博迪投资学第七版第5-10章答案
投资学精要（博迪）（第五版）习题答案英文版chapter5综述
Essentials of Investments (BKM 5th Ed.Answers to Selected Problems – Lecture 60 –300Purchase of three shares at $100 each. 1 –208Purchase of two shares at $110 less dividend income on three shares held. 2 110 Dividends on five shares plus sale of one share at price of $90 each. 3 396Dividends on four shares plus sale of four shares at price of $95 each. 396|||110 |Date: 1/1/96 1/1/97 1/1/98 1/1/99| || || || 208300The Dollar-weighted return can be determined by doing an internal rate of return (IRRcalculation. In other words, set the present value of the outflows equal to the presentvalue of the inflows (or the net present value to zero: %1661. 0001661. 01(396 1(110 1(208300321−=−=+++=++R R R3. b.5. We need to distinguish between timing and selection abilities. The intercept of the scatterdiagram is a measure of stock selection ability. If the manager tends to have a positive excess return even when the market’s performance is merely ‘neutral’ (i.e., has zero excess return, then we conclude that the manager has on average made good stock picks – stock selection must be the source of the positive excess returns.Timing ability is indicated by curvature in the plotted line. Lines that become steeper as you move to the right of the graph show good timing ability. An upward curvedrelationship indicates that the portfolio was more sensitive to market moves when the market was doing well and less sensitive to market moves when the market was doingpoorly -- this indicates good market timing skill. A downward curvature would indicate poor market timing skill.We can therefore classify performance ability for the four managers as follows:a. Bad Goodb. Good Goodc. Good Badd. Bad Bad9. The manager’s alpha is:10 - [6 + 0.5(14-6] = 010. a α(A = 24 - [12 + 1.0(21-12] = 3.0%α(B = 30 - [12 + 1.5(21-12] = 4.5%T(A = (24 - 12/1 = 12T(B = (30-12/1.5 = 12As an addition to a passive diversified portfolio, both A and B are candidates because they both have positive alphas.b (i The funds may have been trying to time the market. In that case, the SCL of the funds may be non-linear (curved.(ii One year’s worth of data is too small a sample to make clear conclusions.(iii The funds may have significantly different levels of diversification. If both have the same risk-adjusted return, the fund with the less diversified portfolio has a higher exposure to risk because of its higher firm-specific risk. Since the above measure adjusts only for systematic risk, it does not tell the entire story.11. a Indeed, the one year results were terrible, but one year is a short time period from whichto make clear conclusions. Also, the Board instructed the manager to give priority to long-term results.b The sample pension funds had a much larger share in equities compared to Alpine’s. Equities performed much better than bonds. Also, Alpine was told to hold down risk investing at most 25% in equities. Alpine should not be held responsible for an asset allocation policy dictated by the client.c Alpine’s alpha measures its risk-adjusted performance compared to the market’s:α = 13.3 - [7.5 + 0.9(13.8 - 7.5] = 0.13%, which is actually above zero!d Note that the last five years, especially the last one, have been bad for bonds – and Alpine was encouraged to hold bonds. Within this asset class, Alpine did much better than the index funds. Alpine’s performance within each asset class has been superior on a risk-adjusted basis. Its disappointing performance overall was due to a heavy asset allocation weighting toward bonds, which was the Board’s –not Alpine’s – choice.e A trustee may not care about the time-weighted return, but that return is moreindicative of the manager’s performance. After all, the manager has no control over the cash inflow of the fund.。
(完整版)投资学第7版TestBank答案11
Multiple Choice Questions1.If you believe in the ________ form of the EMH, you believe that stock prices reflectall relevant information including historical stock prices and current public informationabout the firm, but not information that is available only to insiders.A)semistrongB)strongC)weakD)A, B, and CE)none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: The semistrong form of EMH maintains that stock prices immediatelyreflect all historical and current public information, but not inside information.2.Proponents of the EMH typically advocateA)an active trading strategy.B)investing in an index fund.C) a passive investment strategy.D) A and BE) B and CAnswer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: Believers of market efficiency advocate passive investment strategies, andan investment in an index fund is one of the most practical passive investment strategies, especially for small investors.3.If you believe in the _______ form of the EMH, you believe that stock prices reflect allinformation that can be derived by examining market trading data such as the historyof past stock prices, trading volume or short interest.A)semistrongB)strongC)weakD)all of the aboveE)none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: The information described above is market data, which is the data set forthe weak form of market efficiency. The semistrong form includes the above plus allother public information. The strong form includes all public and private information.4.If you believe in the _________ form of the EMH, you believe that stock prices reflectall available information, including information that is available only to insiders.A)semistrongB)strongC)weakD)all of the aboveE)none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: The strong form includes all public and private information.5.If you believe in the reversal effect, you shouldA)buy bonds in this period if you held stocks in the last period.B)buy stocks in this period if you held bonds in the last period.C)buy stocks this period that performed poorly last period.D)go short.E) C and DAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: The reversal effect states that stocks that do well in one period tend to perform poorly in the subsequent period, and vice versa.6.__________ focus more on past price movements of a firm's stock than on theunderlying determinants of future profitability.A)Credit analystsB)Fundamental analystsC)Systems analystsD)Technical analystsE)All of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: Technicians attempt to predict future stock prices based on historical stock prices.7._________ above which it is difficult for the market to rise.A)Book value is a valueB)Resistance level is a valueC)Support level is a valueD) A and BE) A and CAnswer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: When stock prices have remained stable for a long period, these prices are termed resistance levels; technicians believe it is difficult for the stock prices to penetrate these resistance levels.8.___________ the return on a stock beyond what would be predicted frommarket movements alone.A)An excess economic return isB)An economic return isC)An abnormal return isD) A and BE) A and CAnswer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: An economic return is the expected return, based on the perceived level of risk and market factors. When returns exceed these levels, the returns are called abnormal or excess economic returns.9.The debate over whether markets are efficient will probably never be resolvedbecause of ________.A)the lucky event issue.B)the magnitude issue.C)the selection bias issue.D)all of the above.E)none of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: Factors A, B, and C all exist make rigid testing of market efficiencydifficult or impossible.10. A common strategy for passive management is ____________.A)creating an index fundB)creating a small firm fundC)creating an investment clubD) A and CE) B and CAnswer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: The index fund is, by definition, passively managed. The other investment alternatives may or may not be managed passively.11.Arbel (1985) found thatA)the January effect was highest for neglected firms.B)the book-to-market value ratio effect was highest in JanuaryC)the liquidity effect was highest for small firms.D)the neglected firm effect was independent of the small firm effect.E)small firms had higher book-to-market value ratios.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Arbel divided firms into highly researched, moderately researched,and neglected groups based on the number of institutions holding the stock.12.Researchers have found that most of the small firm effect occursA)during the spring months.B)during the summer months.C)in December.D)in January.E)randomly.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Much of the so-called small firm effect simply may be the tax-effect as investors sell stocks on which they have losses in December and reinvest the funds in January. As small firms are especially volatile, these actions affect small firms in a more dramatic fashion.13.Malkiel (1995) calculated that the average alphas, or abnormal returns, on alarge sample of mutual funds between 1972 and 1991 wereA)significantly positive.B)significantly negative.C)statistically indistinguishable from zero.D)positive before 1981 and negative thereafter.E)negative before 1981 and positive thereafter.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Malkiel's study suggests that fund managers do not beat the market on a risk-adjusted basis.14.Basu (1977, 1983) found that firms with low P/E ratiosA)earned higher average returns than firms with high P/E ratios.B)earned the same average returns as firms with high P/E ratios.C)earned lower average returns than firms with high P/E ratios.D)had higher dividend yields than firms with high P/E ratios.E)none of the above.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Firms with high P/E ratios already have an inflated price relative toearnings and thus tend to have lower returns than low P/E ratio stocks. However, the P/E ratio may capture risk not fully impounded in market betas so this may represent an appropriate risk adjustment rather than a market anomaly.15.Jaffe (1974) found that stock prices _________ after insiders intensively bought shares.A)decreasedB)did not changeC)increasedD)became extremely volatileE)became much less volatileAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Insider trading may signal private information.16.Banz (1981) found that, on average, the risk-adjusted returns of small firmsA)were higher than the risk-adjusted returns of large firms.B)were the same as the risk-adjusted returns of large firms.C)were lower than the risk-adjusted returns of large firms.D)were unrelated to the risk-adjusted returns of large firms.E)were negative.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Banz found A to be true, although subsequent studies have attemptedto explain the small firm effect as the January effect, the neglected firm effect, etc.17.Proponents of the EMH think technical analystsA)should focus on relative strength.B)should focus on resistance levels.C)should focus on support levels.D)should focus on financial statements.E)are wasting their time.Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Technical analysts attempt to predict future stock prices from historic stock prices; proponents of EMH believe that stock price changes are random variables.18.Studies of positive earnings surprises have shown that there isA) a positive abnormal return on the day positive earnings surprises are announced.B) a positive drift in the stock price on the days following the earningssurprise announcement.C) a negative drift in the stock price on the days following the earningssurprise announcement.D)both A and B are true.E)both A and C are true.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The market appears to adjust to earnings information gradually, resulting ina sustained period of abnormal returns.19.On November 22, 2005 the stock price of Walmart was $39.50 and the retailer stockindex was 600.30. On November 25, 2005 the stock price of Walmart was $40.25 and the retailer stock index was 605.20. Consider the ratio of Walmart to the retailer index on November 22 and November 25. Walmart is _______ the retail industry andtechnical analysts who follow relative strength would advise _______ the stock.A)outperforming, buyingB)outperforming, sellingC)underperforming, buyingD)underperforming, sellingE)equally performing, neither buying nor sellingAnswer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 11/22: $39.50/600.30 = 0.0658; 11/25: $40.25/605.20 = 0.0665; Thus,K-Mart's relative strength is improving and technicians using this technique wouldrecommend buying.20.Work by Amihud and Mendelson (1986,1991)A)argues that investors will demand a rate of return premium to invest in lessliquid stocks.B)may help explain the small firm effect.C)may be related to the neglected firm effect.D) B and C.E)A, B, and C.Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Lack of liquidity may affect the returns of small and neglected firms;however the theory does not explain why the abnormal returns are concentratedin January.21.Fama and French (1992) found that the stocks of firms within the highest decile ofmarket/book ratios had average monthly returns of _______ while the stocks offirms within the lowest decile of market/book ratios had average monthly returnsof________.A)greater than 1%, greater than 1%B)greater than 1%, less than 1%C)less than 1%, greater than 1%D)less than 1%, less than 1%E)less than 0.5%, greater than 0.5%Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: This finding suggests either that low market-to-book ratio firms arerelatively underpriced, or that the market-to-book ratio is serving as a proxy for arisk factor that affects expected equilibrium returns.22. A market decline of 23% on a day when there is no significant macroeconomic event______ consistent with the EMH because ________.A)would be, it was a clear response to macroeconomic news.B)would be, it was not a clear response to macroeconomic news.C)would not be, it was a clear response to macroeconomic news.D)would not be, it was not a clear response to macroeconomic news.E)none of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: This happened on October 19, 1987. Although this specific event is not mentioned in this edition of the book, it is an example of something that would be considered a violation of the EMH.23.In an efficient market, __________.A)security prices react quickly to new informationB)security prices are seldom far above or below their justified levelsC)security analysts will not enable investors to realize superior returns consistentlyD)one cannot make moneyE)A, B, and CAnswer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: A, B, and C are true; however, even in an efficient market one should be able to earn the appropriate risk-adjusted rate of return.24.The weak form of the efficient market hypothesis asserts thatA)stock prices do not rapidly adjust to new information contained in past prices orpast data.B)future changes in stock prices cannot be predicted from past prices.C)technicians cannot expect to outperform the market.D) A and BE) B and CAnswer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: Stock prices do adjust rapidly to new information.25. A support level is the price range at which a technical analyst would expect theA)supply of a stock to increase dramatically.B)supply of a stock to decrease substantially.C)demand for a stock to increase substantially.D)demand for a stock to decrease substantially.E)price of a stock to fall.Answer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: A support level is considered to be a level below that the price of the stock is unlikely to fall and is believed to be determined by market psychology.26. A finding that _________ would provide evidence against the semistrong form ofthe efficient market theory.A)low P/E stocks tend to have positive abnormal returnsB)trend analysis is worthless in determining stock pricesC)one can consistently outperform the market by adopting the contrarianapproach exemplified by the reversals phenomenonD) A and BE) A and CAnswer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Both A and C are inconsistent with the semistrong form of the EMH.27.The weak form of the efficient market hypothesis contradictsA)technical analysis, but supports fundamental analysis as valid.B)fundamental analysis, but supports technical analysis as valid.C)both fundamental analysis and technical analysis.D)technical analysis, but is silent on the possibility of successfulfundamental analysis.E)none of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The process of fundamental analysis makes the market more efficient, and thus the work of the fundamentalist more difficult. The data set for the weak form of the EMH is market data, which is the only data used exclusively by technicians.Fundamentalists use all public information.28.Two basic assumptions of technical analysis are that security prices adjustA)rapidly to new information and market prices are determined by the interactionof supply and demand.B)rapidly to new information and liquidity is provided by security dealers.C)gradually to new information and market prices are determined by the interactionof supply and demand.D)gradually to new information and liquidity is provided by security dealers.E)rapidly to information and to the actions of insiders.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Technicians follow market data--price changes and volume of trading (asindicator of supply and demand) believing that they can identify price trends assecurity prices adjust gradually.29.Cumulative abnormal returns (CAR)A)are used in event studies.B)are better measures of security returns due to firm-specific events than areabnormal returns (AR).C)are cumulated over the period prior to the firm-specific event.D) A and B.E) A and C.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: As leakage of information occurs, the accumulated abnormal returns that are abnormal returns summed over the period of interest (around the event date) are better measures of the effect of firm-specific events.30.Studies of mutual fund performanceA)indicate that one should not randomly select a mutual fund.B)indicate that historical performance is not necessarily indicative offuture performance.C)indicate that the professional management of the fund insures above market returns.D) A and B.E) B and C.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: Studies show that all funds do not outperform the market and thathistorical performance is not necessarily an indicator of future performance.31.The likelihood of an investment newsletter's successfully predicting the direction of themarket for three consecutive years by chance should beA)between 50% and 70%.B)between 25% and 50%.C)between 10% and 25%.D)less than 10%.E)greater than 70%.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The probability of successful prediction for 3 consecutive years is 23,or 12.5%.32.In an efficient market the correlation coefficient between stock returns fortwo non-overlapping time periods should beA)positive and large.B)positive and small.C)zero.D)negative and small.E)negative and large.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: In an efficient market there should be no serial correlation betweenreturns from non-overlapping periods.33.The weather report says that a devastating and unexpected freeze is expected to hitFlorida tonight, during the peak of the citrus harvest. In an efficient market one would expect the price of Florida Orange's stock toA)drop immediately.B)remain unchanged.C)increase immediately.D)gradually decline for the next several weeks.E)gradually increase for the next several weeks.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: In an efficient market the price of the stock should drop immediatelywhen the bad news is announced. If later news changes the perceived impact toFlorida Orange, the price may once again adjust quickly to the new information. Agradual change is a violation of the EMH.34. Matthews Corporation has a beta of 1.2. The annualized market return yesterday was13%, and the risk-free rate is currently 5%. You observe that Matthews had anannualized return yesterday of 17%. Assuming that markets are efficient, this suggests thatA) bad news about Matthews was announced yesterday.B) good news about Matthews was announced yesterday.C) no news about Matthews was announced yesterday.D) interest rates rose yesterday.E) interest rates fell yesterday.Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: AR = 17% - (5% + 1.2 (8%)) = +2.4%. A positive abnormal return suggests that there was firm-specific good news.th 35. Nicholas Manufacturing just announced yesterday that its 4 quarter earnings will be 10% higher than last year's 4th quarter. You observe that Nicholas had anabnormal return of -1.2% yesterday. This suggests thatA) the market is not efficient.B) Nicholas' stock will probably rise in value tomorrow.C) investors expected the earnings increase to be larger than what was actuallyannounced.D) investors expected the earnings increase to be smaller than what was actuallyannounced.E) earnings are expected to decrease next quarter.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Anticipated earnings changes are impounded into a security's price as soon as expectations are formed. Therefore a negative market response indicates that the earnings surprise was negative, that is, the increase was less than anticipated.36.When Maurice Kendall first examined stock price patterns in 1953, he found thatA)certain patterns tended to repeat within the business cycle.B)there were no predictable patterns in stock prices.C)stocks whose prices had increased consistently for one week tended to have anet decrease the following week.D)stocks whose prices had increased consistently for one week tended to have anet increase the following week.E)the direction of change in stock prices was unpredictable, but the amount ofchange followed a distinct pattern.Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: The first studies in this area were made possible by the development of computer technology. Kendall's study was the first to indicate that marketswere efficient.37.If stock prices follow a random walkA)it implies that investors are irrational.B)it means that the market cannot be efficient.C)price levels are not random.D)price changes are random.E)price movements are predictable.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: A random walk means that the changes in prices are randomand independent.38.The main difference between the three forms of market efficiency is thatA)the definition of efficiency differs.B)the definition of excess return differs.C)the definition of prices differs.D)the definition of information differs.E)they were discovered by different people.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The main difference is that weak form encompasses historical data,semistrong form encompasses historical data and current public information, and strong form encompasses historical data, current public information, and inside information. All of the other definitions remain the same.39.Chartists practiceA)technical analysis.B)fundamental analysis.C)regression analysis.D)insider analysis.E)psychoanalysis.Answer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: Chartist is another name for a technical analyst.40.Which of the following are used by fundamental analysts to determine properstock prices?I)trendlinesII)earningsIII)dividend prospectsIV) expectations of future interest ratesV)resistance levelsA)I, IV, and VB)I, II, and IIIC)II, III, and IVD)II, IV, and VE)All of the items are used by fundamental analysts.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Analysts look at fundamental factors such as earnings, dividend prospects, expectation of future interest rates, and risk of the firm. The information is used todetermine the present value of future cash flows to stockholders. Technical analysts use trendlines and resistance levels.41.According to proponents of the efficient market hypothesis, the best strategy for asmall investor with a portfolio worth $40,000 is probably toA)perform fundamental analysis.B)exploit market anomalies.C)invest in Treasury securities.D)invest in derivative securities.E)invest in mutual funds.Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Individual investors tend to have relatively small portfolios and are usually unable to realize economies of size. The best strategy is to pool funds with other small investors and allow professional managers to invest the funds.42.Which of the following are investment superstars who have consistently shownsuperior performance?I)Warren BuffetII)Phoebe BuffetIII)Peter LynchIV) Merrill LynchV)Jimmy BuffetA)I, III, and IVB)II, III, and IVC)I and IIID)III and IVE)I, III, IV, and VAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Warren Buffet manages Berkshire Hathaway and Peter Lynch managed Fidelity's Magellan Fund. Phoebe Buffet is a character on NBC's and Jimmy Buffet is Away in Margaritaville. Merrill Lynch isn't a person.43.Google has a beta of 1.0. The annualized market return yesterday was 11%, and therisk-free rate is currently 5%. You observe that Google had an annualized returnyesterday of 14%. Assuming that markets are efficient, this suggests thatA)bad news about Google was announced yesterday.B)good news about Google was announced yesterday.C)no news about Google was announced yesterday.D)interest rates rose yesterday.E)interest rates fell yesterday.Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: AR = 14% - (5% + 1.0 (6%)) = +3.0%. A positive abnormal return suggests that there was firm-specific good news.44.Music Doctors has a beta of 2.25. The annualized market return yesterday was 12%,and the risk-free rate is currently 4%. You observe that Music Doctors had anannualized return yesterday of 15%. Assuming that markets are efficient, this suggests thatA)bad news about Music Doctors was announced yesterday.B)good news about Music Doctors was announced yesterday.C)no news about Music Doctors was announced yesterday.D)interest rates rose yesterday.E)interest rates fell yesterday.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: AR = 15% - (4% + 2.25 (8%)) = -7.0%. A negative abnormal return suggests that there was firm-specific bad news.45.QQAG has a beta of 1.7. The annualized market return yesterday was 13%, and therisk-free rate is currently 3%. You observe that QQAG had an annualized returnyesterday of 20%. Assuming that markets are efficient, this suggests thatA)bad news about QQAG was announced yesterday.B)good news about QQAG was announced yesterday.C)no significant news about QQAG was announced yesterday.D)interest rates rose yesterday.E)interest rates fell yesterday.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: AR = 20% - (3% + 1.7 (10%)) = 0.0%. A positive abnormal return suggests that there was firm-specific good news and a negative abnormal return suggests that there was firm-specific bad news.46.QQAG just announced yesterday that its th4 quarter earnings will be 35% higherthan last year's 4thquarter. You observe that QQAG had an abnormal return of -1.7% yesterday. This suggests thatA)the market is not efficient.B)QQAG stock will probably rise in value tomorrow.C)investors expected the earnings increase to be larger than what wasactually announced.D)investors expected the earnings increase to be smaller than what wasactually announced.E)earnings are expected to decrease next quarter.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Anticipated earnings changes are impounded into a security's price as soon as expectations are formed. Therefore a negative market response indicates that the earnings surprise was negative, that is, the increase was less than anticipated.47.LJP Corporation just announced yesterday that it would undertake an international jointventure. You observe that LJP had an abnormal return of 3% yesterday. This suggests thatA)the market is not efficient.B)LJP stock will probably rise in value again tomorrow.C)investors view the international joint venture as bad news.D)investors view the international joint venture as good news.E)earnings are expected to decrease next quarter.Answer: D Difficulty: Moderate48.Music Doctors just announced yesterday that its st1 quarter sales were 35% higherthan last year's 1stquarter. You observe that Music Doctors had an abnormal returnof -2% yesterday. This suggests thatA)the market is not efficient.B)Music Doctors stock will probably rise in value tomorrow.C)investors expected the sales increase to be larger than what was actually announced.D)investors expected the sales increase to be smaller than what wasactually announced.E)earnings are expected to decrease next quarter.Answer: C Difficulty: Moderate49.The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) just announced yesterday that they wouldapprove a new cancer-fighting drug from King. You observe that King had an abnormal return of 0% yesterday. This suggests thatA)the market is not efficient.B)King stock will probably rise in value tomorrow.C)King stock will probably fall in value tomorrow.D)the approval was already anticipated by the marketE)none of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: Moderate50.Your professor finds a stock-trading rule that generates excess risk-adjusted returns.Instead of publishing the results, she keeps the trading rule to herself. This is mostclosely associated with ________.A)regret avoidanceB)selection biasC)framingD)insider tradingE)none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: Moderate51.At freshman orientation, 1,500 students are asked to flip a coin 20 times. One student iscrowned the winner (tossed 20 heads). This is most closely associated with ________.A)regret avoidanceB)selection biasC)overconfidenceD)the lucky event issueE)none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: Moderate52.Sehun (1986) finds that the practice of monitoring insider trade disclosures, andtrading on that information, would be ________.A)extremely profitable for long-term tradersB)extremely profitable for short-term tradersC)marginally profitable for long-term tradersD)marginally profitable for short-term tradersE)not sufficiently profitable to cover trading costsAnswer: E53.If you believe in the reversal effect, you shouldA)sell bonds in this period if you held stocks in the last period.B)sell stocks in this period if you held bonds in the last period.C)sell stocks this period that performed well last period.D)go long.E) C and DAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: The reversal effect states that stocks that do well in one period tendto perform poorly in the subsequent period, and vice versa.。
博迪投资学第10版英文教材课后答案（6）
博迪投资学第10版英⽂教材课后答案（6）CAPITAL ALLOCATION TO RISKY ASSETSCHAPTER 6: RISK AVERSION ANDCAPITAL ALLOCATION TO RISKY ASSETS PROBLEM SETS1. (e)2. (b) A higher borrowing rate is a consequence of the risk of the borrowers’ default.In perfect markets with no additional cost of default, this increment would equal the value of the borrower’s option to default, and the Sharpe measure, with appropriate treatment of the default option, would be the same. However, in reality there are costs to default so that this part of the increment lowers the Sharpe ratio. Also,notice that answer (c) is not correct because doubling the expected return with afixed risk-free rate will more than double the risk premium and the Sharpe ratio. 3. Assuming no change in risk tolerance, that is, an unchanged risk aversioncoefficient (A), then higher perceived volatility increases the denominator of theequation for the optimal investment in the risky portfolio (Equation 6.7). Theproportion invested in the risky portfolio will therefore decrease.4. a. The expected cash flow is: (0.5 × $70,000) + (0.5 × 200,000) = $135,000With a risk premium of 8% over the risk-free rate of 6%, the required rate ofreturn is 14%. Therefore, the present value of the portfolio is:$135,000/1.14 = $118,421b. If the portfolio is purchased for $118,421, and provides an expected cashinflow of $135,000, then the expected rate of return [E(r)] is as follows:$118,421 × [1 + E(r)] = $135,000Therefore, E(r) =14%. The portfolio price is set to equate the expected rate ofreturn with the required rate of return.c. If the risk premium over T-bills is now 12%, then the required return is:6% + 12% = 18%The present value of the portfolio is now:$135,000/1.18 = $114,4076-1CAPITAL ALLOCATION TO RISKY ASSETSd. For a given expected cash flow, portfolios that command greater riskpremia must sell at lower prices. The extra discount from expected valueis a penalty for risk.5.When we specify utility by U =E(r) – 0.5A σ2, the utility level for T-bills is: 0.07The utility level for the risky portfolio is:U = 0.12 – 0.5 × A × (0.18)2 = 0.12 – 0.0162 × AIn order for the risky portfolio to be preferred to bills, the following must hold:0.12 – 0.0162A > 0.07 ? A < 0.05/0.0162 = 3.09A must be less than 3.09 for the risky portfolio to be preferred to bills.6. Points on the curve are derived by solving for E(r) in the following equation:U = 0.05 = E(r) – 0.5A σ2 = E(r) – 1.5σ2The values of E(r), given the values of σ2, are therefore:σσ 2E(r)0.00 0.0000 0.050000.05 0.0025 0.053750.10 0.0100 0.065000.15 0.0225 0.083750.20 0.0400 0.110000.25 0.0625 0.14375The bold line in the graph on the next page (labeled Q6, for Question 6) depicts the indifference curve.7. Repeating the analysis in Problem 6, utility is now:U = E(r) – 0.5Aσ2 = E(r) – 2.0σ2 = 0.05The equal-utility combinations of expected return and standard deviation arepresented in the table below. The indifference curve is the upward sloping line in the graph on the next page, labeled Q7 (for Question 7).σσ 2E(r)0.00 0.0000 0.05000.05 0.0025 0.05500.10 0.0100 0.07000.15 0.0225 0.09506-2CAPITAL ALLOCATION TO RISKY ASSETS0.20 0.0400 0.13000.25 0.0625 0.1750The indifference curve in Problem 7 differs from that in Problem 6 in slope.When A increases from 3 to 4, the increased risk aversion results in a greaterslope for the indifference curve since more expected return is needed in order to8. The coefficient of risk aversion for a risk neutral investor is zero. Therefore, thecorresponding utility is equal to the portfolio’s expected return. The corresponding indifference curve in the expected return-standard deviation plane is a horizontal line, labeled Q8 in the graph above (see Problem 6).9. A risk lover, rather than penalizing portfolio utility to account for risk, derivesgreater utility as variance increases. This amounts to a negative coefficient of risk aversion. The corresponding indifference curve is downward sloping in the graph above (see Problem 6), and is labeled Q9.6-3CAPITAL ALLOCATION TO RISKY ASSETS6-410. The portfolio expected return and variance are computed as follows:(1) W Bills (2) r Bills (3) W Index (4) r Index r Portfolio (1)×(2)+(3)×(4) σPortfolio(3) × 20% σ 2 Portfolio0.0 5% 1.0 13.0% 13.0% = 0.130 20% = 0.20 0.0400 0.2 5% 0.8 13.0% 11.4% = 0.114 16% = 0.16 0.0256 0.4 5% 0.6 13.0% 9.8% = 0.098 12% = 0.12 0.0144 0.6 5% 0.4 13.0% 8.2% = 0.082 8% = 0.08 0.0064 0.8 5% 0.2 13.0% 6.6% = 0.066 4% = 0.04 0.0016 1.05%0.013.0%5.0% = 0.0500% = 0.00 0.000011. Computing utility from U = E(r) – 0.5 × A σ2 = E(r) – σ2, we arrive at the valuesin the column labeled U(A = 2) in the following table:W Bills W Index r Portfolio σPortfolio σ2Portfolio U(A = 2)U(A = 3) 0.0 1.0 0.130 0.20 0.0400 0.0900 .0700 0.2 0.8 0.114 0.16 0.0256 0.0884 .0756 0.4 0.6 0.098 0.12 0.0144 0.0836 .0764 0.6 0.4 0.082 0.08 0.0064 0.0756 .0724 0.8 0.2 0.066 0.04 0.0016 0.0644 .0636 1.00.00.0500.00 0.00000.0500 .0500The column labeled U(A = 2) implies that investors with A = 2 prefer a portfolio that is invested 100% in the market index to any of the other portfolios in the table.12. The column labeled U(A = 3) in the table above is computed from:U = E(r) – 0.5A σ2 = E(r) – 1.5σ2The more risk averse investors prefer the portfolio that is invested 40% in the market, rather than the 100% market weight preferred by investors with A = 2.13. Expected return = (0.7 × 18%) + (0.3 × 8%) = 15%Standard deviation = 0.7 × 28% = 19.6%14. Investment proportions: 30.0% in T-bills 0.7 × 25% = 17.5% in Stock A 0.7 × 32% = 22.4% in Stock B 0.7 × 43% = 30.1% in Stock CCAPITAL ALLOCATION TO RISKY ASSETS6-515. Your reward-to-volatility ratio: .18.080.3571.28S -== Client's reward-to-volatility ratio: .15.080.3571.196S -== 16.17. a.E(r C ) = r f + y × [E(r P ) – r f ] = 8 + y × (18 - 8) If the expected return for the portfolio is 16%, then:16% = 8% + 10% × y ?.16.080.8.10y -== Therefore, in order to have a portfolio with expected rate of return equal to 16%, the client must invest 80% of total funds in the risky portfolio and 20% in T-bills.CAPITAL ALLOCATION TO RISKY ASSETS6-6b.Client’s investment proportions: 20.0% in T-bills0.8 × 25% = 20.0% in Stock A 0.8 × 32% = 25.6% in Stock B 0.8 × 43% = 34.4% in Stock Cc.σC = 0.8 × σP = 0.8 × 28% = 22.4%18. a.σC = y × 28%If your client prefers a standard deviation of at most 18%, then:y = 18/28 = 0.6429 = 64.29% invested in the risky portfoliob. ().08.1.08(0.6429.1)14.429%C E r y =+?=+?=19. a.y*0.36440.27440.100.283.50.080.18A σr )E(r 22Pf P ==?-=-=Therefor e, the client’s optimal proportions are: 36.44% invested in the risky portfolio and 63.56% invested in T-bills.b. E(r C ) = 8 + 10 × y* = 8 + (0.3644 × 10) = 11.644% σC = 0.3644 × 28 = 10.203%20. a.If the period 1926 - 2009 is assumed to be representative of future expected performance, then we use the following data to compute the fraction allocated to equity: A = 4, E(r M ) ? r f = 7.93%, σM = 20.81% (we use the standard deviation of the risk premium from Table 6.7). Then y * is given by:M f 22ME(r )r 0.0793y*0.4578A σ40.2081-===? That is, 45.78% of the portfolio should be allocated to equity and 54.22%should be allocated to T-bills.b.If the period 1968 - 1988 is assumed to be representative of future expected performance, then we use the following data tocompute the fraction allocated to equity: A = 4, E(r M ) ? r f = 3.44%, σM = 16.71% and y* is given by:CAPITAL ALLOCATION TO RISKY ASSETS6-7M f 22M E(r )r 0.0344y*0.3080A σ40.1671-===? Therefore, 30.80% of the complete portfolio should be allocated to equity and69.20% should be allocated to T-bills.c.In part (b), the market risk premium is expected to be lower than in part (a) and market risk is higher. Therefore, the reward-to-volatility ratio is expected to be lower in part (b), which explains the greater proportion invested in T-bills.21. a. E(r C ) = 8% = 5% + y × (11% – 5%) ? .08.050.5.11.05y -==-b. σC = y × σP = 0.50 × 15% = 7.5%c.The first client is more risk averse, allowing a smaller standard deviation.22. Johnson requests the portfolio standard deviation to equal one half the marketportfolio standard deviation. The market portfolio 20%M σ=which implies 10%P σ=. The intercept of the CML equals 0.05f r =and the slope of the CML equals the Sharpe ratio for the market portfolio (35%). Therefore using the CML:()()0.050.350.100.0858.5%M fP f P ME r r E r r σσ-=+=+?==23. Data: r f = 5%, E(r M ) = 13%, σM = 25%, and B f r = 9%The CML and indifference curves are as follows:CAPITAL ALLOCATION TO RISKY ASSETS6-824. For y to be less than 1.0 (that the investor is a lender), risk aversion (A) must be large enough such that:1A σr )E(r y 2M f M <-=1.280.250.050.13A 2=-> For y to be greater than 1 (the investor is a borrower), A must be small enough: 1A σr )E(r y 2M f M >-=0.640.250.090.13A 2=-< For values of risk aversion within this range, the client will neither borrow nor lend, but will hold a portfolio comprised only of the optimal risky portfolio:y = 1 for 0.64 ≤ A ≤ 1.2825. a.The graph for Problem 23 has to be redrawn here, with: E(r P ) = 11% and σP = 15% CAPITAL ALLOCATION TO RISKY ASSETS6-9E(r)σ913251115b.For a lending position: 2.670.150.050.11A 2=->For a borrowing position: 0.890.150.090.11A 2=-<Therefore, y = 1 for 0.89 ≤ A ≤ 2.6726. The maximum feasible fee, denoted f, depends on the reward-to-variability ratio.For y < 1, the lending rate, 5%, is viewed as the relevant risk-free rate, and we solve for f as follows: .11.05.13.05.15.25f ---= ? .15.08.06.012 1.2%.25f ?=-== For y > 1, the borrowing rate, 9%, is the relevant risk-free rate. Then we notice that,even without a fee, the active fund is inferior to the passive fund because:`More risk tolerant investors (who are more inclined to borrow) will not be clients ofCAPITAL ALLOCATION TO RISKY ASSETS6-10the fund. We find that f is negative: that is, you would need to pay investors to choose your active fund. These investors desire higher risk-higher return complete portfolios and thus are in the borrowing range of the relevant CAL. In this range, the reward-to-variability ratio of the index (the passive fund) is better than that of the managed fund..13.08-28. a.With 70% of his money invested in my fund’s portfolio, the client’s expected return is 15% per year and standard deviation is 19.6% per year. If he shifts that money to the passive portfolio (which has an expected return of 13% and standard deviation of 25%), his overall expected return becomes: E(r C ) = r f + 0.7 × [E(r M ) ? r f ] = .08 + [0.7 × (.13 – .08)] = .115 = 11.5% The standard deviation of the complete portfolio using the passive portfolio would be:σC = 0.7 × σM = 0.7 × 25% = 17.5%Therefore, the shift entails a decrease in mean from 15% to 11.5% and adecrease in standard deviation from 19.6% to 17.5%. Since both mean return and standard deviation decrease, it is not yet clear whether the move isCAPITAL ALLOCATION TO RISKY ASSETS6-11beneficial. The disadvantage of the shift is that, if the client is willing to accept a mean return on his total portfolio of 11.5%, he can achieve it with a lower standard deviation using my fund rather than the passive portfolio. To achieve a target mean of 11.5%, we first write the mean of the complete portfolio as a function of the proportion invested in my fund (y ):E(r C ) = .08 + y × (.18 ? .08) = .08 + .10 × yOur target is: E(r C ) = 11.5%. Therefore, the proportion that must be invested in my fund is determined as follows:.115 = .08 + .10 × y ? .115.080.35.10y -== The standard deviation of this portfolio would be:σC = y × 28% = 0.35 × 28% = 9.8%Thus, by using my portfolio, the same 11.5% expected return can be achieved with a standard deviation of only 9.8% as opposed to the standard deviation of 17.5% using the passive portfolio.b.The fee would reduce the reward-to-volatility ratio, i.e., the slope of the CAL. The client will be indifferent between my fund and the passive portfolio if the slope of the after-fee CAL and the CML are equal. Let f denote the fee:Slope of CAL with fee .18.08.10.28.28f f---==Slope of CML (which requires no fee).13.080.20.25-== Setting these slopes equal we have:.100.200.044 4.4%.28ff -=?==per year29. a.The formula for the optimal proportion to invest in the passive portfolio is:2MfM A σr )E(r y*-=Substitute the following: E(r M ) = 13%; r f = 8%; σM = 25%; A = 3.5:20.130.08y*0.2286=22.86% in the passive portfolio 3.50.25-==?CAPITAL ALLOCATION TO RISKY ASSETS6-12b.The answer here is the same as the answer to Problem 28(b). The fee that you can charge a client is the same regardless of the asset allocation mix of the client’s portfolio. You can charge a fee that will equate the reward-to-volatility ratio of your portfolio to that of your competition.CFA PROBLEMS1. Utility for each investment = E(r) – 0.5 × 4 × σ2We choose the investment with the highest utility value, Investment 3. Investment ExpectedreturnE(r)Standarddeviationσ Utility U 1 0.12 0.30 -0.0600 2 0.15 0.50 -0.3500 3 0.21 0.16 0.1588 4 0.240.210.15182. When investors are risk neutral, then A = 0; the investment with the highest utility is Investment 4 because it has the highest expected return.3. (b)4. Indifference curve 25. Point E6. (0.6 × $50,000) + [0.4 × (-$30,000)] - $5,000 = $13,0007. (b)CAPITAL ALLOCATION TO RISKY ASSETS6-138. Expected return for equity fund = T-bill rate + risk premium = 6% + 10% = 16% Expected rate of return of the clien t’s portfolio = (0.6 × 16%) + (0.4 × 6%) = 12% Expected return of the client’s portfolio = 0.12 × $100,000 = $12,000 (which implies expected total wealth at the end of the period = $112,000) Standard deviation of client’s overall portfolio = 0.6 × 14% = 8.4% 9.Reward-to-volatility ratio =.100.71.14=CHAPTER 6: APPENDIX1. By year end, the $50,000 investment will grow to: $50,000 × 1.06 = $53,000Without insurance , the probability distribution of end-of-year wealth is:Probability Wealth No fire 0.999 $253,000 Fire0.001$ 53,000For this distribution, expected utility is computed as follows:E[U(W)] = [0.999 × ln(253,000)] + [0.001 × ln(53,000)] = 12.439582 The certainty equivalent is:W CE = e 12.439582 = $252,604.85With fire insurance , at a cost of $P, the investment in the risk-free asset is:$(50,000 – P)Year-end wealth will be certain (since you are fully insured) and equal to:[$(50,000 – P) × 1.06] + $200,000 Solve for P in the following equation:[$(50,000 – P) × 1.06] + $200,000 = $252,604.85 ? P = $372.78This is the most you are willing to pay for insurance. Note that the expected loss is “only” $200, so you are willing to pay a substantial risk premium over the expected value of losses. The primary reason is that the value of the house is a large proportion of your wealth.CAPITAL ALLOCATION TO RISKY ASSETS2. a. With insurance coverage for one-half the value of the house, the premiumis $100, and the investment in the safe asset is $49,900. By year end, theinvestment of $49,900 will grow to: $49,900 × 1.06 = $52,894If there is a fire, your insurance proceeds will be $100,000, and theprobability distribution of end-of-year wealth is:Probability WealthNo fire 0.999 $252,894Fire 0.001 $152,894For this distribution, expected utility is computed as follows:E[U(W)] = [0.999 × ln(252,894)] + [0.001 × ln(152,894)] = 12.4402225 The certainty equivalent is: W CE = e 12.4402225 = $252,766.77b.With insurance coverage for the full value of the house, costing $200, end-of-year wealth is certain, and equal to:[($50,000 – $200) × 1.06] + $200,000 = $252,788Since wealth is certain, this is also the certainty equivalent wealth of the fullyinsured position.c.With insurance coverage for 1? times the value of the house, the premiumis $300, and the insurance pays off $300,000 in the event of a fire. Theinvestment in the safe asset is $49,700. By year end, the investment of$49,700 will grow to: $49,700 × 1.06 = $52,682The probability distribution of end-of-year wealth is:Probability WealthNo fire 0.999 $252,682Fire 0.001 $352,682For this distribution, expected utility is computed as follows:E[U(W)] = [0.999 × ln(252,682)] + [0.001 × ln(352,682)] = 12.4402205 The certainty equivalent is: W CE = e 12.440222 = $252,766.27Therefore, full insurance dominates both over- and under-insurance. Over-insuring creates a gamble (you actually gain when the house burns down).Risk is minimized when you insure exactly the value of the house.6-14。
博迪投资学第10版英文教材课后答案 (1)
CHAPTER 1: THE INVESTMENT ENVIRONMENT PROBLEM SETS1. Ultimately, it is true that real assets determine the material well being of aneconomy. Nevertheless, individuals can benefit when financial engineering creates new products that allow them to manage their portfolios of financial assets moreefficiently. Because bundling and unbundling creates financial products with new properties and sensitivities to various sources of risk, it allows investors to hedgeparticular sources of risk more efficiently.2.Securitization requires access to a large number of potential investors. To attractthese investors, the capital market needs:1. a safe system of business laws and low probability of confiscatorytaxation/regulation;2. a well-developed investment banking industry;3. a well-developed system of brokerage and financial transactions, and;4.well-developed media, particularly financial reporting.These characteristics are found in (indeed make for) a well-developed financialmarket.3. Securitization leads to disintermediation; that is, securitization provides a meansfor market participants to bypass intermediaries. For example, mortgage-backedsecurities channel funds to the housing market without requiring that banks orthrift institutions make loans from their own portfolios. As securitizationprogresses, financial intermediaries must increase other activities such asproviding short-term liquidity to consumers and small business, and financialservices.4. Financial assets make it easy for large firms to raise the capital needed to financetheir investments in real assets. If Ford, for example, could not issue stocks orbonds to the general public, it would have a far more difficult time raising capital.Contraction of the supply of financial assets would make financing more difficult, thereby increasing the cost of capital. A higher cost of capital results in lessinvestment and lower real growth.5. Even if the firm does not need to issue stock in any particular year, the stock marketis still important to the financial manager. The stock price provides importantinformation about how the market values the firm's investment projects. For example, if the stock price rises considerably, managers might conclude that the marketbelieves the firm's future prospects are bright. This might be a useful signal to thefirm to proceed with an investment such as an expansion of the firm's business.In addition, shares that can be traded in the secondary market are more attractive toinitial investors since they know that they will be able to sell their shares. This inturn makes investors more willing to buy shares in a primary offering, and thusimproves the terms on which firms can raise money in the equity market.6. a. No. The increase in price did not add to the productive capacity of theeconomy.b. Yes, the value of the equity held in these assets has increased.c. Future homeowners as a whole are worse off, since mortgage liabilities havealso increased. In addition, this housing price bubble will eventually burst andsociety as a whole (and most likely taxpayers) will endure the damage.7. a. The bank loan is a financial liability for Lanni. (Lanni's IOU is the bank'sfinancial asset.) The cash Lanni receives is a financial asset. The new financialasset created is Lanni's promissory note (that is, Lanni’s IOU to the bank).b. Lanni transfers financial assets (cash) to the software developers. In return,Lanni gets a real asset, the completed software. No financial assets are created ordestroyed; cash is simply transferred from one party to another.c. Lanni gives the real asset (the software) to Microsoft in exchange for a financialasset, 1,500 shares of Microsoft stock. If Microsoft issues new shares in order topay Lanni, then this would represent the creation of new financial assets.d. Lanni exchanges one financial asset (1,500 shares of stock) for another($120,000). Lanni gives a financial asset ($50,000 cash) to the bank and gets backanother financial asset (its IOU). The loan is "destroyed" in the transaction, since itis retired when paid off and no longer exists.8. a.AssetsLiabilities & Shareholders’ equityCash $ 70,000 Bank loan $ 50,000 Computers 30,000 Shareholders’ equity50,000 Total $100,000 Total $100,000 Ratio of real assets to total assets = $30,000/$100,000 = 0.30b.AssetsLiabilities & Shareholders’ equitySoftware product* $ 70,000 Bank loan $ 50,000 Computers 30,000 Shareholders’ equity50,000 Total $100,000 Total $100,000 *Valued at costRatio of real assets to total assets = $100,000/$100,000 = 1.0c.AssetsLiabilities & Shareholders’ equityMicrosoft shares $120,000 Bank loan $ 50,000Computers 30,000 Shareholders’ equity100,000Total $150,000 Total $150,000 Ratio of real assets to total assets = $30,000/$150,000 = 0.20Conclusion: when the firm starts up and raises working capital, it is characterized bya low ratio of real assets to total assets. When it is in full production, it has a highratio of real assets to total assets. When the project "shuts down" and the firm sells it off for cash, financial assets once again replace real assets.9. For commercial banks, the ratio is: $140.1/$11,895.1 = 0.0118For non-financial firms, the ratio is: $12,538/$26,572 = 0.4719The difference should be expected primarily because the bulk of thebusiness of financial institutions is to make loans; which are financial assetsfor financial institutions.10. a. Primary-market transactionb. Derivative assetsc. Investors who wish to hold gold without the complication and cost ofphysical storage.11. a. A fixed salary means that compensation is (at least in the short run)independent of the firm's success. This salary structure does not tie the manager’simmediate compensation to the success of the firm. However, the manager mightview this as the safest compensation structure and therefore value it more highly.b. A salary that is paid in the form of stock in the firm means that the manager earnsthe mo st when the shareholders’ wealth is maximized. Five years of vesting helpsalign the interests of the employee with the long-term performance of the firm. Thisstructure is therefore most likely to align the interests of managers and shareholders.If stock compensation is overdone, however, the manager might view it as overlyrisky since the manager’s career is already linked to the firm, and this undiversifiedexposure would be exacerbated with a large stock position in the firm.c. A profit-linked salary creates great incentives for managers to contribute to thefirm’s success. However, a manager whose salary is tied to short-term profits will be risk seeking, especially if these short-term profits determine salary or if thecompensation structure does not bear the full cost of the project’s risks. Shareholders, in contrast, bear the losses as well as the gains on the project, and might be lesswilling to assume that risk.12. Even if an individual shareholder could monitor and improve managers’ perf ormance,and thereby increase the value of the firm, the payoff would be small, since theownership share in a large corporation would be very small. For example, if you own $10,000 of Ford stock and can increase the value of the firm by 5%, a very ambitious goal, you benefit by only: 0.05 $10,000 = $500In contrast, a bank that has a multimillion-dollar loan outstanding to the firm has a big stake in making sure that the firm can repay the loan. It is clearly worthwhile for thebank to spend considerable resources to monitor the firm.13. Mutual funds accept funds from small investors and invest, on behalf of theseinvestors, in the national and international securities markets.Pension funds accept funds and then invest, on behalf of current and future retirees,thereby channeling funds from one sector of the economy to another.Venture capital firms pool the funds of private investors and invest in start-up firms.Banks accept deposits from customers and loan those funds to businesses, or use thefunds to buy securities of large corporations.14. Treasury bills serve a purpose for investors who prefer a low-risk investment.The lower average rate of return compared to stocks is the price investors payfor predictability of investment performance and portfolio value.15. With a “top-down” investing style, you focus on asset allocation or the broadcomposition of the entire portfolio, which is the major determinant of overallperformance. Moreover, top-down management is the natural way to establish aportfolio with a level of risk consistent with your risk tolerance. The disadvantageof an exclusive emphasis on top-down issues is that you may forfeit the potentialhigh returns that could result from identifying and concentrating in undervaluedsecurities or sectors of the market.With a “bottom-up” investing style, you try to benefit from identifying undervaluedsecurities. The disadvantage is that you tend to overlook the overall composition ofyour portfolio, which may result in a non-diversified portfolio or a portfolio with a risk level inconsistent with your level of risk tolerance. In addition, this technique tends to require more active management, thus generating more transaction costs. Finally,your analysis may be incorrect, in which case you will have fruitlessly expended effort and money attempting to beat a simple buy-and-hold strategy.16. You should be skeptical. If the author actually knows how to achieve such returns,one must question why the author would then be so ready to sell the secret to others.Financial markets are very competitive; one of the implications of this fact is thatriches do not come easily. High expected returns require bearing some risk, andobvious bargains are few and far between. Odds are that the only one getting richfrom the book is its author.17. Financial assets provide for a means to acquire real assets as well as an expansionof these real assets. Financial assets provide a measure of liquidity to real assetsand allow for investors to more effectively reduce risk through diversification.18. Allowing traders to share in the profits increases th e traders’ willingness toassume risk. Traders will share in the upside potential directly but only in thedownside indirectly (poor performance = potential job loss). Shareholders, bycontrast, are affected directly by both the upside and downside potential of risk.19. Answers may vary, however, students should touch on the following: increasedtransparency, regulations to promote capital adequacy by increasing the frequencyof gain or loss settlement, incentives to discourage excessive risk taking, and thepromotion of more accurate and unbiased risk assessment.。
博迪投资学第10版英文教材课后答案 (3)
CHAPTER 3: HOW SECURITIES ARE TRADEDPROBLEM SETS1.Answers to this problem will vary.2. The SuperDot system expedites the flow of orders from exchange members to thespecialists. It allows members to send computerized orders directly to the floor of theexchange, which allows the nearly simultaneous sale of each stock in a large portfolio.This capability is necessary for program trading.3. The dealer sets the bid and asked price. Spreads should be higher on inactively traded stocksand lower on actively traded stocks.4. a. In principle, potential losses are unbounded, growing directly with increases in theprice of IBM.b. If the stop-buy order can be filled at $128, the maximum possible loss per share is$8. If the price of IBM shares goes above $128, then the stop-buy order would beexecuted, limiting the losses from the short sale.5. a. The stock is purchased for: 300 ⨯ $40 = $12,000The amount borrowed is $4,000. Therefore, the investor put up equity, or margin,of $8,000.b.If the share price falls to $30, then the value of the stock falls to $9,000. By theend of the year, the amount of the loan owed to the broker grows to:$4,000 ⨯ 1.08 = $4,320Therefore, the remaining margin in the investor’s account is:$9,000 - $4,320 = $4,680The percentage margin is now: $4,680/$9,000 = 0.52 = 52%Therefore, the investor will not receive a margin call.c.The rate of return on the investment over the year is:(Ending equity in the account - Initial equity)/Initial equity= ($4,680 - $8,000)/$8,000 = -0.415 = -41.5%6. a. The initial margin was: 0.50 ⨯ 1,000 ⨯ $40 = $20,000As a result of the increase in the stock price Old Economy Traders loses:$10 ⨯ 1,000 = $10,000Therefore, margin decreases by $10,000. Moreover, Old Economy Traders mustpay the dividend of $2 per share to the lender of the shares, so that the margin inthe account decreases by an additional $2,000. Therefore, the remaining margin is: $20,000 – $10,000 – $2,000 = $8,000b. The percentage margin is: $8,000/$50,000 = 0.16 = 16%So there will be a margin call.c. The equity in the account decreased from $20,000 to $8,000 in one year, for a rate ofreturn of: (-$12,000/$20,000) = -0.60 = -60%7. Much of what the specialist does (e.g., crossing orders and maintaining the limit order book)can be accomplished by a computerized system. In fact, some exchanges use an automated system for night trading. A more difficult issue to resolve is whether the more discretionary activities of specialists involving trading for their own accounts (e.g., maintaining an orderly market) can be replicated by a computer system.8. a. The buy order will be filled at the best limit-sell order price: $50.25b. The next market buy order will be filled at the next-best limit-sell orderprice: $51.50c. You would want to increase your inventory. There is considerable buyingdemand at prices just below $50, indicating that downside risk is limited. Incontrast, limit sell orders are sparse, indicating that a moderate buy order couldresult in a substantial price increase.9. a. You buy 200 shares of Telecom for $10,000. These shares increase in value by 10%,or $1,000. You pay interest of: 0.08 ⨯ $5,000 = $400The rate of return will be:000 ,5$400$000,1$-= 0.12 = 12%b. The value of the 200 shares is 200P. Equity is (200P – $5,000). You will receive a margin call when:P200000,5$P 200-= 0.30 ⇒ when P = $35.71 or lower10. a.Initial margin is 50% of $5,000 or $2,500.b. Total assets are $7,500 ($5,000 from the sale of the stock and $2,500 put up formargin). Liabilities are 100P. Therefore, equity is ($7,500 – 100P). A margin call will be issued when:P100P 100500,7$-= 0.30 ⇒ when P = $57.69 or higher11. The total cost of the purchase is: $40 ⨯ 500 = $20,000You borrow $5,000 from your broker, and invest $15,000 of your own funds. Your margin account starts out with equity of $15,000.a. (i) Equity increases to: ($44 ⨯ 500) – $5,000 = $17,000Percentage gain = $2,000/$15,000 = 0.1333 = 13.33%(ii) With price unchanged, equity is unchanged.Percentage gain = zero(iii) Equity falls to ($36 ⨯ 500) – $5,000 = $13,000Percentage gain = (–$2,000/$15,000) = –0.1333 = –13.33%The relationship between the percentage return and the percentage change in theprice of the stock is given by:% return = % change in price ⨯ equityinitial s Investor'investment Total = % change in price ⨯ 1.333 For example, when the stock price rises from $40 to $44, the percentage change in price is 10%, while the percentage gain for the investor is:% return = 10% ⨯000,15$000,20$= 13.33%b. The value of the 500 shares is 500P. Equity is (500P – $5,000). You will receive a margin call when:P 500000,5$P 500-= 0.25 ⇒ when P = $13.33 or lowerc. The value of the 500 shares is 500P. But now you have borrowed $10,000 insteadof $5,000. Therefore, equity is (500P – $10,000). You will receive a margin call when:P500000,10$P 500-= 0.25 ⇒ when P = $26.67 With less equity in the account, you are far more vulnerable to a margin call.d. By the end of the year, the amount of the loan owed to the broker grows to:$5,000 ⨯ 1.08 = $5,400The equity in your account is (500P – $5,400). Initial equity was $15,000.Therefore, your rate of return after one year is as follows: (i)000,15$000,15$400,5$)44$500(--⨯= 0.1067 = 10.67% (ii)000,15$000,15$400,5$)40$500(--⨯= –0.0267 = –2.67% (iii) 000,15$000,15$400,5$)36$500(--⨯= –0.1600 = –16.00% The relationship between the percentage return and the percentage change in theprice of Intel is given by: % return = ⎪⎪⎭⎫ ⎝⎛⨯equity initial s Investor'investment Total price in change %⎪⎪⎭⎫ ⎝⎛⨯-equity initial s Investor'borrowed Funds %8 For example, when the stock price rises from $40 to $44, the percentage change in price is 10%, while the percentage gain for the investor is:⎪⎭⎫ ⎝⎛⨯000,15$000,20$%10⎪⎭⎫ ⎝⎛⨯-000,15$000,5$%8=10.67%e. The value of the 500 shares is 500P. Equity is (500P – $5,400). You will receive a margin call when:P500400,5$P 500-= 0.25 ⇒ when P = $14.40 or lower12. a. The gain or loss on the short position is: (–500 ⨯∆P)Invested funds = $15,000Therefore: rate of return = (–500 ⨯∆P)/15,000The rate of return in each of the three scenarios is:(i) rate of return = (–500 ⨯ $4)/$15,000 = –0.1333 = –13.33%(ii) rate of return = (–500 ⨯ $0)/$15,000 = 0%(iii) rate of return = [–500 ⨯ (–$4)]/$15,000 = +0.1333 = +13.33%b. Total assets in the margin account equal:$20,000 (from the sale of the stock) + $15,000 (the initial margin) = $35,000Liabilities are 500P. You will receive a margin call when:P 500P500000,35$-= 0.25 ⇒ when P = $56 or higherc.With a $1 dividend, the short position must now pay on the borrowed shares:($1/share ⨯ 500 shares) = $500. Rate of return is now:[(–500 ⨯∆P) – 500]/15,000(i) rate of return = [(–500 ⨯ $4)– $500]/$15,000 = –0.1667 = –16.67%(ii) rate of return = [(–500 ⨯ $0) – $500]/$15,000 = –0.0333 = –3.33%(iii) rate of return = [(–500) ⨯ (–$4) – $500]/$15,000 = +0.1000 = +10.00% Total assets are $35,000, and liabilities are (500P + 500). A margin call will be issued when:P 500500 P500000,35--= 0.25 ⇒ when P = $55.20 or higher13. The broker is instructed to attempt to sell your Marriott stock as soon as the Marriottstock trades at a bid price of $38 or less. Here, the broker will attempt to execute, but may not be able to sell at $38, since the bid price is now $37.95. The price at which you sell may be more or less than $38 because the stop-loss becomes a market order to sell at current market prices.14. a. $55.50b. $55.25c. The trade will not be executed because the bid price is lower than the price specifiedin the limit sell order.d. The trade will not be executed because the asked price is greater than the pricespecified in the limit buy order.15. a. In an exchange market, there can be price improvement in the two market orders.Brokers for each of the market orders (i.e., the buy order and the sell order) can agreeto execute a trade inside the quoted spread. For example, they can trade at $55.37,thus improving the price for both customers by $0.12 or $0.13 relative to the quotedbid and asked prices. The buyer gets the stock for $0.13 less than the quoted askedprice, and the seller receives $0.12 more for the stock than the quoted bid price.b. Whereas the limit order to buy at $55.37 would not be executed in a dealer market(since the asked price is $55.50), it could be executed in an exchange market. Abroker for another customer with an order to sell at market would view the limit buyorder as the best bid price; the two brokers could agree to the trade and bring it to thespecialist, who would then execute the trade.16. a. You will not receive a margin call. You borrowed $20,000 and with another$20,000 of your own equity you bought 1,000 shares of Disney at $40 per share. At$35 per share, the market value of the stock is $35,000, your equity is $15,000, andthe percentage margin is: $15,000/$35,000 = 42.9%Your percentage margin exceeds the required maintenance margin.b.You will receive a margin call when:P 000 ,1000 ,20$P000,1-= 0.35 ⇒ when P = $30.77 or lower17.The proceeds from the short sale (net of commission) were: ($14 ⨯ 100) – $50 = $1,350A dividend payment of $200 was withdrawn from the account. Covering the short sale at $9per share cost you (including commission): $900 + $50 = $950Therefore, the value of your account is equal to the net profit on the transaction: $1350 – $200 – $950 = $200Note that your profit ($200) equals (100 shares ⨯ profit per share of $2). Your net proceeds per share was:$14 selling price of stock–$9 repurchase price of stock–$2 dividend per share–$1 2 trades ⨯ $0.50 commission per share$2CFA PROBLEMS1. a. In addition to the explicit fees of $70,000, FBN appears to have paid an implicitprice in underpricing of the IPO. The underpricing is $3 per share, or a total of$300,000, implying total costs of $370,000.b. No. The underwriters do not capture the part of the costs corresponding to theunderpricing. The underpricing may be a rational marketing strategy. Withoutit, the underwriters would need to spend more resources in order to place theissue with the public. The underwriters would then need to charge higherexplicit fees to the issuing firm. The issuing firm may be just as well offpaying the implicit issuance cost represented by the underpricing.2. (d) The broker will sell, at current market price, after the first transaction at $55or less.3. (d)。
投资学第7章习题(附答案)
课后习题1.简述债券的定义及种类。
2.影响债券定价的因素有哪些？这些因素如何影响债券价值的？3.简述债券定价原理。
4.简述常见的债券收益率。
5.什么是债券的时间价值？6.假定A公司发行了两种具有相同息票率和到期日的债券，一种是可赎回的，而另一种是不可赎回的，哪一种售价更高？7.有一30年期、息票率为8%的债券，计算其在市场半年利率为3%时的价格。
比较利率下降所造成的资本利得和当利率上升到5%时的资本损失。
8.两种10年期债券的到期收益率目前均为7%，各自的赎回价格皆为1100美元。
其中之一的息票率为6%，另一种为8%。
为简单起见，假定在债券的预期支付现值超过赎回价格时立即赎回。
如果市场利率突然降至6%，每种债券的资本利得分别是多少？第七章本章习题答案1. 债券（bond）是以借贷协议形式发行的证券。
借者为获取一定量的现金而向贷者发行（如出售）债券，债券是借者的“借据”。
这借据使发行者有法律责任，需在指定日期向债券持有人支付特定款额。
典型的息票债券使发行者有义务在债券有效期向持有人每半年付息一次，这叫做息票支付，因为在计算机发明之前，大多数债券带有息票，投资者将其剪下并寄给发行者索求利息。
债券到期时，发行者再付清面值（par value, face value）。
债券的息票率（coupon rate）决定了所需支付的利息：每年的支付按息票率乘以债券面值计算。
息票率、到期日和面值是债券契约（bond indenture）的各个组成部分，债券契约是债券发行者与持有者之间的合约。
政府债券的发行主体是政府。
政府债券是政府主体为筹措财政资金，以政府信用为基础向社会发行，承诺到期还本付息的一种债券凭证。
政府债券又分为中央政府债券和地方政府债券。
中央政府债券又称为国债。
公司债券，是公司按照法定程序发行，约定在一定期限还本付息的债权债务凭证。
公司债券代表着发债的公司和投资者之间的一种债权债务关系。
债券持有人是公司的债权人, 不是所有者，无权参与或干涉公司经营管理，但债券持有人有权按期收回本息。
投资学 (博迪) 第10版课后习题答案10 Investments 10th Edition Textbook Solutions Chapter 10
CHAPTER 10: ARBITRAGE PRICING THEORY ANDMULTIFACTOR MODELS OF RISK AND RETURN PROBLEM SETS1. The revised estimate of the expected rate of return on the stock would be the oldestimate plus the sum of the products of the unexpected change in each factor times the respective sensitivity coefficient:Revised estimate = 12% + [(1 × 2%) + (0.5 × 3%)] = 15.5%Note that the IP estimate is computed as: 1 × (5% - 3%), and the IR estimate iscomputed as: 0.5 × (8% - 5%).2. The APT factors must correlate with major sources of uncertainty, i.e., sources ofuncertainty that are of concern to many investors. Researchers should investigatefactors that correlate with uncertainty in consumption and investment opportunities.GDP, the inflation rate, and interest rates are among the factors that can be expected to determine risk premiums. In particular, industrial production (IP) is a goodindicator of changes in the business cycle. Thus, IP is a candidate for a factor that is highly correlated with uncertainties that have to do with investment andconsumption opportunities in the economy.3. Any pattern of returns can be explained if we are free to choose an indefinitelylarge number of explanatory factors. If a theory of asset pricing is to have value, itmust explain returns using a reasonably limited number of explanatory variables(i.e., systematic factors such as unemployment levels, GDP, and oil prices).4. Equation 10.11 applies here:E(r p) = r f + βP1 [E(r1 ) −r f ] + βP2 [E(r2 ) – r f]We need to find the risk premium (RP) for each of the two factors:RP1 = [E(r1 ) −r f] and RP2 = [E(r2 ) −r f]In order to do so, we solve the following system of two equations with two unknowns: .31 = .06 + (1.5 ×RP1 ) + (2.0 ×RP2 ).27 = .06 + (2.2 ×RP1 ) + [(–0.2) ×RP2 ]The solution to this set of equations isRP1 = 10% and RP2 = 5%Thus, the expected return-beta relationship isE(r P) = 6% + (βP1× 10%) + (βP2× 5%)5. The expected return for portfolio F equals the risk-free rate since its beta equals 0.For portfolio A, the ratio of risk premium to beta is (12 − 6)/1.2 = 5For portfolio E, the ratio is lower at (8 – 6)/0.6 = 3.33This implies that an arbitrage opportunity exists. For instance, you can create aportfolio G with beta equal to 0.6 (the same as E’s) by combining portfolio A and portfolio F in equal weights. The expected return and beta for portfolio G are then: E(r G) = (0.5 × 12%) + (0.5 × 6%) = 9%βG = (0.5 × 1.2) + (0.5 × 0%) = 0.6Comparing portfolio G to portfolio E, G has the same beta and higher return.Therefore, an arbitrage opportunity exists by buying portfolio G and selling anequal amount of portfolio E. The profit for this arbitrage will ber G – r E =[9% + (0.6 ×F)] − [8% + (0.6 ×F)] = 1%That is, 1% of the funds (long or short) in each portfolio.6. Substituting the portfolio returns and betas in the expected return-beta relationship,we obtain two equations with two unknowns, the risk-free rate (r f) and the factor risk premium (RP):12% = r f + (1.2 ×RP)9% = r f + (0.8 ×RP)Solving these equations, we obtainr f = 3% and RP = 7.5%7. a. Shorting an equally weighted portfolio of the ten negative-alpha stocks andinvesting the proceeds in an equally-weighted portfolio of the 10 positive-alpha stocks eliminates the market exposure and creates a zero-investmentportfolio. Denoting the systematic market factor as R M, the expected dollarreturn is (noting that the expectation of nonsystematic risk, e, is zero):$1,000,000 × [0.02 + (1.0 ×R M)] − $1,000,000 × [(–0.02) + (1.0 ×R M)]= $1,000,000 × 0.04 = $40,000The sensitivity of the payoff of this portfolio to the market factor is zerobecause the exposures of the positive alpha and negative alpha stocks cancelout. (Notice that the terms involving R M sum to zero.) Thus, the systematiccomponent of total risk is also zero. The variance of the analyst’s profit is notzero, however, since this portfolio is not well diversified.For n = 20 stocks (i.e., long 10 stocks and short 10 stocks) the investor willhave a $100,000 position (either long or short) in each stock. Net marketexposure is zero, but firm-specific risk has not been fully diversified. Thevariance of dollar returns from the positions in the 20 stocks is20 × [(100,000 × 0.30)2] = 18,000,000,000The standard deviation of dollar returns is $134,164.b. If n = 50 stocks (25 stocks long and 25 stocks short), the investor will have a$40,000 position in each stock, and the variance of dollar returns is50 × [(40,000 × 0.30)2] = 7,200,000,000The standard deviation of dollar returns is $84,853.Similarly, if n = 100 stocks (50 stocks long and 50 stocks short), the investorwill have a $20,000 position in each stock, and the variance of dollar returns is100 × [(20,000 × 0.30)2] = 3,600,000,000The standard deviation of dollar returns is $60,000.Notice that, when the number of stocks increases by a factor of 5 (i.e., from 20 to 100), standard deviation decreases by a factor of 5= 2.23607 (from$134,164 to $60,000).8. a. )(σσβσ2222e M +=88125)208.0(σ2222=+×=A50010)200.1(σ2222=+×=B97620)202.1(σ2222=+×=Cb. If there are an infinite number of assets with identical characteristics, then awell-diversified portfolio of each type will have only systematic risk since thenonsystematic risk will approach zero with large n. Each variance is simply β2 × market variance:222Well-diversified σ256Well-diversified σ400Well-diversified σ576A B C;;;The mean will equal that of the individual (identical) stocks.c. There is no arbitrage opportunity because the well-diversified portfolios allplot on the security market line (SML). Because they are fairly priced, there isno arbitrage.9. a. A long position in a portfolio (P) composed of portfolios A and B will offer anexpected return-beta trade-off lying on a straight line between points A and B.Therefore, we can choose weights such that βP = βC but with expected returnhigher than that of portfolio C. Hence, combining P with a short position in Cwill create an arbitrage portfolio with zero investment, zero beta, and positiverate of return.b. The argument in part (a) leads to the proposition that the coefficient of β2must be zero in order to preclude arbitrage opportunities.10. a. E(r) = 6% + (1.2 × 6%) + (0.5 × 8%) + (0.3 × 3%) = 18.1%b.Surprises in the macroeconomic factors will result in surprises in the return ofthe stock:Unexpected return from macro factors =[1.2 × (4% – 5%)] + [0.5 × (6% – 3%)] + [0.3 × (0% – 2%)] = –0.3%E(r) =18.1% − 0.3% = 17.8%11. The APT required (i.e., equilibrium) rate of return on the stock based on r f and thefactor betas isRequired E(r) = 6% + (1 × 6%) + (0.5 × 2%) + (0.75 × 4%) = 16% According to the equation for the return on the stock, the actually expected return on the stock is 15% (because the expected surprises on all factors are zero bydefinition). Because the actually expected return based on risk is less than theequilibrium return, we conclude that the stock is overpriced.12. The first two factors seem promising with respect to the likely impact on the firm’scost of capital. Both are macro factors that would elicit hedging demands acrossbroad sectors of investors. The third factor, while important to Pork Products, is a poor choice for a multifactor SML because the price of hogs is of minor importance to most investors and is therefore highly unlikely to be a priced risk factor. Betterchoices would focus on variables that investors in aggregate might find moreimportant to their welfare. Examples include: inflation uncertainty, short-terminterest-rate risk, energy price risk, or exchange rate risk. The important point here is that, in specifying a multifactor SML, we not confuse risk factors that are important toa particular investor with factors that are important to investors in general; only the latter are likely to command a risk premium in the capital markets.13. The formula is ()0.04 1.250.08 1.50.02.1717%E r =+×+×==14. If 4%f r = and based on the sensitivities to real GDP (0.75) and inflation (1.25),McCracken would calculate the expected return for the Orb Large Cap Fund to be:()0.040.750.08 1.250.02.040.0858.5% above the risk free rate E r =+×+×=+=Therefore, Kwon’s fundamental analysis estimate is congruent with McCracken’sAPT estimate. If we assume that both Kwon and McCracken’s estimates on the return of Orb’s Large Cap Fund are accurate, then no arbitrage profit is possible.15. In order to eliminate inflation, the following three equations must be solvedsimultaneously, where the GDP sensitivity will equal 1 in the first equation,inflation sensitivity will equal 0 in the second equation and the sum of the weights must equal 1 in the third equation.1.1.250.75 1.012.1.5 1.25 2.003.1wx wy wz wz wy wz wx wy wz ++=++=++=Here, x represents Orb’s High Growth Fund, y represents Large Cap Fund and z represents Utility Fund. Using algebraic manipulation will yield wx = wy = 1.6 and wz = -2.2.16. Since retirees living off a steady income would be hurt by inflation, this portfoliowould not be appropriate for them. Retirees would want a portfolio with a return positively correlated with inflation to preserve value, and less correlated with the variable growth of GDP. Thus, Stiles is wrong. McCracken is correct in that supply side macroeconomic policies are generally designed to increase output at aminimum of inflationary pressure. Increased output would mean higher GDP, which in turn would increase returns of a fund positively correlated with GDP.17. The maximum residual variance is tied to the number of securities (n ) in theportfolio because, as we increase the number of securities, we are more likely to encounter securities with larger residual variances. The starting point is todetermine the practical limit on the portfolio residual standard deviation, σ(e P ), that still qualifies as a well-diversified portfolio. A reasonable approach is to compareσ2(e P) to the market variance, or equivalently, to compare σ(e P) to the market standard deviation. Suppose we do not allow σ(e P) to exceed pσM, where p is a small decimal fraction, for example, 0.05; then, the smaller the value we choose for p, the more stringent our criterion for defining how diversified a well-diversified portfolio must be.Now construct a portfolio of n securities with weights w1, w2,…,w n, so that Σw i =1. The portfolio residual variance is σ2(e P) = Σw12σ2(e i)To meet our practical definition of sufficiently diversified, we require this residual variance to be less than (pσM)2. A sure and simple way to proceed is to assume the worst, that is, assume that the residual variance of each security is the highest possible value allowed under the assumptions of the problem: σ2(e i) = nσ2MIn that case σ2(e P) = Σw i2 nσM2Now apply the constraint: Σw i2 nσM2 ≤ (pσM)2This requires that: nΣw i2 ≤ p2Or, equivalently, that: Σw i2 ≤ p2/nA relatively easy way to generate a set of well-diversified portfolios is to use portfolio weights that follow a geometric progression, since the computations then become relatively straightforward. Choose w1 and a common factor q for the geometric progression such that q < 1. Therefore, the weight on each stock is a fraction q of the weight on the previous stock in the series. Then the sum of n terms is:Σw i= w1(1– q n)/(1– q) = 1or: w1 = (1– q)/(1– q n)The sum of the n squared weights is similarly obtained from w12 and a common geometric progression factor of q2. ThereforeΣw i2 = w12(1– q2n)/(1– q 2)Substituting for w1 from above, we obtainΣw i2 = [(1– q)2/(1– q n)2] × [(1– q2n)/(1– q 2)]For sufficient diversification, we choose q so that Σw i2 ≤ p2/nFor example, continue to assume that p = 0.05 and n = 1,000. If we chooseq = 0.9973, then we will satisfy the required condition. At this value for q w1 = 0.0029 and w n = 0.0029 × 0.99731,000In this case, w1 is about 15 times w n. Despite this significant departure from equal weighting, this portfolio is nevertheless well diversified. Any value of q between0.9973 and 1.0 results in a well-diversified portfolio. As q gets closer to 1, theportfolio approaches equal weighting.18. a. Assume a single-factor economy, with a factor risk premium E M and a (large)set of well-diversified portfolios with beta βP. Suppose we create a portfolio Zby allocating the portion w to portfolio P and (1 – w) to the market portfolioM. The rate of return on portfolio Z is:R Z = (w × R P) + [(1 – w) × R M]Portfolio Z is riskless if we choose w so that βZ = 0. This requires that:βZ = (w × βP) + [(1 – w) × 1] = 0 ⇒w = 1/(1 – βP) and (1 – w) = –βP/(1 – βP)Substitute this value for w in the expression for R Z:R Z = {[1/(1 – βP)] × R P} – {[βP/(1 – βP)] × R M}Since βZ = 0, then, in order to avoid arbitrage, R Z must be zero.This implies that: R P = βP × R MTaking expectations we have:E P = βP × E MThis is the SML for well-diversified portfolios.b. The same argument can be used to show that, in a three-factor model withfactor risk premiums E M, E1 and E2, in order to avoid arbitrage, we must have:E P = (βPM × E M) + (βP1 × E1) + (βP2 × E2)This is the SML for a three-factor economy.19. a. The Fama-French (FF) three-factor model holds that one of the factors drivingreturns is firm size. An index with returns highly correlated with firm size (i.e.,firm capitalization) that captures this factor is SMB (small minus big), thereturn for a portfolio of small stocks in excess of the return for a portfolio oflarge stocks. The returns for a small firm will be positively correlated withSMB. Moreover, the smaller the firm, the greater its residual from the othertwo factors, the market portfolio and the HML portfolio, which is the returnfor a portfolio of high book-to-market stocks in excess of the return for aportfolio of low book-to-market stocks. Hence, the ratio of the variance of thisresidual to the variance of the return on SMB will be larger and, together withthe higher correlation, results in a high beta on the SMB factor.b.This question appears to point to a flaw in the FF model. The model predictsthat firm size affects average returns so that, if two firms merge into a largerfirm, then the FF model predicts lower average returns for the merged firm.However, there seems to be no reason for the merged firm to underperformthe returns of the component companies, assuming that the component firmswere unrelated and that they will now be operated independently. We mighttherefore expect that the performance of the merged firm would be the sameas the performance of a portfolio of the originally independent firms, but theFF model predicts that the increased firm size will result in lower averagereturns. Therefore, the question revolves around the behavior of returns for aportfolio of small firms, compared to the return for larger firms that resultfrom merging those small firms into larger ones. Had past mergers of smallfirms into larger firms resulted, on average, in no change in the resultantlarger firms’ stock return characteristics (compared to the portfolio of stocksof the merged firms), the size factor in the FF model would have failed.Perhaps the reason the size factor seems to help explain stock returns is that,when small firms become large, the characteristics of their fortunes (andhence their stock returns) change in a significant way. Put differently, stocksof large firms that result from a merger of smaller firms appear empirically tobehave differently from portfolios of the smaller component firms.Specifically, the FF model predicts that the large firm will have a smaller riskpremium. Notice that this development is not necessarily a bad thing for thestockholders of the smaller firms that merge. The lower risk premium may bedue, in part, to the increase in value of the larger firm relative to the mergedfirms.CFA PROBLEMS1. a. This statement is incorrect. The CAPM requires a mean-variance efficientmarket portfolio, but APT does not.b.This statement is incorrect. The CAPM assumes normally distributed securityreturns, but APT does not.c. This statement is correct.2. b. Since portfolio X has β = 1.0, then X is the market portfolio and E(R M) =16%.Using E(R M ) = 16% and r f = 8%, the expected return for portfolio Y is notconsistent.3. d.4. c.5. d.6. c. Investors will take on as large a position as possible only if the mispricingopportunity is an arbitrage. Otherwise, considerations of risk anddiversification will limit the position they attempt to take in the mispricedsecurity.7. d.8. d.。
博迪《投资学》笔记及习题(最优风险资产组合)【圣才出品】
第7章最优风险资产组合7.1 复习笔记1．分散化与资产组合风险（1）系统性风险与非系统性风险分散化能够降低风险，但是当共同的风险来源影响所有的公司时，分散化就不能消除风险了。
资产组合的标准差随着证券种类的增加而下降，但是，它不能降至零。
在最充分的分散条件下还存在着市场风险，它来源于与市场有关的因素，这种风险亦被称为“系统风险”或“不可分散风险”。
而那些可被分散化消除的风险被称为“独特风险”“公司特有风险”“非系统风险”或“可分散风险”。
（2）两种风险资产的资产组合①资产组合的风险与收益资产组合的期望收益是资产组合中各种证券的期望收益的加权平均值，即：E（r P）＝w D E（r D）＋w E E（r E）两种资产的资产组合的方差是：σP2＝w D2σD2＋w E2σE2＋2w D w E Cov（r D，r E）②表格法计算组合方差表7-1显示如何通过数据表计算资产组合的方差。
其中a表示两个共同基金收益的相邻协方差矩阵，相邻矩阵是沿着首排首列相邻每一基金在资产组合中权重的协方差矩阵。
可以通过如下方法得到资产组合的方差：斜方差矩阵中的每个因子与行、列中的权重相乘，把四个结果相加，就可以得出给出的资产组合方差。
表7-1 通过协方差矩阵计算资产组合方差③相关系数与资产组合方差具有完全正相关（相关系数为1）的资产组合的标准差恰好是资产组合中各证券标准差的加权平均值。
相关系数小于1时，资产组合的标准差小于资产组合中各证券标准差的加权平均值。
通过调整资产比例，具有完全负相关（相关系数为－1）的资产组合的标准差可以为0。
④资产组合比例与资产组合方差当两种资产负相关时，调整资产组合比例可以得到小于两种资产方差的最小组合方差。
若某个资产比例为负值，表示借入（或卖空）该资产。
⑤可行集可行集是指多种资产进行组合所能构成的所有风险收益的集合。
2．资产配置（1）最优风险资产组合最优风险资产组合是使资本配置线的斜率（报酬-波动比率）最大的风险资产组合，这样表示边际风险报酬最大。
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第五章12、投资股票的预期收益是18000，而无风险的短期国库券的预期收益是5000，所以，预期的风险溢价将会是130000第六章：风险厌恶和资本配置风险资产14、a ．E(r C ) = 8% = 5% + y(11% – 5%) ⇒ 5.051158y =--=b ． C = y P = 0.50 15% = 7.5%c ．第一个客户更厌恶风险，所能容忍的标准差更小。
第七章：优化风险投资组合1、正确的选择是c 。
直观地讲，我们注意到因为所有的股票都有相同的期望回报率和标准差,所以我们选择股票的风险最低。
股票A 是在这股票中关联性最低的。
更正式地讲，我们注意到，当所有的股票拥有同样的预期回报率,对任一风险厌恶投资者的最优资产组合是整个方差最小的资产组合。
当这个投资组合是限制股票A 和一个额外的股票,我们的目的都是为了去找G 和与包括A 的任何组合,然后选择最小方差的投资组合。
通过I 和J 这两只股票，这个G 放入回归加权公式是：)I (w 1)J (w )r ,r (Cov 2)r ,r (Cov )I (w Min Min J I 2J 2I J I 2J Min -=-σ+σ-σ=因为所有的标准偏差都是等于20%：Cov(r I , r J ) = I J = 400 and w Min (I) = w Min (J) = 0.5这个直观的结果就是一项有效边界的任何财产，也就是说，其他拥有有效的边界最小方差的投资组合的协方差本质上等于它的方差。
(否则,额外的分散投资将进一步降低方差。
) 在这种情况下，(I, J)的回归加权标准差变成：Min(G) = [200(1 + I J)]1/2这导致了直观的结果,就是因为股票D和股票A的期望与其相关性最低,而最优的投资组合就是同样得投资股票A和股票D,他们的标准偏差均为17.03%。
4、b6、c16、17、 d.18、既然股票A和股票B完全负相关,可以创建一个无风险的投资组合,这个组合,也就是说，必然是无风险利率。
未找到这样的投资组合[用wA 的比例投资在股票A上,用wB =(1 -wA)投资在股票B上],我们设定标准差为零。
以完全的负相关的组合,该组合的标准差为:P = 绝对值[w A A- w B B]0 = 5w A [10 ⨯ (1 – w A )] ⇒ w A = 0.6667无风险投资组合的预期收益率是:E(r) = (0.6667 10) + (0.3333 15) = 11.667% 所以, 无风险利率为 11.667%.26、a. 标注 OP 是指原来的投资组合, Euro 是指新股票, 以及NP 指新投资组合.i. E(r NP) = w OP E(r OP ) + w Euro E(r Euro ) = (0.9 ⨯ 0.67) + (0.1⨯ 1.25) = 0.728%ii. Cov = r ⨯σOP⨯σEuro= 0.40 ⨯2.37 ⨯2.95 = 2.7966≅ 2.80iii. σNP = [w OP2σOP2 + w Euro2σEuro2 + 2 w OP w Euro (Cov OP , 1/2Euro)]= [(0.9 2⨯ 2.372) + (0.12⨯ 2.952) + (2 ⨯ 0.9⨯ 0.1 ⨯ 2.80)]1/2= 2.2673% ≅ 2.27%b.标注 OP 指原来的投资组合, GS 指政府债券,以及NP指新投资组合.i. E(r NP) = w OP E(r OP ) + w GS E(r GS ) = (0.9 ⨯0.67) + (0.1⨯ 0.042) = 0.645%ii. Cov = r ⨯σOP⨯σGS = 0 ⨯ 2.37 ⨯ 0 = 0iii. σNP = [w OP2σOP2 + w GS2σGS2 + 2 w OP w GS (Cov OP , GS)]1/2 = [(0.9 2⨯ 2.372) + (0.12⨯ 0) + (2 ⨯ 0.9 ⨯0.1 ⨯ 0)]1/2= 2.133% ≅ 2.13%c.政府有价证券风险的增加会导致一个新组合的收益较低。
新的投资组合将是组合中个人加权平均数的数据；现有的无风险资产将会比加权平均数低。
d.这个评论是不正确的。
虽然两个证券所考虑的采用相同的情况下，各自的标准差和预期回报都是相等的,但是每一个投资组合和原来的投资是不知道的,让人很难得出结论。
举例来说,如果协方差不同,通过其他方法选择一个股票在总体上可能导致一个较低的标准差。
假设所有其他的因素都是平等的，在这种情况下,这只股票将会是很好的投资,。
e、 i. 格蕾丝清楚地表示风险的损失比她的投资回报是更重要。
采用方差(或标准差) 作为衡量风险在她的事例有严重的局限,因为标准偏差不区分正面和负面的价格浮动。
ii. 两种不同的风险可以用来取代方差的措施是：在今后一段时期内以最高和最低预期回报率的范围的回报,是以一个更大范围更大的变化的一个标志,因此更大的风险。
半方差是可以用来测量低于平均预期收益的偏差,或其他一些如零的基准。
e. 这些措施有可能优于格蕾丝的方差。
范围的收益将有助于突出展现她假设的全方位的风险,特别是她是假设的下降的部分的范围。
半方差也是有效的,因为它隐含假定投资者想减少可能低于一定的目标利率回报;在格蕾丝的案例中,目标利率将零(防止消极的收益)。
CHAPTER 9: 资本资产定价模型1. c.2. d. 根据资本资产定价模型，正常的期望收益率 = 8 +1.25(15 - 8) = 16.75%实际收益率 = 17%α = 17 - 16.75 = 0.25%3.因为股票的β值为 1.2, 那么它的期望收益率等于:6 + [1.2 ⨯ (16 – 6)] = 18%0011P P P D )r (E -+=53$P 5050P 618.011=⇒+=-4..5. 运用证券市场线的公式: 4 = 6 + (16 – 6) ⇒ = –2/10 = –0.26. a.7. E(r P ) = r f + P [E(r M ) – r f ]18 = 6 + P (14 – 6) ⇒ P = 12/8 = 1.58. a. 错误. = 0 得出的是 E(r) = r f , 而不是等于0.22、 错误.投资者所要求的风险溢价只需承担系统风险(不可分散的风险或市场风险). 总的风险包括可分散的风险.23、 错误.投资组合应该将75%的投资预算投资到市场组合,将25%投入到国库券中,才有:P = (0.75 1) + (0.25 0) = 0.759..17. d.18.20. d. [需要知道无风险利率]21. d. [需要知道无风险利率]22. a.期望收益率α股票 X 5% + 0.8(14% - 5%) = 14.0% - 12.2% =股票Y 5% + 1.5(14% - 5%) = 17.0% - 18.5% =c. i. 凯伦`克应推荐股票X给投资者使其组合变成分散性更好的股票投资组合.因为股票X对比于股票Y,有一个正的α,而股票Y是一个负的α. 在数据图形上,股票X的期望收益或风险组合位于证券市场线的上方,而股票Y的风险组合低于证券市场线.而且,依据凯伦`克的顾客的个性风险偏好,较低β值的股票X对整个投资组合的风险有一个有利的影响.ii. 凯伦`克应推荐股票Y.因为它比股票X有较高的预测收益率和较低的标准差.股票X,股票Y和市场指数各自的夏普比率如下:股票 X: (14% - 5%)/36% = 0.25股票 Y: (17% - 5%)/25% = 0.48市场指数: (14% - 5%)/15% = 0.60市场指数有一个比其他两只股票更吸引人的夏普比率,但要在股票X和股票Y之间选择的话,股票Y更适合.当一只股票被作为单一股票投资组合而持有的时候,标准差是一个测量相关风险的工具.对于一个这样的投资组合,用β作为风险测量的工具是没有意义的.尽管持有的单一资产不是典型推荐的投资策略,当一些投资者持有他们公司的股票时,可能会持有必需的单一股票资产投资组合.对于这样的投资者,用标准差还是β作为测量工具是一个重大的争论.23.25. d.26.29. a. 同意.里根的结论是正确的.通过定义可以知道,市场投资组合位于资本市场线上(CML).在资本市场理论的假设下,所有的投资组合都由CML支配.在一个风险-投资模型里,投资组合在马科维茨的有效资产前沿上,因为,在杠杆作用允许的情况下,CML创造了一个投资组合可能性边界,它高于所有在有效前沿上的点,除了市场投资组合,即彩虹投资组合.老鹰投资组合位于马科维茨的有效前沿上,但并不是市场投资组合.所有彩虹投资组合要优于老鹰投资组合.b.非系统性风险是通过持有充分分散的投资组合而使风险分散的投资组合中单个股票的技术性风险.总的风险由系统性风险(市场风险)和非系统性风险(公司特有的风险)构成.不同意.威尔森的观点是错误的.因为两个投资组合都在马科维茨的有效前沿上,老鹰和彩虹投资组合都没有任何的非系统性风险.因此,非系统性风险不会解释不同的期望收益.其中的决定性因素是彩虹投资组合在资本市场线上,与无风险资产和市场投资组合(彩虹)相连接,并与马科维茨的有效前沿相切,在切点上可以得到每一单位风险上的最高收益.威尔森的观点也可以用这样的事实推翻,因为非系统性风险可以通过分散而使其消失,那么在承担非系统性风险的期望收益为0。
事实的结果,分散化投资的投资者会将每一资产的价格提升到只有系统风险获得一个正的收益的点上.非系统性风险不获得收益.30. E(r) = r f + β × [E(r M ) − r f ]福克曼公司: E(r) = 5 + 1.5 × [11.5 − 5.0] = 14.75%戛坦公司: E(r) = 5 + 0.8 × [11.5 − 5.0] = 10.20%如果预测的收益率小于(大于)必要收益率,那么这一证券就是被高估的(被低估).福克曼公司: 预测收益率–必要收益率 = 13.25% −14.75% = −1.50%戛坦公司: 预测收益率–必要收益率= 11.25% − 10.20% = 1.05%因此,福克曼公司是被高估的,而戛坦公司是被低估的.31. 在CAPM中,唯一的风险需要投资者承担的是不可分散的风险(即系统风险).因为两组合的系统性风险(用β测量)都等于1，投资者会期望从A和B中获得同样的回报.但是,因两组合都是充分分散化的,那么投资者中单只证券的特殊风险是高是低也没有关系了.两组合的公司的特有风险都已被充分分散化了.第10章: 套利定价理论与风险收益的多因素模型1. a. )e (22M 22σ+σβ=σ88125)208.0(2222A =+⨯=σ50010)200.1(2222B=+⨯=σ 97620)202.1(2222C =+⨯=σb.如果资产种类的数量无限，且具有相同特征,那么每种充分分散的投资组合都只有系统性风险，因为在n 很大的情况下非系统性风险会接近零。