习题Chapter 1 What Is Organizational Behavior

Chapter 1 What Is Organizational Behavior?

1) Which of the following is most likely to be a belief held by a successful manager?

A) Technical knowledge is all that is needed for success.

B) It is not essential to have sound interpersonal skills.

C) Technical skills are necessary, but insufficient alone for success.

D) Effectiveness is not impacted by human behavior.

E) Technical skills do not influence efficiency.

Answer: C

Explanation: Understanding human behavior plays an important role in determining a manager's effectiveness. Developing managers' interpersonal skills helps organizations attract and keep

high-performing employees, and create a positive work environment.

2) Which of the following would not be considered an organization?

A) a church

B) a university

C) a military unit

D) all adults in a given community

E) an elementary school

Answer: D

Explanation: An organization is a consciously coordinated social unit, composed of two or more people, that functions on a relatively continuous basis to achieve a common goal or set of goals. The adults in a community are not representative of an organization.

3) Which of the following is least likely to be considered a manager?

A) an administrator in charge of fund-raising activities in a non-profit organization

B) a lieutenant leading an infantry platoon

C) a doctor who acts as head of the physiotherapy department at a public hospital

D) the mayor of a large city

E) an IT technician who enables communication between all of a company's employees

Answer: E

Explanation: Managers get things done through other people. They make decisions, allocate resources, and direct the activities of others to attain goals. An IT technician is not using other people to get his job done, and therefore is not a manager.

4) Which of a manager's primary functions requires the manager to define an organization's goals, establish an overall strategy for achieving these goals and develop a comprehensive hierarchy of plans to integrate and coordinate activities?

A) controlling

B) planning

C) staffing

D) coordinating

E) leading

Answer: B

Explanation: The planning function encompasses defining an organization's goals, establishing an overall strategy for achieving those goals, and developing a comprehensive set of plans to integrate and coordinate those activities. Evidence indicates this function increases the most as managers move from lower-level to mid-level management.

5) Which of the following is not an interpersonal role of management according to Mintzberg?

A) a high school principal handing out graduation diplomas

B) a department head relocating the department after a fire

C) a manager interviewing potential employees

D) a shift foreman reprimanding a worker that arrived late

E) a project manager listening to a team presentation

Answer: B

Explanation: Taking corrective action in response to unforeseen problems, such as moving the department after a fire, is considered by Mintzberg to be a decisional role in which the manager handles a disturbance. All of the other activities are considered interpersonal roles of a manager.

6) Managers need to have three essential skills in order to reach their goals. What are these skills?

A) technical, decisional and interpersonal

B) technical, human, and conceptual

C) interpersonal, informational and decisional

D) conceptual, communication and networking

E) human, informational and communication

Answer: B

Explanation: Researchers have identified a number of skills that differentiate effective from ineffective managers. Technical skills encompass the ability to apply specialized knowledge or expertise. Human skills are the ability to understand, communicate with, motivate, and support other people. Conceptual skills are the mental ability of a manager to analyze and diagnose complex situations.

7) Which one of the following would not be considered a human skill of a manager?

A) decision making.

B) communicating

C) resolving conflicts

D) working as part of a team

E) listening to others

Answer: A

Explanation: Decision making requires managers to identify problems, develop alternative solutions to correct those problems, evaluate those alternative solutions, and select the best one. Therefore, decision making is considered a conceptual skill, not a human skill. The other answer choices are human skills.

8) What are the three primary behavior determinants of organizational behavior?

A) profit structure, organizational complexity, job satisfaction

B) individuals, profit structure, and job satisfaction

C) individuals, groups, and job satisfaction

D) groups, structure, and profit structure

E) individuals, groups, and structure

Answer: E

Explanation: OB investigates the impact that individuals, groups, and structure have on behavior within organizations.

9) Which of the following is an example of being an efficient company?

A) operating at the lowest possible cost while yielding a higher output

B) creating the highest customer satisfaction ratings

C) meeting the production schedule

D) obtaining the highest market share

E) maximizing diversity at high cost

Answer: A

Explanation: Efficiency describes the ratio of effective output to the input required to achieve it. Therefore, a company operating at the lowest possible cost while still making a high profit, is considered efficient.

Chapter 3 Attitudes and Job Satisfaction

1) The emotional, or feeling component of a person's attitude is called ________.

A) complex understanding

B) the cognitive component

C) the affective component

D) a complex attitude

E) the behavior component

Answer: C

Explanation: Affect is the emotional or feeling segment of an attitude and is called the affective component. Description of or belief in the way things are is the cognitive component of attitude. The intention to behave in a certain way toward something describes the behavior component of attitude. Complex understanding and a complex attitude are not components of attitude as defined in OB. 2) The belief that "violence is wrong" is an evaluative statement. Such an opinion constitutes the

________ component of an attitude.

A) cognitive

B) affective

C) reflective

D) behavioral

E) reactive

Answer: A

Explanation: The cognitive component of an attitude is a description of, or belief in the way things are, which is exemplified in the statement "violence is wrong". The affective component of an attitude reveals the emotional reaction, and the behavioral component is how someone behaves toward someone or something. There are no components of attitude called reflective or reactive in

OB.

3) Which of the following is an example of an affective attitude?

A) Believing that you did a good job.

B) The observation that most dogs have four legs.

C) The opinion that it is never acceptable to steal.

D) Anger at being unfairly accused of a wrongdoing.

E) The avoidance of a restaurant where one once received bad service.

Answer: D

Explanation: Affective attitudes reveal emotion, such as anger. Belief and opinions are examples of cognitive or evaluative attitudes. Observation and avoidance are behaviors and are facets of behavioral attitudes.

4) The attitude-behavior relationship is likely to be much stronger if the attitude ________.

A) refers to something that the individual has direct personal experience with

B) must be defended against the attitudes of society at large

C) is perceived to be of little importance

D) is related to organizational structure

E) is not regularly discussed and examined

Answer: A

Explanation: Behavior is hard to predict based on responses by those who have no experience in the type of behavior being evaluated. Experience is important to the attitude-behavior relationship. Having to defend an attitude against all of society would create dissonance and weaken the relationship. If the attitude isn't important or discussed, neither will the behavior be important, nor the attitude-behavior relationship strong. Relationship to organizational structure often creates discrepancies in the attitude-behavior relationship.

5) What refers to a positive feeling about a job, resulting from an evaluation of its characteristics?

A) job satisfaction

B) job involvement

C) job stability

D) organizational commitment

E) social investment

Answer: A

Explanation: Job satisfaction is defined as a positive feeling about a job, resulting from an evaluation of its characteristics. Job involvement is the degree to which a person identifies with a job, actively participates in it, and considers performance important to self-worth. Job stability is the relative safety of a person's job. Organizational commitment is the degree to which an employee identifies with a particular organization and its goals and wishes to maintain membership in the organization. Social investment is the amount of social interaction that a person invests into a job.

6) Organizational commitment is defined as ________.

A) the degree to which an employee identifies with the organization they work for and its goals

B) an employee's belief that the organization they work for will go to considerable lengths to ensure

that its employees are treated fairly

C) the degree to which an employee's sense of fulfillment and self worth is related to their job

D) the amount of effort an employee will make in order to keep or advance their position in an organization

E) the degree to which an employee believes their work impacts their organization

Answer: A

Explanation: The degree to which an employee identifies with a particular organization and its goals and wishes to maintain membership in the organization is organizational commitment. Perceived organizational support (POS) is an employee's belief that the organization they work for will go to considerable lengths to ensure that its employees are treated fairly. Job involvement is the degree to which an employee's sense of fulfillment and self worth is related to their job. Psychological empowerment is the degree to which an employee believes their work impacts their organization.

7) Compared to people who have a negative core self-evaluation, people who have a positive core self-evaluation ________.

A) are less satisfied with their jobs

B) see their work as less challenging

C) see their work as less fulfilling

D) are less likely to gravitate toward challenging jobs

E) are less likely to give up when confronting difficulties

Answer: E

Explanation: Those with negative core self-evaluations are more likely to give up when confronting difficulties. Research has shown that people who have positive core self-evaluation, who believe in their inner worth and basic competence, are more satisfied with their jobs than those with negative core self-evaluations. Not only do they see their work as more fulfilling and challenging, they are more likely to gravitate toward challenging jobs in the first place.

8) The degree to which a person identifies with his or her job, actively participates in it, and considers his or her performance as being important to self-worth is ________.

A) job satisfaction

B) job involvement

C) job stability

D) organizational commitment

E) social embeddedness

Answer: B

Explanation: Job involvement is the degree to which a person identifies with a job, actively participates in it, and considers performance important to self-worth. Job satisfaction is defined as a positive feeling about a job, resulting from an evaluation of its characteristics. Job stability is the relative safety of a person's job. Organizational commitment is the degree to which an employee identifies with a particular organization and its goals and wishes to maintain membership in the organization. Social embeddedness refers to how involved an organization is with the community around it.

Chapter 4 Emotions and Moods

1) Which of the following is a generic term that covers a broad range of feelings that people experience?

A) affect

B) emotions

C) moods

D) emotional labor

E) cognition

Answer: A

Explanation: Affect is defined as a broad range of feelings that people experience, and it encompasses both moods and emotions. Emotions are intense feelings that are directed at someone or something. Moods are feelings that tend to be less intense than emotions and that lack a contextual stimulus. Emotional labor is defined as a situation in which an employee expresses organizationally desired emotions during interpersonal transactions at work. Cognition is the mental process of thinking, learning, and knowing.

2) Which of the following statements is true?

A) Affect is a type of emotion.

B) Affect is a type of mood.

C) Affect can be experienced as a mood or an emotion.

D) Affect is the result of conscious thought and action.

E) Affect is the result of a mood or an emotion.

Answer: C

Explanation: Affect is the umbrella term used to describe a broad range of feelings that people experience, and affect can be experienced as both a mood or an emotion. Affect covers both emotion and mood. Affect is not the result of thought or action, but a term used to describe both mood and emotion.

3) What term is used for intense feelings that are directed at someone or something?

A) affect

B) cognition

C) moods

D) thoughts.

E) emotions

Answer: E

Explanation: Emotions are intense feelings that are directed at someone or something. Affect is defined as a broad range of feelings that people experience, and it encompasses both moods and emotions. Cognition is the mental process of thinking, learning, and knowing. Moods are feelings that tend to be less intense than emotions and that lack a contextual stimulus. Thoughts are mental processes based on cognition.

4) Which of the following is not an example of a low-positive affect of mood?

A) sad

B) depressed

C) bored

D) fatigued

E) nervous

Answer: E

Explanation: Being nervous is considered a high-negative affect of mood. Being sad, depressed, bored, and fatigued are all low-positive affects of mood.

5) A ________ means that when nothing is going on, people are generally in a good mood.

A) low-positive affect

B) positivity offset

C) high-positive affect

D) negativity offset

E) high-negative affect

Answer: B

Explanation: A positivity offset, means that at zero input most individuals experience a mildly positive mood. A positive affect as a mood dimension consisting of positive emotions such as excitement, self-assurance, and cheerfulness at the high end and boredom, sluggishness, and tiredness at the low end. Negative affect is a mood dimension consisting of nervousness, stress, and anxiety at the high end and relaxation, tranquility, and poise at the low end. There is no such thing as

a negativity offset.

6) Which of the following is a mood dimension consisting of positive emotions?

A) positive regard

B) static regard

C) negative affect

D) emotional range

E) positive affect

Answer: E

Explanation: Positive affect is a mood dimension consisting of positive emotions such as excitement, self-assurance, and cheerfulness at the high end and boredom, sluggishness, and tiredness at the low end. Positive regard, static regard, and emotional range are not mood dimensions. Negative affect is a mood dimension consisting of nervousness, stress, and anxiety at the high end and relaxation, tranquility, and poise at the low end.

7) ________ is an emotion that falls into the category of high positive affect.

A) Serene

B) Elated

C) Tense

D) Thoughtful

E) Fatigued

Answer: B

Explanation: High-positive affect is a mood dimension consisting of positive emotions such as

excitement, elation, self-assurance, and cheerfulness. Fatigue, boredom, sluggishness, and tiredness are low-positive affects. Negative affect is a mood dimension consisting of tension, nervousness, stress, and anxiety at the high end. Serenity, thoughtfulness, relaxation, tranquility, and poise are

low-negative affects.

8) People giving different responses to identical emotion-provoking stimuli is a result of ________.

A) intensity

B) consensus

C) consistency

D) pervasiveness

E) personality

Answer: E

Explanation: Because of personality, most people have built-in tendencies to experience certain moods and emotions more frequently than others do, therefore giving different responses. The intensity which a person experiences the emotion is based on personality. Consensus, consistency, and pervasiveness have nothing to do with emotional responses.

Chapter 5 Personality and Values

1) Which of the following is the best definition of personality?

A) Personality is an aggregate set of traits that are mostly determined at birth.

B) Personality is an aggregate set of traits that are determined over a person's lifetime.

C) Personality is all the ways in which an individual reacts to and interacts with others.

D) Personality is, for the most part, comprised of traits that cannot be measured or defined.

E) Personality is the static organization of how a person reacts to different environments. Answer: C

Explanation: A) Personality is the sum total of ways in which an individual reacts to and interacts with others, usually described in terms of the measurable traits a person exhibits.

2) The most common form of measuring personality is through self-report surveys. However, the applicant could easily ________ .

A) change his personality instantly

B) not truly know his personality

C) refuse to take the survey

D) fail the survey, but be the best candidate

E) practice impression management

Answer: E

Explanation: A) One weakness of self-evaluation measures is that the respondent might lie or practice impression management, that is, the person could "fake good" on the test to create a good impression.

3) Why are agreeable people usually less successful in their careers?

A) They aren't happy in their lives.

B) They aren't liked by superiors.

C) They don't make many friends.

D) They don't negotiate well.

E) They aren't successful in school.

Answer: D

Explanation: A) A downside of agreeableness is that it is associated with lower levels of career success (especially earnings). Agreeable individuals may be poorer negotiators; they are so concerned with pleasing others that they often don't negotiate as much for themselves as they might.

4) Which of the following statements about people with positive core self-evaluations is true?

A) They set goals which are easily obtainable.

B) They do not attribute positive outcomes to their own actions.

C) They are overconfident.

D) They take responsibility less frequently.

E) They tend to obtain more complex and challenging jobs.

Answer: E

Explanation: A) People with positive core self-evaluation see more challenge in their job and attain more complex jobs. They also set more ambitious goals, are more committed to their goals, and persist longer in attempting to reach these goals.

5) Which of the following statements about low self-monitors is true?

A) They have a low behavioral consistency between who they are and what they do.

B) They tend to rate their performance much more highly than do outside observers.

C) They tend to pay less attention to the behavior of others than high self-monitors.

D) They usually receive high performance ratings.

E) They tend to thrive in areas that require them to take risks.

Answer: C

Explanation: A) High self-monitors pay close attention to the behavior of others and are capable of conforming to different situations. Low self-monitors are just the opposite, and tend to not notice other's behavior.

6) What term is used to describe the personality of an individual who is aggressively involved in an incessant struggle to achieve more and more in less and less time?

A) Type A personality

B) Type B personality

C) proactive personality

D) narcissistic personality

E) high Mach personality

Answer: A

Explanation: A) A person with a type A personality has an aggressive involvement in a chronic, incessant struggle to achieve more and more in less and less time and, if necessary, against the opposing efforts of other things or other people.

7) Which of the following terms best describes people who show initiative, take action, and persevere until meaningful change occurs?

A) Type A

B) high self esteem

C) proactive personalities

D) high conscientiousness

E) high Mach

Answer: C

Explanation: A) A person with a proactive personality is defined as one who can identify opportunities, show initiative, take action, and persevere until meaningful change occurs. They create positive change in their environments, regardless of the obstacles that may exist.

8) Values are important to organizational behavior because they ________.

A) allow the study of alignment of organizational policies

B) lay the foundation for the understanding of attitudes and motivation

C) form the supporting foundation for the study of ethics

D) are an integral part of culture

E) encourage ethical behavior

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Values lay the foundation for our understanding of people's attitudes and motivation and influence our perceptions. We enter an organization with preconceived notions of what "ought" and "ought not" to be. If the company's values are in line with the employee's, the employee is more likely to be satisfied.

9) Which of the following values would be most likely to be considered a terminal value by Rokeach?

A) ambition

B) broad-mindedness

C) helpfulness

D) a sense of accomplishment

E) self-control

Answer: D

Explanation: A) Terminal values refers to desirable end-states. These are the goals a person would like to achieve during his or her lifetime. A sense of accomplishment is an end-state goal. The other answers are means which a person could use to get to that goal.

10) Which of the following terminal values are most common among executives?

A) equality, world peace, family security

B) self-respect, family security, freedom

C) mature love, inner harmony, freedom

D) wisdom, salvation, world beauty

E) forgiving, equality, happiness

Answer: B

Explanation: A) The top three common terminal values in surveyed executives were self-respect, family security, and freedom. Although there is some overlap with other groups in the area of family security, in general, executives do not rank high values such as inner harmony or world beauty.

Chapter 6 Perception and Individual Decision Making

1) What is the process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment?

A) interpretation

B) environmental analysis

C) social verification

D) outlook

E) perception

Answer: E

Explanation: Perception is defined as a process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment. People's behavior is based on their perception of what reality is, not on reality itself. What we perceive can be substantially different from objective reality.

2) What are the three classes of factors that influence perception?

A) factors in the setting, factors in the environment, and factors in the motives

B) factors in the perceiver, factors in the target, and factors in the situation

C) factors in the character, factors in knowledge, and factors in experience

D) factors in the personality, factors in the character, and factors in the values

E) factors in the senses, factors in the surroundings, and factors in the lighting

Answer: B

Explanation: Three factors operate to shape and sometimes distort perception. These factors can reside in the perceiver; in the object, or target, being perceived; or in the context of the situation in which the perception is made.

3) Two people see the same thing at the same time yet interpret it differently. Where do the factors that operate to shape their dissimilar perceptions reside?

A) the perceivers

B) the target

C) the timing

D) the context

E) the situation

Answer: A

Explanation: Because the target and the situation are the same, the difference in perception must be in the perceivers themselves. Characteristics that can affect perception include perceiver attitudes, personality, motives, interests, past experiences, and expectations.

4) Which of the following is not a factor in the individual perceiver?

A) attitude

B) motive

C) expectation

D) location

E) perception

Answer: D

Explanation: Characteristics that can affect perception include perceiver attitudes, personality, motives, interests, past experiences, and expectations. Location is a factor in the situation, or as background for the factor of the target.

5) Which of the following is not true about our perceptions of a target?

A) Objects that are close together will be perceived together rather than separately.

B) Persons that are similar to each other tend to be grouped together.

C) Targets are usually looked at in isolation.

D) Motion, sounds, size, and other attributes of a target shape the way we see it.

E) Objects that are distant from one another will be perceived separately rather than as a group. Answer: C

Explanation: Characteristics of the target we observe can affect what we perceive. Targets are not perceived in isolation/ The relationship of a target to its background influences perception, as does our tendency to group close things and similar things together.

6) Last year Elaine had her purse snatched on the street bytwo teens who wore their jeans very low. All she can remember is seeing, as the teens ran away, was their plaid boxer shorts sticking out above their pants. Whenever Elaine sees boys with low-riding jeans her face tightens and she mumbles something about "delinquents". She is extremely bothered that her own grandson, an honor student, has begun to wear his jeans low. Elaine's perception of her grandson is influenced by

________.

A) motives

B) interests

C) setting

D) reality

E) experience

Answer: E

Explanation: Elaine's negative experience has influenced her perception, even when she knows that the reality is different. Elaine's grandson is far from a delinquent, and yet she groups him with the purse snatchers because of her memories of the negative experience.

7) If a person responds the same way over time, attribution theory states that the behavior shows

________.

A) distinctiveness

B) consensus

C) consistency

D) continuity

E) stability

Answer: C

Explanation: Consistency in a person's actions means that the person responds the same way over time to the same situation. An employee who hasn't been late for several months is perceived differently than an employee who is late two or three times a week. The regularly late employee

demonstrates high consistency in tardiness.

8) What term is used for the tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal factors when making judgments about the behavior of others?

A) fundamental attribution error

B) self-serving bias

C) selective perception

D) consistency

E) actor bias

Answer: A

Explanation: Errors and biases distort attributions. When a person makes judgments about the behavior of other people, he tends to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal or personal factors. This is called fundamental attribution error.

Chapter 7 Basic Motivation Concepts

1) Motivation is best defined as a process that ________.

A) results in a level of effort

B) intensifies an individual's efforts

C) accounts for an individual's efforts toward attaining a goal

D) meets an individual's needs

E) stabilizes over time

Answer: C

Explanation: Motivation is defined as the processes that account for an individual's intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal.

2) What are the three key elements of motivation?

A) reactance, congruence, and circumstance

B) interest, activity, and reward

C) awareness, effort, and outcome

D) stimulation, progress, and achievement

E) intensity, direction, and persistence

Answer: E

Explanation: The three key elements of motivation are intensity, direction, and persistence. Intensity describes how hard a person tries. Effort directed toward, and consistent with, the organization's goals is the direction of the motivation. The persistence element measures how long a person can maintain effort.

3) According to Maslow, when does a need stop motivating?

A) when it is substantially satisfied

B) it never stops motivating

C) when one returns to a lower level need

D) when one chooses to move to a higher level need

E) only when it is completely satisfied

Answer: A

Explanation: According to Maslow, although no need is ever fully gratified, a substantially satisfied need no longer motivates. Thus, as each of these needs becomes substantially satisfied

the next one becomes dominant.

4) What is the major problem with Maslow's hierarchy of needs in organizational behavior?

A) It is difficult to apply to the workplace.

B) It is vague as to how a workplace can satisfy higher-order needs.

C) Its terminology tends to alienate those to whom it is applied.

D) It is almost impossible to assess how well an individual has a particular need filled.

E) There is little evidence that needs are structured or operate in the way it describes.

Answer: E

Explanation: Research does not validate Maslow's theory. Maslow provided no empirical substantiation, and several studies that sought to validate the theory found no support for it. There is little evidence that need structures are organized along the dimensions proposed by Maslow, that unsatisfied needs motivate, or that a satisfied need activates movement to a new need level.

5) Which of the following is a behavior that would most likely be exhibited by a Theory X manager?

A) She lets her employees choose their own goals.

B) She trusts her employees to use discretion in most matters.

C) She strictly controls the details of any project she is managing.

D) She delegates authority extensively to junior managers.

E) She honestly informs her employees of the likelihood that they will lose their jobs.

Answer: C

Explanation: Maslow believed that under Theory X, managers believe employees inherently dislike work and must therefore be directed or even coerced into performing it. A manager would not trust her employees and would feel inclined to control all aspects of their work.

6) Two-factor theory suggests that dissatisfaction is caused by extrinsic factors. Which of the following is an example of such a factor?

A) advancement

B) working conditions

C) achievement

D) recognition

E) nature of the work itself

Answer: B

Explanation: Two-factor theory relates intrinsic factors to job satisfaction and associates extrinsic factors with dissatisfaction. Also called motivation hygiene theory. Conditions such as quality of supervision, pay, company policies, physical working conditions, relationships with others, and job security are considered hygiene factors or extrinsic factors.

Chapter 8 Motivation: From Concept to Applications

1) Which of the following is not one of the core job dimensions in the job characteristics model (JCM)?

A) task significance

B) feedback

C) autonomy

D) status

E) skill variety

Answer: D

Explanation: The job characteristics model ( JCM) describes jobs in terms of five core job dimensions: skill variety, the degree to which a job requires a variety of different activities; task identity, the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work; task significance, the degree to which a job has an impact on the lives or work of other people; autonomy, the degree to which a job provides the worker freedom in scheduling; and feedback, the degree to which carrying out work activities generates direct and clear information about performance.

2) Which of the following defines skill variety?

A) the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work

B) the degree to which work activities generates direct and clear information about performance

C) the degree to which a job provides the worker freedom in scheduling and procedure

D) the degree to which a job has an impact on the lives or work of other people

E) the degree to which a job requires a variety of different activities

Answer: E

Explanation: The job characteristics model ( JCM) describes jobs in terms of five core job dimensions: skill variety, the degree to which a job requires a variety of different activities; task identity, the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work; task significance, the degree to which a job has an impact on the lives or work of other people; autonomy, the degree to which a job provides the worker freedom in scheduling; and feedback, the degree to which carrying out work activities generates direct and clear information about performance.

3) How do most employees react to job enrichment?

A) decreased production

B) increased absenteeism

C) increased job satisfaction

D) decreased job satisfaction

E) increased turnover

Answer: C

Explanation: The evidence on job enrichment shows it reduces absenteeism and turnover costs and increases satisfaction.

4) Job enrichment increases the degree to which the worker controls the ________.

A) planning, execution, and evaluation of his or her work

B) planning, execution, and evaluation of company plans

C) horizontal integration of his or her tasks

D) feedback that a worker receives from his or her supervisor and peers

E) evaluation of his or her peers

Answer: A

Explanation: Job enrichment is the vertical expansion of jobs, which increases the degree to which the worker controls the planning, execution, and evaluation of the work.

Chapter 9 Foundations of Group Behavior

1) Which one of the following characteristics is not necessarily true about groups?

A) Group members are interdependent.

B) Groups have two or more members.

C) Groups have assigned goals.

D) Groups interact.

E) Groups have particular objectives.

Answer: C

Explanation: Informal groups, such as friendship groups, are neither formally structured nor organizationally determined. They don't establish goals or purposes in general.

2) What sort of groups is defined by the organization's structure?

A) informal

B) task

C) friendship

D) interest

E) formal

Answer: E

Explanation: Formal groups are defined by the organization's structure, with designated work assignments establishing tasks. In formal groups, the behaviors team members should engage in are stipulated by and directed toward organizational goals.

3) Employees who band together to seek improved working conditions form a(n) ________ group.

A) union

B) support

C) interest

D) work

E) emancipated

Answer: C

Explanation: People may affiliate to attain a specific objective with which each individual is concerned. This creates an interest group. Employees who band together to seek improved working conditions have formed a united body to further their common interest.

4) Which of the following statements most accurately describes interest groups?

A) They are longer lasting than friendship groups.

B) They develop because individual members have one or more common characteristics.

C) They are formed because of some common objective.

D) They are governed by labor laws.

E) They are likely to involve great social conflict.

Answer: C

Explanation: People may affiliate to attain a specific objective with which each individual is concerned. This creates an interest group. Employees who band together to seek improved working conditions have formed a united body to further their common interest.

5) Which of the following is not an important characteristic of social identity?

A) similarity

B) status

C) equity

D) distinctiveness

E) uncertainty reduction

Answer: C

Explanation: Several characteristics make a social identity important to a person. The main characteristics are similarity, distinctiveness, status, and uncertainty reduction. Equity is not usually an element of social identity and, in fact, social identity can lead to inequity through stereotyping.

Chapter 11 Communication

1) Communication must include both the ________ and the understanding of meaning.

A) transportation

B) interpretation

C) triaging

D) transference

E) intention

Answer: D

Explanation: Communicating is more than merely imparting meaning; that meaning must also be understood. C ommunication must include both the transfer and the understanding of meaning.

2) Communication serves all of the following functions within a group or organization except

________.

A) motivation

B) planning

C) emotional expression

D) control

E) conveying information

Answer: B

Explanation: Communication serves four major functions within a group or organization: control, motivation, emotional expression, and information.

3) Formal guidelines and authority hierarchies are examples of which function of communication?

A) control

B) agreement

C) organization

D) information

E) all of the above

Answer: A

Explanation: Organizations have authority hierarchies and formal guidelines employees are required to follow. When employees are required to communicate any job-related grievance, to follow their job description, or to comply with company policies, communication is performing a control function.

4) Which function of communication transmits the data necessary for decision-making?

A) emotional expression

B) information

C) control

D) motivation

E) all of the above

Answer: B

Explanation: Information communication is needed to facilitate decision making. Communication provides the information individuals and groups need to make decisions by transmitting the data to identify and evaluate alternative choices.

5) Helena and Laura were talking on the phone. Laura's two year old son fell and started crying and Laura could no longer hear what Helena said. This is an example of ________.

A) transmitting

B) decoding

C) noise

D) understanding

E) analysis

Answer: C

Explanation: Noise represents communication barriers that distort the clarity of the message, such as perceptual problems, information overload, semantic difficulties, or cultural differences. The crying baby represents noise.

6) During communication, the ________ initiates a message by encoding a thought.

A) receiver

B) channel

C) sender

D) speaker

E) leader

Answer: C

Explanation: The sender initiates a message by encoding a thought. The sender then selects a channel, determining whether to use a formal or informal channel.

7) The communication used by managers to provide job instructions is ________ communication.

A) downward

B) lateral

D) directional

E) diagonal

Answer: A

Explanation: Communication that flows from one level of a group or organization to a lower level is downward communication. It's used by group leaders and managers communicating with employees to assign goals, provide job instructions, explain policies, and offer feedback about performance. 8) Memos, letters, e-mail, fax transmissions, and organizational periodicals represent examples of ________.

A) informal communication channels

B) formal communication channels

C) written communication

D) technological communication

E) none of the above

Answer: C

Explanation: Written communications include memos, letters, fax transmissions, e-mail, instant messaging, organizational periodicals, notices placed on bulletin boards (including electronic ones), and any other device that transmits via written words or symbols.

9) When all communication is channeled through one central figure, a ________ communication network exists.

A) direct

B) chain

C) lateral

D) wheel

E) box

Answer: D

Explanation: The wheel relies on a central figure to act as the conduit for all the group's communication; it simulates the communication network you would find on a team with a strong leader.

Chapter 12 Basic Approaches to Leadership

1) Leadership is best defined as ________.

A) the ability to influence a group in goal achievement

B) keeping order and consistency in the midst of change

C) implementing the vision and strategy provided by management

D) coordinating and staffing the organization and handling day-to-day problems

E) not a relevant variable in modern organizations

Answer: A

Explanation: Leadership is defined as the ability to influence a group toward the achievement of a vision or set of goals. Management, on the other hand, relates primarily to maintaining order and consistency. Good leaders establish a vision and inspire others to follow a new direction to achieve

2) Recent studies indicate that ________ may indicate effective leadership.

A) an endless supply of terrific ideas

B) a compelling vision

C) a highly analytical mind

D) outstanding training

E) emotional intelligence

Answer: E

Explanation: Emotional intelligence (EI) is vital to effective leadership because leaders who possess emotional intelligence also have empathy for their followers. Empathetic leaders are better at listening to others and can sense their needs and read their reactions. These qualities are increasingly important as a potential leader moves up within an organization.

3) There is fairly strong evidence that traits can predict ________ more accurately than leadership effectiveness.

A) leadership emergence

B) extroversion in leaders

C) leadership awareness

D) leadership competence

E) the conscientiousness of leaders

Answer: A

Explanation: Generally speaking, traits can be used to predict leadership propensity. However, current studies have concluded that trait research does a better job predicting leader emergence than leader effectiveness. Although a potential leader may possess an ideal set of traits, he or she may not be successful at directing others to achieve goals.

Chapter 15 Foundations of Organization Structure

1) Organizational structure has six key elements. Which of the following is not one of these elements?

A) centralization

B) departmentalization

C) work specialization

D) formalization

E) location of authority

Answer: E

Explanation: Organizational structure describes the way in which job tasks are formally divided, grouped, and coordinated. Managers need to address six key elements when they design their organization's structure: work specialization, departmentalization, chain of command, span of control, centralization and decentralization, and formalization.

2) A task that is subdivided into many separate jobs is considered to have ________.

A) a high degree of departmentalization