englishsampletest
2020上海市高考英语口语测试模拟试题【附答案】

2020上海市高考英语口语测试模拟试题【附答案】2020 Shanghai r High School English Oral Test SampleTest 1I。
SPEAKINGn Ans: Read out loud the following two XXX seconds to read for each sentence.1.You need to bring your n form back to school by tomorrow.2.Instead of trying to change something that is beyond your control。
focus on changing something that you can control.n Bns: Read out loud the following passage。
You will have one minute to prepare and thirty seconds to read.XXX。
For a long time。
people XXX to one's health and thus avoided it。
However。
by the 18th century。
doctors started advocating for soap and water as a means of keeping clean。
In the late 19th century。
XXX practice.XXX。
doctors know that XXX。
in the United States。
people XXX essential for good health.ns 1-2:1.What are the specific ns for taking care of your uncle's cat?2.When is your uncle returning from his tour?ns 3-4:1.What was the theme of the painting n?2.Which painting was your classmate's favorite?n D:It was XXX I heard a strange noise coming from outside。
ELTiS样卷

This page intentionally left blankLISTENINGPart 1: Follow Classroom DirectionsPart 2: Comprehend Mathematical Language Part 3: Understand Classroom DialoguePart 4: Listen and Respond to Academic LecturesA.B.C.DIRECTIONS:In this part of the test, you will look at a picture and hear a teachergive three different directions to students in a class. Choose the directions—A, B, or C—that the students in the picture have followed. Then fill in the correct circle on your answer sheet. 1Sample AA.B.C.A.B.C.Stand up and get into yourgroups.Take out your homework andgo over the answers with your partner.Sit down and look at thisequation on the board.A.B.C.Write the answers on yourpapers.Discuss the questions withyour partner.Take everything off yourdesks.DIRECTIONS:In this part of the test, you will hear several math word problems. You will hear each word problem two times. After you hear each word problem, look at the three expressions and choose the one that matches the word problem you heard. Then fill in the correct circle on your answer sheet.C.DIRECTIONS:In this part of the test, you will hear conversations between a teacher and a student in a class. After you hear each conversation, you will answer some questions about what you heard. Fill in the correct circle on your answer sheet.DIRECTIONS:In this part of the test, you will hear a teacher talking to a class. After you hear each passage, you will answer some questions about what you heard. Fill in the correct circle on your answer sheet.In the actual ELTiS test, this part has seven items.END OF LISTENING SECTIONThis page intentionally left blankREAD I NGPart 1: Demonstrate Vocabulary Knowledge Part 2: Read a GraphPart 3: Read and Respond to Academic TextsDIRECTIONS: Read each sentence. Then choose the best answer to complete the sentence. Fill in the correct circle on your answer sheet.This page intentionally left blankDIRECTIONS: Look at the graph and answer each question. Fill in the correct circleon your answer sheet.2624222018161412108642P o p u l a t i o n i n M i l l i o n sNew YorkSao PauloTokyoBombayCairoWhich city had the smallestincrease in population from 1950to 1990?A.C.ork D.Sao Paulo6What is the main purpose of this To indicate how population in one city affected other To show population growth in the world ’s major cities To demonstrate worldwide population growth To compare death rates in major world citiesDIRECTIONS: Read each passage and answer each question. Fill in the correctIn the actual ELTiS test, this part has 15 items.END OF READING SECTIONThis page intentionally left blank。
全国2023年学位英语考试真题及答案

全国2023年学位英语考试真题及答案全文共3篇示例,供读者参考篇1National 2023 Degree English Exam Sample Questions and AnswersPart 1: Reading ComprehensionRead the following passage and answer the questions that follow:A recent study published in the Journal of American Psychology examined the effects of social media on mental health. The study found that excessive use of social media platforms such as Facebook and Instagram can lead to feelings of inadequacy and depression among young people. The constant comparison to others' seemingly perfect lives portrayed on social media can have a negative impact on self-esteem and overall well-being.Question 1: What was the main finding of the study mentioned in the passage?A. Social media has no impact on mental health.B. Excessive social media use can lead to feelings of inadequacy and depression.C. Social media is beneficial for young people's mental health.D. Comparison to others' lives on social media has a positive impact on self-esteem.Answer: B. Excessive social media use can lead to feelings of inadequacy and depression.Question 2: According to the passage, why can social media have a negative impact on self-esteem?A. Because people only post positive aspects of their lives on social media.B. Because social media platforms such as Facebook and Instagram are addictive.C. Because social media causes people to compare themselves to others' perfect lives.D. Because social media promotes healthy and realisticself-images.Answer: C. Because social media causes people to compare themselves to others' perfect lives.Part 2: Vocabulary and GrammarChoose the correct word or phrase to complete each sentence.Question 1: She _____ to the gym every day to stay in shape.A. is goingB. goesC. goD. goingAnswer: B. goesQuestion 2: I ______ my keys. I can't find them anywhere.A. has lostB. lostC. loseD. am losingAnswer: B. lostQuestion 3: If I _______ the lottery, I would buy a new car.A. winB. wonC. have wonD. will winAnswer: B. wonPart 3: WritingWrite an essay on the following topic:"Social media is harmful to young people's mental health."In recent years, social media has become an integral part of young people's lives. However, its impact on mental health has raised concerns among researchers and experts. This essay will argue that social media can have detrimental effects on young people's mental health due to the constant comparison to others, the spread of misinformation, and the risk of cyberbullying.Firstly, social media platforms such as Facebook and Instagram encourage users to create a curated version of their lives, showcasing only the positive aspects while hiding the struggles and challenges they face. This can lead to feelings of inadequacy and low self-esteem among young people who compare their own lives to the seemingly perfect ones portrayed on social media. In a world where likes and followers equate topopularity and success, many young people feel pressured to conform to unrealistic standards set by influencers and celebrities on social media.Secondly, the spread of misinformation and fake news on social media can have serious consequences for young people's mental well-being. With the rise of fake news websites and clickbait headlines, it is becoming increasingly difficult to distinguish between fact and fiction online. This can lead to confusion and anxiety among young people who are constantly bombarded with conflicting information, further exacerbating feelings of uncertainty and distrust in the digital world.Lastly, the anonymity and distance provided by social media can make it easier for individuals to engage in cyberbullying and harassment. Young people are particularly vulnerable to online bullying, which can have long-lasting effects on their mental health. The constant fear of being judged or humiliated online can lead to anxiety and depression among young people, ultimately impacting their social and emotional well-being.In conclusion, social media can have harmful effects on young people's mental health. The constant comparison to others, the spread of misinformation, and the risk of cyberbullying are just a few examples of how social media cannegatively impact young people's well-being. It is important for parents, educators, and policymakers to address these issues and promote a healthy and balanced relationship with social media among young people.Overall, the National 2023 Degree English Exam will test your reading comprehension, vocabulary, grammar, and writing skills. Make sure to practice and prepare in advance to achieve your desired score. Good luck!篇2National College English Test (2023)Reading ComprehensionPart ADirections: In this part, there are three passages. Each passage is followed by some questions or unfinished statements. For each of them there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. You should decide on the best choice and mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the center.Passage OneQuestions 1 to 5 are based on the following passage.Palm Oil Production and DeforestationPalm oil is the most widely used edible oil in the world, found in all types of food we eat on a daily basis. However, the production of palm oil is also a leading cause of deforestation in tropical regions. In places like Indonesia and Malaysia, rainforests are being cleared at an alarming rate to make way for palm oil plantations. This destruction of natural habitats not only leads to the loss of biodiversity but also contributes significantly to greenhouse gas emissions, exacerbating climate change.1. What is the main topic of the passage?A. The benefits of palm oil productionB. The negative impacts of palm oil productionC. The importance of tropical rainforestsD. The uses of palm oil2. According to the passage, what is the main reason for deforestation in tropical regions?A. AgricultureB. UrbanizationC. LoggingD. Palm oil production3. What is one of the consequences of deforestation mentioned in the passage?A. Increased biodiversityB. Decreased greenhouse gas emissionsC. Climate changeD. Expansion of natural habitats4. The word "alarming" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.A. surprisingB. dangerousC. interestingD. exciting5. What is the author's attitude towards palm oil production in the passage?A. NeutralB. SupportiveC. CriticalD. IndifferentPart BDirections: In this part, you are going to read a passage with ten statements attached to it. Each statement contains information given in one of the paragraphs. Identify the paragraph from which the information is derived. You may choose a paragraph more than once. Each paragraph is marked with a letter. Answer the questions by marking the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the center.Passage TwoQuestions 6 to 10 are based on the following passage.Plastic Pollution in OceansPlastic pollution is one of the most pressing environmental issues of our time. Every year, millions of tons of plastic waste end up in the world's oceans, causing harm to marine life and ecosystems. The effects of plastic pollution are far-reaching, with plastic particles now being found in the food we eat and the water we drink. While efforts are being made to reduce plastic usage and improve waste management, more needs to be done to address this global problem.6. Human activities are impacting marine life and ecosystems.7. The volume of plastic waste in oceans is increasing each year.8. Plastic pollution poses a threat to human health.9. Governments and organizations are taking action to address plastic pollution.10. The topic of plastic pollution is a major concern for society.Answer KeyPart A1. B2. D3. C4. A5. CPart B6. B7. C8. A9. C10. DWishing all test-takers good luck on the 2023 National College English Test!篇3National College English Test 2023 (CET-4) Sample Test and AnswersPart I Listening Comprehension (30 minutes)Section ADirections: In this section, you will hear four conversations. At the end of each conversation, you will hear four questions. Both the conversation and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a question, you must choose the best answer from the four choices marked A), B), C) and D). Then mark the corresponding letter on Answer Sheet 1 with a single line through the centre.1. A) She's calling for some important information.B) She's reserving a room for the night.C) She's making arrangements for a business trip.D) She's booking a table for dinner.2. A) At 8:00.B) At 8:15.C) At 8:30.D) At 9:00.3. A) A radio.B) A TV set.C) A computer.D) A bike.4. A) The man's driving skills.B) The location of the woman's house.C) The safety of cycling on busy streets.D) The woman's reluctance to buy a car. Section BDirections: In this section, you will hear two long conversations. At the end of each conversation, you will hear six questions. Both the conversation and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a question, you must choose the best answer from the four choices marked A), B), C) and D). Then mark the corresponding letter on Answer Sheet 1 with a single line through the centre.Questions 5 to 10 are based on the conversation you have just heard.5. A) To review.B) To make a conference call.C) To introduce herself.D) To discuss a new assignment.6. A) Tom Dylan.B) Mary's boss.C) Tom's boss.D) Mary's colleague.7. A) An official document.B) A business proposal.C) A marketing plan.D) A new product idea.8. A) The importance of staying focused.B) The significance of high profits.C) The need for a new marketing strategy.D) The potential benefits of expanding overseas.9. A) Needs to make a lot of phone calls.B) Wants to go on a business trip.C) Has some news to share.D) Has to attend a meeting.10. A) She has been too busy to work on it.B) His ideas will be helpful for her presentation.C) She appreciates his willingness to help her.D) She has made progress on the report. ...Answer Key:1. A) She's calling for some important information.2. B) At 8:15.3. C) A computer.4. B) The location of the woman's house.5. D) To discuss a new assignment.6. A) Tom Dylan.7. C) A marketing plan.8. D) The potential benefits of expanding overseas.9. C) Has some news to share.10. A) She has been too busy to work on it.Note: The above answer key is for reference only. The actual answers may vary slightly depending on the specific test version.I hope this sample test and answer key for the 2023 National College English Test (CET-4) will be helpful for your preparation. Good luck with your exam!。
中国科学院大学英语B考试样题Sampletest

中国科学院大学英语B考试样题声明:北京理工大学出版社出版的《中国科学院博士学位英语考试应试指南》依据的是旧的大纲,实际考试形式以本样题为准。
This exam paper includes two parts: PAPER ONE (100 minutes, 75 points) and PAPER TWO (50 minutes, 25 points).(第100分钟时收Answer sheet I)A Sample TestPAPER ONEPart I Listening ComprehensionSection A (10 points)Directions: In this part, you will hear 10 short conversations. At the end of each conversation, a question will be asked about what is said. Eachconversation and the question will be spoken only once. When you hear thequestion, read the four choices of the answer given and choose the best oneby marking the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D on your Answer Sheet I.1. A. Go back home.B. Mail a letter.C. Do the shopping.D. Ask the way.2. A. Dennis always alters his idea about an outing.B. Dennis has no choice but to come with them.C. It’s surprising that Dennis would come with them.D. Dennis has at last agreed to go out.3. A. Go out for fun with the girl.B. Travel with the girl to Holland.C. Try not to spend so much money.D. Let the girl pay her own bill.4. A. The man should reschedule the trip.B. She has no idea when the semester ends.C. She’ll call the travel agency to confirm the date.D. The man should spend his holidays somewhere else.5. A. He forgot to mail the letter.1B. He left the letter in his office.C. The letter slipped off his desk.D. He should have put the letter in his bag.6. A. He was exhausted.B. He was drunk.C. He was worried.D. He was late for work.7. A. In a mall.B. In a pharmacy.C. In the cleaner’s.D. In a department store.8. A. The woman argued for her innocence at court.B. The woman complained that she was forced to pay the fine.C. The woman has got away with many violations of traffic law.D. The woman pleaded ignorance this time of her violation of the traffic law.9. A. Jack has to meet a tight deadline.B. Jack has completed his assignmentC. Jack got himself burnt last night.D. Professor David is a pleasant figure.10.A. He does not like Beth.B. He thinks the world is too crowded.C. He is too excited to do anything about the party.D. He will not help arrange for the party.Section B (10 points)Directions: In this part, you will hear three mini-talks and each of them will be spoken only once. While listening to them, read the questions that follow each talk.You will be asked to write down your answer on your Answer Sheet II,using one sentence only, either complete or incomplete. Your answer shouldbe concise and to the point.Questions 11 to 13 are based on Mini-talk One:Mini-talk One11: How much grain do rats destroy each year in India?12: Where do rats live?13: How do rats spread diseases indirectly?Questions 14 to 16 are based on Mini-talk Two:Mini-talk Two14: What education does the vast majority of US Postal Service jobs require?15: When can one know the special requirements for some postal jobs?216: In addition to the variety of paid leave, what other benefits are provided for a postal employee? (List at least two.)Questions 17 to 20 are based on Mini-talk Three:Mini-talk Three17: Why is popular art said to be primarily entertainment?18: What is the distinction in art between a professional and an amateur?19: How does high art differ from popular art financially?20: What are people interested in high art often required to do?Part II Use of English and Reading ComprehensionSection A (15 points)Directions: There are 15 blanks in the following passage. Read the passage carefully and fill in each of the blanks by choosing the right word or phrase from thelist given below. Write your answer on the Answer Sheet II. Capitalize theword when it is necessary. The words and phrases listed are twice as manyas the blanks. Once a word or phrase is chosen, it must be used only once.Many of the most damaging and life-threatening types of weather—torrential rains, severe thunderstorm, and tornadoes—began quickly, strike suddenly, and dissipate rapidly, devastating small regions 21 leaving neighboring areas untouched. One such event, a tornado, struck the northeastern section of Edmonton, Alberta, in July 1987. Total damages from the tornado 22 $ 250 million, the highest 23 for any Canadian storm. Conventional computer models of the atmosphere have limited value in predicting short-lived local storms 24 the Edmonton tornado, because the available weather data are generally not detailed enough to allow computers to discern the subtle atmospheric changes that 25 these storms. In most nations, for example, weather-balloon observations are taken just 26 every twelve hours at locations typically 27 by hundreds of miles. With such limited data, conventional forecasting models do a much better job predicting general weather conditions over large regions 28 they do forecasting specific local events.Until recently, the observation—intensive approach needed for accurate, very short-range forecasts, or “Nowcast”, was not 29 . The cost of equipping and operating many thousands of conventional weather stations was prohibitively high, and the difficulties involved in rapidly collecting and processing the raw weather data from such a network were insurmountable. 30 , scientific and technological advances have 31 most of these problems. Radar systems, automated weather instruments, and satellites are all capable of making detailed, nearly 32 observations over large regions at a relatively low cost. Communications satellites can transmit data around the world cheaply and 33 , and modern computers can quickly compile and analyze this large volume of weather information. Meteorologists and computer scientists now work3together to design computer programs and video equipment capable of 34 raw weather data into words, symbols, and vivid graphic displays that forecasters can interpret easily and quickly. 35 meteorologists have begun using these new technologies in weather forecasting offices, nowcasting is becoming a reality.Section B (20 questions×1.5 points= 30 points)Directions: Read the following passages carefully and then select the best answer from the four choices given to answer each of the questions or complete each ofthe statements that follow each passage. Mark the letter of your choice onyour Answer Sheet I.Passage 1For centuries, the gravel and sand of Georges Bank and the great canyons, muddy basins, and shallow ledges of the Gulf of Maine have supported one of the world’s most productive fishing regions. But big boulders have historically protected a 1050-square-kilometer region at the bank’s northeastern tip from dredging boats in search of scallops and trawlers hunting down groundfish. However, those boulders are becoming less of a deterrent against improved and sturdier gear. So when geologist Page Valentine of the U.S. Geological Survey in Woods Hole, Massachusetts, stood before his colleagues last month and defended his proposal to safeguard this rare, undisturbed gravel bed, he knew that he was also standing at the crossroads of science and politics. Valentine’s presentation was part of a 2-day workshop held at the New England Aquarium here to build support for Marine Protected Areas (MPAs), a controversial concept aimed at preserving biodiversity in coastal waters. The meeting, organized by Elliott Norse, founder of the Marine Conservation Biology Institute in Redmond, Washington, featured talks by 21 experts across a range of marine habitats and species and represented the marine community’s biggest push fo r MPAs.The discussion generated a map that nominated 29% of the ocean floor off the coast of New England and Canada’s Maritime Province for protection, as well as 25% of pelagic (open-ocean) waters. The next step will come in the fall, when the scientists discuss the plan with government officials, commercial stakeholders, and environmental activists—meetings that are likely to be contentious. “The conservation groups will want to see if various species are covered. And various fishermen will be convinced that their livelihood is threatened,” says Mike Pentony, an analyst for the New England Fishery Management Council, who was an observer at last month’s workshop. The areas could be established by the National Marine Fisheries Service or under existing U.S. and Canadian laws to protect endangered species and habitats.36. Which of the following can be the best title of the passage?A.Fishery Industry in New England.B.Plan to Protect Coastal waters of New England.C.Restoration of Marine Life in the Gulf of Maine.D.Problems Critical to Ecological Balance in Georges Bank.37. The abundance of fish in the area has been a result of ________.A.the perpetual fishery closureB.the stringent ban on overfishingC.the effective fishery management4D.its unique geographic features38. Boulders used to be a deterrent to ________.A.scallopB.groundfishC.fishing boatsD.improved gear39. At the two-day workshop, the scientists reached an agreement on ______.A.the marine areas to be preservedB.how to rescue the endangered speciesC.the guarant ee of the fishermen’s livelihoodD.what to discuss with the government officials40. Which of the following CANNOT be concluded from the last paragraph?A.The fishermen will be worried about their livelihood.B. A decision is soon to be made on the protected areas.mercial stakeholders may be at odds with scientists.D.Conflicting interests will arise between fishermen and scientists.Passage 2Some people are accustomed to thinking that facts must either be believed or they must be disbelieved—as if beliefs were like a light switch with only two positions, on or off. My use of the bathtub hoax is intended to illustrate that belief does not have to operate as a simple yes or no choice, all or nothing. Belief can be more conditional; it can be something that we d ecide to have “up to a point.” And so, the question we might ask ourselves while reading does not have to be “Should I believe it or not?” but instead can be “How much should I believe it?” This later question implies that the belief we have in any given fact, or in any given idea, is not determined by whether it sounds right or whether the source is an authority. It means that our beliefs are determined by the reasons that justify them. Belief is not a mechanical action, brought about by invariable rules of nature. It is a human activity, the exercise of judgment. With this in mind, we might say that we perform this action better when we know what the reasons are that have led to our belief, and why they are good reasons.These observations do not deprive us of our ability to believe in what we read. They are not intended to transform you from credulous believers into stubborn doubters. The process of weighing beliefs against the quality of reasons is one that you already go through all the time, whether you are aware of it or not. We all do. The practice of critical reading is the exercise of this kind of judgment on purpose. By doing it, we protect ourselves from being led into belief for inadequate reasons, but at the same time we open up our minds to the possibility of arriving at belief for adequate ones. If we decide to grant or withhold consent based on the quality of the reasons that we are given we admit at the same time that two things are possible: We admit that we might consent less in the future if we discover that the reasons are not so good after all; and we admit that we might consent more if we are ever presented with better reasons than we had formerly known. This attitude is not pure skepticism any more than it is pure credulity. It is somewhere in between. It is the attitude of an open-minded thinker, of someone who wishes to be responsible for deciding for herself or himself what to believe.541. The author’s use of the bathtub hoax is meant to suggest that __________.A. facts must be believed unconditionallyB. belief is more than a simple yes or no choiceC. nothing should be believed or disbelievedD. belief is nothing but a light switch42. To believe or disbelieve what you read should be based on ________.A. the facts that you are givenB. whether the author is an open-minded authorityC. the quality of reasons provided by the materialD. the assumption that you know everything about it43. As a human activity, weighing the facts about something is actually _______.A. determined by the rules of natureB. a performanceC. brought about even at birthD. experienced by everyone44. According to the author, which of the following is true?A. Our attitude toward what we read may change if we are given better reasons.B. An open-minded thinker is responsible for what he or she says.C. Critical reading can make us believe more in what we read.D. We ought to question the value of what we read if its source is not authoritative.45. What is the topic of this passage?A. Judgment and Responsibility.B. Reading and Belief.C. Trust and Faith.D. Reading and Human Activity.Passage 3Things don’t come easily to Matteo, a 4-year-old New Yorker with brown bangs and cowboy bandanna. Afflicted by cerebral palsy, he moves awkwardly. He thinks slow ly and doesn’t talk much. Small frustrations upset him terribly. But when Matteo visits Clive Robbins, his music therapist, he bangs gleefully on a snare drum, placing one hand on the rim to steady himself, he uses the other to rap in tempo to Robbins’s improvised song. As the tune progresses, Matteo moves his act to the piano, banging along with one or two fingers and laughing excitedly. By following the rhythm, he is learning to balance his body and coordinate the movement of his limbs. He’s also learning to communicate. “He is grown much more motivated and intent,” says Robbins, the co-founder of New York University’s Nordoff-Robbins Center for Music Therapy.Disabled children aren’t the only ones feeling the therapeutic power of music. A 79-year-old stroke survivor listens to Viennese waltzes on his headphones to help him to relearn to walk. A woman in labor had LeAnn Rimes’ country tunes blaring from a stereo to help her keep in step with her contraction. And, yes, ostensibly healthy people are listening to airy New Age discs, and maybe lighting a candle or two, to lessen stress and promote well-being. They may all be on to something. Mounting evidence suggests6that almost any musical stimulus, from Shostakovich to the Spice Girls can have therapeutic effects.Music therapy isn’t mainstream health care, but recent studies suggest it can havea wide range of benefits. In 1996, researchers at Colorado State University tried giving10 stroke victims 30 minutes of rhythmic stimulation each day for three weeks. Compared with untreated patients, they shared significant improvements in their ability to walk steadily. People with Parkinson’s disease enjoyed similar benefits. A musical beat from any genre seemed to provide a rhythmic cue, stimulating the brain’s mot or systems.Other body systems seem equally responsive. Scottish researchers have found, for example, that a daily dose of Mozart or Mendelssohn significantly brightens the moods of institutionalized stroke victims. Using psychological tests, the Scottish team showed that patients receiving 12 weeks of daily music therapy were less depressed and anxious, and more stable and sociable, than other patients in the same facility. Music therapy has also proved useful in the management of Alzheimer’s and other neu rological diseases. And Deforia Lane, a music therapist at University Hospitals in Cleveland, has shown that music can boost immune function in children. That’s consistent with a 1995 finding by Louisiana researchers that preemies exposed to lullabies in the hospital went home earlier.46. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?A.Why Music is PowerfulB.Music and Pain MedicationC.Music and Disabled ChildrenD.The Medical Power of Music47. What does the passage say about Matteo?A. He is suffering a paralysis of the brain.B. He is late in his ability to walk and talk.C. He plays music better by taking the advice.D. He’s ambitious to become a professional drummer.48. Paragraph 2 mainly tells that ________________.A.music helps pregnant women undergo contractionsB.music stimulates promotion of people’s well-beingC.music seems to have therapeutic effects on all peopleD.sick people benefit a lot from listening to music49. By mentioning the Spice Girls, the author gives an example of musicA.which is popular among children.B.which is good for health.C.which may harm one’s health.D.which is losing popularity.50. According to the context, the word “preemies” probably means________.A.sick children coming to see a doctorB.children with infectious diseasesC.newly recovered young patients7D.premature babiesPassage 4In terms of lives lost and property destroyed, the Civil War was the most terrible armed conflict Americans have ever known, but that has not prevented them from remembering it with enduring fondness. The Civil War remains the most written-about period in American history, and it provides boundless entertainment in the United States and around the world. Instead of an object lesson in the dangers of political polarization, racial inequality, and human cruelty, fans consider their favorite war an exercise in nobility—a bloodbath that somehow forged the unbreakable bonds of American national identity.Most Civil War historians were reared in this romantic tradition, and they have yet to fully free themselves from it. They still view the struggle through rose-colored glasses, making excuses for flawed heroes who have the reputations they never deserved. With the publication of While in the Hands of the Enemy: Military Prisons of the Civil War, Charles W. Sanders has distinguished himself as one of the few scholars capable of addressing the Civil War with utter frankness. His brilliantly researched book is a ringing indictment of the prisoner-of-war (POW) systems maintained by both sides of that war, as well as the politicians and soldiers who deliberately sent thousands of men to needless suffering and death. There are no heroes in this study, just too many unnecessary victims.Sanders sets his study in context by first tracing the evolution of POW policy during the American Revolution, War of 1812, and Mexican War. Americans knew that POWs were vulnerable to mistreatment, and the quickest way to improve their lot was to negotiate exchanges with the enemy. At the outset of the Civil War, neither side was prepared to cope with the many foes their armies captured, and prisoners inevitably suffered from inadequate housing, food, medical care, and other necessities. Abraham Lincoln delayed the implementation of general exchanges until July 1862 for fear it would allow rebellious southerners to claim de facto recognition of the Southern sovereignty. Once implemented, the exchange system quickly emptied prisons in the North and South, but it began breaking down by the end of the year.51. Most Civil War historians would agree that the Civil War may haveA. taught a useful lesson about human nature.B. started political struggles in America.C. raised the awareness of the race issue.D. strengthened American national identity.52. Civil War historians usual ly believe that “flawed heroes”A. should be forgiven.B. should be criticized.C. should be studied further.D. should be evaluated objectively.53. According to Charles W. Sanders, the Civil WarA. created various heroes.B. brought pointless misery.C. started the first POW system.8D. was brutal but inevitable.54. In the early days of the Civil War,A. the POWs were in difficult situations.B. the number of the POWs was small.C. the POW exchanges were frequent.D. both sides used the POWs for political purposes.55. What does the passage say about the POW exchange system of 1862?A. It had been postponed deliberately.B. It put the South at a political advantage.C. It became a successful model for later time.D. It raised the public awareness of the POW problem.Section C (10 points)Directions: There are two passages in this section. In each of the passages, five sentences have been removed from the original text. They are listed from A toF and put below the passage. Choose the most suitable sentence from the listto fill in each of the blanks numbered 56 to 60 and 61 to 65. There is onesentence that does not fit in any of the blanks. Mark your answers on yourAnswer Sheet I.Passage 1China’s growth is not uniformly high. Like every other e conomy in the world, China’s is shaped by its geography, in this case an east-west divide and a north-south divide. ___56___ China’s east coast is the Pacific Ocean, and some of the most important port cities in the world can be found there, including (from north to south) the ports of Tianjin, Shanghai, Guangzhou, Hong Kong, and Hainan Island. The coastal provinces have the advantage of proximity, both in time and transport costs, to major world markets by sea-based trade. ___57___ Both are forbidding borders, with enormous transport costs and great distances to major world trading centers. It is not surprising that the western provinces have been growing much less rapidly than the eastern provinces, and that foreign investors focus their investments almost entirely on the eastern coastal provinces____58____ This is economic geography, and the east-west growth divide is natural. It won’t go away. It will be addressed partly through an internal migration of job seekers leaving the west and heading east. This trend has already produced the largest migration occurring in the world today, with perhaps 150 million people having moved either permanently or seasonally between the interior and the coastal provinces. ___59___ These investments will help improve infrastructure, industrial development, and social development, through better schools and better health services.The Chinese north-south divide is a little bit less conspicuous, but it is also very significant. The north is dry compared to the south. ___60___ Already China is talking about spending tens of billions of dollars to divert rivers from the south to the north in three great canals whose costs, effectiveness, and ecological effects are hard to assess with precision, but the risks are very large.910Passage 2Doctors have long known that lung cancer, which kills 160,000 Americans each year, takes a heavier toll among black Americans, particularly black men, than among whites. ___61___ It also has to do with differences in income and access to medical care. But there has always been a lingering suspicion that some of the gap might be due to either overt or subconscious discrimination. A study in last week’s New England Journal of Medicine appears to support that disturbing conclusion.___62___ Even so, about 20% of lung-cancer patients are found to have a tumor whose biological characteristics and small size give them a good chance of being cured if the malignant growth is surgically removed.Researchers at the Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center in New York City and the National Cancer Institute in Bethesda, Md., looked at data from more than 10,000 white and black Medicare patients whose tumors were found early enough to make them candidates for surgery. About 77% of the white patients underwent the procedure, compared with 64% of blacks. The difference was sufficiently large to reduce the overall survival rate for black patients to 26% after five years, compared with 34% for whites. ___63___ “People are dying needlessly,” says Dr. Peter Bach of Memorial Sloan-Kettering,who led the study. He suspects “some combination of the procedure not being offered or pushed by doctors, and patients not accepting it.”___64___ So getting the word out that there is a proven treatment could help close the gap. It’s also vital for doctors and patients to make sure they understand each other.Better communication will be even more important as treatments become more complex . Currently there’s no screening test for finding lung cancer early. (Chest X rays almost always catch it too late.) But Dr. Claudia Henschke of the Weill Medical College at Cornell University in New York City and her colleagues believe they have found a way to identify very small tumors with low-dose CAT scans. ___65___PAPER TWOSection A (10 points)Directions:Read the following article and write a summary of between 120 and 150 words on your Answer Sheet II. You should NOT copy the original sentences This year, like every other year within the past couple of decades, uncountable trillions of mosquitoes will inject malaria parasites into human blood streams billions of times. Some 300 to 500 million full-blown cases of malaria will result, and between 1 and 3 million people will die, most of them pregnant women and children. That’s the official figure, anyway, but it’s likely to be a substantial underestimate, since most malaria deaths are not formally registered, and many are likely to have escaped the estimators. Very roughly, the malaria death toll rivals that of AIDS, which now kills about 3 million people annually.But unlike AIDS, malaria is a low-priority killer. Despite the deaths, and the fact that roughly 2.5 billion people (40 percent of the world’s population) are at risk of contracting the disease, malaria is a relatively low public health priority on the international scene. Malaria rarely makes the news. And international funding for malaria research currently comes to a mere $150 million annually. Just by way of comparison, that’s only about 5 percent of the $2.8 billion that the U.S. government alone is considering for AIDS research in the next fiscal year.The low priority assigned to malaria would be at least easier to understand, though no less mistaken, if the threat were static. Unfortunately it is not. It is true that the geographic range of the disease has contracted substantially since the mid-20th century, but over the past couple of decades, malaria has been gathering strength. Virtually all areas where the disease is prevalent have seen drug-resistant strains of the parasites emerge—a development that is almost certainly boosting death rates. In countries as various as Armenia, Afghanistan, and Sierra Leone, the lack or deterioration of basic infrastructure has created a wealth of new breeding sites for the mosquitoes that spread the disease. The rapidly expanding slums of many tropical cities also lack such infrastructure; poor sanitation and crowding have primed these places as well for outbreaks—even though malaria has up to now been regarded as predominantly a rural disease.What can current policy offer in the face of these threats? The medical arsenal is limited; there are only about a dozen anti-malarial drugs commonly in use, and there is significant malaria resistance to most of them. In the absence of a reliable way to kill the parasites, policy has tended to focus on killing the mosquitoes that bear them. And that has led to an abundant use of synthetic pesticides, including one of the oldest and most dangerous: dichlorodiphenyl trichloroethane, or DDT.11Section B (15 points)Direction:Now China has a growing number of old people. How will this trend affect China? Write an English essay of at least 200 words to explain your answer. Use the proper space on Answer Sheet II.******************************************************************Reference key to Sample TestPart ISection A1—10 C D D A A B C C B DSection BMini-talk One11: Ten million tons of grain each year.12: Any place they can get into—homes, shops, farm buildings and farm and home storage areas.13: By carrying fleas, mites and other organisms that cause sickness.Mini-talk Two14: Four years of high school or less.15: Any special requirements will be stated on the announcement of examination. 16: Retirement support, life insurance and health insurance.Mini-talk Three17: Many of them are hits for a few weeks then they disappear.18: A professional tries to make a living by working in art, while an amateur does all the artistic work just for pleasure.19: Popular art usually makes a lot of money, while high art often lacks funds.20: To give money to make future performances possible.Part IISection A21. while 22. exceeded 23. ever 24. like 25. precede 26.once 27. separated 28. than 29. feasible 30. Fortunately 31.overcome 32.continuous 33.instantaneously 34.transforming 35. AsSection B36. B. 37. D. 38. C. 39. A. 40. B. 41. B. 42. C. 43. D. 44. A. 45. B. 46. D. 47. A. 48. C. 49. B. 50. D 51. D 52. A 53. B 54. A 55. A Section C56—60. ADECB61—65. BFACE12。
23年全国英语等级一级考试真题

23年全国英语等级一级考试真题全文共3篇示例,供读者参考篇123rd National English Proficiency Test Level One Sample TestPart I Listening Comprehension (30 minutes)Section ADirections: In this section, you will hear 10 short conversations. At the end of each conversation, a question will be asked about what was said. The conversations and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a conversation and the question about it, read the four possible answers on your paper, and decide which one is the best answer to the question you have heard.1. A) A teacher and a student. B) A librarian and a student.C) An interviewer and a writer. D) A journalist and interviewee.2. A) The woman's name. B) The woman’s age.C) The woman's job. D) The woman's address.3. A) She is willing to help the man.B) She can't help the man at the moment.C) She is too busy to help the man.D) She is able to help the man.4. A) Small.B) Large.C) Medium.D) Mixed.5. A) The dress is over his budget.B) The dress is too expensive.C) The dress is within his budget.D) The dress is a little pricey.6. A) Go to a supermarket.B) Purchase a toaster.C) Repair his toaster.D) Find a recipe.7. A) They both like the same movie.B) The man finds the movie boring.C) The movie is not suitable for children.D) The woman doesn't like the movie.8. A) He is going to play basketball.B) He is going to have a cup of tea.C) He is going to work out at the gym.D) He is going to study for a test.9. A) They are going to install the software.B) They can't find the software.C) They need to buy the software.D) They have lost the software.10. A) The man wants a bigger cup.B) The man thinks the cup is too big.C) The man wants a smaller cup.D) The woman will buy the mug for him. Section BDirections: In this section, you will hear 3 short passages. At the end of each passage, you will hear some questions. Both the passage and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers on your paper, and decide which one is the best answer to the question you have heard.Passage One11. A) Buying a ticket. B) Seeing a doctor.C) Attending a concert. D) Enjoying a play.12. A) The ticket price. B) The play’s quality.C) The play's time. D) The play's theme.13. A) They had a good deal.B) They arrived early.C) They didn't buy tickets.D) They went in separately.Passage Two14. A) They would have exercise first.B) They would go on a picnic.C) They would have lunch.D) They would work on a project.15. A) Snack. B) Scope. C) Spoon. D) Sock.16. A) Inside the box. B) Under the desk.C) Above the shelf. D) Behind the chair. Passage Three17. A) About 5 minutes. B) About 10 minutes.C) About 15 minutes. D) About 20 minutes.18. A) They arrived late.B) They missed their flight.C) They had to change their seats.D) They almost mixed up their bags.19. A) A - mail. B) The passport.C) The luggage. D) The tickets.20. A) The flight got delayed.B) The plane couldn't take off.C) The flight departed on time.D) It took them a long time to board.Part II Reading Comprehension (40 minutes)Section ADirections: In this section, there is a passage with blanks. Below the passage, there are four choices. Fill in each blank with the correct answer from the choices given.Standing on the east side of the Outer 21______, Fantai Hall is famous for its exquisite Qing Dynasty style, stunning glass screens, and rare 22______ luxury decorations. The building was first created during the Qianlong Emperor's reign in the Qing Dynasty, and was later named “Fantai Hall,” meaning 23______ and unique craftsmanship.Creating an illusion of an art gallery, the 24______ wing and the middle hall exhibit a unique 25______ of 18th-century Chinese-style furniture and cultural relics. The rich 26______ with its distinctive Qing Dynasty patterns and decorations beautifully reflect the art and culture of that 27______.Situated in the northwest corner of the Forbidden City is a collection of 28______ gardens that served as the residence for the emperor of Qing Dynasty. Only the most vicious of visionscould have 29______ the emperor's serenity from being 30______ by the picturesque charm of this quiet retreat.21. A) Gate. B) Ground. C) Wall. D) Court.22. A) Colorful. B) Boring. C) Cheap. D) Marvelous.23. A) Skillful. B) Boring. C) Useful. D) Proud.24. A) Western. B) Eastern. C) Northern. D) Southern.25. A) Presentation. B) Collection. C) Possession. D) Production.26. A) Screen. B) Roof. C) Wall. D) Floor.27. A) Time. B) Day. C) Age. D) Month.28. A) Scarce. B) Expensive. C) Immaculate. D) Maneuver.29. A) Protected. B) Damaged. C) Stolen. D) Guarded.30. A) Accepted. B) Invaded. C) Overlooked. D) Appreciated.Section BDirections: In this section, you are going to read a passage with ten statements attached to it. Each statement contains information given in one of the paragraphs. Determine which statement refers to the paragraph.The brain is capable of reconstructing the surrounding world from light, sound, and other signals. Yet, we also have a remarkable ability to form internal images and to simulate the world inside our heads. This capacity for imagination can be utilized in numerous ways from exercising to planning for the future. It can even become a powerful tool for creativity –creating new pieces of music, food recipes, or works of art.For example, when someone imagines a place they have never visited or solves a problem by visualizing the solution, they are essentially creating a mental image. Such images can be anything from highly vivid to very vague and abstract. Regardless of how clear or how fuzzy they are, mental images can have a significant impact on our daily lives and the way we interact with the world.The process of creating mental images involves communication between areas of the brain responsible for processing sensory information and those responsible for memories and meanings. Upon receiving inputs from the sensory organs, the brain starts to process them to build an internal representation of the external world. However, when the sensory organs are not providing direct inputs but the brain isstill constructing imaginary scenes, the internal processing takes place without any direct sensory input.The power of imagination is not only limited to sensory experiences but can also extend to other aspects of the mind such as reasoning and problem-solving. For example, when we face a difficult decision, we often play out different scenarios in our minds to help us arrive at a conclusion. By simulating potential outcomes, we can evaluate the risks and benefits of each course of action, ultimately aiding us in makingwell-informed decisions.31. The creative potential of the brain lies in its ability to produce internal representations of the external world.32. Through imagination, humans can envision scenarios that have never taken place in reality.33. Mental images vary in clarity and can range from being highly detailed to abstract.34. The brain is flexible in its ability to create mental representations, even in the absence of direct sensory input.35. Imagining alternative outcomes can be a useful strategy in making difficult decisions.Section CDirections: In this section, there are four passages followed by questions or incomplete statements. Each passage is followed by some questions or statements. Read each passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question.Passage OneThough traditional schools are designed to provide education to children in a structured environment, many parents are turning to homeschooling as an alternative. Homeschooling allows children to learn at their own pace, focusing on areas where they need more assistance and moving ahead when they’re ready. This flexibility in learning has been shown to improve children's academic performance and increase their overall enthusiasm for learning.36. What is one of the benefits of homeschooling?A) Structured learning environment.B) Individualized instruction.C) Socialization with peers.D) Limited flexibility in the curriculum.37. How can homeschooling benefit children’s academic performance?A) By providing a structured environment.B) By offering limited flexibility in learning.C) By giving children the opportunity to learn at their own pace.D) By discouraging individualized instruction.Passage TwoIn recent years, digital devices have become an integral part of our daily lives. With the rise of smartphones, tablets, and computers, people now have constant access to information and entertainment at their fingertips. While these devices offer numerous benefits, such as enhanced communication and productivity, they also come with potential drawbacks, such as increased screen time and reduced face-to-face interaction.38. What has become an essential aspect of contemporary living?A) Outdoor activities.B) Digital devices.C) Reading books.D) Writing letters.39. What are some of the benefits of digital devices?A) Reduced face-to-face interaction.B) Limited access to information.C) Enhanced communication and productivity.D) Restricted usage.Passage ThreeAs the world becomes increasingly interconnected, the ability to communicate in different languages has become a valuable skill. Bilingualism not only enhances cognitive abilities but also opens doors to new cultures and opportunities. Learning a second language can lead to improvedproblem-solving skills, better multitasking abilities, and increased job prospects in a globalized economy.40. What benefits can bilingualism provide?A) Limited cognitive abilities.B) Increased job prospects in a globalized economy.C) Restricted access to new cultures and opportunities.D) Decreased problem-solving skills.41. How can learning a second language enhance individuals' abilities?A) By narrowing their cultural awareness.B) By limiting their job prospects.C) By improving their problem-solving skills.D) By reducing their critical thinking abilities.Passage FourClimate change is one of the most pressing issues facing our planet today. Rising global temperatures, extreme weather events, and melting ice caps are just some of the consequences of human-induced climate change. To address this crisis, it is crucial for individuals, communities, and governments to take action to reduce carbon emissions, protect natural ecosystems, and promote sustainable practices to safeguard the environment for future generations.42. What is a consequence of human-induced climate change?A) Decreased global temperatures.B) Limited impact on natural ecosystems.C) Rising sea levels and melting ice caps.D) Limited need for carbon emission reduction.43. What action is necessary to address the climate crisis?A) Promote unsustainable practices.B) Reducing natural ecosystems.C) Encourage carbon emissions.D) Taking action to protect the environment.Part III Writing (30 minutes)Directions: For this part, you are allowed 30 minutes to write a composition on the topic of “The Importance of Learning a Second Language.” You should write at least 120 words following the outline given below:1. The benefits of learning a second language.2. The skills and opportunities it can bring.3. Your personal opinions on the significance of bilingualism.Please be prepared to share your composition with the examiners in the next section.Thank you for your attention!===This concludes the 23rd National English Proficiency Test Level One Sample Test. We hope that you found it helpful and wish you the best of luck in your exam preparation. If you have any questions or need further assistance, please don’t hesitate to reach out to us. Good luck with your studies and exam preparation!篇2The National English Proficiency Test (NEPT) is a standardized test designed to assess the English language skills of candidates in China. The test consists of four levels, with Level One being the highest level of proficiency. The NEPT Level One test is considered to be equivalent to a high level of English proficiency, similar to that of a native speaker.One of the most challenging and prestigious exams in China is the NEPT Level One test. This test is designed to evaluate candidates' listening, reading, speaking, and writing skills in English. The test consists of multiple-choice questions, short answer questions, and essay questions, which require candidates to demonstrate a high level of English proficiency.The NEPT Level One test covers a wide range of topics, including grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension, listening comprehension, and writing skills. Candidates are required to demonstrate a deep understanding of English grammar and usage, as well as the ability to communicate effectively in English.In order to pass the NEPT Level One test, candidates must achieve a high score in all four sections of the exam. The test is designed to challenge candidates and push them to their limits in order to achieve a high level of English proficiency.The NEPT Level One test is held annually in China, with thousands of candidates taking the exam each year. Candidates who pass the test receive a certificate of proficiency in English, which is widely recognized by employers and educational institutions in China.Overall, the NEPT Level One test is a challenging and prestigious exam that requires candidates to demonstrate a high level of English proficiency. Candidates who pass the test are recognized for their exceptional language skills and have a competitive edge in the job market.篇323年全国英语等级一级考试真题Part I Listening Comprehension (20 points)Section A (6 points)Directions: In this section, you will hear six conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a question will be asked about what was said. The conversations and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a conversation and the question about it, read the four possible answers on your paper and decide which one is the best answer to the question you have heard.1. A. She’s a doctor. B. He’s a teacher.C. She’s a teacher.D. He’s a doctor.2. A. It will be cold on Sunday. B. The weather will be fine on Sunday.C. Sunday will be warmer.D. The weather will be changeable on Sunday.3. A. She wants orange juice. B. She’d like steak.C. She’d prefer salad.D. She doesn’t want any other food.4. A. He prefers tea. B. He prefers coffee.C. He isn’t sure.D. He will have both.5. A. They are too complicated. B. They are clear.C. They are not good.D. They are not important.6. A. Two days. B. Three days.C. Four days.D. Five days.Section B (4 points)Directions: In this section, you will hear two long conversations. At the end of each conversation, you will hear four questions. After you hear a conversation and the questions about it, read the four possible answers on your paper, and decide which one is the best answer to the questions you have heard.Conversation 17. A. Sushi. B. Pasta.C. Beef.D. Chicken.8. A. Five pounds. B. Eight pounds.C. Ten pounds.D. Twelve pounds.9. A. He won’t use the new discount code. B. He will use the current discount code.C. He will use the new discount code.D. He will pay the full price.10. A. In the restaurant. B. In the office.C. In the hotel.D. In the family.Conversation 211. A. On Monday. B. On Tuesday.C. On Wednesday.D. On Thursday.12. A. Have a train ticket. B. Leave his office early.C. Inform his secretary.D. Cancel his business meeting.13. A. A client. B. A friend.C. A colleague.D. A business partner.14. A. Next Thursday. B. Next Friday.C. Next Saturday.D. Next Sunday.Section C (10 points)Directions: In this section, you will hear three passages. At the end of each passage, you will hear three or four questions. After you hear a passage and the questions about it, read the four possible answers on your paper, and decide which one is the best answer to the questions you have heard.Passage 115. A. Walk along a river. B. Enjoy the natural surroundings.C. Drive a car.D. Fly a plane.16. A. Clear. B. Cloudy.C. Rainy.D. Overcast.17. A. Set up a tent. B. Sleep in the car.C. Rent a room.D. Share a room with the speaker.Passage 218. A. Have a walk. B. Take a nap.C. Go shopping.D. Eat out.19. A. A great concert. B. A book exhibition.C. A movie show.D. An art exhibition.20. A. Health. B. Safety.C. Time.D. Weather.Passage 321. A. On a tour bus. B. On foot.C. By taxi.D. By bike.22. A. Lots of fun. B. Quite boring.C. Very easy.D. Really dangerous.23. A. Stay indoors. B. Visit a zoo.C. Go to the beach.D. Walk in the park.Part II Vocabulary and Structure (10 points)Directions: There are 20 incomplete sentences in this part. For each sentence, there are four choices marked A, B, C, and D. Choose the one that best completes the sentence and mark your answers on your answer sheet.24. We usually have a break ____ an hour or so.A. forB. afterC. agoD. since25. You needn’t take an umbrella. The sun is ______ now.A. shinningB. shiningC. sunshineD. shone26. Would you mind my smoking _______?A. hereB. thereC. somewhereD. any more27. ______ the book just now, but I can’t find it now.A. I sawB. I have seenC. I will seeD. I seeAnd so on......Part IV Translation (15 points)Directions: For this part, you are required to translate a passage from Chinese to English on your answer sheet.Imagine there is a big storm, with thunders rumbling, rain pouring, and the sky darkening. You find shelter in a small house with a welcoming host. This person offers you a warm drink and a comfortable seat by the fire. You feel safe and peaceful, forgetting about the storm outside. The host tells you about the history of the house and the surrounding area, making you feel even more relaxed and at home. You realize that sometimes, unexpected events can lead to unexpected joys.Overall, the 23-year national English level one exam contained a variety of listening, vocabulary, structure, and translation questions to test the participants' English proficiency thoroughly. Participants needed to demonstrate their understanding and ability to apply the language in various contexts, including everyday conversations, business meetings, and leisure activities. By answering the questions accurately and comprehensively, candidates could showcase their English skills and achieve a high score on the exam.。
软件产品英文测试报告范文

软件产品英文测试报告范文Software Product English Test Report SampleSoftware testing is a critical component of the software development lifecycle, ensuring the quality and functionality of the final product. In the context of software products targeting international markets, English testing plays a crucial role in validating the accuracy and fluency of the user-facing content. This report presents the findings of an English test conducted on a software product, highlighting the key areas of focus, the testing methodology, and the recommendations for improvements.The software product under evaluation is a cloud-based project management application designed for small to medium-sized businesses. The application offers a range of features, including task management, team collaboration, and reporting tools. The target audience for this product includes English-speaking users from various regions, making the quality of the English content a top priority.The English testing process was divided into several phases, each focusing on a specific aspect of the product's user interface and documentation. The first phase involved a comprehensive review of the application's menus, buttons, and other user interface elements to ensure the consistent use of English terminology, grammar, and spelling. The second phase focused on the in-app help content, user guides, and other supporting documentation to assess the clarity, flow, and overall quality of the English writing.During the user interface review, the testing team identified several instances of inconsistent terminology usage, grammatical errors, and spelling mistakes. For example, the term "project" was sometimes referred to as "job" or "task" in different parts of the application, creating confusion for users. Additionally, several buttons and menu items contained spelling errors, such as "Calender" instead of "Calendar."The review of the supporting documentation revealed a more significant number of issues, ranging from poor sentence structure and awkward phrasing to the use of colloquial or regional expressions that may not be understood by a global audience. The user guides, in particular, were found to be overly technical and lacked a clear, user-friendly tone, which could hinder the onboarding process for new users.To address these findings, the testing team provided detailed recommendations for improvements, including the following:1. Establish a comprehensive style guide: Develop a detailed style guide that outlines the preferred terminology, grammar, and writing style to be used throughout the product's user interface and documentation. This guide should be consistently applied across all content, ensuring a unified and professional tone.2. Implement a rigorous content review process: Implement a content review process that involves multiple rounds of editing and proofreading by native English speakers. This will help to identify and correct any remaining issues with grammar, spelling, and overall clarity before the content is finalized.3. Enhance the user guide structure and tone: Restructure the user guides to be more user-centric, with a focus on providing clear, step-by-step instructions and explanations. The tone should be more conversational and approachable, making it easier for users to understand and follow the documentation.4. Conduct regular English proficiency testing: Establish a routine process for testing the English proficiency of the product's user interface and documentation, both during the development phase and after major updates. This will help to maintain a high level ofquality and consistency over time.5. Leverage professional translation services: Consider working with professional translation services to ensure that any content that requires localization, such as user interface elements or regional-specific information, is accurately and effectively translated into the target languages.By implementing these recommendations, the software product can significantly improve the quality and consistency of its English content, providing a more seamless and user-friendly experience for its global audience. The investment in high-quality English testing and content development will not only enhance the product's reputation and customer satisfaction but also contribute to its overall success in international markets.。
2024年剑桥英语一级考试真题
2024年剑桥英语一级考试真题2024 Cambridge English Proficiency Exam (CPE) Sample TestSection 1: ReadingRead the text below and answer the questions that follow.Text:The IT industry is constantly evolving, with new technologies being developed and released every year. As a result, the demand for skilled IT professionals continues to grow. However, despite the high demand for IT professionals, many companies are struggling to find qualified candidates to fill their positions.One of the main reasons for this is the lack of diversity in the IT industry. Studies have shown that women and minority groups are significantly underrepresented in the field, with white men making up the majority of IT professionals. This lack of diversity not only limits the talent pool available to companies but also results in a less inclusive and innovative industry.To address this issue, companies are implementing diversity and inclusion initiatives to attract and retain a more diverse workforce. These initiatives involve recruiting and training programs aimed at women and minority groups, as well ascreating a more inclusive work environment that values and respects diversity.Questions:1. According to the text, what is one of the main reasons for the lack of qualified IT professionals?2. How does the lack of diversity in the IT industry limit companies?3. What are some of the initiatives that companies are taking to address the lack of diversity in the IT industry?Section 2: WritingIn 300 words or less, write an essay on the following topic:"The Impact of Artificial Intelligence on Society"Section 3: ListeningListen to the audio clip and answer the questions that follow.Audio Clip:Speaker: Good morning, everyone. Today, we are going to discuss the impact of climate change on agriculture. As temperatures continue to rise and extreme weather events become more frequent, farmers are facing new challenges ingrowing their crops. In order to adapt to these changes, farmers are implementing new technologies and techniques to increase their resilience and productivity.Question:1. What new challenges are farmers facing in agriculture due to climate change?Section 4: SpeakingIn this section, you will be asked to discuss a topic with the examiner. You will have 2 minutes to prepare and 2 minutes to speak.Examiner: Please discuss the importance of lifelong learning in today's rapidly changing world.Candidate: Sure, I believe that lifelong learning is essential in today's world as technology and industries are constantly evolving. By continuously learning and acquiring new skills, individuals can adapt to change and remain competitive in the job market. Moreover, lifelong learning promotes personal growth and development, allowing individuals to reach their full potential and pursue new opportunities. Overall, I believe that lifelong learning is crucial in ensuring success and fulfillment in today's rapidly changing world.This concludes the sample test for the 2024 Cambridge English Proficiency Exam. Good luck to all candidates!。
English Entrance Sample Test
Taiyuan International High School ProgramEnglish Entrance ExamExam Paper(90 minutes, 80 Points)Listening (15 Minutes, 15 Questions, 1 Point/Question)Part A: You will hear a boy, Mark, and a girl, Anna, talking about winter sports. Decide if each sent ence is correct or incorrect. Mark “T” for correct or “F” for incorrect on the answer sheet. You’ll hear the recording TWICE. (9 Points)1.Mark had expected more snow at his holiday centre.2.Both Mark and his brother did snowboarding for the first time3.Anna is surprised at how quickly Mark learnt to snowboard.4.It took Anna quite a while to learn snowboarding well.5.Mark’s brother didn’t do snowboarding well because he’s not so fit.6.Anna didn’t understand why she had to wear a hard hat till she fell over very hard lasttime.7.Anna is shocked that some people don’t protect themselves better when snowboarding.8.Snowboarding professionals all wear right equipment to protect themselves.9.Mark would like to copy what the professionals were doing.Part B: Listen to each question. Choose the correct response. You will hear each question only ONCE (6 Points).1. A. No thanks, it’s too cold today.B. Yes, it was a really interesting story.C. Not really, but I go swimming sometimes.D. I planted tomatoes last weekend.2. A. That’s okay. I’ll come down to the front desk.B. Sure, let me give you my address.C. Let me know when it arrives.D. No, thanks, I can bring it to you.3. A. Yes, it gave me a bad stomachache.B. Don’t be silly. It can’t hurt you.C. The fog will clear up later.D. I’ll change the channel, then.4. A. I think it took about two hours.B. Yes, I’m really looking forward to it.C. The guide was good, but it was a little overpriced.D. You did? That’s g ood to hear.5. A. I didn’t fill out the forms yet.B. They’re identical.C. Sorry, I didn’t see it.D. Of course, here’s my passport.6. A. She’s very sociable and friendly.B. I’d like to get a long vacation.C. She’s kind of b ad-tempered and unfriendly.D. I don’t like her very much.Reading (30 Minutes, 20 Points)Passage 1: True or False Questions (10 points)Please look at the sentences below about European Travel. Read the following text to decide if each sentence is correct or incorrect.If it is correct, mark T on your answer sheet.TAKE THIS GREAT OPPORTUNITY TO DISCOVER SOME WONDERFULEUROPEAN CITIESHere is a wonderful flight offer from the Daily News, giving our readers the chance to get a return ticket to Europe for next to nothing.European destinationsOur basic offer price of £10 allows you to take an Express Airline flights to Brussels in Belgium from Heathrow Airport in London. At Brussels Airport there are connections to Nice, Milan, Madrid or Copenhagen for only an extra £25 return.This offer is available from November to February, apart from the period December 18-January 6.There are up to five flights during the day between Heathrow and Brussels. If you plan to travel further than Brussels, you will need to get the early morning flight from Heathrow. A charge of £10 is added to the ticket price for travel between Friday and Sunday.So much to see and doWhy not treat yourself and your partner or friend to a few days in Belgium? Discover wonderful Brussels, which is much more than the centre of the European Union. The Belgian capital is a mix of old and new, with a historic central square, a number of galleries and museums to explore, and more restaurants per person than any other city in Europe. The Daily News is also organizing tours of the beautiful Belgian towns of Bruges and Antwerp. There is also the opportunity for our readers to stay at the Crown Inn Hotel in Brussels and enjoy luxury accommodation and friendly service for an amazing price starting from 15 per person per night. The Crown Inn Hotel is in a perfect position for you to see the sights and look around the city shops. Or you can simply relax in this friendly hotel, which offers leisure facilities and family rooms, making it a great place for people with children.How to get your ticketsWe will only consider bookings made on the special application form printed in our newspaper, and sent to us with a cheque for the fare. One week before departure, please contact our office by phone to check your booking.We recommend that you get travel insurance for your trip. Please note that the prices do not include airport tax. Once bookings are made, no changes are allowed, and your money cannot be returned if you cancel. Any flight may be changed or cancelled by the airline company without notice.Passage 2: Short -answer QuestionsPrecious RainforestsThere are rainforests in over 80 countries throughout the world. The chart below shows the percentage of tropical rainforest in various parts of the world.Rainforests once covered 14% of the earth’s land surface, now they cover only 6%. It is calculated that we are losing one and a half acres of rainforest every second.An estima ted 1.6 billion of the world’s poorest people (those surviving on less than 2 US dollars a day) rely to some extent on forests for their welfare and livelihood. These could be poor farmers whose lives depend on what they can grow in the forests or the many poor people who take something out of the forest to sell elsewhere. These include rubber tappers, small-scale loggers, hunters, and harvesters of nuts, berries and fruits. It is not only the poor who rely on the rainforests for their income. Rich people such as cattle ranchers, soya bean farmers and timber plantation owners are also amongst those who depend on rainforests. In addition, there are governments who look to the rainforests as a source of wealth and power.However, those people whose families have lived in the rainforests for generations have a particularly close relationship with them and could play a vital role in protecting them. The tragedy is that not only are the rainforests being destroyed but so are its peoples. Five centuries ago there were approximately ten million Indians living in the Amazonian rainforest but today there are fewer than 200,000. The Indians could not survive deforestation, the illness brought into the forest by outside people and the violence of those invading the land. Some tribes were only discovered in the early 1950s, such as the Yanomani tribe, which had lived peacefully until 1975 when outside people discovered gold and uranium. Roads were built so that the precious metals could be reached and mines were opened. The Yanomani tried to stop this invasion of their homeland but they were up against very powerful interests who were intent on making money. In the 1970s the Surui tribe was discovered. It now has a university-educated chief, who is working with global companies to map his region using modern technology. This will help to safeguard the region against all who wish to destroy it for profit.Tropical rainforests provide important services to local communities and to the world. Medical research has benefited from the rainforest. Over 120 medicines sold worldwide come from rainforest plants, and 25% of cancer-fighting drugs come from plants only found there. But on the other hand, with deforestation, it is projected that we will lose more than 20% of the world’s oxygen. In addition, rainfall would cease to be regulated around the world. We will lose 137 plant, animal and insect species every single day due to deforestation. Many of these disappearing plants could hold new cures healing properties of plants. However, most medicine men of the forests are now at least 70 years old and when they die what they know will go with them. Although small in number, the people of the rainforests possess great wisdom. If we lose this wisdom then the whole world will suffer.Questions 1-6: You can use your own words or copy words from the article to answer the following questions (10 Points).1.According to the chart, which part of the world has the highest percentage of rainforest cover?( 1 point)2.What evidence is there for the reduction of rainforests? Give two details. ( 2 points)3.How are the world’s poorest people defined in the article? (1 Point)4.Apart from deforestation, what has caused the decline in numbers of the rainforest Indians?Give two details. (2 Points)5.What happen ed to disturb the Yanomani’s traditional way of life?( 2 Points)6.Give two examples of the ways medical research has benefited from the rainforest.(2Points)Use of English (20 Minutes, 25 Points, 1 Point/Question)CAMPINGAlthough (1) ............ groups of people have always lived outdoors in tents, camping as we know it today only began to be (2) ............ about 50 years ago. The increase in the use of cars and improvements in camping (3) ............ have allowed more people to travel longer (4) ............ into the countryside and to stay there in greater comfort.Many campers like to be (5) ............ themselves in quiet areas, so they (6) ............ their tent and food and walk or cycle into the forests or the mountains. Others, preferring to be near people, drive to a public or privately-owned campsite (7) ............ has up-to-date facilities, (8) ............ hot showers and swimming pools.Whether campers are (9) ............ in the mountains or on a busy site, they should remember to(10) ............ the area clean and tidy. In the forests, they must put out any fires and keep foodhidden to avoid attracting wild animals.1 A some B every C both D each2 A famous B popular C favorite D current3 A tools B baggage C equipment D property4 A ways B directions C voyages D distances5 A on B by C at D of6 A take B make C put D do7 A where B who C which D when8 A such B like C as D just9 A lonely B single C separate D alone10 A remain B stay C leave D letGrammar and Vocabulary Multiple Choices1.Listen! Do you hear someone _____ for help?A.callingB.callC.to callD.called2.My father _____ goes to the gym with us although he dislikes going there.A.hardlyB.seldomC.sometimesD.never3.-- _____I take the book out?–I’m afraid not.A.WillB.MayC.MustD.Need4.John thinks it won’t be long _____ he is rea dy for his new job.A.whenB.afterC.beforeD.since5.His sister left home in 1998, and _____ since.A.had not been heard ofB.has not been heard ofC.had not heard ofD.has not heard of6.Everybody was touched _____ words after they heard her moving story.A.beyondB.withoutC.ofD.in7.It is often _____ that human beings are naturally equipped to speak.A.saidB.to sayC.sayingD.being said8. This restaurant has become popular for its wide _____ of foods that suit all tastes and pockets.A.divisionB.areaC.rangeD.circle9. I can’t leave. She told me that I _____ stay here until she comes back.A.canB.mustC.willD.may10. They use computers to keep the traffic _____smoothly.A.being runB.runC.to runD.running11. Charles was alone at home, with _____ looking after him.A.someoneB.anyoneC.not oneD.no one12. If you leave the club, you will not be _____ back in.A.receivedB.admittedC.turnedD.moved13. My parents _____ in Hong Kong. They were born there and have never lived anywhere else.A.liveB.livedC.were livingD.will live14. We are at your service. Don’t _____ to turn to us if you have any further problems.A.begB.hesitateC.desireD.seek15. –Do you have enough to _____ all your daily expenses?--Oh yes, enough and to spare.A.coverB.spendC.fillD.offerWriting (25 Minutes, 20 points)Please write a short essay of about 150 words to describe your favorite entertainment (娱乐). Please tell us what it is about and why you enjoy doing it.。
2020KET剑桥英语考试样卷-A2 Key 2020 sample tests Listening - tape script
KEY ENGLISH TESTLISTENING SAMPLE TESTAUDIOSCRIPTCambridge English, Key English Test – Listening. Sample Test.There are five parts to the test. You will hear each piece twice.We will now stop for a moment.Please ask any questions now because you must NOT speak during the test.Now, look at the instructions for Part One.Pause 05"For each question, choose the correct answer.Pause 02"Look at question 1.Pause 05"1 Where will Claire meet Alex?M: Hi Claire. Are you in the city centre?F: Hi Alex. Yes, I’m just having a sandwich in the café. How about you?M: I’m at the museum, looking at a really great art exhibition. Why don’t you come and meet me here?F: OK, but just for an hour. I’ve got to go to the hairdresser’s at 2.[56 words]Pause 05"Now listen again.R epeatP ause 05"2What time should the man telephone again?M: Can I speak to Fred Warner, please?F: He’s in a meeting now. I’ll ask him to call you at quarter past ten when he comes out. M: I’m seeing a customer then. I can phone at twelve o’clock.F: He’ll be in another meeting then. Call at half past before he goes for lunch.M: OK.[58 words] Pause 05"Now listen again.R epeatPause 05"3When are they going to have the party?M: Shall we have a party this month? A Friday night is best. How about July the eighteenth?F: I have to work late that day. The eleventh will be better.M: We've got theatre tickets for then. Are we doing anything on the twenty-fifth? F: That's fine. Let's make it then. The eleventh is too soon anyway.[54 words] Pause 05"Now listen again.R epeatP ause 05"4 What was the weather like on the picnic?M: Did you have a good picnic yesterday? It was so sunny and hot!F: Yes, but we almost didn’t go because the television weatherman was talking about rain.M: So did you take umbrellas with you?F: Yes, but of course we didn’t use them. It’s good we didn’t go today - there’s such a strong wind![53 words] Pause 05"Now listen again.R epeatP ause 05"5 How much are the shorts?M: Excuse me, are these shorts in the sale?F: Yes, sir. Everything on that shelf is five pounds.M: I'll take this shirt too.F: That's fifteen pounds, so with the shorts that will be twenty pounds.[34 words] Pause 05"Now listen again.R epeatP ause 05"That is the end of Part One.Pause 10"Now look at Part Two.Pause 05"For each question, write the correct answer in the gap. Write one word, or a number, or a date, or a time. Look at questions 6 – 10 now. You have10 seconds.Pause 10"You will hear a teacher talking to a group of students about summer jobs.M: Several students from this college went to work for Sunshine Holidays last year and enjoyed it. So I’m going to give you some information about working in their summer camps this year.The camps start on the fifteenth of June so you must be free from then untilAugust the twentieth. Most students then spend September travelling around and having a holiday before they come home.The camps are for children who are between ten and fifteen years old and towork there you have to be nineteen. So that’s OK for most of you.You don’t need to be good at sports or languages but they only want peoplewho can drive. That’s because you’ll take the chil dren out on trips by car.Each week you’ll get sixty-five pounds, so you could save over five hundredpounds during your time there.If you’re interested, you need to write a letter and send it with a photo toSunshine Holidays. So, does anyone have any questions…?(166 words) Pause 05"Now listen again.RepeatPause 05"That is the end of Part Two.Pause 10"Now look at Part Three.Pause 05"For each question, choose the correct answer. Look at questions 11 - 15 now. You have twenty seconds.Pause 20"You will hear Robert talking to his friend, Laura, about a trip to Dublin.M: Hi Laura. Some of us are going for a weekend in Dublin this year. Are you free at the beginning of next month?F: Yes, I’d love to come.M: Great!F: Who else is going?M: I asked my cousins, but they’re playing in a tennis competition –so there’ll be four of us from my office, and you.F: Where are we staying?M: I tried to book a guest-house. It was full, but visitors can rent rooms in the un iversity during the holidays. We’ll do that –it’s cheaper than a hotel.F: Excellent. Are you taking your new camera?M: Yes, some maps of the city too. But you'll need a coat! It often rains.F: OK!M: Have you been before?F: Yes! The centre’s busy - the shops are always full of people! My friends and I loved all the beautiful buildings - I really enjoyed learning about their history. M: Yeah!F: So, are you excited about the trip?M: Yeah but it’s a pity the music festival won’t be on. When I’m in Dublin I always have lots of fish –it’s fantastic. There’s a new art exhibition - you might like it, but I’m not interested.F: Yeah, maybe!(188 words) Pause 05"Now listen again.RepeatPause 05"That is the end of Part Three.Pause 10"Now look at Part Four.Pause 05"For each question, choose the correct answer.Pause 05”16 You will hear a woman talking to her friend about why she bought amotorbike. Why did she buy it?M: So, you’ve got a motorbike, Sally?F: Yeah, what do you think?M: Cool!F: Thanks! I paid quite a lot for it, but I'll be able to get to college in ten minutes now. Remember how I was always late last year?M: And you were always having to* repair your old bicycle, weren't you?F Yeah. It was just too slow, really.(90 words) Pause 05"Now listen again.RepeatPause 05"17 You will hear two friends talking about going to university. What subjectis the man going to study?F: So do you think you'll enjoy university?M: Yes, especially the trips! I loved science at school, but I won’t need it much. I thought about studying history but couldn’t find a course I really liked. We’relearning about mountains and rivers in the first term, which’ll be great. AndI’m looking forward to* finding out about cities and how they’ve developed*over time.(63 words) Pause 05"Now listen again.RepeatPause 05"18 You will hear two friends talking about a photograph. What’s thephotograph of?M: What a great photo!F: Thanks! They were all moving around so quickly - running and jumpingabout.M: Is that a group of mothers over there?F: Yes, and the little ones were all ready to go home. Their lessons were over for the day. It was raining, but they just wanted to run around after beingindoors for so many hours.(60 words) Pause 05"Now listen again.RepeatPause 05"19 You will hear a woman talking on the phone. Why’s she upset?F: I feel so upset! I can't see it anywhere. It probably fell out of my bag on the way to the station. I can't buy a ticket now! I'm going back to work to ask if*anybody has seen it, or can lend me some money. I have an appointment for an eye test* this afternoon - I'll be late now!(61 words) Pause 05"Now listen again.RepeatPause 05"20 You will hear a woman talking to her friend, David, about somethingshe’s bought. What has she bought?M: Did you buy something nice, Kate?F: Yes, David, I'm delighted*! We’re having a special meal tomorrow for my sister’s birthday. My cousin’s cooking and we’ll play some board gamesafterwards. The whole family will be there and I want to look nice.M: Sure!F: I wanted something green, and this is so comfortable! Of course we'll all argue* about the games!(60 words) Pause 05"Now listen again.RepeatPause 05"That is the end of Part Four.Pause 10"Now look at Part Five.Pause 05"For each question, choose the correct answer. Look at questions 21 - 25 now. You have 15 seconds.Pause 15"You will hear Simon talking to Maria about a party. What will each person bring to the party?M: Are you nearly ready for your birthday party on Saturday, Maria?F: I think so, Simon. I’ve made a cake and my friends are bringing the other food. M: That’s a good idea.F: Barbara’s going to bring some oranges and grapes.M: And I’ll bring some bread and cheese from the market if you like. Everyone gets hungry at parties, don’t they?F: Thanks, Simon. But you don’t need to bring bread because Anita’s bringing that. She wanted to bring ice cream but I think the weather’s too cold!M: Mm, it is. Perhaps Peter can help. He likes cooking, doesn’t he?F: Yes, he emailed me and asked me to choose roast chicken or fish. I chose chicken because it’s more popular than fish. What do you think?M: That sounds great! Wha t’s Michael bringing - he’s coming, isn’t he?F: Yes, he loves parties! I telephoned him and he’s going to make a big bowl of sliced tomatoes and onions.M: Lovely!(154 words) Pause 05"Now listen again.RepeatPause 05"That is the end of Part Five.Pause 10"You now have six minutes to write your answers on the answer sheet.Pause 05’*ping*You have one more minute.Pause 01’*ping*That is the end of the test.。
23年3月英语四级真题第一套作文
23年3月英语四级真题第一套作文全文共3篇示例,供读者参考篇1Unfortunately, I can't provide the exact content of the 23rd March 4th level English test as it's copyrighted material. However, I can provide you with a sample essay that simulates the type of content you might find in a typical English 4th level exam.Title: The Impact of Social Media on Modern SocietyIn today's fast-paced world, social media has become an integral part of our daily lives. From connecting with friends and family to staying up-to-date with current events, social media platforms serve as a virtual hub where people can share their thoughts, ideas, and experiences. However, the widespread use of social media has also raised concerns about its impact on modern society.One of the most significant impacts of social media is its influence on communication. With platforms like Facebook, Twitter, and Instagram, people can communicate with others from all corners of the globe instantly. This has led to the breakdown of traditional barriers to communication and hastransformed the way we interact with one another. However, this constant connectivity has also been linked to a rise in cyberbullying and online harassment, as people misuse these platforms to spread hate and negativity.Furthermore, social media has changed the way we consume news and information. With the rise of fake news and misinformation, it has become increasingly difficult to distinguish between fact and fiction. This has led to a decline in trust in traditional news sources and has raised concerns about the impact of social media on democracy and public discourse.In addition, social media has also changed the way we perceive ourselves and others. With the rise of influencer culture and curated online personas, people are constantly comparing themselves to others and seeking validation through likes and comments. This has led to an increase in anxiety, depression, and low self-esteem, especially among young people who are more susceptible to the pressures of social media.Despite these negative impacts, social media also has its benefits. It serves as a valuable tool for activism, allowing people to raise awareness about important social issues and mobilize support for causes they care about. It also provides a platformfor marginalized voices to be heard and for communities to come together to support one another.In conclusion, the impact of social media on modern society is complex and multifaceted. While it has revolutionized the way we communicate, access information, and express ourselves, it has also raised concerns about privacy, online safety, and mental health. It is essential for us to be aware of the potential risks and benefits of social media and to use these platforms responsibly to create a more inclusive and supportive online community.篇2Unfortunately, I do not have direct access to the specific content of the March 2023 English Proficiency Test (CET-4) as each test is released by the relevant authorities on a specific date. As a result, I am unable to provide you with the exact essay question or prompt from that particular test. However, I can offer you a general idea of a potential essay topic that may be similar to what was given in the exam.One possible essay prompt for the March 2023 CET-4 exam could be on the topic of the impact of technology on society. This is a common theme that often appears in English proficiency tests as it allows students to discuss current issues and expresstheir opinions on the influence of technology on various aspects of our lives.Here is a sample essay outline on this topic:Title: The Influence of Technology on SocietyIntroduction:- Introduce the topic of technology and its widespread use in modern society- State the thesis statement that will be supported throughout the essayBody Paragraphs:1. Positive impacts of technology on society:- Improved communication through social media and messaging apps- Access to information and educational resources online- Increased efficiency in various industries through automation and digital tools2. Negative impacts of technology on society:- Social isolation and reduced face-to-face interaction- Dependency on gadgets and screens leading to health issues- Privacy concerns with the collection and misuse of personal data3. Balancing the benefits and drawbacks of technology:- Discuss the importance of finding a balance between using technology for productivity and maintaining human connections- Suggest ways to mitigate the negative effects of technology, such as setting screen time limits and practicing digital detoxesConclusion:- Summarize the main points discussed in the essay- Emphasize the need for individuals to be mindful of their technology usage and its impact on societyBy addressing this potential essay prompt in a structured and cohesive manner, candidates can effectively demonstrate their English writing skills and critical thinking abilities. Remember to support your arguments with relevant examples and evidence to strengthen your essay and make it more convincing.I hope this sample essay outline serves as a helpful guide for preparing for the March 2023 CET-4 exam. Good luck with your studies and exam preparation!篇3I'm sorry, but I'm unable to output a document that meets your specific requirements. However, I can provide you with a sample essay on the topic of the March 2023 English CET-4 exam. Here is an example essay:Title: The Importance of Learning EnglishEnglish is one of the most widely spoken languages in the world, and being able to speak and understand English can open up a world of opportunities. This is why many people around the globe choose to learn English as a second language. In my opinion, learning English is essential for several reasons.Firstly, English is the language of international communication. In today's globalized world, English is used as a common language between speakers of different mother tongues. Whether you are traveling to a foreign country, studying abroad, or conducting business with international partners, knowing English can help you communicate effectively and navigate unfamiliar situations.Secondly, learning English can give you a competitive edge in the job market. Many multinational companies require employees to be proficient in English, as it is often the language of business. By learning English, you can increase your chances of landing a job with a higher salary and better opportunities for career advancement.Moreover, English is the language of the internet and technology. Most of the information available online is in English, and many software programs and applications are designed with English-speaking users in mind. By mastering English, you can access a wealth of knowledge and resources that may not be available in your native language.In conclusion, learning English is a valuable skill that can benefit you in many aspects of your life. Whether you want to travel, work, or simply expand your horizons, knowing English can open doors and lead to new opportunities. Therefore, I believe that everyone should make an effort to learn English and improve their language skills.。
- 1、下载文档前请自行甄别文档内容的完整性,平台不提供额外的编辑、内容补充、找答案等附加服务。
- 2、"仅部分预览"的文档,不可在线预览部分如存在完整性等问题,可反馈申请退款(可完整预览的文档不适用该条件!)。
- 3、如文档侵犯您的权益,请联系客服反馈,我们会尽快为您处理(人工客服工作时间:9:00-18:30)。
PRE-ADMISSION ENGLISH ASSESSMENT SAMPLE ASSESSMENT AND PREPARATION GUIDEIMPORTANT INFORMATION:ASSESSMENT FEE - $30 FOR 1, $40 FOR 2, $50 FOR 3 ASSESSMENTS (Please note that Science is considered 1 assessment whether you write Biology, Chemistry, or both) The above fees must be paid by cash or credit card at the Conestoga Assessment Centre on the day of the assessment.PARKINGA paid parking system is enforced Monday to Friday, from 8:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m. Parking Lots1 & 11 are the day pass lots - the cost for a day pass is $10.00. The machines take coins only(i.e. toonies, loonies, or quarters).IDENTIFICATIONAll persons referred for assessments must present personal identification (photo ID or ID with a signature on it). Failure to provide proper identification will result in the assessment date being rescheduled.HOW TO GET TO THE CONESTOGA ASSESSMENT CENTREEnter Door #1 of the Main Building (A Wing) and turn right. Room 2A210 is on the right.PREPARATION AND REVIEW BOOKLETThis booklet is designed to help you prepare for your English, Mathematics and/or Science Skills Assessment.HELPFUL HINTS1.Get a good night’s sleep before the test and arrive early for the testing session.2.Don’t let the thought of taking a test make you too nervous. Rest assured a littlenervousness is natural and even helpful.3.Be on time! This will give you the opportunity to familiarize yourself with the test roomand calm the butterflies!4.Listen carefully and follow directions.5.Ask questions if anything is unclear. The test administrator is there for that purpose.6.The tests are multiple choice. You will be required to choose the best answer to aquestion from several choices. You may mark an answer even if you are not perfectly sure it is right.7.If one question is too hard, leave it and go on to the next. You can always come back andtry it again if there is time.8.If you come to a section in the test that you cannot do, don’t give up. There may be partsof the test which are easier for you. Keep working.9.Work steadily, and complete as many questions as you can.If you are an applicant with special needs (eg. Physically disabled, blind or visually impaired, deaf or hard of hearing) and require some form of test accommodation, please contact the DISABILITY SERVICES OFFICE at (519) 748-5220, Ext. 3232. This office is located at our Doon Campus.ENGLISH/COMMUNICATIONS ASSESSMENTOVERVIEWThe Canadian Adult Achievement Test (CAAT) is a measure of your current functional level in Reading Comprehension and English Grammar Skills. This battery of achievement tests has been designed specifically for the Canadian adult, regardless of his or her previous school experience.THE PURPOSE OF THE CAAT TESTConestoga College uses the CAAT test as a pre-admission instrument to assess an applicant’s readiness for College programs. Please note that the College does not issue a Statement of Equivalency as part of the test results.WHAT TO EXPECTYou will be asked to complete two sub-tests:Introduction and Instructions 15 minutes1) Reading Comprehension 40 minutes2) English Grammar Skills 30 minutesInstructions for the test begin at 8:45 a.m., and you will be finished by 10:15 a.m. All materials are supplied by the College. We do not allow the use of learning aids, such as dictionaries and calculators.THE READING COMPREHENSION TESTThe final goal of reading instruction is comprehension of written material. The Reading Comprehension sub-test assesses reading comprehension with three types of reading material. Textual content is similar to that found in non-fiction and general information materials. Recreational content includes material read for enjoyment, including fiction, humour, literary criticism, and poetry. Functional content is the type of material encountered in everyday life, eg. directions, forms, advertising, and labels. Test items are constructed to measure literal, inferential, and critical levels of comprehension.SAMPLES:TALL TALESLight from the candles bounced off the dark windows and made strange shadows on the walls. After hearing Uncle Sal’s stories, we all sat nervously, listening for creaking footsteps and squeaking doors. Leo was the first to speak.“You don’t really believe all those stories about the old Potter place, do you, Uncle Sal?”“I don’t know,” Uncle Sal said slowly, “no one has seen Mr. Potter in town for the last five years. Some say he hasn’t set foot out of the house.”A.What time of day is it in the story?a)Morning c) Afternoonb)Noon d) EveningB.What kind of stories did Uncle Sal tell?a)Peaceful c) Sadb)Scary d) FunnySAVE ENERGY, SAVE MONEY, SAVE THE ENVIRONMENTC.If an annual energy bill was $1,500, approximately how much of it was for heatingwater?a)$500 c) $300b)$100 d) $200D.Presently your annual electric bill is $2,000. If you install an air conditioner, approx.how much more could your annual electric bill be?a)$150 - $200 c) $350 - $400b)$250 - $300 d) $450 - $500E.What factor would be least likely to affect your annual electric bill?a)Square footage of house c) Age of furnace and appliancesb)Seasonal changes d) The North American costs of energyF. If your blue box has been run over by the garbage truck, to receive a new one youshould:a)Collect the pieces and take them to the nearest Operation Centre/Works Yardb)Go to the nearest Operation Centre/Works Yard to order a new blue boxc)Phone (519) 883-5100 to request that a new one be sent to youd)Take your damaged box to any of the Operation Centres/Works Yards on theweekend to pick up a new one.G. You work from 8:00 a.m. – 5:00 p.m. every Monday – Friday. Where is the onlylocation you can pick up a new blue box?a) Kitchener c) Cambridgeb)Waterloo d) North Dumfries TownshipH. According to the poet, which of the following is most important:a)Wealth c) Healthb)Love d) KnowledgeI. “Tis the root of all that’s evil” refers toa)Fear c) Wealthb)Pain d) Bleeding heartsTHE ENGLISH SKILLS SUBTESTThe English Skills sub-test reflects the current emphasis in language instruction on the development of sound written communication skills that form the groundwork for writing fluency. It assesses your knowledge of punctuation and capitalization, as well as your ability to apply grammatical concepts and to recognize correct and effective structure and writing style.SAMPLES:Choose the sentence with the correct capitalizationA. He is a student in ____________________________.a)high schoolb)High schoolc)High Schoold)high SchoolB. I’m taking ________________________________a) geography, mathematics, law and frenchb) Geography, Mathematics, Law and Frenchc) geography, Mathematics, law and Frenchd) geography, mathematics, law and FrenchChoose the sentence with the correct punctuation.C. My brother carried the boxes into the _____________ unpacked them.a)house Ib)house; Ic)house, Id)house: ID. a) Although, it was raining on Saturday we decided to go to the park.b) Although it was raining on Saturday we decided to go to the park.c) Although it was raining, on Saturday, we decided to go to the park.d) Although it was raining on Saturday, we decided to go to the park.E. a) Maria asked, “Would you like me to take care of the problem?”b) Maria asked “Would you like me to take care of the problem?”c) Maria asked, “Would you like me to take care of the problem”?d) Maria asked “if she should take care of the problem.”F. a) The childrens toys filled the room.b) The childrens’ toys filled the room.c) The children’s toys filled the room.d) The children’s toy’s filled the room.Decide which word or group of words belongs in the blank.G. The wind _________________ through the trees.a)rustlesb)are rustlingc)do rustled)rustleH. The car belongs to __________________.a) he and Ib) him and Ic) he and med) him and meI. a) I found an excellent job after I graduated from college.b) I find an excellent job after I graduated from college.c) I have found an excellent job after I am graduating from college.d) I will have found an excellent job after I am graduated from college.J.That movie was one of the _______________________.a)excitingest that I have ever seenb)excitinger that I have ever seenc)most exciting that I have ever seend)most excitable that I have ever seenSentence Correctness: For each question, read all four groups of words. One group of words forms a correct, clear sentence. Each of the other choices is incorrect in one of these ways:1)It does not form a complete sentence.2)It forms two sentences that are incorrectly run together.3)It has confusing or unnecessary wording.4)It does not express what the writer intended.5)It does not express ideas well.For each question, decide which sentence is written clearly and correctly.K.a) She read the paragraph, explained it, and sat down.b) June felt surprised, worried and anger.c) Watching a play is more interesting than to watch a movie.d) The room is warm, comfortable, and has good lights.L.a) Since they were late for the meeting.b) Waiting for the bus, I ate my lunch.c) The player who is the best.d) One of the children in the playground.M.a) He thought he had the best seat, he was in the front row.b) The class was cancelled the students were pleased.c) Her car broke down, so she was late for the appointment.d) We laughed then we cried.N.a) The class was full, so more chairs were needed.b) People were rushing around, yet little was being accomplished.c) Although the problem had been identified, we chose to ignore it.d) Since we had finished the report early, we had time for a break.O.a) I wondered whether you were coming and if you had forgotten about the meeting.b) The employees were happy to receive a raise in pay, an increase in vacation time andmedical benefits were improved.c) Good students should be organized, independent, and stay positive.d) Robert lost his keys, and he looked under the desk, between the filing cabinets, and hisbackpack was searched.P.Choose the answer that best combines these sentences without changing their meaning.a) Ed went at the mall to the shoe store.b) Ed’s shoe store is at the mall.c) Ed went to the shoe store at the mall.d) To the shoe store at the mall went Ed.Sentence EffectivenessQ.a) You will receive a complimentary free gift at no charge.b) Paul walked into the adjacent building next door.c) Karen mailed the package today.d) Joseph himself was there live and in person.R.a) Flying over the house, Nancy heard a helicopter.b) Full of energy, the house was cleaned in an hour.c) I called to ask you to wait for me on the telephone.d) My brother George just started high school.S.a) The dog was hungry and wanted more.b) He always enjoyed music, so he became a music teacher.c) Hiding under the desk, the instructor found his pen.d) My employer offered me a raise which pleased me.T.a) Even though the organizers did an outstanding job in planning the event, many people attended.b) Unless you are certain, you should give the incorrect answer.c) Because I finished the report on time, I treated myself to an ice cream cone.d) Since reading that book, my confidence has grown.ANSWERS:Reading Comprehension EnglishA.(d) A. (a) K. (a)B.(b) B. (d) L. (b)C.(c) C. (b) M. (c)D.(a) D. (d) N. (d)E.(d) E. (a) O. (a)F.(a) F. (c) P. (c)G.(c) G. (a) Q. (c)H.(d) H. (d) R. (d)I.(c) I. (a) S. (b)J. (c) T. (c)。