国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter 1

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国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter

国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter

CHAPTER 10 MANAGEMENT OF TRANSLATION EXPOSURESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Explain the difference in the translation process between the monetary/nonmonetary method and the temporal method.Answer: Under the monetary/nonmonetary method, all monetary balance sheet accounts of a foreign subsidiary are translated at the current exchange rate. Other balance sheet accounts are translated at the historical rate exchange rate in effect when the account was first recorded. Under the temporal method, monetary accounts are translated at the current exchange rate. Other balance sheet accounts are also translated at the current rate, if they are carried on the books at current value. If they are carried at historical value, they are translated at the rate in effect on the date the item was put on the books. Since fixed assets and inventory are usually carried at historical costs, the temporal method and the monetary/nonmonetary method will typically provide the same translation.2. How are translation gains and losses handled differently according to the current rate method in comparison to the other three methods, that is, the current/noncurrent method, the monetary/nonmonetary method, and the temporal method?Answer: Under the current rate method, translation gains and losses are handled only as an adjustment to net worth through an equity account named the “cumulative translation adjustment” account. Nothing passes through the income statement. The other three translation methods pass foreign exchange gains or losses through the income statement before they enter on to the balance sheet through the accumulated retained earnings account.3. Identify some instances under FASB 52 when a foreign enti ty’s functional currency would be the same as the parent firm’s currency.Answer: Three examples under FASB 52, where the foreign entity’s functional currency will be the same as the parent firm’s currency, are: i) the foreign entity’s cash flows directly affect the parent’s cash flows and are readily available for remittance to the parent firm; ii) the sales prices for the foreign entity’s products are responsive on a short-term basis to exchange rate changes, where sales prices are determined through wo rldwide competition; and, iii) the sales market is primarily located in the parent’s country or sales contracts are denominated in the parent’s currency.4. Describe the remeasurement and translation process under FASB 52 of a wholly owned affiliate that keeps its books in the local currency of the country in which it operates, which is different than its functional currency.Answer: For a foreign entity that keeps its books in its local currency, which is different from its functional currency, the translation process according to FASB 52 is to: first, remeasure the financial reports from the local currency into the functional currency using the temporal method of translation, and second, translate from the functional currency into the reporting currency using the current rate method of translation.5. It is, generally, not possible to completely eliminate both translation exposure and transaction exposure. In some cases, the elimination of one exposure will also eliminate the other. But in other cases, the elimination of one exposure actually creates the other. Discuss which exposure might be viewed as the most important to effectively manage, if a conflict between controlling both arises. Also, discuss and critique the common methods for controlling translation exposure.Answer: Since it is, generally, not possible to completely eliminate both transaction and translation exposure, we recommend that transaction exposure be given first priority since it involves real cash flows. The translation process, on-the-other hand, has no direct effect on reporting currency cash flows, and will only have a realizable effect on net investment upon the sale or liquidation of the assets.There are two common methods for controlling translation exposure: a balance sheet hedge and a derivatives hedge. The balance sheet hedge involves equating the amount of exposed assets in an exposure currency with the exposed liabilities in that currency, so the net exposure is zero. Thus when an exposure currency exchange rate changes versus the reporting currency, the change in assets will offset the change in liabilities. To create a balance sheet hedge, once transaction exposure has been controlled, often means creating new transaction exposure. This is not wise since real cash flow losses can result. A derivatives hedge is not really a hedge, but rather a speculative position, since the size of the “hedge” is based on the future expected spot rate of exchange for the exposure currency with the reporting currency. If the actual spot rate differs from the expected rate, the “hedge” may result in the loss of real cash flows.PROBLEMS1. Assume that FASB 8 is still in effect instead of FASB 52. Construct a translation exposure report for Centralia Corporation and its affiliates that is the counterpart to Exhibit 10.7 in the text. Centralia and its affiliates carry inventory and fixed assets on the books at historical values.Solution: The following table provides a translation exposure report for Centralia Corporation and its affiliates under FASB 8, which is essentially the temporal method of translation. The difference between the new report and Exhibit 10.7 is that nonmonetary accounts such as inventory and fixed assets are translated at the historical exchange rate if they are carried at historical costs. Thus, these accounts will not change values when exchange rates change and they do not create translation exposure.Examination of the table indicates that under FASB 8 there is negative net exposure for the Mexican peso and the euro, whereas under FASB 52 the net exposure for these currencies is positive. There is no change in net exposure for the Canadian dollar and the Swiss franc. Consequently, if the euro depreciates against the dollar from €1.1000/$1.00 to €1.1786/$1.00, as the text example assumed, exposed assets will now fall in value by a smaller amount than exposed liabilities, instead of vice versa. The associated reporting currency imbalance will be $239,415, calculated as follows:Reporting Currency Imbalance=-€3,949,0000€1.1786/$1.00--€3,949,0000€1.1000/$1.00=$239,415.Translation Exposure Report under FASB 8 for Centralia Corporation and its Mexican and Spanish Affiliates, December 31, 2005 (in 000 Currency Units)Canadian Dollar MexicanPeso EuroSwissFrancAssetsCash CD200 Ps 6,000 € 825SF 0 Accounts receivable 0 9,000 1,045 0Inventory 0 0 0 0Net fixed assets 0 0 0 0Exposed assets CD200 Ps15,000 € 1,870SF 0LiabilitiesAccounts payable CD 0 Ps 7,000 € 1,364SF 0Notes payable 0 17,000 935 1,400Long-term debt 0 27,000 3,520 0Exposed liabilities CD 0 Ps51,000 € 5,819SF1,400Net exposure CD200 (Ps36,000) (€3,949)(SF1,400)2. Assume that FASB 8 is still in effect instead of FASB 52. Construct a consolidated balance sheet for Centralia Corporation and its affiliates after a depreciation of the euro from €1.1000/$1.00 to €1.1786/$1.00 that is the counterpart to Exhibit 10.8 in the text. Centralia and its affiliates c arry inventory and fixed assets on the books at historical values.Solution: This problem is the sequel to Problem 1. The solution to Problem 1 showed that if the euro depreciated there would be a reporting currency imbalance of $239,415. Under FASB 8 this is carried through the income statement as a foreign exchange gain to the retained earnings on the balance sheet. The following table shows that consolidated retained earnings increased to $4,190,000 from $3,950,000 in Exhibit 10.8. This is an increase of $240,000, which is the same as the reporting currency imbalance after accounting for rounding error.Consolidated Balance Sheet under FASB 8 for Centralia Corporation and its Mexican and Spanisha This includes CD200,000 the parent firm has in a Canadian bank, carried as $150,000. CD200,000/(CD1.3333/$1.00) = $150,000.b$1,750,000 - $300,000 (= Ps3,000,000/(Ps10.00/$1.00)) intracompany loan = $1,450,000.c,d Investment in affiliates cancels with the net worth of the affiliates in the consolidation.e The Spanish affiliate owes a Swiss bank SF375,000 (÷ SF1.2727/€1.00 = €294,649). This is carried on the books,after the exchange rate change, as part of €1,229,649 = €294,649 + €935,000. €1,229,649/(€1.1786/$1.00) = $1,043,313.3. In Example 10.2, a f orward contract was used to establish a derivatives “hedge” to protect Centralia from a translation loss if the euro depreciated from €1.1000/$1.00 to €1.1786/$1.00. Assume that an over-the-counter put option on the euro with a strike price of €1.1393/$1.00 (or $0.8777/€1.00) can be purchased for $0.0088 per euro. Show how the potential translation loss can be “hedged” with an option contract.Solution: As in example 10.2, if the potential translation loss is $110,704, the equivalent amount in functiona l currency that needs to be hedged is €3,782,468. If in fact the euro does depreciate to €1.1786/$1.00 ($0.8485/€1.00), €3,782,468 can be purchased in the spot market for $3,209,289. At a striking price of €1.1393/$1.00, the €3,782,468 can be sold throu gh the put for $3,319,993, yielding a gross profit of $110,704. The put option cost $33,286 (= €3,782,468 x $0.0088). Thus, at an exchange rate of €1.1786/$1.00, the put option will effectively hedge $110,704 - $33,286 = $77,418 of the potential translat ion loss. At terminal exchange rates of €1.1393/$1.00 to €1.1786/$1.00, the put option hedge will be less effective. An option contract does not have to be exercised if doing so is disadvantageous to the option owner. Therefore, the put will not be exer cised at exchange rates of less than €1.1393/$1.00 (more than $0.8777/€1.00), in which case the “hedge” will lose the $33,286 cost of the option.MINI CASE: SUNDANCE SPORTING GOODS, INC.Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc., is a U.S. manufacturer of high-quality sporting goods--principally golf, tennis and other racquet equipment, and also lawn sports, such as croquet and badminton-- with administrative offices and manufacturing facilities in Chicago, Illinois. Sundance has two wholly owned manufacturing affiliates, one in Mexico and the other in Canada. The Mexican affiliate is located in Mexico City and services all of Latin America. The Canadian affiliate is in Toronto and serves only Canada. Each affiliate keeps its books in its local currency, which is also the functional currency for the affiliate. The current exchange rates are: $1.00 = CD1.25 = Ps3.30 = A1.00 = ¥105 = W800. The nonconsolidated balance sheets for Sundance and its two affiliates appear in the accompanying table.Nonconsolidated Balance Sheet for Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc. and Its Mexican and Canadiana The parent firm is owed Ps1,320,000 by the Mexican affiliate. This sum is included in the parent’s accounts receivable as $400,000, translated at Ps3.30/$1.00. The remainder of the parent’s (Mexican affiliate’s) a ccounts receivable (payable) is denominated in dollars (pesos).b The Mexican affiliate is wholly owned by the parent firm. It is carried on the parent firm’s books at $2,400,000. This represents the sum of the common stock (Ps4,500,000) and retained earnings (Ps3,420,000) on the Mexican affiliate’s books, translated at Ps3.30/$1.00.c The Canadian affiliate is wholly owned by the parent firm. It is carried on the parent firm’s books at $3,600,000. This represents the sum of the common stock (CD2,900,000) and the retained earnings (CD1,600,000) on the Canadian affiliate’s books, translated at CD1.25/$1.00.d The parent firm has outstanding notes payable of ¥126,000,000 due a Japanese bank. This sum is carried on th e parent firm’s books as $1,200,000, translated at ¥105/$1.00. Other notes payable are denominated in U.S. dollars.e The Mexican affiliate has sold on account A120,000 of merchandise to an Argentine import house. This sum is carried on the Mexican affi liate’s books as Ps396,000, translated at A1.00/Ps3.30. Other accounts receivable are denominated in Mexican pesos.f The Canadian affiliate has sold on account W192,000,000 of merchandise to a Korean importer. This sum is carried on the Canadian affilia te’s books as CD300,000, translated at W800/CD1.25. Other accounts receivable are denominated in Canadian dollars.You joined the International Treasury division of Sundance six months ago after spending the last two years receiving your MBA degree. The corporate treasurer has asked you to prepare a report analyzing all aspects of the translation exposure faced by Sundance as a MNC. She has also asked you to address in your analysis the relationship between the firm’s translation exposure and its transa ction exposure. After performing a forecast of future spot rates of exchange, you decide that you must do the following before any sensible report can be written.a. Using the current exchange rates and the nonconsolidated balance sheets for Sundance and its affiliates, prepare a consolidated balance sheet for the MNC according to FASB 52.b. i. Prepare a translation exposure report for Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc., and its two affiliates.ii. Using the translation exposure report you have prepared, determine if any reporting currency imbalance will result from a change in exchange rates to which the firm has currency exposure. Your forecast is that exchange rates will change from $1.00 = CD1.25 = Ps3.30 = A1.00 = ¥105 = W800 to $1.00 = CD1.30 = Ps3.30 = A1.03 = ¥105 = W800.c. Prepare a second consolidated balance sheet for the MNC using the exchange rates you expect in the future. Determine how any reporting currency imbalance will affect the new consolidated balance sheet for the MNC.d. i. Prepare a transaction exposure report for Sundance and its affiliates. Determine if any transaction exposures are also translation exposures.ii. Investigate what Sundance and its affiliates can do to control its transaction and translation exposures. Determine if any of the translation exposure should be hedged.Suggested Solution to Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc.Note to Instructor: It is not necessary to assign the entire case problem. Parts a. and b.i. can be used as self-contained problems, respectively, on basic balance sheet consolidation and the preparation of a translation exposure report.a. Below is the consolidated balance sheet for the MNC prepared according to the current rate method prescribed by FASB 52. Note that the balance sheet balances. That is, Total Assets and Total Liabilities and Net Worth equal one another. Thus, the assumption is that the current exchange rates are the same as when the affiliates were established. This assumption is relaxed in part c.Consolidated Balance Sheet for Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc. its Mexican and Canadian Affiliates, December 31, 2005: Pre-Exchange Rate Change (in 000 Dollars)Sundance, Inc. Mexican Canadian Consolidateda$2,500,000 - $400,000 (= Ps1,320,000/(Ps3.30/$1.00)) intracompany loan = $2,100,000.b,c The investment in the affiliates cancels with the net worth of the affiliates in the consolidation.d The parent owes a Japanese bank ¥126,000,000. This is carried on the books as $1,200,000 (=¥126,000,000/(¥105/$1.00)).e The Mexican affiliate has sold on account A120,000 of merchandise to an Argentine import house. This is carried on the Mexican affiliate’s books as Ps396,000 (= A120,000 x Ps3.30/A1.00).f The Canadian affiliate has sold on account W192,000,000 of merchandise to a Korean importer. This is carried on the Canadian affiliate’s books as CD300,000 (= W192,000,000/(W800/CD1.25)).b. i. Below is presented the translation exposure report for the Sundance MNC. Note, from the report that there is net positive exposure in the Mexican peso, Canadian dollar, Argentine austral and Korean won. If any of these exposure currencies appreciates (depreciates) against the U.S. dollar, exposed assets denominated in these currencies will increase (fall) in translated value by a greater amount than the exposed liabilities denominated in these currencies. There is negative net exposure in the Japanese yen. If the yen appreciates (depreciates) against the U.S. dollar, exposed assets denominated in the yen will increase (fall) in translated value by smaller amount than the exposed liabilities denominated in the yen.Translation Exposure Report for Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc. and its Mexican and Canadian Affiliates, December 31, 2005 (in 000 Currency Units)b. ii. The problem assumes that Canadian dollar depreciates from CD1.25/$1.00 to CD1.30/$1.00 and that the Argentine austral depreciates from A1.00/$1.00 to A1.03/$1.00. To determine the reporting currency imbalance in translated value caused by these exchange rate changes, we can use the following formula:Net Exposure Currency i S(i/reporting)-Net Exposure Currency i S(i/reporting)new old = Reporting Currency Imbalance.From the translation exposure report we can determine that the depreciation in the Canadian dollar will cause aCD4,200,000 CD1.30/$1.00-CD4,200,000CD1.25/$1.00= -$129,231reporting currency imbalance.Similarly, the depreciation in the Argentine austral will cause aA120,000 A1.03/$1.00-A120,000A1.00/$1.00= -$3,495reporting currency imbalance.In total, the depreciation of the Canadian dollar and the Argentine austral will cause a reporting currency imbalance in translated value equal to -$129,231 -$3,495= -$132,726.c. The new consolidated balance sheet for Sundance MNC after the depreciation of the Canadian dollar and the Argentine austral is presented below. Note that in order for the new consolidated balance sheet to balance after the exchange rate change, it is necessary to have a cumulative translation adjustment account balance of -$133 thousand, which is the amount of the reporting currency imbalance determined in part b. ii (rounded to the nearest thousand).Consolidated Balance Sheet for Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc. its Mexican and Canadian Affiliates, December 31, 2005: Post-Exchange Rate Change (in 000 Dollars)a$2,500,000 - $400,000 (= Ps1,320,000/(Ps3.30/$1.00)) intracompany loan = $2,100,000.b,c The investment in the affiliates cancels with the net worth of the affiliates in the consolidation.d The parent owes a Japanese bank ¥126,000,000. This is carried on the books as $1,200,000 (=¥126,000,000/(¥105/$1.00)).e The Mexican affiliate has sold on account A120,000 of merchandise to an Argentine import house. This is carried on the Mexican affiliate’s books as Ps384,466 (= A120,000 x Ps3.30/A1.03).f The Canadian affiliate has sold on account W192,000,000 of merchandise to a Korean importer. This is carried on the Canadian affiliate’s books as CD312,000 (=W192,000,000/(W800/CD1.30)).d. i. The transaction exposure report for Sundance, Inc. and its two affiliates is presented below. The report indicates that the Ps1,320,000 accounts receivable due from the Mexican affiliate is not also a translation exposure because this is netted out in the consolidation. However, the ¥126,000,000 notes payable of the parent is also a translation exposure. Additionally, the A120,000 accounts receivable of the Mexican affiliate and the W192,000,000 accounts receivable of the Canadian affiliate are both translation exposures.Transaction Exposure Report for Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc. andits Mexican and Canadian Affiliates, December 31, 2005d. ii. Since transaction exposure may potentially result in real cash flow losses while translation exposure does not have an immediate direct effect on operating cash flows, we will first address the transaction exposure that confronts Sundance and its affiliates. The analysis assumes the depreciation in the Canadian dollar and the Argentine austral have already taken place.The parent firm can pay off the ¥126,000,000 loan from the Japanese bank using funds from the cash account and money from accounts receivable that it will collect. Additionally, the parent firm can collect the accounts receivable of Ps1,320,000 from its Mexican affiliate that is carried on the books as $400,000. In turn, the Mexican affiliate can collect the A120,000 accounts receivable from the Argentine importer, valued at Ps384,466 after the depreciation in the austral, to guard against further depreciation and to use to partially pay off the peso liability to the parent. The Canadian affiliate can eliminate its transaction exposure by collecting the W192,000,000 accounts receivable as soon as possible, which is currently valued at CD312,000.The elimination of these transaction exposures will affect the translation exposure of Sundance MNC. A revised translation exposure report follows.Revised Translation Exposure Report for Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc. and its Mexican and Canadian Affiliates, December 31, 2005 (in 000 Currency Units)Note from the revised translation exposure report that the elimination of the transaction exposure will also eliminate the translation exposure in the Japanese yen, Argentine austral and the Korean won. Moreover, the net translation exposure in the Mexican peso has been reduced. But the net translation exposure in the Canadian dollar has increased as a result of the Canadian affiliate’s collection of the won receivable.The remaining translation exposure can be hedged using a balance sheet hedge or a derivatives hedge. Use of a balance sheet hedge is likely to create new transaction exposure, however. Use of a derivatives hedge is actually speculative, and not a real hedge, since the size of the “hedge” is based on one’s expectation as to the future spot exchange rate. An incorrect estimate will result in the “hedge” losing money for the MNC.。

国际财务管理离线作业_答案之欧阳理创编

国际财务管理离线作业_答案之欧阳理创编

《国际财务管理》作业参考答案第1章国际财务管理导论一、名词解释1.国际企业:超越国界从事商业活动的企业,包括各种类型、各种规模的参与国际商务的企业。

国内生产、国际销售是国际企业最简单的国际业务。

跨国公司是国际企业发展的较高阶段和典型代表。

2.许可经营:许可方企业向受许可方企业提供技术,包括版权、专利技术、技术诀窍或商标以换取使用费的一种经营方式。

当许可方企业与受许可方企业分别位于不同国家时,就形成了国家间的许可经营。

这种方式也可以被看作技术出口。

3.特许经营:是一种特殊的许可经营方式,许可方通过向被许可方提供全套专业化企业经营手段,包括商标、企业组织、销售或服务策略和培训、技术支持等定期取得特许权使用费,被许可方则必须同意遵守严格的规则和程序以实现经营的标准化。

特许权使用费通常以被许可方的销售收入为基础收取。

4.分部式组织:称事业部制组织结构。

其特点是在高层管理者之下,按地区或产品设置若干分部,实行“集中政策,分散经营”的集中领导下的分权管理。

5.混合式组织:事实上很少有哪家企业是单纯采用一种结构类型的,采用两种以上组合方式的称为混合式结构。

6.分权模式: 子公司拥有充分的财务管理决策权,母公司对于其财务管理控制以间接管理为主。

二、简答题1.国际财务管理与国内企业的财务管理内容有哪些的重要区别。

【答案】国际财务管理是指对国际企业的涉外经济活动进行的财务管理。

财务管理主要涉及的是如何作出各种最佳的公司财务决定,比如通过适宜的投资、资产结构、股息政策以及人力资源管理,从而达到既定的公司目标(股东财富最大化)。

国际财务管理与国内财务管理之间的区别主要体现在以下几个方面:(1)跨国经营和财务活动受外汇风险的影响;(2)全球范围内融资,寻求最佳全球融资战略;(3)跨国经营中商品和资金无法自由流动;(4)对外投资为股东在全球范围内分散风险。

2.试述国际财务管理体系的内容。

【答案】国际财务管理体系的内容主要包括:(1)国际财务管理环境。

国际财务管理离线作业_答案之欧阳音创编

国际财务管理离线作业_答案之欧阳音创编

《国际财务管理》作业参考答案第1章国际财务管理导论一、名词解释1.国际企业:超越国界从事商业活动的企业,包括各种类型、各种规模的参与国际商务的企业。

国内生产、国际销售是国际企业最简单的国际业务。

跨国公司是国际企业发展的较高阶段和典型代表。

2.许可经营:许可方企业向受许可方企业提供技术,包括版权、专利技术、技术诀窍或商标以换取使用费的一种经营方式。

当许可方企业与受许可方企业分别位于不同国家时,就形成了国家间的许可经营。

这种方式也可以被看作技术出口。

3.特许经营:是一种特殊的许可经营方式,许可方通过向被许可方提供全套专业化企业经营手段,包括商标、企业组织、销售或服务策略和培训、技术支持等定期取得特许权使用费,被许可方则必须同意遵守严格的规则和程序以实现经营的标准化。

特许权使用费通常以被许可方的销售收入为基础收取。

4.分部式组织:称事业部制组织结构。

其特点是在高层管理者之下,按地区或产品设置若干分部,实行“集中政策,分散经营”的集中领导下的分权管理。

5.混合式组织:事实上很少有哪家企业是单纯采用一种结构类型的,采用两种以上组合方式的称为混合式结构。

6.分权模式: 子公司拥有充分的财务管理决策权,母公司对于其财务管理控制以间接管理为主。

二、简答题1.国际财务管理与国内企业的财务管理内容有哪些的重要区别。

【答案】国际财务管理是指对国际企业的涉外经济活动进行的财务管理。

财务管理主要涉及的是如何作出各种最佳的公司财务决定,比如通过适宜的投资、资产结构、股息政策以及人力资源管理,从而达到既定的公司目标(股东财富最大化)。

国际财务管理与国内财务管理之间的区别主要体现在以下几个方面:(1)跨国经营和财务活动受外汇风险的影响;(2)全球范围内融资,寻求最佳全球融资战略;(3)跨国经营中商品和资金无法自由流动;(4)对外投资为股东在全球范围内分散风险。

2.试述国际财务管理体系的内容。

【答案】国际财务管理体系的内容主要包括:(1)国际财务管理环境。

财务管理课后习题答案(完美版)

财务管理课后习题答案(完美版)

财务管理课后习题答案第一章 答案一、单项选择题1.C2.A3.D4.A5.B 二、多项选择题1.ABC2.BC3.ABCD4.AC5. AC 三、判断题1. ×2. ×3. ×4. √5. ×第二章 答案一、单项选择题1.A2.C3.A4.D5.B6.B7.A8.C9.C 10.B 二、多项选择题1.AC2.ABD3.ACD4.ABCD5.ABD6.ABC7.BCD8.AC9.BD 10.ABCD 三、判断题1. √2. ×3. ×4. √5. × 四、计算题1.PV=8000×(P/A,8%12,240)=953,594(元)银行贷款的年利率为8%时,分期付款方式好,低于一次性付款。

PV=8000×(P/A,6%12,240)=1,116,646(元)银行贷款的年利率为6%时,一次性付款方式好,低于分期付款的现值。

2.(1)由100=10×(F/P,10%,n )得:(F/P,10%,n )=10 查复利终值系数表,i=10%,(F/P,10%,n )=10,n 在24~25年之间; (2)由100=20×(F/P,5%,n )得:(F/P,5%,n )=5 查复利终值系数表,i=5%,(F/P,5%,n )=5,n 在30~35年之间;(3)由100=10×(F/A,10%,n )得:(F/A,10%,n )=50 查年金终值系数表,i=10%,(F/A,10%,n )=50,n 在18~19年之间; 因此,第三种方式能使你最快成为百万富翁。

3.(1)2010年1月1日存入金额1000元为现值,2013年1月1日账户余额为3年后终值: F =P ×(F/P ,12%,3)=1000×1.405=1405(元)(2)F =1000×(1+12%/4)3×4 =1000×1.426 =1426(元)(3)2013年1月1日余额是计算到期日的本利和,所以是普通年金终值:F =250×(F/A ,12%,4)=250×4.779 =1194.75(元) (4)F =1405,i =12%,n =4 则:F =A ×(F/A ,i ,n ) 即1405=A ×(F/A,12%,4)=A ×4.779 ,A =1405÷4.779=293.99(元) 4. 10=2×(P/A ,i ,8) (P/A ,i ,8)=5查年金现值系数表, i =8,(P/A, i.8)=5, i 在11~12年之间178.0146.0146.5%1%%11⎪⎪⎫⎪⎫⎪⎪⎫⎪⎫x2021 得,借款利率为11.82%5.递延年金现值P =300×(P/A ,10%,5)×(P/F ,10%,2)=300×3.791×0.826=939.4098(万元)。

国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter

国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter

C H A P T E R8M A N A G E M E N T O F T R A N S A C T I O N E X P O S U R ESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS ANDPROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. How would you define transaction exposure? How is it different from economic exposure?Answer: Transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency values of the firm’s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpected changes in exchange rates. Unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term.2. Discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure using the forward contract vs. money market instruments. When do the alternative hedging approaches produce the same result?Answer: Hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling or buying foreign currency receivables or payables forward. On the other hand, money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables, thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions. If the interest rate parity is holding, the two hedging methods are equivalent.3. Discuss and compare the costs of hedging via the forward contract and the options contract.Answer: There is no up-front cost of hedging by forward contracts. In the case of options hedging, however, hedgers should pay the premiums for the contracts up-front. The cost of forward hedging, however, may be realized ex post when the hedger regrets his/her hedging decision.4. What are the advantages of a currency options contract as a hedging tool compared with the forward contract?Answer: The main advantage of using options contracts for hedging is that the hedger can decide whether to exercise options upon observing the realized future exchange rate. Options thus provide a hedge against ex post regret that forward hedger might have to suffer. Hedgers can only eliminate the downside risk while retaining the upside potential.5. Suppose your company has purchased a put option on the German mark to manage exchange exposure associated with an account receivable denominated in that currency. In this case, your company can be said to have an‘insurance’ policy on its receivable. Explain in what sense this is so.Answer: Your company in this case knows in advance that it will receive a certain minimum dollar amount no matter what might happen to the $/€ exchange rate. Furthermore, if the German mark appreciates, your company will benefit from the rising euro.6. Recent surveys of corporate exchange risk management practices indicate that many U.S. firms simply do not hedge. How would you explain this result?Answer: There can be many possible reasons for this. First, many firms may feel that they are not really exposed to exchange risk due to product diversification, diversified markets for their products, etc. Second, firms may be using self-insurance against exchange risk. Third, firms may feel that shareholders can diversify exchange risk themselves, rendering corporate risk management unnecessary.7. Should a firm hedge? Why or why not?Answer: In a perfect capital market, firms may not need to hedge exchange risk. But firms can add to their value by hedging if markets are imperfect. First, if management knows about the firm’s exposure better than shareholders, the firm, not its shareholders, should hedge. Second, firms may be able to hedge at a lower cost. Third, if default costs are significant, corporate hedging can be justifiable because it reduces the probability of default. Fourth, if the firm faces progressive taxes, it can reduce tax obligations by hedging which stabilizes corporate earnings.8. U sing an example, discuss the possible effect of hedging on a firm’s tax obligations.Answer: One can use an example similar to the one presented in the chapter.9. Explain contingent exposure and discuss the advantages of using currency options to manage this type of currency exposure.Answer: Companies may encounter a situation where they may or may not face currency exposure. In this situation, companies need options, not obligations, to buy or sell a given amount of foreign exchange they may or may not receive or have to pay. If companies either hedge using forward contracts or do not hedge at all, they may face definite currency exposure.10. Explain cross-hedging and discuss the factors determining its effectiveness.Answer: Cross-hedging involves hedging a position in one asset by taking a position in another asset. The effectiveness of cross-hedging would depend on the strength and stability of the relationship between the two assets.PROBLEMS1. Cray Research sold a super computer to the Max Planc k Institute in Germany on credit and invoiced €10 million payable in six months. Currently, the six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€ and the foreign exchange advisor for Cray Research predicts that the spot rate is likely to be $1.05/€ in six months.(a) What is the expected gain/loss from the forward hedging?(b) If you were the financial manager of Cray Research, would you recommend hedging this euro receivable? Why or why not?(c) Suppose the foreign exchange advisor predicts that the future spot rate will be the same as the forward exchange rate quoted today. Would you recommend hedging in this case? Why or why not?Solution: (a) Expected gain($) = 10,000,000(1.10 – 1.05)= 10,000,000(.05)= $500,000.(b) I would recommend hedging because Cray Research can increase the expected dollar receipt by $500,000 and also eliminate the exchange risk.(c) Since I eliminate risk without sacrificing dollar receipt, I still would recommend hedging.2. IBM purchased computer chips from NEC, a Japanese electronics concern, and was billed ¥250 million payable in three months. Currently, the spot exchange rate is ¥105/$ and the three-month forward rate is ¥100/$. The three-month money market interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the U.S. and 7 percent per annum in Japan. The management of IBM decided to use the money market hedge to deal with this yen account payable.(a) Explain the process of a money market hedge and compute the dollar cost of meeting the yen obligation.(b) Conduct the cash flow analysis of the money market hedge.Solution: (a). Let’s first compute the PV of ¥250 million, i.e.,250m/1.0175 = ¥245,700,245.7So if the above yen amount is invested today at the Japanese interest rate for three months, the maturity value will be exactly equal to ¥25 million which is the amount of payable.To buy the above yen amount today, it will cost:$2,340,002.34 = ¥250,000,000/105.The dollar cost of meeting this yen obligation is $2,340,002.34 as of today.(b)___________________________________________________________________Transaction CF0 CF1____________________________________________________________________1. Buy yens spot -$2,340,002.34with dollars ¥245,700,245.702. Invest in Japan - ¥245,700,245.70 ¥250,000,0003. Pay yens - ¥250,000,000Net cash flow - $2,340,002.34____________________________________________________________________3. You plan to visit Geneva, Switzerland in three months to attend an international business conference. You expect to incur the total cost of SF 5,000 for lodging, meals and transportation during your stay. As oftoday, the spot exchange rate is $0.60/SF and the three-month forward rate is $0.63/SF. You can buy the three-month call option on SF with the exercise rate of $0.64/SF for the premium of $0.05 per SF. Assume that your expected future spot exchange rate is the same as the forward rate. The three-month interest rate is6 percent per annum in the United States and 4 percent per annum in Switzerland.(a) Calculate your expected dollar cost of buying SF5,000 if you choose to hedge via call option on SF.(b) Calculate the future dollar cost of meeting this SF obligation if you decide to hedge using a forward contract.(c) At what future spot exchange rate will you be indifferent between the forward and option market hedges?(d) Illustrate the future dollar costs of meeting the SF payable against the future spot exchange rate under both the options and forward market hedges.Solution: (a) Total option premium = (.05)(5000) = $250. In three months, $250 is worth $253.75 = $250(1.015). At the expected future spot rate of $0.63/SF, which is less than the exercise price, you don’t expect to exercise options. Rather, you expect to buy Swiss franc at $0.63/SF. Since you are going to buy SF5,000, you expect to spend $3,150 (=.63x5,000). Thus, the total expected cost of buying SF5,000 will be the sum of $3,150 and $253.75, i.e., $3,403.75.(b) $3,150 = (.63)(5,000).(c) $3,150 = 5,000x + 253.75, where x represents the break-even future spot rate. Solving for x, we obtain x = $0.57925/SF. Note that at the break-even future spot rate, options will not be exercised.(d) If the Swiss franc appreciates beyond $0.64/SF, which is the exercise price of call option, you will exercise the option and buy SF5,000 for $3,200. The total cost of buying SF5,000 will be $3,453.75 = $3,200 + $253.75.This is the maximum you will pay.4. Boeing just signed a contract to sell a Boeing 737 aircraft to Air France. Air France will be billed €20million which is payable in one year. The current spot exchange rate is $1.05/€ and the one -year forwardrate is $1.10/€. The annual interest rate is 6.0% in the U.S. and 5.0% in France. Boeing is concerned with the volatile exchange rate between the dollar and the euro and would like to hedge exchange exposure.(a) It is considering two hedging alternatives: sell the euro proceeds from the sale forward or borrow euros from the Credit Lyonnaise against the euro receivable. Which alternative would you recommend? Why?(b) Other things being equal, at what forward exchange rate would Boeing be indifferent between the twohedging methods?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the future dollar proceeds will be (20,000,000)(1.10) =$22,000,000. In the case of money market hedge (MMH), the firm has to first borrow the PV of its euro receivable, i.e., 20,000,000/1.05 =€19,047,619. Then the firm should exchange this euro amount into dollars at the current spot rate to receive: (€19,047,619)($1.05/€) = $20,000,000, which can be invested at the dollar interest rate for one year to yield: $20,000,000(1.06) = $21,200,000.Clearly, the firm can receive $800,000 more by using forward hedging.(b) According to IRP, F = S(1+i $)/(1+i F ). T hus the “indifferent” forward rate will be: F = 1.05(1.06)/1.05 = $1.06/€.5. Suppose that Baltimore Machinery sold a drilling machine to a Swiss firm and gave the Swiss client a choice of paying either $10,000 or SF 15,000 in three months.(a) In the above example, Baltimore Machinery effectively gave the Swiss client a free option to buy up to $10,000 dollars using Swiss franc. What is the ‘implied’ exercise exchange rate?(b) If the spot exchange rate turns out to be $0.62/SF, which currency do you think the Swiss client will choose to use for payment? What is the value of this free option for the Swiss client? (c) What is the best way for Baltimore Machinery to deal with the exchange exposure? Solution: (a) The implied exercise (price) rate is: 10,000/15,000 = $0.6667/SF .(b) If the Swiss client chooses to pay $10,000, it will cost SF16,129 (=10,000/.62). Since the Swiss client has an option to pay SF15,000, it will choose to do so. The value of this option is obviously SF1,129 (=SF16,129-SF15,000).(c) Baltimore Machinery faces a contingent exposure in the sense that it may or may not receive SF15,000 in the future. The firm thus can hedge this exposure by buying a put option on SF15,000.6. Princess Cruise Company (PCC) purchased a ship from Mitsubishi Heavy Industry. PCC owes Mitsubishi Heavy Industry 500 million yen in one year. The current spot rate is 124 yen per dollar and the one-year forward rate is 110 yen per dollar. The annual interest rate is 5% in Japan and 8% in the U.S. PCC can also buy a one-year call option on yen at the strike price of $.0081 per yen for a premium of .014 cents$ Cost Options hedgeForward hedge$3,453.75$3,1500.5790.64(strike price) $/SF$253.75per yen.(a) Compute the future dollar costs of meeting this obligation using the money market hedge and the forward hedges.(b) Assuming that the forward exchange rate is the best predictor of the future spot rate, compute the expected future dollar cost of meeting this obligation when the option hedge is used.(c) At what future spot rate do you think PCC may be indifferent between the option and forward hedge? Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the dollar cost will be 500,000,000/110 = $4,545,455. In the case of money market hedge, the future dollar cost will be: 500,000,000(1.08)/(1.05)(124)= $4,147,465.(b) The option premium is: (.014/100)(500,000,000) = $70,000. Its future value will be $70,000(1.08) = $75,600.At the expected future spot rate of $.0091(=1/110), which is higher than the exercise of $.0081, PCC will exercise its call option and buy ¥500,000,000 for $4,050,000 (=500,000,000x.0081).The total expected cost will thus be $4,125,600, which is the sum of $75,600 and $4,050,000.(c) When the option hedge is used, PCC will spend “at most” $4,125,000. On the other hand, when the forward hedging is used, PCC will have to spend $4,545,455 regardless of the future spot rate. This means that the options hedge dominates the forward hedge. At no future spot rate, PCC will be indifferent between forward and options hedges.7. Airbus sold an aircraft, A400, to Delta Airlines, a U.S. company, and billed $30 million payable in six months. Airbus is concerned with the euro proceeds from international sales and would like to control exchange risk. The current spot exchange rate is $1.05/€ and six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€ at the moment. Airbus can buy a six-month put option on U.S. dollars with a strike price of €0.95/$ for a premium of €0.02 per U.S. dollar. Currently, six-month interest rate is 2.5% in the euro zone and 3.0% in the U.S.pute the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale if Airbus decides to hedge using aforward contract.b.If Airbus decides to hedge using money market instruments, what action does Airbus need to take?What would be the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale in this case?c.If Airbus decides to hedge using put options on U.S. dollars, what would be the ‘expected’ europroceeds from the American sale? Assume that Airbus regards the current forward exchange rate as an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate.d.At what future spot exchange rate do you think Airbus will be indifferent between the option andmoney market hedge?Solution:a. Airbus will sell $30 million forward for €27,272,727 = ($30,000,000) / ($1.10/€).b. Airbus will borrow the present value of the dollar receivable, i.e., $29,126,214 = $30,000,000/1.03, and then sell the dollar proceeds spot for euros: €27,739,251. This is the euro amount that Airbus is going to keep.c. Since the expected future spot rate is less than the strike price of the put option, i.e., €0.9091< €0.95, Airbus expects to exercise the option and receive €28,500,000 = ($30,000,000)(€0.95/$). This is gross proceeds. Airbus spent€600,000 (=0.02x30,000,000) upfront for the option and its future cost is equal to €615,000 = €600,000 x 1.025. Thusthe net euro proceeds from the American sale is €27,885,000, which is the difference between the gross proceeds and the option costs.d. At the indifferent future spot rate, the following will hold:€28,432,732 = S T (30,000,000) - €615,000.Solving for S T, we obtain the “indifference” future spot exchange rate, i.e., €0.9683/$, or $1.0327/€. Note that €28,432,732 is the future value of the proceeds under money market hedging:€28,432,732 = (€27,739,251) (1.025).Suggested solution for Mini Case: Chase Options, Inc.[See Chapter 13 for the case text]Chase Options, Inc.Hedging Foreign Currency Exposure Through Currency OptionsHarvey A. PoniachekI. Case SummaryThis case reviews the foreign exchange options market and hedging. It presents various international transactions that require currency options hedging strategies by the corporations involved. Seven transactions under a variety of circumstances are introduced that require hedging by currency options. The transactions involve hedging of dividend remittances, portfolio investment exposure, and strategic economic competitiveness. Market quotations are provided for options (and options hedging ratios), forwards, and interest rates for various maturities.II. Case Objective.The case introduces the student to the principles of currency options market and hedging strategies. The transactions are of various types that often confront companies that are involved in extensive international business or multinational corporations. The case induces students to acquire hands-on experience in addressing specific exposure and hedging concerns, including how to apply various market quotations, which hedging strategy is most suitable, and how to address exposure in foreign currency through cross hedging policies.III. Proposed Assignment Solution1. The company expects DM100 million in repatriated profits, and does not want the DM/$ exchange rate at which they convert those profits to rise above 1.70. They can hedge this exposure using DM put options with a strike price of 1.70. If the spot rate rises above 1.70, they can exercise the option, while if that rate falls they can enjoy additional profits from favorable exchange rate movements.To purchase the options would require an up-front premium of:DM 100,000,000 x 0.0164 = DM 1,640,000.With a strike price of 1.70 DM/$, this would assure the U.S. company of receiving at least:DM 100,000,000 – DM 1,640,000 x (1 + 0.085106 x 272/360)= DM 98,254,544/1.70 DM/$ = $57,796,791by exercising the option if the DM depreciated. Note that the proceeds from the repatriated profits are reduced by the premium paid, which is further adjusted by the interest foregone on this amount. However, if the DM were to appreciate relative to the dollar, the company would allow the option to expire, and enjoy greater dollar proceeds from this increase.Should forward contracts be used to hedge this exposure, the proceeds received would be:DM100,000,000/1.6725 DM/$ = $59,790,732,regardless of the movement of the DM/$ exchange rate. While this amount is almost $2 million more than that realized using option hedges above, there is no flexibility regarding the exercise date; if this date differs from that at which the repatriate profits are available, the company may be exposed to additional further current exposure. Further, there is no opportunity to enjoy any appreciation in the DM.If the company were to buy DM puts as above, and sell an equivalent amount in calls with strike price 1.647, the premium paid would be exactly offset by the premium received. This would assure that the exchange rate realized would fall between 1.647 and 1.700. If the rate rises above 1.700, the company will exercise its put option, and if it fell below 1.647, the other party would use its call; for any rate in between, both options would expire worthless. The proceeds realized would then fall between:DM 100,00,000/1.647 DM/$ = $60,716,454andDM 100,000,000/1.700 DM/$ = $58,823,529.This would allow the company some upside potential, while guaranteeing proceeds at least $1 million greater than the minimum for simply buying a put as above.Buy/Sell OptionsDM/$SpotPut Payoff “Put”Profits Call Payoff“Call”Profits Net Profit1.60 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.61 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.62 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.63 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.64 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.65 (1,742,846) 60,606,061 1,742,846 0 60,606,061 1.66 (1,742,846) 60,240,964 1,742,846 0 60,240,964 1.67 (1,742,846) 59,880,240 1,742,846 0 59,880,240 1.68 (1,742,846) 59,523,810 1,742,846 0 59,523,810 1.69 (1,742,846) 59,171,598 1,742,846 0 59,171,598 1.70 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.71 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.72 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.73 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.74 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.75 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.76 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.77 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.78 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.79 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,5291.80 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.81 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.82 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.83 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.84 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.85 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529Since the firm believes that there is a good chance that the pound sterling will weaken, locking them into a forward contract would not be appropriate, because they would lose the opportunity to profit from this weakening. Their hedge strategy should follow for an upside potential to match their viewpoint. Therefore, they should purchase sterling call options, paying a premium of:5,000,000 STG x 0.0176 = 88,000 STG.If the dollar strengthens against the pound, the firm allows the option to expire, and buys sterling in the spot market at a cheaper price than they would have paid for a forward contract; otherwise, the sterling calls protect against unfavorable depreciation of the dollar.Because the fund manager is uncertain when he will sell the bonds, he requires a hedge which will allow flexibility as to the exercise date. Thus, options are the best instrument for him to use. He can buy A$ puts to lock in a floor of 0.72 A$/$. Since he is willing to forego any further currency appreciation, he can sell A$ calls with a strike price of 0.8025 A$/$ to defray the cost of his hedge (in fact he earns a net premium of A$ 100,000,000 x (0.007234 –0.007211) = A$ 2,300), while knowing that he can’t receive less than 0.72 A$/$ when redeeming his investment, and can benefit from a small appreciation of the A$.Example #3:Problem: Hedge principal denominated in A$ into US$. Forgo upside potential to buy floor protection.I. Hedge by writing calls and buying puts1) Write calls for $/A$ @ 0.8025Buy puts for $/A$ @ 0.72# contracts needed = Principal in A$/Contract size100,000,000A$/100,000 A$ = 1002) Revenue from sale of calls = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,573 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007234 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)3) Total cost of puts = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,332 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007211 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)4) Put payoffIf spot falls below 0.72, fund manager will exercise putIf spot rises above 0.72, fund manager will let put expire5) Call payoffIf spot rises above .8025, call will be exercised If spot falls below .8025, call will expire6) Net payoffSee following Table for net payoff Australian Dollar Bond HedgeStrikePrice Put Payoff “Put”Principal Call Payoff“Call”Principal Net Profit0.60 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.61 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.62 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.63 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.64 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.65 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.66 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.67 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.68 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.69 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.70 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.71 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.72 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.73 (75,332) 73,000,000 75,573 0 73,000,2410.74 (75,332) 74,000,000 75,573 0 74,000,2410.75 (75,332) 75,000,000 75,573 0 75,000,2410.76 (75,332) 76,000,000 75,573 0 76,000,2410.77 (75,332) 77,000,000 75,573 0 77,000,2410.78 (75,332) 78,000,000 75,573 0 78,000,2410.79 (75,332) 79,000,000 75,573 0 79,000,2410.80 (75,332) 80,000,000 75,573 0 80,000,2410.81 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.82 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.83 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.84 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.85 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2414. The German company is bidding on a contract which they cannot be certain of winning. Thus, the need to execute a currency transaction is similarly uncertain, and using a forward or futures as a hedge is inappropriate, because it would force them to perform even if they do not win the contract.Using a sterling put option as a hedge for this transaction makes the most sense. For a premium of:12 million STG x 0.0161 = 193,200 STG,they can assure themselves that adverse movements in the pound sterling exchange rate will not diminish the profitability of the project (and hence the feasibility of their bid), while at the same time allowing the potential for gains from sterling appreciation.5. Since AMC in concerned about the adverse effects that a strengthening of the dollar would have on its business, we need to create a situation in which it will profit from such an appreciation. Purchasing a yen put or a dollar call will achieve this objective. The data in Exhibit 1, row 7 represent a 10 percent appreciation of the dollar (128.15 strike vs. 116.5 forward rate) and can be used to hedge against a similar appreciation of the dollar.For every million yen of hedging, the cost would be:Yen 100,000,000 x 0.000127 = 127 Yen.To determine the breakeven point, we need to compute the value of this option if the dollar appreciated 10 percent (spot rose to 128.15), and subtract from it the premium we paid. This profit would be compared with the profit earned on five to 10 percent of AMC’s sales (wh ich would be lost as a result of the dollar appreciation). The number of options to be purchased which would equalize these two quantities would represent the breakeven point.Example #5:Hedge the economic cost of the depreciating Yen to AMC.If we assume that AMC sales fall in direct proportion to depreciation in the yen (i.e., a 10 percent decline in yen and 10 percent decline in sales), then we can hedge the full value of AMC’s sales. I have assumed $100 million in sales.1) Buy yen puts# contracts needed = Expected Sales *Current ¥/$ Rate / Contract size9600 = ($100,000,000)(120¥/$) / ¥1,250,0002) Total Cost = (# contracts)(contract size)(premium)$1,524,000 = (9600)( ¥1,250,000)($0.0001275/¥)3) Floor rate = Exercise – Premium128.1499¥/$ = 128.15¥/$ - $1,524,000/12,000,000,000¥4) The payoff changes depending on the level of the ¥/$ rate. The following table summarizes thepayoffs. An equilibrium is reached when the spot rate equals the floor rate.AMC ProfitabilityYen/$ Spot Put Payoff Sales Net Profit120 (1,524,990) 100,000,000 98,475,010121 (1,524,990) 99,173,664 97,648,564122 (1,524,990) 98,360,656 96,835,666123 (1,524,990) 97,560,976 86,035,986124 (1,524,990) 96,774,194 95,249,204125 (1,524,990) 96,000,000 94,475,010126 (1,524,990) 95,238,095 93,713,105127 (847,829) 94,488,189 93,640,360128 (109,640) 93,750,000 93,640,360129 617,104 93,023,256 93,640,360130 1,332,668 92,307,692 93,640,360131 2,037,307 91,603,053 93,640,360132 2,731,269 90,909,091 93,640,360133 3,414,796 90,225,664 93,640,360134 4,088,122 89,552,239 93,640,360135 4,751,431 88,888,889 93,640,360136 5,405,066 88,235,294 93,640,360137 6,049,118 87,591,241 93,640,360138 6,683,839 86,966,522 93,640,360139 7,308,425 86,330,936 93,640,360140 7,926,075 85,714,286 93,640,360141 8,533,977 85,106,383 93,640,360142 9,133,318 84,507,042 93,640,360143 9,724,276 83,916,084 93,640,360144 10,307,027 83,333,333 93,640,360145 10,881,740 82,758,621 93,640,360146 11,448,579 82,191,781 93,640,360147 12,007,707 81,632,653 93,640,360148 12,569,279 81,081,081 93,640,360149 13,103,448 80,536,913 93,640,360150 13,640,360 80,000,000 93,640,360The parent has a DM payable, and Lira receivable. It has several ways to cover its exposure; forwards, options, or swaps.The forward would be acceptable for the DM loan, because it has a known quantity and maturity, but the Lira exposure would retain some of its uncertainty because these factors are not assured.The parent could buy DM calls and Lira puts. This would allow them to take advantage of favorable。

国际财务管理(原书第5版)答案

国际财务管理(原书第5版)答案

国际财务管理(原书第5版)答案Lecture 4Exchange Rate ParityProblems: 6-2, 3, 4, 7, 8Suggested Solutions2.Option a:When you buy £35,000 forward, you will need $49,000 in three months to fulfill the forward contract. The present value of $49,000 is computed as follows: $49,000/(1.0035)3 = $48,489. Thus, the cost of Jaguar as of today is $48,489.Option b:The present value of £35,000 is £34,314 = £35,000/(1.02). To buy £34,314 today, it will cost $49,755 = 34,314x1.45. Thus the cost of Jaguar as of today is $49,755. You should definitely choose to use “option a”, and save $1,266, which is the difference between $49,755 and $48489.3.a.(1+I$) =1.02 (1+I£)(F/S) = (1.0145)(1.52/1.50) = 1.0280Thus, IRP is not holding exactly.b.(1) Borrow $1,500,000; repayment will be $1,530,000.(2) Buy £1,000,000 spot using $1,500,000.(3) Invest £1,000,000 at the pound interest rate of 1.45%; maturity value will be £1,014,500.(4) Sell £1,014,500 forward for $1,542,040Arbitrage profit will be $12,040c.Following the arbitrage transactions described above,The dollar interest rate will rise; The pound interest rate will fall;The spot exchange rate will rise; The forward exchange rate will fall.These adjustments will continue until IRP holds.4.a.(1+ i $) = 1.014 < (F/S) (1+ i € ) = 1.053. Thus, one has to borrow dollars and invest in eurosto make arbitrage profit.1)Borrow $1,000,000 and repay $1,014,000 in three months.2)Sell $1,000,000 spot for €800,000.3)I nvest €800,000 at the euro interest rate of 1.35 % for three months and receive€810,800 at maturity.4)Sell €810,800 forward for $1,037,758.Arbitrage profit = $1,037,758 - $1,014,000 = $23,758.b.Follow the first three steps above. But the last step, involving exchange risk hedging, will bedifferent.5)Buy $1,014,000 forward for €792,238.Arbitrage profit = €810,800 - €792,238 = €18,5627.a.ZAR spot rate under PPP = [1.05/1.11](0.175) = $0.1655/rand.b.Expected ZAR spot rate = [1.10/1.08] (0.158) = $0.1609/rand.c.Expected ZAR under PPP = [(1.07)4/(1.05)4] (0.158) = $0.1704/rand.8.a.First, note that (1+i €) = 1.054 is less than (F/S)(1+i €) =(1.60/1.50)(1.052) = 1.1221.You should thus borrow in euros and lend in pounds.1)Borrow €1,000,000 and promise to repay €1,054,000 in one year.2)Buy ?666,667 spot for €1,000,000.3)Invest ?666,667 at the pound interest rate of 5.2%; the maturity value will be ?701,334.4)To hedge exchange risk, sell the maturity value ?701,334 forward in exchange for€1,122,134. The arbitrage profit will be the difference between €1,122,134 and€1,054,000, i.e., €68,134.b.As a result of the above arbitrage transactions, the euro interest rate will rise, the poundinterest rate will fall. In addition, the spot exchange rate (euros per pound) will rise and the forward rate will fall. These adjustments will continue until the interest rate parity is restored.c.The pound-based investor will carry out the same transactions 1), 2), and 3) in a. But tohedge, he/she will buy €1,054,000 forward in exchange for ?658,750. The arbitrage profit will then be ?42,584 = ?701,334 - ?658,750.。

2021年国际财务管理离线作业_答案

《国际财务管理》作业参考答案欧阳光明(2021.03.07)第1章国际财务管理导论一、名词解释1.国际企业:超越国界从事商业活动的企业,包括各种类型、各种规模的参与国际商务的企业。

国内生产、国际销售是国际企业最简单的国际业务。

跨国公司是国际企业发展的较高阶段和典型代表。

2.许可经营:许可方企业向受许可方企业提供技术,包括版权、专利技术、技术诀窍或商标以换取使用费的一种经营方式。

当许可方企业与受许可方企业分别位于不同国家时,就形成了国家间的许可经营。

这种方式也可以被看作技术出口。

3.特许经营:是一种特殊的许可经营方式,许可方通过向被许可方提供全套专业化企业经营手段,包括商标、企业组织、销售或服务策略和培训、技术支持等定期取得特许权使用费,被许可方则必须同意遵守严格的规则和程序以实现经营的标准化。

特许权使用费通常以被许可方的销售收入为基础收取。

4.分部式组织:称事业部制组织结构。

其特点是在高层管理者之下,按地区或产品设置若干分部,实行“集中政策,分散经营”的集中领导下的分权管理。

5.混合式组织:事实上很少有哪家企业是单纯采用一种结构类型的,采用两种以上组合方式的称为混合式结构。

6.分权模式: 子公司拥有充分的财务管理决策权,母公司对于其财务管理控制以间接管理为主。

二、简答题1.国际财务管理与国内企业的财务管理内容有哪些的重要区别。

【答案】国际财务管理是指对国际企业的涉外经济活动进行的财务管理。

财务管理主要涉及的是如何作出各种最佳的公司财务决定,比如通过适宜的投资、资产结构、股息政策以及人力资源管理,从而达到既定的公司目标(股东财富最大化)。

国际财务管理与国内财务管理之间的区别主要体现在以下几个方面:(1)跨国经营和财务活动受外汇风险的影响;(2)全球范围内融资,寻求最佳全球融资战略;(3)跨国经营中商品和资金无法自由流动;(4)对外投资为股东在全球范围内分散风险。

2.试述国际财务管理体系的内容。

【答案】国际财务管理体系的内容主要包括:(1)国际财务管理环境。

国际财务管理离线作业_答案之欧阳歌谷创作

《国际财务管理》作业参考答案欧阳歌谷(2021.02.01)第1章国际财务管理导论一、名词解释1.国际企业:超越国界从事商业活动的企业,包括各种类型、各种规模的参与国际商务的企业。

国内生产、国际销售是国际企业最简单的国际业务。

跨国公司是国际企业发展的较高阶段和典型代表。

2.许可经营:许可方企业向受许可方企业提供技术,包括版权、专利技术、技术诀窍或商标以换取使用费的一种经营方式。

当许可方企业与受许可方企业分别位于不同国家时,就形成了国家间的许可经营。

这种方式也可以被看作技术出口。

3.特许经营:是一种特殊的许可经营方式,许可方通过向被许可方提供全套专业化企业经营手段,包括商标、企业组织、销售或服务策略和培训、技术支持等定期取得特许权使用费,被许可方则必须同意遵守严格的规则和程序以实现经营的标准化。

特许权使用费通常以被许可方的销售收入为基础收取。

4.分部式组织:称事业部制组织结构。

其特点是在高层管理者之下,按地区或产品设置若干分部,实行“集中政策,分散经营”的集中领导下的分权管理。

5.混合式组织:事实上很少有哪家企业是单纯采用一种结构类型的,采用两种以上组合方式的称为混合式结构。

6.分权模式: 子公司拥有充分的财务管理决策权,母公司对于其财务管理控制以间接管理为主。

二、简答题1.国际财务管理与国内企业的财务管理内容有哪些的重要区别。

【答案】国际财务管理是指对国际企业的涉外经济活动进行的财务管理。

财务管理主要涉及的是如何作出各种最佳的公司财务决定,比如通过适宜的投资、资产结构、股息政策以及人力资源管理,从而达到既定的公司目标(股东财富最大化)。

国际财务管理与国内财务管理之间的区别主要体现在以下几个方面:(1)跨国经营和财务活动受外汇风险的影响;(2)全球范围内融资,寻求最佳全球融资战略;(3)跨国经营中商品和资金无法自由流动;(4)对外投资为股东在全球范围内分散风险。

2.试述国际财务管理体系的内容。

【答案】国际财务管理体系的内容主要包括:(1)国际财务管理环境。

财务管理前五章课后练习及答案

财务管理前五章课后练习及答案第一章财务管理概述一、单选题1、下列有关长期投资的说法不正确的是()。

a.投资的主体是个人b、投资对象为经营性资产c.投资的目的是获取经营活动所需的实物资源d、长期投资现金流的规划和管理过程称为资本预算。

2.关于股东财富,以下陈述是正确的()。

a.股东财富的增加可以用股东权益的市场价值来衡量b.股东财富的增加被称为“权益的市场增加值”c、股价的涨跌可以反映股东财富的增减。

D.倡导股东财富最大化,不考虑利益相关者的利益3、下列关于财务目标与经营者的说法不正确的是()。

a.经营者的目标是增加报酬、增加闲暇时间、避免风险b.经营者的对股东目标的背离表现为道德风险和逆向选择c.防止经营者背离股东目标的方式有监督、激励d.激励是解决股东与经营者矛盾的最佳方法4、下列哪项属于狭义的利益相关者()。

a.经营者b.供应商c.股东d.债权人5.在以下关于财务管理“指导原则”的陈述中,错误是()。

a、指导原则仅在信息不足或成本过高、理解有限时使用。

B.指导原则可能会让你模仿别人的错误c.引导原则可以帮助你用较低的成本找到最好的方案d.引导原则体现了“相信大多数”的思想6.在项目投资决策中,需要计算增量现金流量,这反映了()的原则。

a、自利原则b.比较优势原则c、有价值的创造力原则D.净效益增加原则7、如果资本市场是有效的,下列说法不正确的是()。

a、股票价格能够全面反映公司的业绩。

欺诈和人为改变会计方法对企业价值毫无用处b.购买金融工具的交易的净现值为零c.出售金融工具的交易的净现值为零d、在资本市场上,只要企业的融资结构合理,就可以通过融资获得正的净现值。

8.以下关于金融资产的陈述是错误的()。

a.固定收益证券是指能够提供固定或根据固定公式计算出来的现金流的证券b.衍生证券的主要功能是用于投机c、权益证券持有人非常关心公司的运营d.金融资产的收益来源于它所代表的实际资产的业绩9.不属于主要金融市场资金提供者和需求者的为()。

国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter

国际财务管理课后习题答案chapterCHAPTER 10 MANAGEMENT OF TRANSLATION EXPOSURESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Explain the difference in the translation process between the monetary/nonmonetary method and the temporal method. Answer: Under the monetary/nonmonetary method, all monetary balance sheet accounts of a foreign subsidiary are translated at the current exchange rate. Other balance sheet accounts are translated at the historical rate exchange rate in effect when the account was first recorded. Under the temporal method, monetary accounts are translated at the current exchange rate. Other balance sheet accounts are also translated at the current rate, if they are carried on the books at current value. If they are carried at historical value, they are translated at the rate in effect on the date the item was put on the books. Since fixed assets and inventory are usually carried at historical costs, the temporal method and the monetary/nonmonetary method will typically provide the same translation.2. How are translation gains and losses handled differently according to the current rate method in comparison to the other three methods, that is, the current/noncurrent method, the monetary/nonmonetary method, and the temporal method? Answer: Under the current rate method, translation gains and losses are handled only as an adjustment to net worth through an equity account named the “cumulative translation adjustment” account. Nothing passes through the income statement. Th e other three translation methods pass foreign exchange gains or losses through the income statement before they enter on to the balance sheet through the accumulated retained earnings account.3. Identify some instances under FASB 52 when a foreign enti ty’s functional currency would be the same as the parent firm’s currency.Answer: Three examples under FASB 52, where the foreign entity’s functional currency will be the same as the parent firm’s currency, are: i) the foreign entity’s cash flows directly affect the parent’s cash flows and are readily available for remittance to the parent firm; ii) the sales prices for the foreign entity’s products are responsive on a short-term basis to exchange rate changes, where sales prices are determined through worldwide competition; and, iii) the sales market is primarily located in the parent’s country or sales contracts are denominated in the parent’s currency.4. Describe the remeasurement and translation process under FASB 52 of a wholly owned affiliate that keeps its books in the local currency of the country in which it operates, which is different than its functional currency.Answer: For a foreign entity that keeps its books in its local currency, which is different from its functional currency, the translation process according to FASB 52 is to: first, remeasure the financial reports from the local currency into the functional currency using the temporal method of translation, and second, translate from the functional currency into the reporting currency using the current rate method of translation.5. It is, generally, not possible to completely eliminate both translation exposure and transaction exposure. In some cases, the elimination of one exposure will also eliminate the other. But in other cases, the elimination of one exposure actually creates the other. Discuss which exposure might be viewed as the most important to effectively manage, if a conflict between controlling both arises. Also, discuss and critique the common methods for controlling translation exposure.Answer: Since it is, generally, not possible to completely eliminate both transaction and translation exposure, we recommend that transaction exposure be given first priority since it involves real cash flows. The translation process, on-the-other hand, has no direct effect on reporting currency cash flows, and will only have a realizable effect on net investment upon the sale or liquidation of the assets.There are two common methods for controlling translation exposure: a balance sheet hedge and a derivatives hedge. The balance sheet hedge involves equating the amount of exposed assets in an exposure currency with the exposed liabilities in that currency, so the net exposure is zero. Thus when an exposure currency exchange rate changes versus the reporting currency, the change in assets will offset the change in liabilities. To create a balance sheet hedge, once transaction exposure has been controlled, often means creating new transaction exposure. This is not wise since real cash flow losses can result. A derivatives hedge is not really a hedge, but rather a speculative position, since the size of the “hedge” is based on the future expected spot rate of exchange for the exposure currency with the reporting currency. If the actual spot rate differs from the expected rate, the “hedge” may result in the loss of real cash flows.PROBLEMS1. Assume that FASB 8 is still in effect instead of FASB 52. Construct a translation exposure report for Centralia Corporation and its affiliates that is the counterpart to Exhibit 10.7 in the text. Centralia and its affiliates carry inventory and fixed assets on the books at historical values.Solution: The following table provides a translation exposure report for Centralia Corporation and its affiliates under FASB 8, which is essentially the temporal method of translation. The difference between the new report and Exhibit 10.7 is that nonmonetary accounts such as inventory and fixed assets are translated at the historical exchange rate if they are carried at historical costs. Thus, these accounts will not change values when exchange rates change and they do not create translation exposure.Examination of the table indicates that under FASB 8 there is negative net exposure for the Mexican peso and the euro, whereas under FASB 52 the net exposure for these currencies is positive. There is no change in net exposure for the Canadian dollar and the Swiss franc. Consequently, if the euro depreciates against the dollar from €1.1000/$1.00 to€1.1786/$1.00, as the text example assumed, exposed assets will now fall in value by a smaller amount than exposed liabilities, instead of vice versa. The associated reporting currency imbalance will be $239,415, calculated as follows: Reporting Currency Imbalance=-€3,949,0000€1.1786/$1.00--€3,949,0000€1.1000/$1.00=$239,415.Translation Exposure Report under FASB 8 for Centralia Corporation and its Mexican and Spanish Affiliates, December 31, 2005 (in 000 Currency Units)Canadian Dollar MexicanPeso EuroSwissFrancAssetsCash CD200 Ps 6,000 € 825SF 0 Accounts receivable 0 9,000 1,045 0Inventory 0 0 0 0Net fixed assets 0 0 0Exposed assets CD200 Ps15,000 € 1,870SF 0LiabilitiesAccounts payable CD 0 Ps 7,000 € 1,364SF 0 Notes payable 0 17,000 935 1,400Long-term debt 0 27,000 3,520ExposedliabilitiesCD 0 Ps51,000 € 5,819SF1,400Net exposure CD200 (Ps36,000) (€3,949)(SF1,400)2. Assume that FASB 8 is still in effect instead of FASB 52. Construct a consolidated balance sheet for Centralia Corporation and its affiliates after a depreciation of the euro from €1.1000/$1.00 to €1.1786/$1.00 that is the counterpart to Exhibit 10.8 inthe text. Centralia and its affiliates carry inventory and fixed assets on the books at historical values.Solution: This problem is the sequel to Problem 1. The solution to Problem 1 showed that if the euro depreciated there would be a reporting currency imbalance of $239,415. Under FASB 8 this is carried through the income statement as a foreignexchange gain to the retained earnings on the balance sheet. The following table shows that consolidated retained earnings increased to $4,190,000 from $3,950,000 in Exhibit 10.8. This is an increase of $240,000, which is the same as the reporting currency imbalance after accounting for rounding error.Consolidated Balance Sheet under FASB 8 for Centralia Corporation and its Mexican anda This includes CD200,000 the parent firm has in a Canadian bank, carried as $150,000. CD200,000/(CD1.3333/$1.00) = $150,000.b$1,750,000 - $300,000 (= Ps3,000,000/(Ps10.00/$1.00)) intracompany loan = $1,450,000.c,d Investment in affiliates cancels with the net worth of the affiliates in the consolidation.e The Spanish affiliate owes a Swiss bank SF375,000 (÷ SF1.2727/€1.00 = €294,649). This is carried on the books,after the exchange rate change, as part of €1,229,649 = €294,649 + €935,000. €1,229,649/(€1.1786/$1.00) = $1,043,313.3. In Example 10.2, a f orward contract was used to establish a derivatives “hedge” to protect Centralia from a translation loss if the euro depreciated from €1.1000/$1.00 to €1.1786/$1.00. Assume that an over-the-counter put option on the euro with a strike price of €1.1393/$1.00 (or $0.8777/€1.00) can be purchased for $0.0088 per euro. Show how the potential translation loss can be “hedged” with an option contract.Solution: As in example 10.2, if the potential translation loss is $110,704, the equivalent amount in functiona l currency that needs to be hedged is €3,782,468. If in fact the euro does depreciate to €1.1786/$1.00 ($0.8485/€1.00), €3,782,468 can be purchased in the spot market for $3,209,289. At a striking price of €1.1393/$1.00, the €3,782,468 can be sold throu gh the put for $3,319,993, yielding a gross profit of $110,704. The put option cost $33,286 (= €3,782,468 x $0.0088). Thus, at an exchange rate of €1.1786/$1.00, the put option will effectively hedge $110,704 - $33,286 = $77,418 of the potential translation loss. At terminal exchange rates of €1.1393/$1.00 to €1.1786/$1.00, the put option hedge will be less effective. An option contract does not have to be exercised if doing so is disadvantageous to the option owner. Therefore, the put will not be exercised at exchange rates of less than €1.1393/$1.00 (more than $0.8777/€1.00), in which case the “hedge” will lose the $33,286 cost of the option.MINI CASE: SUNDANCE SPORTING GOODS, INC.Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc., is a U.S. manufacturer of high-quality sporting goods--principally golf, tennis and other racquet equipment, and also lawn sports, such as croquet and badminton-- with administrative offices and manufacturing facilities in Chicago, Illinois. Sundance has two wholly owned manufacturing affiliates, one in Mexico and the other in Canada. The Mexican affiliate is located in Mexico City and services all of Latin America. The Canadian affiliate is in Toronto and serves only Canada. Each affiliate keeps its books in its local currency, which is also the functional currency for the affiliate. The current exchange rates are: $1.00 = CD1.25 = Ps3.30 = A1.00 = ¥105 = W800. The nonconsolidated balance sheets for Sundance and its two affiliates appear in the accompanying table.Nonconsolidated Balance Sheet for Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc. and Its Mexican anda The parent firm is owed Ps1,320,000 by the Mexican affiliate. This sum is included in the parent’s accounts receivable as $400,000, translated at Ps3.30/$1.00. The remainder of the parent’s (Mexican affiliate’s) accounts receivable (payable) is denominated in dollars (pesos).b The Mexican affiliate is wholly owned by the parent firm. It is carried on the parent firm’s books at $2,400,000. This represents the sum of the comm on stock (Ps4,500,000) and retained earnings (Ps3,420,000) on the Mexican affiliate’s books, translated at Ps3.30/$1.00.c The Canadian affiliate is wholly owned by the parent firm. It is carried on the parent firm’s books at $3,600,000. This represents the sum of the common stock (CD2,900,000) and the retained earnings (CD1,600,000) on the Canadian affiliate’s books, translated at CD1.25/$1.00.d The parent firm has outstanding notes payable of ¥126,000,000 due a Japanese bank. This sum is carried on th e parent firm’s books as $1,200,000, translated at¥105/$1.00. Other notes payable are denominated in U.S. dollars.e The Mexican affiliate has sold on account A120,000 of merchandise to an Argentine import house. This sum is carried on the Mexican affi liate’s books as Ps396,000, translated at A1.00/Ps3.30. Other accounts receivable are denominated in Mexican pesos.f The Canadian affiliate has sold on account W192,000,000 of merchandise to a Korean importer. This sum is carried on the Canadian affilia te’s books as CD300,000, translated at W800/CD1.25. Other accounts receivable are denominated in Canadian dollars.You joined the International Treasury division of Sundance six months ago after spending the last two years receiving your MBA degree. The corporate treasurer has asked you to prepare a report analyzing all aspects of the translation exposure faced by Sundance as a MNC. She has also asked you to address in your analysis the relationship between the firm’s translation exposure and its transa ction exposure. After performing a forecast of future spot rates of exchange, you decide that you must do the following before any sensible report can be written.a. Using the current exchange rates and the nonconsolidated balance sheets for Sundance and its affiliates, prepare a consolidated balance sheet for the MNC according to FASB 52.b. i. Prepare a translation exposure report for Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc., and its two affiliates.ii. Using the translation exposure report you have prepared, determine if any reporting currency imbalance will result from a change in exchange rates to which thefirm has currency exposure. Your forecast is that exchange rates will change from $1.00 = CD1.25 = Ps3.30 = A1.00 = ¥105 = W800 to $1.00 = CD1.30 = P s3.30 = A1.03 = ¥105 = W800.c. Prepare a second consolidated balance sheet for the MNC using the exchange rates you expect in the future. Determine how any reporting currency imbalance will affect the new consolidated balance sheet for the MNC.d. i. Prepare a transaction exposure report for Sundance and its affiliates. Determine if any transaction exposures are also translation exposures.ii. Investigate what Sundance and its affiliates can do to control its transaction and translation exposures. Determine if any of the translation exposure should be hedged.Suggested Solution to Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc.Note to Instructor: It is not necessary to assign the entire case problem. Parts a. and b.i. can be used as self-contained problems, respectively, on basic balance sheet consolidation and the preparation of a translation exposure report.a. Below is the consolidated balance sheet for the MNC prepared according to the current rate method prescribed by FASB52. Note that the balance sheet balances. That is, Total Assets and Total Liabilities and Net Worth equal one another. Thus, the assumption is that the current exchange rates are the same as when the affiliates were established. This assumption is relaxed in part c.Consolidated Balance Sheet for Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc. its Mexican and Canadian Affiliates,December 31, 2005: Pre-Exchange Rate Change (in 000 Dollars) Sundance, Inc.Mexican Affiliate Canadian AffiliateConsolidated Balance a$2,500,000 - $400,000 (= Ps1,320,000/(Ps3.30/$1.00)) intracompany loan = $2,100,000.b,c The investment in the affiliates cancels with the net worth of the affiliates in the consolidation.d The parent owes a Japanese bank ¥126,000,000. This is carried on the books as $1,200,000 (=¥126,000,000/(¥105/$1.00)).e The Mexican affiliate has sold on account A120,000 of merchandise to an Argentine import house. This is carried on the Mexican affiliate’s books as Ps396,000 (= A120,000 xPs3.30/A1.00).f The Canadian affiliate has sold on account W192,000,000 of merchandise to a Korean importer. This is carried on the Canadian affiliate’s books as CD300,000 (= W192,000,000/(W800/CD1.25)).b. i. Below is presented the translation exposure report for the Sundance MNC. Note, from the report that there is net positive exposure in the Mexican peso, Canadian dollar, Argentine austral and Korean won. If any of these exposure currencies appreciates (depreciates) against the U.S. dollar, exposed assets denominated in these currencies will increase (fall) in translated value by a greater amount than the exposed liabilities denominated in these currencies. There is negative net exposure in the Japanese yen. If the yen appreciates (depreciates) against the U.S. dollar, exposed assets denominated in the yen will increase (fall) in translated value by smaller amount than the exposed liabilities denominated in the yen. Translation Exposure Report for Sundance Sporting Goods, Inc. and its Mexican and Canadian Affiliates, December 31, 2005 (in 000 Currency Units)b. ii. The problem assumes that Canadian dollar depreciates from CD1.25/$1.00 to CD1.30/$1.00 and that the Argentine austral depreciates from A1.00/$1.00 to A1.03/$1.00. To determine the reporting currency imbalance in translated value caused by these exchange rate changes, we can use the following formula:Net Exposure Currency i S(i/reporting)-Net Exposure Currency i S(i/reporting)new old = Reporting Currency Imbalance.From the translation exposure report we can determine that the depreciation in the Canadian dollar will cause aCD4,200,000 CD1.30/$1.00-CD4,200,000CD1.25/$1.00= -$129,231reporting currency imbalance.Similarly, the depreciation in the Argentine austral will cause aA120,000 A1.03/$1.00-A120,000A1.00/$1.00= -$3,495reporting currency imbalance.In total, the depreciation of the Canadian dollar and the Argentine austral will cause a reporting currency imbalance in translated value equal to -$129,231 -$3,495= -$132,726.c. The new consolidated balance sheet for Sundance MNC after the depreciation of the Canadian dollar and the Argentine austral is presented below. Note that in order for the new consolidated balance sheet to balance after the exchange rate change, it is necessary to have a cumulative translation adjustment account balance of -$133 thousand, which is the amountof the reporting currency imbalance determined in part b. ii (rounded to the nearest thousand).。

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SUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSCHAPTER 1 GLOBALIZATION AND THE MULTINATIONAL FIRMSUGGESTED ANSWERS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONSQUESTIONS1. Why is it important to study international financial management?Answer: We are now living in a world where all the major economic functions, i.e., consumption, production, and investment, are highly globalized. It is thus essential for financial managers to fully understand vital international dimensions of financial management. This global shift is in marked contrast to a situation that existed when the authors of this book were learning finance some twenty years ago. At that time, most professors customarily (and safely, to some extent) ignored international aspects of finance. This mode of operation has become untenable since then.2. How is international financial management different from domestic financial management?Answer: There are three major dimensions that set apart international finance from domestic finance. They are:1. foreign exchange and political risks,2. market imperfections, and3. expanded opportunity set.3. Discuss the three major trends that have prevailed in international business during the last two decades.Answer: The 1980s brought a rapid integration of international capital and financial markets. Impetus for globalized financial markets initially came from the governments of major countries that had begun to deregulate their foreign exchange and capital markets. The economic integration and globalization that began in the eighties is picking up speed in the 1990s via privatization. Privatization is the process by which a country divests itself of the ownership and operation of a business venture by turning it over to the free market system. Lastly, trade liberalization and economic integration continued to proceed at both the regional and global levels.4. How is a country’s economic well-being enhanced through free international trade in goods and services?Answer: According to David Ricardo, with free international trade, it is mutually beneficial for two countries to each specialize in the production of the goods that it can produce relatively most efficiently and then trade those goods. By doing so, the two countries can increase their combined production, which allows both countries to consume more of both goods. This argument remains valid even if a country can produce both goods more efficiently than the other country. International trade is not a ‘zero-sum’ game in which one country benefits at the expense of another country. Rather, international trade could be an ‘increasing-sum’ game at which all players become winners.5. What considerations might limit the extent to which the theory of comparative advantage is realistic?Answer: The theory of comparative advantage was originally advanced by the nineteenth century economist David Ricardo as an explanation for why nations trade with one another. The theory claims that economic well-being is enhanced if each country’s citizens produce what they have a comparative advantage in producing relative to the citizens of other countries, and then trade products. Underlying the theory are the assumptions of free trade between nations and that the factors of production (land, buildings, labor, technology, and capital) are relatively immobile. To the extent that these assumptions do not hold, the theory of comparative advantage will not realistically describe international trade.6. What are multinational corporations (MNCs) and what economic roles do they play?Answer: A multinational corporation (MNC) can be defined as a business firm incorporated in one country that has production and sales operations in several other countries. Indeed, some MNCs have operations in dozens of different countries. MNCs obtain financing from major money centers around the world in many different currencies to finance their operations. Global operations force the treasurer’s office to establish international banking relationships, to place short-term funds in several currency denominations, and to effectively manage foreign exchange risk.7. Mr. Ross Perot, a former Presidential candidate of the Reform Party, which is a third political party in the United States, had strongly objected to the creation of the North American Trade Agreement (NAFTA), which nonetheless was inaugurated in 1994, for the fear of losing American jobs to Mexico where it is much cheaper to hire workers. What are the merits and demerits of Mr. Pe rot’s position on NAFTA? Considering the recent economic developments in North America, how would you assess Mr. Perot’s position on NAFTA?Answer: Since the inception of NAFTA, many American companies indeed have invested heavily in Mexico, sometimes relocating production from the United States to Mexico. Although this might have temporarily caused unemployment of some American workers, they were eventually rehired by other industries often for higher wages. Currently, the unemployment rate in the U.S. is quite low by historical standard. At the same time, Mexico has been experiencing a major economic boom. It seems clear that both Mexico and the U.S. have benefited from NAFTA. Mr. Perot’s concern appears to have been ill founded.8. In 1995, a working group of French chief executive officers was set up by the Confederation of French Industry (CNPF) and the French Association of Private Companies (AFEP) to study the French corporate governance structure. The group reported the following, among other things “The board of directors should not simply aim at maximizing share values as in the U.K. and the U.S. Rather, its goal should be to serve the company, whose interests should be clearly distinguished from those of its shareholders, employees, creditors, suppliers and clients but still equated with their general common interest, which is to safeguard the prosperity and continuity of the company”. Evaluate the above recommendation of the working group.Answer: The recommendations of the French working group clearly show that shareholder wealth maximization is not a universally accepted goal of corporate management, especially outside the United States and possibly a few other Anglo-Saxon countries including the United Kingdom and Canada. To some extent, this may reflect the fact that share ownership is not wide spread in most other countries. In France, about 15% of households own shares.9. Emphasizing the importance of voluntary compliance, as opposed to enforcement, in the aftermath of corporate scandals, e.g., Enron and WorldCom, U.S. President George W. Bush stated that while tougher laws might help, “ultimately, the ethics of American business depends on the conscience of America’s business leaders.” Describe your view on this statement.Answer: There can be different answers to this question. If business leaders always behave with a high ethical standard, many of the corporate scandals we have seen lately might not have happened. Since we cannot fully depend on the ethical behavior on the part of business leaders, the society should protect itself by adopting the rules/regulations and governance structure that would induce business leaders to behave in the interest of the society at large.10. Suppose you are interested in investing in shares of Nokia Corporation of Finland, which is a world leader in wireless communication. But before you make investment decision, you would like to learn about the company. Visit the website of CNN Financial network () and collect information about No kia, including the recent stock price history and analysts’ views of the company. Discuss what you learn about the company. Also discuss how the instantaneous access to information via internet would affect the nature and workings of financial markets.Answer: As students might have learned from visiting the website, information is readily available even for foreign companies like Nokia. Ready access to international information helps integrate financial markets, dismantling barriers to international investment and financing. Integration, however, may help a financial shock in one market to be transmitted to other markets.MINI CASE: NIKE’S DE CISIONNike, a U.S.-based company with a globally recognized brand name, manufactures athletic shoes in such Asian developing countries as China, Indonesia, and Vietnam using subcontractors, and sells the products in the U.S. and foreign markets. The company has no production facilities in the United States. In each of those Asian countries where Nike has production facilities, the rates of unemployment and underemployment are quite high. The wage rate is very low in those countries by the U.S. standard; hourly wage rate in the manufacturing sector is less than one dollar in each of those countries, which is compared with about $18 in the U.S. In addition, workers in those countries often are operating in poor and unhealthy environments and their rights are not well protected. Understandably, Asian host countries are eager to attract foreign investments like Nike’s to develop their economies and raise the living standards of their citizens. Recently, however, Nike came under a world-wide criticism for its practice of hiring workers for such a low pay, “next to nothing” in the words of critics, and condoning poor working conditions in host countries.Evaluate and discuss various ‘ethical’ as well as economic ramifications of Nike’s decision to invest in those Asian countries.Suggested Solution to Nike’s DecisionObviously, Nike’s investments in such Asian countries as China, Indonesia, and Vietnam were motivated to take advantage of low labor costs in those countries. While Nike was criticized for the poor working conditions for its workers, the company has recognized the problem and has substantially improved the worki ng environments recently. Although Nike’s workers get paid very low wages by the Western standard, they probably are making substantially more than their local compatriots who are either under- or unemployed. While Nike’s detractors may have valid points, one should not ignore the fact that the company is making contributions to the economic welfare of those Asian countries by creating job opportunities.CHAPTER 1A THEORY OF COMPARATIVE ADVANTAGESUGGESTED SOLUTIONS TO APPENDIX PROBLEMSPROBLEMS1. Country C can produce seven pounds of food or four yards of textiles per unit of input. Compute the opportunity cost of producing food instead of textiles. Similarly, compute the opportunity cost of producing textiles instead of food.Solution: The opportunity cost of producing food instead of textiles is one yard of textiles per 7/4 = 1.75 pounds of food. A pound of food has an opportunity cost of 4/7 = .57 yards of textiles.2. Consider the no-trade input/output situation presented in the following table for Countries X and Y. Assuming that free trade is allowed, develop a scenario that will benefit the citizens of both countries.INPUT/OUTPUT WITHOUT TRADE_______________________________________________________________________CountryX Y Total________________________________________________________________________ I. Units of Input(000,000)_______________________ ______________________________Food 70 60Textiles 40 30________________________________________________________________________ II. Output per Unit of Input(lbs or yards)______________________ ______________________________Food 17 5Textiles 5 2________________________________________________________________________ III. Total Output(lbs or yards)(000,000)______________________ ______________________________Food 1,190 300 1,490Textiles 200 60 260________________________________________________________________________ IV. Consumption(lbs or yards)(000,000)_____________________ ______________________________Food 1,190 300 1,490Textiles 200 60 260________________________________________________________________________Solution:Examination of the no-trade input/output table indicates that Country X has an absolute advantage in the production of food and textiles. Country X can “trade off” one unit of production needed to produce 17 pounds of food for five yards of textiles. Thus, a yard of textiles has an opportunity cost of 17/5 = 3.40 pounds of food, or a pound of food has an opportunity cost of 5/17 = .29 yards of textiles. Analogously, Country Y has an opportunity cost of 5/2 = 2.50 pounds of food per yard of textiles, or 2/5 = .40 yards of textiles per pound of food. In terms of opportunity cost, it is clear that Country X is relatively more efficient in producing food and Country Y is relatively more efficient in producing textiles. Thus, Country X (Y) has a comparative advantage in producing food (textile) is comparison to Country Y (X).When there are no restrictions or impediments to free trade the economic-well being of the citizens of both countries is enhanced through trade. Suppose that Country X shifts 20,000,000 units from the production of textiles to the production of food where it has a comparative advantage and that Country Y shifts 60,000,000 units from the production of food to the production of textiles where it has a comparative advantage. Total output will now be (90,000,000 x 17 =) 1,530,000,000 pounds of food and [(20,000,000 x 5 =100,000,000) + (90,000,000 x 2 =180,000,000) =] 280,000,000 yards of textiles. Further suppose that Country X and Country Y agree on a price of 3.00 pounds of food for one yard of textiles, and that Country X sells Country Y 330,000,000 pounds of food for 110,000,000 yards of textiles. Under free trade, the following table shows that the citizens of Country X (Y) have increased their consumption of food by 10,000,000 (30,000,000) pounds and textiles by 10,000,000 (10,000,000) yards.INPUT/OUTPUT WITH FREE TRADE__________________________________________________________________________CountryX Y Total__________________________________________________________________________ I. Units of Input(000,000)_______________________ ________________________________Food 90 0Textiles 20 90__________________________________________________________________________ II. Output per Unit of Input(lbs or yards)______________________ ________________________________Food 17 5Textiles 5 2__________________________________________________________________________ III. Total Output(lbs or yards)(000,000)_____________________ ________________________________Food 1,530 0 1,530Textiles 100 180 280__________________________________________________________________________ IV. Consumption(lbs or yards)(000,000)_____________________ ________________________________Food 1,200 330 1,530Textiles 210 70 280__________________________________________________________________________。

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