650NPV A = –元430,000 –元42,650(PVIFA20%,4)NPV A = –元540,409.53And the NPV of System B is:OCF B = –元80,000(1 – 0.34) + 0.34(元540,000/6)OCF B = –元22,200NPV B = –元540,000 –元22,200(PVIFA20%,6)NPV B = –元613,826.32If the system will not be replaced when it wears out, then System A should be chosen, because it has the more positive NPV.13.If the equipment will be replaced at the end of its useful life,the correct capital budgeting technique is EAC. Using the NPVs we calculated in the previous problem, the EAC for each system is:EAC A = –元540,409.53 / (PVIFA20%,4)EAC A = –元208,754.32EAC B = –元613,826.32 / (PVIFA20%,6)EAC B = –元184,581.10If the conveyor belt system will be continually replaced, we should choose System B since it has the more positive NPV.14.S ince we need to calculate the EAC for each machine, sales areirrelevant. EAC only uses the costs of operating the equipment, not the sales. Using the bottom up approach, or net income plus depreciation, method to calculate OCF, we get:Machine A Machine BVariable costs –₪3,150,000 –₪2,700,000Fixed costs –150,000 –100,000Depreciation –350,000 –500,000EBT –₪3,650,000 –₪3,300,000Tax 1,277,500 1,155,000Net income –₪2,372,500 –₪2,145,000+ Depreciation 350,000 500,000OCF –₪2,022,500 –₪1,645,000The NPV and EAC for Machine A is:NPV A = –₪2,100,000 –₪2,022,500(PVIFA10%,6) NPV A = –₪10,908,514.76EAC A = –₪10,908,514.76 / (PVIFA10%,6)EAC A = –₪2,504,675.50And the NPV and EAC for Machine B is:NPV B = –₪4,500,000 – 1,645,000(PVIFA10%,9)NPV B = –₪13,973,594.18EAC B = –₪13,973,594.18 / (PVIFA10%,9)EAC B = –₪2,426,382.43You should choose Machine B since it has a more positive EAC.15.W hen we are dealing with nominal cash flows, we must be carefulto discount cash flows at the nominal interest rate, and we must discount real cash flows using the real interest rate.Project A’s cash flows are in real terms, so we need to find the real interest rate. Using the Fisher equation, the real interest rate is:1 + R = (1 + r)(1 + h)1.15 = (1 + r)(1 + .04)r = .1058 or 10.58%So, the NPV of Project A’s real cash flows, discounting at the real interest rate, is:NPV = –฿40,000 + ฿20,000 / 1.1058 + ฿15,000 / 1.10582 + ฿15,000 / 1.10583NPV = ฿1,448.88Project B’s cash flow are in nominal terms, so the NPV discount at the nominal interest rate is:NPV = –฿50,000 + ฿10,000 / 1.15 + ฿20,000 / 1.152+ ฿40,000 /1.153NPV = ฿119.17We should accept Project A if the projects are mutually exclusive since it has the highest NPV.16.T o determine the value of a firm, we can simply find thepre sent value of the firm’s future cash flows. No depreciation is given, so we can assume depreciation is zero. Using the tax shield approach, we can find the present value of the aftertax revenues, and the present value of the aftertax costs. The required return, growth rates, price, and costs are all given in real terms. Subtracting the costs from the revenues will give us the value of the firm’s cash flows. We must calculate the present value of each separately since each is growing at a different rate. First, we will find the present value of the revenues. The revenues in year 1 will be the number of bottles sold, times the price per bottle, or:Aftertax revenue in year 1 in real terms = (2,000,000 ×$1.50)(1 – 0.34)Aftertax revenue in year 1 in real terms = $1,650,000Revenues will grow at six percent per year in real terms forever. Apply the growing perpetuity formula, we find the present value of the revenues is:PV of revenues = C1 / (R–g)PV of revenues = $1,650,000 / (0.10 – 0.06)PV of revenues = $41,250,000The real aftertax costs in year 1 will be:Aftertax costs in year 1 in real terms = (2,000,000 ×$0.65)(1 – 0.34)Aftertax costs in year 1 in real terms = $858,000Costs will grow at five percent per year in real terms forever.Applying the growing perpetuity formula, we find the present value of the costs is:PV of costs = C1 / (R–g)PV of costs = $858,000 / (0.10 – 0.05)PV of costs = $17,160,000Now we can find the value of the firm, which is:Value of the firm = PV of revenues – PV of costsValue of the firm = $41,250,000 – 17,160,000Value of the firm = $24,090,00017.To calculate the nominal cash flows, we simple increase eachitem in the income statement by the inflation rate, except for depreciation. Depreciation is a nominal cash flow, so it does not need to be adjusted for inflation in nominal cash flow analysis. Since the resale value is given in nominal terms as of the end of year 5, it does not need to be adjusted for inflation. Also, no inflation adjustment is needed for either the depreciation charge or the recovery of net working capital since these items are already expressed in nominal terms. Note that an increase in required net working capital is a negative cash flow whereas a decrease in required net working capital isa positive cash flow. The nominal aftertax salvage value is:Market price $30,000Tax on sale –10,200Aftertax salvage value $19,800Remember, to calculate the taxes paid (or tax credit) on the salvage value, we take the book value minus the market value, times the tax rate, which, in this case, would be:Taxes on salvage value = (BV – MV)t CTaxes on salvage value = ($0 – 30,000)(.34)Taxes on salvage value = –$10,200Now we can find the nominal cash flows each year using the income statement. Doing so, we find:Year 0 Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 5 Sales $200,000 $206,000 $212,180 $218,545 $225,102Expenses 50,000 51,500 53,045 54,636 56,275Depreciation 50,000 50,000 50,000 50,000 50,000EBT $100,000 $104,500 $109,135 $113,909 $118,826Tax 34,000 35,530 37,106 38,729 40,401Net income $66,000 $68,970 $72,029 $75,180 $78,425OCF $116,000 $118,970 $122,029 $125,180 $128,425Capital spending –$250,000 $19,800NWC –10,000 10,000Total cash flow –$260,000 $116,000 $118,970 $122,029 $125,180 $158,22518.T he present value of the company is the present value of thefuture cash flows generated by the company. Here we have real cash flows, a real interest rate, and a real growth rate. The cash flows are a growing perpetuity, with a negative growth rate. Using the growing perpetuity equation, the present value of the cash flows are:PV = C1 / (R–g)PV = $120,000 / [.11 – (–.07)]PV = $666,666.6719.T o find the EAC, we first need to calculate the NPV of theincremental cash flows. We will begin with the aftertax salvage value, which is:Taxes on salvage value = (BV – MV)t CTaxes on salvage value = (€0 – 10,000)(.34)Taxes on salvage value = –€3,400Market price €10,000Tax on sale –3,400Aftertax salvage value €6,600Now we can find the operating cash flows. Using the tax shield approach, the operating cash flow each year will be:OCF = –€5,000(1 – 0.34) + 0.34(€45,000/3)OCF = €1,800So, the NPV of the cost of the decision to buy is:NPV = –€45,000 + €1,800(PVIFA12%,3) + (€6,600/1.123)NPV = –€35,987.95In order to calculate the equivalent annual cost, set the NPV of the equipment equal to an annuity with the same economic life. Since the project has an economic life of three years and is discounted at 12 percent, set the NPV equal to a three-year annuity, discounted at 12 percent.EAC = –€35,987.95 / (PVIFA12%,3)EAC = –€14,979.8020.W e will find the EAC of the EVF first. There are no taxes sincethe university is tax-exempt, so the maintenance costs are the operating cash flows. The NPV of the decision to buy one EVF is:NPV = –₩8,000 –₩2,000(PVIFA14%,4)NPV = –₩13,827.42In order to calculate the equivalent annual cost, set the NPV of the equipment equal to an annuity with the same economic life. Since the project has an economic life of four years and is discounted at 14 percent, set the NPV equal to a three-year annuity, discounted at 14 percent. So, the EAC per unit is:EAC = –₩13,827.42 / (PVIFA14%,4)EAC = –₩4,745.64Since the university must buy 10 of the word processors, the total EAC of the decision to buy the EVF word processor is:Total EAC = 10(–₩4,745.64)Total EAC = –₩47,456.38Note, we could have found the total EAC for this decision by multiplying the initial cost by the number of word processors needed, and multiplying the annual maintenance cost of each by the same number. We would have arrived at the same EAC.We can find the EAC of the AEH word processors using the same method, but we need to include the salvage value as well. Thereare no taxes on the salvage value since the university is tax-exempt, so the NPV of buying one AEH will be:NPV = –₩5,000 –₩2,500(PVIFA14%,3) + (₩500/1.143)NPV = –₩10,466.59So, the EAC per machine is:EAC = –₩10,466.59 / (PVIFA14%,3)EAC = –₩4,508.29Since the university must buy 11 of the word processors, the total EAC of the decision to buy the AEH word processor is:Total EAC = 11(–₩4,508.29)Total EAC = –₩49,591.21The university should buy the EVF word processors since the EAC is lower. Notice that the EAC of the AEH is lower on a per machine basis, but because the university needs more of these word processors, the total EAC is higher.21.W e will calculate the aftertax salvage value first. Theaftertax salvage value of the equipment will be:Taxes on salvage value = (BV – MV)t CTaxes on salvage value = (₫0 – 100,000)(.34)Taxes on salvage value = –₫34,000Market price ₫100,000Tax on sale –34,000Aftertax salvage value ₫66,000Next, we will calculate the initial cash outlay, that is, the cash flow at Time 0. To undertake the project, we will have to purchase the equipment. The new project will decrease the net working capital, so this is a cash inflow at the beginning of the project. So, the cash outlay today for the project will be:Equipment –₫500,000NWC 100,000Total –₫400,000Now we can calculate the operating cash flow each year for the project. Using the bottom up approach, the operating cash flow will be:Saved salaries ₫120,000Depreciation 100,000EBT ₫20,000。
(完整版)罗斯《公司理财》重点知识整理

第一章导论1. 公司目标:为所有者创造价值公司价值在于其产生现金流能力。
2. 财务管理的目标:最大化现有股票的每股现值。
3. 公司理财可以看做对一下几个问题进行研究:1. 资本预算:公司应该投资什么样的长期资产。
2. 资本结构:公司如何筹集所需要的资金。
3. 净运营资本管理:如何管理短期经营活动产生的现金流。
4. 公司制度的优点:有限责任,易于转让所有权,永续经营。
缺点:公司税对股东的双重课税。
第二章会计报表与现金流量资产 = 负债 + 所有者权益(非现金项目有折旧、递延税款)EBIT(经营性净利润) = 净销售额 - 产品成本 - 折旧EBITDA = EBIT + 折旧及摊销现金流量总额CF(A) = 经营性现金流量 - 资本性支出 - 净运营资本增加额 = CF(B) + CF(S)经营性现金流量OCF = 息税前利润 + 折旧 - 税资本性输出 = 固定资产增加额 + 折旧净运营资本 = 流动资产 - 流动负债第三章财务报表分析与财务模型1. 短期偿债能力指标(流动性指标)流动比率 = 流动资产/流动负债(一般情况大于一)速动比率 = (流动资产 - 存货)/流动负债(酸性实验比率)现金比率 = 现金/流动负债流动性比率是短期债权人关心的,越高越好;但对公司而言,高流动性比率意味着流动性好,或者现金等短期资产运用效率低下。
对于一家拥有强大借款能力的公司,看似较低的流动性比率可能并非坏的信号2. 长期偿债能力指标(财务杠杆指标)负债比率 = (总资产 - 总权益)/总资产 or (长期负债 + 流动负债)/总资产权益乘数 = 总资产/总权益 = 1 + 负债权益比利息倍数 = EBIT/利息现金对利息的保障倍数(Cash coverage radio) = EBITDA/利息3. 资产管理或资金周转指标存货周转率 = 产品销售成本/存货存货周转天数= 365天/存货周转率应收账款周转率 = (赊)销售额/应收账款总资产周转率 = 销售额/总资产 = 1/资本密集度4. 盈利性指标销售利润率 = 净利润/销售额资产收益率ROA = 净利润/总资产权益收益率ROE = 净利润/总权益5. 市场价值度量指标市盈率 = 每股价格/每股收益EPS 其中EPS = 净利润/发行股票数市值面值比 = 每股市场价值/每股账面价值企业价值EV = 公司市值 + 有息负债市值 - 现金EV乘数 = EV/EBITDA6. 杜邦恒等式ROE = 销售利润率(经营效率)x总资产周转率(资产运用效率)x权益乘数(财杠)ROA = 销售利润率x总资产周转率7. 销售百分比法假设项目随销售额变动而成比例变动,目的在于提出一个生成预测财务报表的快速实用方法。
罗斯《公司理财》重点知识整理上课讲义

罗斯《公司理财》重点知识整理上课讲义罗斯《公司理财》重点知识整理第一章导论1. 公司目标:为所有者创造价值公司价值在于其产生现金流能力。
2. 财务管理的目标:最大化现有股票的每股现值。
3. 公司理财可以看做对一下几个问题进行研究:1. 资本预算:公司应该投资什么样的长期资产。
2. 资本结构:公司如何筹集所需要的资金。
3. 净运营资本管理:如何管理短期经营活动产生的现金流。
4. 公司制度的优点:有限责任,易于转让所有权,永续经营。
缺点:公司税对股东的双重课税。
第二章会计报表与现金流量资产 = 负债 + 所有者权益(非现金项目有折旧、递延税款)EBIT(经营性净利润) = 净销售额 - 产品成本 - 折旧EBITDA = EBIT + 折旧及摊销现金流量总额CF(A) = 经营性现金流量 - 资本性支出- 净运营资本增加额 = CF(B) + CF(S)经营性现金流量OCF = 息税前利润 + 折旧 - 税资本性输出 = 固定资产增加额 + 折旧净运营资本 = 流动资产 - 流动负债第三章财务报表分析与财务模型1. 短期偿债能力指标(流动性指标)流动比率 = 流动资产/流动负债(一般情况大于一)速动比率 = (流动资产 - 存货)/流动负债(酸性实验比率)现金比率 = 现金/流动负债流动性比率是短期债权人关心的,越高越好;但对公司而言,高流动性比率意味着流动性好,或者现金等短期资产运用效率低下。
对于一家拥有强大借款能力的公司,看似较低的流动性比率可能并非坏的信号2. 长期偿债能力指标(财务杠杆指标)负债比率 = (总资产 - 总权益)/总资产 or (长期负债 + 流动负债)/总资产权益乘数 = 总资产/总权益 = 1 + 负债权益比利息倍数 = EBIT/利息现金对利息的保障倍数(Cash coverage radio) = EBITDA/利息3. 资产管理或资金周转指标存货周转率 = 产品销售成本/存货存货周转天数 = 365天/存货周转率应收账款周转率 = (赊)销售额/应收账款总资产周转率 = 销售额/总资产 = 1/资本密集度4. 盈利性指标销售利润率 = 净利润/销售额资产收益率ROA = 净利润/总资产权益收益率ROE = 净利润/总权益5. 市场价值度量指标市盈率 = 每股价格/每股收益EPS 其中EPS = 净利润/发行股票数市值面值比 = 每股市场价值/每股账面价值企业价值EV = 公司市值+ 有息负债市值- 现金EV乘数= EV/EBITDA6. 杜邦恒等式ROE = 销售利润率(经营效率)x总资产周转率(资产运用效率)x权益乘数(财杠)ROA = 销售利润率x总资产周转率7. 销售百分比法假设项目随销售额变动而成比例变动,目的在于提出一个生成预测财务报表的快速实用方法。
罗斯公司理财第九版第六章课后答案对应版
第六章:投资决策1. 机会成本是指进行一项投资时放弃另一项投资所承担的成本。
选择投资和放弃投资之间的收益差是可能获取收益的成本。
2. (1)新的投资项目所来的公司其他产品的销售下滑属于副效应中的侵蚀效应,应被归为增量现金流。
(2)投入建造的机器和厂房属于新生产线的成本,应被归为增量现金流。
(3)过去 3 年发生的和新项目相关的研发费用属于沉没成本,不应被归为增量现金流。
(4)尽管折旧不是现金支出,对现金流量产生直接影响,但它会减少公司的净收入,并且减低公司的税收,因此应被归为增量现金流。
(5)公司发不发放股利与投不投资某一项目的决定无关,因此不应被归为增量现金流。
(6)厂房和机器设备的销售收入是一笔现金流入,因此应被归为增量现金流。
(7)需要支付的员工薪水与医疗保险费用应被包括在项目成本里,因此应被归为增量现金流。
3. 第一项因为会产生机会成本,所以会产生增量现金流;第二项因为会产生副效应中的侵蚀效应,所以会会产生增量现金流;第三项属于沉没成本,不会产生增量现金流。
4. 为了避免税收,公司可能会选择MACRS因为该折旧法在早期有更大的折旧额,这样可以减免赋税,并且没有任何现金流方面的影响。
但需要注意的是直线折旧法与MACRS 的选择只是时间价值的问题,两者的折旧是相等的,只是时间不同。
5. 这只是一个简单的假设。
因为流动负债可以全部付清,流动资产却不可能全部以现金支付,存货也不可能全部售完。
6. 这个说法是可以接受的。
因为某一个项目可以用权益来融资,另一个项目可以用债务来融资,而公司的总资本结构不会发生变化。
根据MM 定理,融资成本与项目的增量现金流量分析无关。
7. ECA 方法在分析具有不同生命周期的互斥项目的情况下比较适应,这是因为ECA 方法可以使得互斥项目具有相同的生命周期,这样就可以进行比较。
ECA 方法在假设项目现金流相同这一点与现实生活不符,它忽略了通货膨胀率以及不断变更的经济环境。
罗斯公司理财版课后答案对应版
第五章:净现值和投资评价的其他方法1.如果项目会带来常规的现金流,回收期短于项目的生命周期意味着,在折现率为0 的情况下,NPV 为正值。
折现率大于0 时,回收期依旧会短于项目的生命周期,但根据折现率小于、等于、大于IRR 的情况,NPV 可能为正、为零、为负。
折现回收期包含了相关折现率的影响。
如果一个项目的折现回收期短于该项目的生命周期,NPV 一定为正值。
2.如果某项目有常规的现金流,而且NPV 为正,该项目回收期一定短于其生命周期。
因为折现回收期是用与NPV 相同的折现值计算出来的,如果NPV为正,折现回收期也会短于该项目的生命周期。
NPV 为正表明未来流入现金流大于初始投资成本,盈利指数必然大于1。
如果NPV 以特定的折现率R 计算出来为正值时,必然存在一个大于R 的折现率R’使得NPV 为0,因此,IRR 必定大于必要报酬率。
3.(1)回收期法就是简单地计算出一系列现金流的盈亏平衡点。
其缺陷是忽略了货币的时间价值,另外,也忽略了回收期以后的现金流量。
当某项目的回收期小于该项目的生命周期,则可以接受;反之,则拒绝。
回收期法决策作出的选择比较武断。
(2)平均会计收益率为扣除所得税和折旧之后的项目平均收益除以整个项目期限内的平均账面投资额。
其最大的缺陷在于没有使用正确的原始材料,其次也没有考虑到时间序列这个因素。
一般某项目的平均会计收益率大于公司的目标会计收益率,则可以接受;反之,则拒绝。
(3)内部收益率就是令项目净现值为0 的贴现率。
其缺陷在于没有办法对某些项目进行判断,例如有多重内部收益率的项目,而且对于融资型的项目以及投资型的项目判断标准截然相反。
对于投资型项目,若IRR 大于贴现率,项目可以接受;反之,则拒绝。
对于融资型项目,若IRR 小于贴现率,项目可以接受;反之,则拒绝。
(4)盈利指数是初始以后所有预期未来现金流量的现值和初始投资的比值。
必须注意的是,倘若初始投资期之后,在资金使用上还有限制,那盈利指数就会失效。
公司理财-罗斯(完整版)
债务和权益的或有索偿权
支付给债权人的金额
支付给股东的金额
如果企业价值大于$F, 债权人最多得到 $F。
如果企业价值小于$F, 股东什么也得不到。
$F
$F 企业的价值(X)
$F 企业的价值(X)
债权人被承诺支付$F。
如果企业的价值小于$F, 债权人获得
金融 中介机构
资金 需求者
资金 需求者
1.5 金融市场
公司通过在金融市场发行证券(债券和股票)筹集资金。 金融市场由货币市场和资本市场构成。 货币市场是指短期(一年以内)的债券市场。 资本市场是指长期债券(一年以上)和权益证券市场。
1.5 金融市场
1.5.1 一级市场
政府或公司首次发行证券形成一级市场。
2.1 资产负债表
资产负债表可以看成是某一特定日期会计人员对企业会计价值所拍 的一张快照。它说明了企业拥有什么东西以及这些东西是从哪里来的 (相应的索取权)。其基本关系式为:
资产 = 负债 + 股东权益
股东权益被定义为企业资产与负债之差,即股东在企业清偿债务以 后所拥有的剩余资产。股东权益亦称所有者权益、净资产或简单地称之 为权益。
目标。 3)如果因为管理不善使得企业股票价格大幅下降,企业可能
遭受其他股东集团、公司或个人收购,这种担心将促使管理者采取使股 东利益(股票价值)最大化的行动。
4)经理市场的竞争也可以促使管理者在经营中以股东利益为 重。能成功执行股东目标的管理者可能得到提拔,可以要求更高的薪水; 否者,他们将被解雇。
公开发行(公募) 大部分公开发行的债券和股票由投资银行承销而进入市场。 在美国公开发行债券和股票必须在美国证券交易委员会注册登
罗斯《公司理财》笔记和课后习题详解(会计报表与现金流量)【圣才出品】
第2章会计报表与现金流量2.1 复习笔记会计报表与现金流量分析是公司理财决策的重要内容和基本依据。
会计报表主要包括资产负债表、损益表和现金流量表。
1.资产负债表资产负债表指反映企业某一特定日期财务状况的会计报表。
它是根据资产、负债和所有者权益之间的相互关系,按照一定的分类标准和一定的顺序,把企业一定日期的资产、负债和所有者权益各项目予以适当排列,并对日常会计核算工作中形成的大量数据进行高度浓缩整理后编制而成的。
资产负债表编制的基础和描述的内容在会计上的准确表述是:资产≡负债+所有者权益其中,所有者权益被定义为企业资产与负债之差。
原则上,所有者权益是指股东在企业清偿债务以后所拥有的剩余权益。
资产部分取决于企业的行业性质和管理行为,负债部分反应资金的来源类型和比例,取决于管理当局对资本结构的选择。
分析资产负债表时,财务管理人员应注意三个问题:流动性、债务与权益、价值与成本。
(1)流动性流动性指资产变现的方便与快捷程度。
流动性最强的是流动资产,包括现金以及自资产负债表编制之日起一年内能够变现的其他资产,如应收账款和存货。
固定资产是流动性不高的一类资产,包括有形固定资产和无形固定资产。
资产的流动性大意味着对短期债务的偿还能力比较强,但流动资产的收益率通常低于固定资产的收益率。
(2)负债与权益负债是企业所承担的在规定的期限内偿付有关债务的责任,所有者权益是对企业剩余资产的索取权。
如果企业将部分利润留存,所有者权益的会计价值会提高。
(3)价值与成本企业的会计价值是指置存价值或账面价值,它是基于成本的。
市场价值是指有意愿的买者与卖者在资产交易中所达成的价格。
股票价值是指股票的市场价值,权益的账面价值可以为负值,但市场价值不能为负值。
【例2.1】企业应持有尽量多的现金来保持流动性。
()[对外经贸大学2016金融硕士]【答案】×【解析】公司应该合理分配现金,既考虑流动性,也考虑盈利性。
持有现金太多会影响投资收益,所以不需要持有过多的现金,只需保持恰当的流动性即可。
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Chapter 6: Some Alternative Investment RulesConcept Questions - Chapter 66.2 ∙List the problems of the payback period rule.1.It does not take into account the time value of money.2.It ignores payments after the payback period.3.The cutoff period is arbitrary.∙What are some advantages?1.It is simple to implement.2.It may help in controlling and evaluating managers.6.4 ∙What are the three steps in calculating AAR?1.Determine average net income.2.Determine average investment3.Divide average net income by average investment.∙What are some flaws with the AAR approach?1.It uses accounting figures.2.It takes no account of timing.3.The cutoff period is arbitrary.6.5 ∙How does one calculate the IRR of a project?Using either trial-and-error or a financial calculator, one finds the discount ratethat produces an NPV of zero.6.6 ∙What is the difference between independent projects and mutually exclusiveprojects?An independent project is one whose acceptance does not affect the acceptance of another. A mutually exclusive project, on the other hand is one whose acceptance precludes the acceptance of another.∙What are two problems with the IRR approach that apply to both independent and mutually exclusive projects?1.The decision rule depends on whether one is investing of financing.2.Multiple rates of return are possible.∙What are two additional problems applying only to mutually exclusive projects?1.The IRR approach ignores issues of scale.2.The IRR approach does not accommodate the timing of the cash flowsproperly.6.7 ∙How does one calculate a project's profitability index?Divide the present value of the cash flows subsequent to the initial investment by the initial investment.∙How is the profitability index applied to independent projects, mutually exclusive projects, and situations of capital rationing?1.With independent projects, accept the project if the PI is greater than 1.0 andreject if less than 1.0.2.With mutually exclusive projects, use incremental analysis, subtracting thecash flows of project 2 from project 1. Find the PI. If the PI is greater than1.0, accept project 1. If less than 1.0, accept project2.3.In capital rationing, the firm should simply rank the projects according to theirrespective PIs and accept the projects with the highest PIs, subject to thebudget constrain.Answers to End-of-Chapter ProblemsQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSThe Payback Period Rule6.1 Fuji Software, Inc., has the following projects.Year Project A Project B0 _$7,500 _$5,0001 4,000 2,5002 3,500 1,2003 1,500 3,000a. Suppose Fuji’s cutoff payback period is two years. Which of these two projects should be chosen?b. Suppose Fuji uses the NPV rule to rank these two projects. If the appropriate discount rate is 15 percent, which project should be chosen?6.1 a. Payback period of Project A = 1 + ($7,500 - $4,000) / $3,500 = 2 yearsPayback period of Project B = 2 + ($5,000 - $2,500 -$1,200) / $3,000 = 2.43 yearsProject A should be chosen.b. NPV A = -$7,500 + $4,000 / 1.15 + $3,500 / 1.152 + $1,500 / 1.153 = -$388.96NPV B = -$5,000 + $2,500 / 1.15 + $1,200 / 1.152 + $3,000 / 1.153 = $53.83Project B should be chosen.6.2 Suppose Peach Paving Company invests $1 million today on a new construction project. The project will generate annual cash flows of $150,000 in perpetuity. The appropriate annual discount rate for the project is 10 percent.a. What is the payback period for the project? If the Peach Paving Company desires to have a 10-year payback period, should the project be adopted?b. What is the discounted payback period for the project?c. What is the NPV of the project?6.2 a. Payback period = 6 + {$1,000,000 - ($150,000 ⨯ 6)} / $150,000 = 6.67 yearsYes, the project should be adopted.A= $974,259b. $150,000 11.010The discounted payback period = 11 + ($1,000,000 - $974,259) / ($150,000 / 1.112)= 11.54 yearsc. NPV = -$1,000,000 + $150,000 / 0.10 = $500,000The Average Accounting Return6.3 The annual, end-of-year, book-investment accounts for the machine whose purchase your firm is considering are shown below.Purchase Year Year Year YearDate 1 2 3 4Gross investment $16,000 $16,000 $16,000 $16,000 $16,000Less: accumulateddepreciation ______0_ ___4_,0_0_0_ ___8_,0_0_0_ __1_2_,0_0_0_ _1_6_,_0_0_0Net investment $16,000 $12,000 $ 8,000 $ 4,000 $ 0If your firm purchases this machine, you can expect it to generate, on average, $4,500 peryear in additional net income.a. What is the average accounting return for this machine?b. What three flaws are inherent in this decision rule?6.3 a. Average Investment:($16,000 + $12,000 + $8,000 + $4,000 + 0) / 5 = $8,000Average accounting return:$4,500 / $8,000 = 0.5625 = 56.25%b. 1. AAR does not consider the timing of the cash flows, hence it does notconsider the time value of money.2. AAR uses an arbitrary firm standard as the decision rule.3. AAR uses accounting data rather than net cash flows.6.4 Western Printing Co. has an opportunity to purchase a $2 million new printing machine. It has an economic life of five years and will be worthless after that time. This new investment is expected to generate an annual net income of $100,000 one year from today and the income stream will grow at 7 percent per year subsequently. The company adopts a straight-line depreciation method (i.e., equal amounts of depreciation in each year). What is the average accounting return of the investment? Supposing Western Printing’s AAR cutoff is 20 percent, should the machine be purchased?6.4 Average Investment = ($2,000,000 + 0) / 2 = $1,000,000Average net income = [$100,000 {(1 + g)5 - 1} / g] / 5= {$100,000A (1.075 - 1} / 0.07} / 5= $115,014.78AAR = $115,014.78 / $1,000,000 = 11.50%No, since the machine’s AAR is less than the firm’s cutoff AAR.6.5 Nokia Group has invested $8,000 in a high-tech project. This cost is depreciated on an accelerated basis that yields $4,000, $2,500, $1,500 of depreciation, respectively, during its three-year economic life. The project is expected to produce income before tax of $2,000 each year during its economic life. If the tax rate is 25%, what is the project’s average accounting return (AAR)?a. 44.44%b. 50.23%c. 66.67%d. 70.00%e. 82.21%The Internal Rate of Return6.5 a6.6 Compute the internal rate of return on projects with the following cash flows.Cash Flows ($)Year Project A Project B0 _3,000 _6,0001 2,500 5,0002 1,000 2,000/ $160,000 = 1.046.6PI = $40,000 715.0Since the PI exceeds one accept the project.6.7 CPC, Inc., has a project with the following cash flows.Year Cash Flows ($)0 _8,0001 4,0002 3,0003 2,000a. Compute the internal rate of return on the project.b. Suppose the appropriate discount rate is 8 percent. Should the project be adopted by CPC?6.7 The IRR is the discount rate at which the NPV = 0.-$3,000 + $2,500 / (1 + IRR A) + $1,000 / (1 + IRR A)2 = 0By trial and error, IRR A = 12.87%Since project B’s cash flows are two times of those of project A, the IRR B = IRR A =12.87%6.8 Compute the internal rate of return for the cash flows of the following two projects.Cash Flows ($)Time A B0 _2,000 _1,5001 2,000 5002 8,000 1,0003 _8,000 1,5006.8 a. Solve x by trial and error:-$4,000 + $2,000 / (1 + x) + $1,500 / (1 + x)2 + $1,000 / (1 + x)3 = 0x = 6.93%b. No, since the IRR (6.93%) is less than the discount rate of 8%.6.9 Suppose you are offered $5,000 today and obligated to make scheduled payments as follows:Year Cash Flows ($)0 5,0001 _2,5002 _2,0003 _1,0004 _1,000a. What is the IRRs of this offer?b. If the appropriate discount rate is 10 percent, should you accept this offer?c. If the appropriate discount rate is 20 percent, should you accept this offer?Chapter 6 Some Alternative Investment Rules 165d. What is the corresponding NPV of the project if the appropriate discount rates are 10 percent and 20 percent, respectively? Are the choices under the NPV rule consistent with those of the IRR rule?6.9 Find the IRRs of project A analytically. Since the IRR is the discount rate that makes the NPVequal to zero, the following equation must hold.-$200 + $200 / (1 + r) + $800 / (1 + r)2 - $800 / (1 + r)3 = 0$200 [-1 + 1 / (1 + r)] - {$800 / (1 + r)2}[-1 + 1 / (1 + r)] = 0[-1 + 1 / (1 + r)] [$200 - $800 / (1 + r)2] = 0For this equation to hold, either [-1 + 1 / (1 + r)] = 0 or [$200 - $800 / (1 + r)2] = 0.Solve each of these factors for the r that would cause the factor to equal zero. Theresulting rates are the two IRRs for project A. They are either r = 0% or r = 100%.Note: By inspection you should have known that one of the IRRs of project A iszero. Notice that the sum of the un-discounted cash flows for project A is zero.Thus, not discounting the cash flows would yield a zero NPV. The discount ratewhich is tantamount to not discounting is zero.Here are some of the interactions used to find the IRR by trial and error.Sophisticated calculators can compute this rate without all of the tedium involved inthe trial-and-error method.NPV = -$150 + $50 / 1.3 + $100 / 1.32 + $150 / 1.33 = $15.91NPV = -$150 + $50 / 1.4 + $100 / 1.42 + $150 / 1.43 = -$8.60NPV = -$150 + $50 / 1.37 + $100 / 1.372 + $150 / 1.373 = -$1.89NPV = -$150 + $50 / 1.36 + $100 / 1.36 2 + $150 / 1.363 = $0.46NPV = -$150 + $50 / 1.36194 + $100 / 1.361942 + $150 / 1.361943= $0.0010NPV = -$150 + $50 / 1.36195 + $100 / 1.361952 + $150 / 1.361953= -$0.0013NPV = -$150 + $50 / 1.361944 + $100 / 1.3619442 + $150 / 1.3619443= $0.0000906Thus, the IRR is approximately 36.1944%.6.10 As the Chief Financial Officer of the Orient Express, you are offered the following twomutually exclusive projects.Year Project A Project B0 _$5,000 _$100,0001 3,500 65,0002 3,500 65,000a. What are the IRRs of these two projects?b. If you are told only the IRRs of the projects, which would you choose?c. What did you ignore when you made your choice in part (b)?d. How can the problem be remedied?e. Compute the incremental IRR for the projects.f. Based on your answer to part (e), which project should you choose?g. Suppose you have determined that the appropriate discount rate for these projectsis 15 percent. According to the NPV rule, which of these two projects should beadopted?6.10 a. Solve r in the equation:$5,000 - $2,500 / (1 + r) - $2,000 / (1 + r)2 - $1,000 / (1 + r)3- $1,000 / (1 + r)4 = 0By trial and error,IRR = r = 13.99%b. Since this problem is the case of financing, accept the project if the IRR is less thanthe required rate of return.IRR = 13.99% > 10%Reject the offer.c. IRR = 13.99% < 20%Accept the offer.d. When r = 10%:NPV = $5,000 - $2,500 / 1.1 - $2,000 / 1.12 - $1,000 / 1.13 - $1,000 / 1.14= -$359.95When r = 20%:NPV = $5,000 - $2,500 / 1.2 - $2,000 / 1.22 - $1,000 / 1.23 - $1,000 / 1.24= $466.82Yes, they are consistent with the choices of the IRR rule since the signs of the cashflows change only once.6.11 Consider two streams of cash flows, A and B. Cash flow A consists of $5,000 starting three years from today and growing at 4 percent in perpetuity. Cash flow B consists of _$6,000 starting two years from today and continuing in perpetuity. Assume the appropriate discount rate is 12 percent.a. What is the present value of each stream?b. What is the IRR of a project C, which is a combination of projects A and B; that is, C _ A _ B?c. If it is assumed that the discount rate is always positive, what is the rule related to IRR for assessing project C that would correspond to the NPV rule?6.11 a. Project A:NPV = -$5,000 + $3,500 / (1 + r) + $3,500 / (1 + r)2 = 0IRR = r = 25.69%Project B:NPV = -$100,000 + $65,000 / (1 + r) + $65,000 / (1 + r)2 = 0IRR = r = 19.43%b. Choose project A because it has a higher IRR.c. The difference in scale is ignored.d. Apply the incremental IRR method.e.C0C1C2B - A -$95,000 $61,500 $61,500NPV = -$95,000 + $61,500 / (1 + r) + $61,500 / (1 + r)2 = 0Incremental IRR = r = 19.09%f. If the discount rate is less than 19.09%, choose project B.Otherwise, choose project A.g. NPV A = -$5,000 + $3,500 / 1.15 + $3,500 / 1.152 = $689.98NPV B = -$100,000 + $65,000 / 1.15 + $65,000 / 1.152 = $5,671.08Choose project B.6.12 Project A involves an investment of $1 million, and project B involves an investment of $2 million. Both projects have a unique internal rate of return of 20 percent. Is the following statement true or false? Explain your answer.For any discount rate between 0 percent and 20 percent, inclusive, project B has an NPV twice as great as that of project A.6.12 a. PV A = {$5,000 / (0.12 - 0.04)} / 1.122 = $49,824.61 PV B = (-$6,000 / 0.12) / 1.12 = -$44,642.86 b. The IRR for project C must solve{$5,000 / (x - 0.04)} / (1 + x)2 + (-$6,000 / x) / (1 + x) = 0 $5,000 / (x - 0.04) - $6,000 (1 + x) / x = 0 25 x 2 + 3.17 x - 1 =0x = {-3.17 - (110.0489)0.5} / 50 or {-3.17 + (110.0489)0.5} / 50 The relevant positive root is IRR = x = 0.1464 = 14.64%c.To arrive at the appropriate decision rule, we must graph the NPV as a function of the discount rate. At a discount rate of 14.64% the NPV is zero. To determine if the graph is upward or downward sloping, check the NPV at another discount rate. At a discount rate of 10% the NPV is $14,325.07 [= $68,870.52 - $54,545.54]. Thus, the graph of the NPV is downward sloping. From the discussion in the text, if an NPV graph is downward sloping, the project is an investing project. The correct decision rule for an investing project is to accept the project if the discount rate is below 14.64%.The Profitability Index6.13 Suppose the following two mutually exclusive investment opportunities are available to the DeAngelo Firm. The appropriate discount rate is 10 percent. Year Project Alpha Project Beta 0 _$500 _$2,000 1 _300 _300 2 700 1,800 3 600 1,700a. What is the NPV of project alpha and project beta?b. Which project would you recommend for the DeAngelo Firm?6.13 Generally, the statement is false. If the cash flows of project B occur early and the cashflows of project A occur late, then for a low discount rate the NPV of A can exceed the NPV of B. Examples are easy to construct.14.64%10%rNPV$14,325.07C0C1C2IRR NPV @ 0% A: -$1,000,000 $0 $1,440,000 0.20 $440,000B: -2,000,000 2,400,000 0 0.20 400,000 In one particular case, the statement is true for equally risky projects. If the lives of thetwo projects are equal and in every time period the cash flows of the project B are twicethe cash flows of project A, then the NPV of project B will be twice as great as the NPV of project A for any discount rate between 0% and 20%.6.14 The firm for which you work must choose between the following two mutually exclusive projects. The appropriate discount rate for the projects is 10 percent.ProfitabilityC0 C1 C2 Index NPVA _$1,000 $1,000 $500 1.32 $322B _500 500 400 1.57 285The firm chose to undertake A. At a luncheon for shareholders, the manager of a pension fund that owns a substantial amount of the firm’s stock asks you why the firm chose project A instead of project B when B is more profitable.How would you justify your firm’s action? Are there any circumstances under which the pension fund manager’s argument could be correct?6.14 a. NPVα = $756.57 - $500 = $256.57NPVβ = $2,492.11 - $2,000 = $492.11b. Choose project beta.6.15 The treasurer of Davids, Inc., has projected the cash flows of projects A, B, and C as follows. Suppose the relevant discount rate is 12 percent a year.Year Project A Project B Project C0 _$100,000 _$200,000 _$100,0001 70,000 130,000 75,0002 70,000 130,000 60,000a. Compute the profitability indices for each of the three projects.b. Compute the NPVs for each of the three projects.c. Suppose these three projects are independent. Which projects should Davids accept based on the profitability index rule?d. Suppose these three projects are mutually exclusive. Which project should Davids accept based on the profitability index rule?e. Suppose Davids’ budget for these projects is $300,000. The projects are not divisible. Which projects should Davids accept?6.15 Although the profitability index is higher for project B than for project A, the NPV is theincrease in the value of the company that will occur if a particular project is undertaken.Thus, the project with the higher NPV should be chosen because it increases the value of the firm the most. Only in the case of capital rationing could the pension fund manager be correct.6.16 Bill plans to open a self-serve grooming center in a storefront. The grooming equipment will cost $160,000. Bill expects the after-tax cash inflows to be $40,000 annually for seven years, after which he plans to scrap the equipment and retire to the beaches of Jamaica.Assume the required return is 15%. What is the project’s PI? Should it be accepted?Comparison of Investment Rules6.16 a. PI A = ($70,000 / 1.12 + $70,000 / 1.122) / $100,000 = 1.183PI B = ($130,000 / 1.12 + $130,000 / 1.122) / $200,000 = 1.099PI C = ($75,000 / 1.12 + $60,000 / 1.122) / $100,000 = 1.148b. NPV A = -$100,000 + $118,303.57 = $18,303.57NPV B = -$200,000 + $219,706.63 = $19,706.63NPV C = -$100,000 + $114,795.92 = $14,795.92c. Accept all three projects because PIs of all the three projects are greater than one.d. Based on the PI rule, project C can be eliminated because its PI is less than the oneof project A, while both have the same amount of the investment. We can computethe PI of the incremental cash flows between the two projects,Project C0C1C2PIB - A -$100,000 $60,000 $60,000 1.014We should take project B since the PI of the incremental cash flows is greater thanone.e. Project B has the highest NPV, while A has the next highest NPV.Take both projects A and B.6.17 Define each of the following investment rules. In your definition state the criteria for accepting or rejecting an investment under each rule.a. Payback periodb. Average accounting returnc. Internal rate of returnd. Profitability indexe. Net present value6.17 a. The payback period is the time it takes to recoup the initial investment of a project.Accept any project that has a payback period that is equal to or shorter than thecompany’s standard payback period. Reject all other projects.b. The average accounting return (AAR) is defined asAverage project earnings ÷ Average book value of the investment.Accep t projects for which the AAR is equal to or greater than the firm’s standard.Reject all other projects.c. The internal rate of return (IRR) is the discount rate which makes the net presentvalue (NPV) of the project zero. The accept / reject criteria is:If C0 < 0 and all future cash flows are positive, accept the project if IRR ≥discount rate.If C0 < 0 and all future cash flows are positive, reject the project if IRR <discount rate.If C0 > 0 and all future cash flows are negative, accept the project if IRR ≤discount rate.If C0 > 0 and all future cash flows are negative, reject the project if IRR >discount rate.If the project has cash flows that alternate in sign, there is likely to be more thanone positive IRR. In that situation, there is no valid IRR accept / reject rule.d. The profitability index (PI) is defined as:(The present value of the cash flows subsequent to the initial investment ÷The initial investment)Accept any project for which the profitability index is equal to or greater thanone. Reject project for which that is not true.e. The net present value (NPV) is the sum of the present values of all project cashflows. Accept those projects with NPVs which are equal to or greater than zero.Rejects p roposals with negative NPVs.6.18 Consider the following cash flows of two mutually exclusive projects for Chinese Daily News.New Sunday New SaturdayYear Early Edition Late Edition0 _$1,200 _$2,1001 600 1,0002 550 9003 450 800a. Based on the payback period rule, which project should be chosen?b. Suppose there is no corporate tax and the cash flows above are income before the depreciation. The firm uses a straight-line depreciation method (i.e., equal amounts of depreciation in each year). What is the average accounting return for each of these two projects?c. Which project has a greater IRR?d. Based on the incremental IRR rule, which project should be chosen?6.18 Let project A represent New Sunday Early Edition; and let project B represent NewSaturday Late Edition.a. Payback period of project A = 2 + ($1,200 - $1,150) / $450 = 2.11 yearsPayback period of project B = 2 + ($2,100 - $1,900) / $800 = 2.25 yearsBased on the payback period rule, you should choose project A.b. Project A:Average investment = ($1,200 + $0) / 2 = $600Depreciation = $400 / yearAverage income = [($600 - $400) + ($550 - $400) + ($450 - $400)] / 3= $133.33AAR = $133.33 / $600 = 22.22%Project B:Average investment = ($2,100 + $0) / 2 = $1,050Depreciation = $700 / yearAverage income = [($1,000 - $700) + ($900 - $700) + ($800 - $700)] / 3= $200AAR = $200 / $1,050 = 19.05%c. IRR of project A:-$1,200 + $600 / (1 + r) + $550 / (1 + r)2 + $450 / (1 + r)3 = 0IRR = r = 16.76%IRR of project B:-$2,100 + $1,000 / (1 + r) + $900 / (1 + r)2 + $800 / (1 + r)3 = 0IRR = r = 14.29%Project A has a greater IRR.d. IRR of project B-A:Incremental cash flowsYear 0 1 2 3B - A -$900 $400 $350 $350-$900 + $400 / (1 + r) + $350 / (1 + r)2 + $350 / (1 + r)3 = 0Incremental IRR = r = 11.02%If the required rate of return is greater than 11.02%, then choose project A.If the required rate of return is less than 11.02%, then choose project B.6.19 Consider the following cash flows on two mutually exclusive projects that require an annual return of 15 percent. Working in the financial planning department for the Bahamas Recreation Corp., you are trying to compare different investment criteria to arrive at a sensible choice of these two projects.Deepwater New SubmarineYear Fishing Ride0 _$600,000 _$1,800,0001 270,000 1,000,0002 350,000 700,0003 300,000 900,000a. Based on the discounted payback period rule, which project should be chosen?b. If your decision rule is to accept the project with a greater IRR, which project should you choose?c. Since you are fully aware of the IRR rule’s scale problem, you calculate the incremental IRR for the cash flows. Based on your computation, which project should you choose?d. To be prudent, you compute the NPV for both projects. Which project should you choose? Is it consistent with the incremental IRR rule?6.19 Let project A be Deepwater Fishing; let project B be New Submarine Ride.a. Project A:Year Discounted CF Cumulative CF0 -$600,000 -$600,0001 234,783 -365,2172 264,650 -100,5673 197,255Discounted payback period of project A = 2 + $100,567 / $197,255= 2.51 yearsProject B:Year Discounted CF Cumulative CF0 -$1,800,000 -$1,800,0001 869,565 -930,4352 529,301 -401,1343 591,765Discounted payback period of project B = 2 + $401,134 / $591,765= 2.68 yearsProject A should be chosen.b. IRR of project A:-$600,000 + $270,000 / (1 + r) + $350,000 / (1 + r)2 + $300,000 / (1 + r)3 = 0IRR = r = 24.30%IRR of project B:-$1,800,000 + $1,000,000 /(1 + r) + $700,000 / (1 + r)2 + $900,000 / (1 + r)3= 0IRR = r = 21.46%Based on the IRR rule, project A should be chosen since it has a greater IRR.c. Incremental IRR:Year 0 1 2 3B - A -$1,200,000 $730,000 $350,000 $600,000-$1,200,000 + $730,000 / (1 + r) + $350,000 / (1 + r)2 + $600,000 / (1 + r)3 = 0Incremental IRR = r = 19.92%Since the incremental IRR is greater than the required rate of return, 15%, chooseproject B.d. NPV A = -$600,000 + $270,000 / 1.15 + $350,000 / 1.152 + $300,000 / 1.153= $96,687.76NPV B = -$1,800,000 + $1,000,000 / 1.15 + $700,000 / 1.152 + $900,000 / 1.153 = $190,630.39Since NPV B > NPV A, choose project B.Yes, the NPV rule is consistent with the incremental IRR rule.6.20 The Utah Mining Corporation is set to open a gold mine near Provo, Utah. According to the treasurer, Steven Sample, “This is a golden opportunity.” The mine will cost $600,000 to open. It will generate a cash inflow of $100,000 during the first year and the cash flows are projected to grow at 8 percent per year for 10 years. After 10 years the mine will be abandoned. Abandonment costs will be $50,000.a. What is the IRR for the gold mine?b. The Utah Mining Corporation requires a 10 percent return on such undertakings.Should the mine be opened?6.20 a. The IRR is the discount rate at which the NPV = 0-$600,000 + ()0r 1000,50$r 1%811%)8r (000,100$1111=+-⎥⎥⎦⎤⎢⎢⎣⎡⎪⎭⎫ ⎝⎛++--IRR ≈18.56% b. Yes, the mine should be opened since its IRR exceeds its required return of 10%.。