Killtest 分享920-504 题库
Killtest 分享920-501 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. Exam: 920-501nncss-optera metro 5000 Title:Version: DEMO1. Given an alarm on an OCI circuit pack, which resource would offer the step-by-step procedure to address this situation?A. Surveillance TabB. Nortel Technical Practices (NTP)C. Application and Planning Guide (APG)D. Emergency Recovery (ER)Answer: B2. You are commissioning multiple shelves in an OPTera Metro 5200 network. The Commissioning Wizard allows you to set the time on each shelf. What is the simplest way of ensuring all shelves are configured with the same time?A. Enable NTP in the Commissioning Wizard.B. Use your own watch and enter the time at every shelf you commission.C. Make sure the laptop you are using to commission the shelves has the accurate time then tell the Wizard to use the PC's time.D. Make sure the laptop you are using to commission the shelves has the accurate time then copy-paste it to the Wizard's window.Answer: C3. You are commissioning an OPTera Metro 5200 shelf; this shelf will need to be a non-GNE Multiple IP address shelf. Which of the following Subnet Mask, Shelf IP and DHCP addresses are suitable?A. Subnet Mask = 255.255.255.255; Shelf IP = 10.1.1.1; DHCP = 10.1.1.2B. Subnet Mask = 255.255.255.252; Shelf IP = 192.168.10.49; DHCP = 192.168.10.50C. Subnet Mask = 255.255.255.252; Shelf IP = 192.168.10.51; DHCP = 192.168.10.50D. Subnet Mask = 255.255.255.255; Shelf IP = 192.168.256.7; DHCP = 192.168.256.6Answer: B4. What happens when you use an OPTera Metro 5200 reserved IP address during commissioning of a new shelf?A. The shelf restarts.B. Communication with the OPTera Metro 5200 network fails.C. The shelf assigns a default address with a broadcast subnet.D. The shelf recognizes the reserved address and assigns a default address.Answer: B5. You are configuring shelf 5, band 6 on an OPTera Metro 5200. What would be the benefit of configuring the shelf to use DHCP?A. To connect a router to the OPTera Metro 5200 shelf.B. To enable clients to receive an IP address for accessing the Internet.C. To allow the direct connection of a PC to the OPTera Metro 5200 shelf.D. To enable servers to have connectivity to the OPTera Metro 5200 network.Answer: C6. You are commissioning an OPTera Metro 5200 shelf as the GNE and the router IP address is192.168.10.1. You have configured an IP address of 192.168.10.5 with Subnet Mask of 255.255.255.252. What will be the problem?A. The shelf restarts.B. Loss of visibility of other shelves.C. No connectivity between the Router and the GNE shelf.D. The router will receive a DHCP address of 192.168.10.6.Answer: C7. You are located at a remote single shelf OADM site with no access to the PMOM management station. You need to run System Manager in order to examine active alarms on the OPTera Metro 5200 network. Your laptop is connected to the 1X Ethernet port of the OADM shelf but this shelf was not commissioned with any DHCP IP address (Network Mask of 255.255.255.255). Can you run System Manager?A. No; you will not be able to obtain an IP address via DHCPB. No; you can still obtain a 10.x.x.2 IP address via DHCP but System Manager will not run against the10.x.x.1 IP addressC. Yes; you can still obtain a 10.x.x.2 IP address via DHCP and run System Manager against 10.x.x.1; however you will ONLY be able to manage the shelf to which you are connectedD. Yes; you can still obtain a 10.x.x.2 IP address via DHCP and run System Manager against the Shelf IP address; you will be able to manage all shelves in the ring but you will not be able to connect to the DCNnetworkAnswer: D8. A software upgrade on a shelf is being implemented. You just completed transferring the new software load to the shelf. What is the next step in the upgrade process?A. Load shelfB. Restart shelfC. Commit shelfD. Upgrade shelfAnswer: D9. You have just completed a software upgrade. Which step would you NOT perform next?A. Disable the audible alarm.B. Fill out the upgrade report.C. Perform the upgrade backout.D. Put the empty ECT slots out of service.Answer: C10. You have completed an upgrade. Which statement is true regarding an audible alarm?A. The system raises an audible alarm only if protection circuitry exists.B. The system raises an audible alarm only if a power fluctuation occurs.C. The system raises an audible alarm only when the software upgrade is aborted.D. The system raises an audible alarm even if the alarm is disabled before the upgrade.Answer: D11. You are about to initiate a software upgrade. Which step would you NOT perform next?A. Restarting the shelf.B. Identifying the OFA shelves.C. Counting the number of shelves to upgrade.D. Installing and configuring OPTera Metro System Manager.Answer:A12. A field technician has reported some issues while configuring a network. After determining that the configuration is a linear OADM topology, which limitation may not have been considered?A. A maximum of eight sites is allowed.B. Only unprotected connections are supported.C. Both protected and unprotected connections are supported.D. The same wavelength band cannot be used for more than one terminal shelf pair.Answer: B13. When configuring a linear OADM network, what must be considered when applying the system layout?A. It has two terminal sites with a one-to-one correspondence.B. It has two terminating sites at each end with OADM sites in the center.C. It includes a terminal site with two OPTera Metro shelves and two OADM sites.D. East terminal shelves have a one-to-one correspondence with west terminal shelves.Answer: B14. How many protected channels can you have in a three shelf, single ring, single-banded mesh configuration?A. 3B. 4C. 6D. 12Answer: B15. What is the total protected optical system capacity for the OPTera Metro 5200 utilizing 2.5 Gbit/s circuit cards?A. 60 Gbit/sB. 80 Gbit/sC. 120 Gbit/sD. 160 Gbit/sAnswer: B16. Given the following scenario: Shelf 1 Band 1 Site 1 Hubbing group 1, Shelf 2 Band 2 Site 1 Hubbing group 1, Shelf 3 Band 3 Site 2 Hubbing group 2, Shelf 4 Band 2 Site 2 Hubbing group 2, Shelf 5 Band 1 Site 3 Hubbing group 3, Shelf 6 Band 3 Site 4 Hubbing group 4. Which type of configuration has been created?A. Meshed ringB. Hubbed-ringC. Dual hubbed-ringD. Linear point-to-pointAnswer:A17. A customer requires a cost effective point-to-point DWDM solution to transport 32 unprotected OC-3 (STM-1) signals. How many bands and what type of OCI cards would you use?A. 1 band; each shelf using 8 SRM OCI cardsB. 2 bands; each shelf using 4 SRM OCI cardsC. 8 bands; each shelf using 4 OCI 622 Mbps cardsD. 4 bands; each shelf using 8 OCI 622 Mbps cardsAnswer:A18. To perform a graduated loopback test, the first step is to initiate a _____ loopback on the near end OCI card. The next steps (in order) are to initiate a _____ loopback on the near end OCLD card, a _____ loopback on the far end OCLD card and finally a _____ loopback on the far end OCI card.A. Facility, terminal, terminal, facilityB. Terminal, facility, facility, terminalC. Facility, terminal, facility, terminalD. Terminal, facility, terminal, facilityAnswer: C19. You are adding a connection to an OPTera Metro 5200 system with two band 1 shelves. What is the channel ID of the connection if the far end OCLD is in slot 17?A. B1C2EB. B1C3EC. B1C2WD. B1C3WAnswer: C20. After you set the performance parameters threshold, you test the settings by using a test set. You can see that performance parameter counts go up as the test set generates errors. As the current count exceeds the threshold, you check for alarms in the System Manager and you don't see any. What is the probable cause for this?A. You did not reboot the OCI card.B. The performance parameter is not self-reporting.C. You did not enable the Alarm reporting functions.D. You did not enable the TCA for the performance parameter.Answer: D。
Killtest 分享920-258 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-258Title :Version : DEMONortel WLAN 2300 Rls.6.0 Planning & Engineering1. A customer is integrating a WLAN of 150 distributed Access Points into an existing network infrastructure. The existing network does not currently use DHCP, and all devices are statically assigned an IP address. What is the best way to deploy the new Nortel WLAN equipment in this configuration?A. Assign the Meridian 1 as the call server.B. Add a DNS server to the existing network.C. Add a DHCP server to the existing network.D. Assign static IP addresses to the new wireless devices.Answer: C2. A customer has multiple radios in use at their main facility. They are having problems getting the radios to work together. Which two are attributes of a radio profile? (Choose two.)A. 802.11B. EncryptionC. Auto-tuneD. SSIDAnswer:AC3. A maintenance team is using third-party monitoring equipment to monitor and control hundreds of high-pressure valves at an oil refinery. During the installation of their new WLAN IP Telephony solution, they want to deploy a device that will provide the capability of interfacing the IP Handsets to this control system? Which device will do this?A. Passport 5430B. Application Gateway 2246C. IP Telephony Manager 2245D. WLAN Security Switch 2350Answer: B4. A new WLAN 2300 series customer does not use a RADIUS server. They want to use a local database to support users with AAA security. What are the three parts of AAA security? (Choose three.)A. aliasB. algorithmC. accountingD. authorizationE. authenticationAnswer: CDE5. A large call center would like to provide wireless Internet access to allow its visitors and potential clients to conduct business while visiting the site. The call center supports several Federal Government departments and security is a major concern. Which solution should be recommended?A. Create a VLAN on the call center's network, with a VPN solution.B. Create a separate network, using a wireless mesh topology, to connect visitors to the Internet.C. Create a separate network, using a Nortel 2300 Wireless solution, to connect visitors to the Internet.D. Create a VLAN on the call center network for wireless access and allow anonymous access to the wireless network.Answer: C6. A customer wants to provide network connectivity to a new building on its campus, but does not want to run cables between buildings. You determine that this can be accomplished using mesh services on the WLAN 2300 series network. Which Access Point model can support this configuration?A. 2330B. 2330-AC. 2332D. 2350Answer: C7. A new WLAN 2300 series customer has two RADIUS servers. They want to use both RADIUS servers for user authentication. What is a benefit of this type of solution?A. loggingB. scalabilityC. shared solutionD. authentication solutionAnswer: B8. A large corporation in the United States has expanded into two other countries. The new locations have been completely built for a solution that requires complete wireless access for voice and data. The complete world-wide solution will require at least 200 wireless Access Points (APs) to provide 100 percent coverage for all three campuses. Considering the WLAN Security Switch 2380 can handle up to a maximum of 120 APs, which statement is true?A. They would have to establish three completely separate WLAN 2300 based wireless networks.B. They should maintain a wired network at its headquarters and only implement wireless at its expansion locations.C. They can network multiple Security Switch 2380 systems together and use distributed APs to create a global wireless network.D. The corporate headquarters in the United States should use a WLAN 2350 solution, integrate the two new locations, and use a WLAN Security Switch 2380 solution.Answer: C9. A new WLAN 2300 series customer does not use an external RADIUS server. Because they are concerned about security, they are attracted to the WLAN Security Switch (WSS). Which two methods of security are available on a WSS? (Choose two.)A. VSAB. EAPC. MACD. VLANAnswer: BC10. A new WLAN 2300 series customer uses a RADIUS server and has a local database on a different server. They want the RADIUS server to be used for security on the WLAN, using the database and mutual authentication. What is required on the RADIUS server?A. certificatesB. user namesC. client namesD. mutual ID numbersAnswer:A。
Killtest 分享920-093 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-093Title :Version : DemoCommunication Server 1000 Rls.5.0 System Admin &Mgmt1. A customer has just deployed a new Communication Server 1000 Rls. 5.0 system. You have been instructed to change the default Level 2 password to comply with the company's security strategy.What level password must you use to change the default Level 2 password?A. Level 1 Password (PW1)B. Level 2 Password (PW2)C. Level 3 Password (PW3)D. Limited Access to Overlays Password (LAPW)Answer: B2. A customer has deployed a Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0 system at their site. Element Manager is not yet available. When using the Command Line Interface (CLI) to configure the system, you encounter the following system message:OVL0000.What is the meaning of this system message?A. A telephone is disabled.B. There is a checksum failure.C. A user has already logged into the system.D. The requested program is not in the tape directory.Answer: C3. A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 5.0 system deployed. If using the Command Line Interface (CLI) to communicate with the system, what command is used to log into the system?A. LOGIB. REQC. LOGOD. STARTAnswer: A4. A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls.5.0 system and has requested the addition of two new passwords for general service personnel.If communicating with the system using the Command Line Interface (CLI), which Overlay (LD) would you use to add passwords, assuming you have the appropriate access permissions?A. LD 15B. LD 17C. LD 22D. LD 117Answer: B5. A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 5.0 system. When adding a digital telephone in LD 11, what four fields comprise the Terminal Number (TN) for this type of system?A. CO - DID - FX - RANB. Loop - Shelf - Card - UnitC. Power - Memory - CPU - UDATAD. Tone - Transmitter - Detector - CardAnswer: B。
Killtest 分享QQ0-200 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : QQ0-200Title:Version : DemoHDI qualified help desk senior analyst(hdsa)1. Which three are characteristics of a strategically-thinking help desk? (Choose three)A. Transactional focus.B. Reactive focus.C. Proactive focus.D. Information giving focus.E. Integrated focus.Answer: BCD2. When designing a help desk technology infrastructure, which two components are most commonly included? (Choose two)A. Interactive Voice Response.B. Web server.C. Telephony system.D. Call logging system.Answer: CD3. An upset, frustrated customer asks to speak to the help desk manager. What is your most appropriate response? (Choose 1)A. It would be easier to resolve this call if you calm down.B. I am sorry, but my manager is not available at the moment. May I get her to call you back?C. I am sorry, but my supervisor does not handle these situations, I can assist you.D. I appreciate your frustration with this; I have experienced this same problem many times.Answer: B4. When communicating with a customer, it is best to avoid _____. (Choose two)A. Apologies.B. Empathising.C. Use of slang.D. Technical terms.Answer: CD5. You are speaking to a customer who has an incident that requires you to perform further research before you can apply a resolution. You document the situation and the impact. What is the best action to take next? (Choose 1)A. Close the call.B. Develop a multi-functional team to address the situation.C. Ask your team colleagues to concentrate on this problem with you.D. Explain to the customer what will happen next.Answer: D6. Which question should you ask to best assess a customer's experience and knowledge level? (Choose 1)A. What is the error code you see?B. Have you ever had this error before?C. What were the circumstances that led to this situation?D. Have you spoken with the systems administrator?Answer: C7. Which are two characteristics of active listeners? (Choose two)A. They demonstrate sympathy.B. They use the customer's name.C. They avoid using verbal attends.D. They listen for, and recognise, emotion words.Answer: BD8. What are the two most important points to remember in order to manage a call successfully? (Choose two)A. Create a problem-solving work-flow.B. Use the same terminology as the customer.C. Clearly document the situation and the steps taken.D. Give the customer something to do.Answer: BC9. Which are two characteristics of active listeners? (Choose two)A. They acknowledge the customer.B. They know the process for escalating a problem.C. They restate/paraphrase to ensure understanding.D. They understand that evidence and reasoning are critical.Answer: AC10. What are two purposes of an on-going (event) survey? (Choose two)A. To evaluate overall satisfaction levels with products.B. To measure the quality of a single interaction.C. To assess satisfaction levels with all help desk services.D. To trend levels of customer satisfaction between annual (periodic) surveys.Answer: BD11. What are the three best methods for building rapport among departments within the support organisation? (Choose three)A. Active Networking.B. Involvement in Project management.C. Participation in company-wide events and initiatives.D. Involvement in cross-functional teams.Answer: ACD12. A help desk analyst is on the phone with a customer and does not know the solution for the problem. What is the best technique for them to use to disengage from the call? (Choose 1)A. I have the information. I will get back to you as soon as possible.B. Allow me to check this further, I will call you at 10:00 with an update.C. Let me research this, I will call you back as soon as I have a resolution.D. Permit me to check with some other members of my team, I will get back to you as soon as I review this with them.Answer: B13. What are the two most important purposes of an annual survey? (Choose two)A. To assess IT technical support.B. To evaluate overall satisfaction levels.C. To identify changes customers feel are valuable.D. To measure changes in products and services from the previous year.Answer: BC14. Which two business needs must be considered when allocating priorities? (Choose two)A. The impact on the business.B. The customers status.C. The customers location.D. Service level agreement commitments.Answer: AD15. What is the best description of multi-tasking? (Choose 1)A. Delegating all responsibility along with all tasks.B. Completing one job before starting the next one.C. Starting tasks and handing them to subordinates to complete.D. Being capable of handling a variety of problems at the same time.Answer: D16. What are two of the best ways to demonstrate confidence when on the telephone with a customer? (Choose 1)A. Using a confident tone, tell them you dont have a resolution for their incident yet but you are finding out by using the knowledgebase.B. Using a confident tone, tell the customer you are new to the desk and are transferring their call.C. Using a confident tone, ask the customer to call a 2nd line team, and provide their telephone number.D. Using a confident tone, tell the customer that you are unable to help them until tomorrow.Answer: A17. You think one of your help desk analysts is suffering from stress. Which two physical signs best indicate the analyst is experiencing stress? (Choose two)A. They have a new wardrobe of clothes.B. They seem tense and often have white knuckles.C. They bite their fingernails.D. They have a pallid complexion.E. They often seem short of breath.Answer: BE18. Why is it important to record and analyse customer complaints? (Choose 1)A. To gain insight into customer perceptions.B. To identify customers who are never satisfied.C. To prove that other IT groups are meeting customer expectations.D. To demonstrate that customers are not aware of service level agreements.Answer: A19. How can the help desk be of strategic benefit to the organisation? (Choose one)A. It increases staff levels.B. It is a useful source of information.C. It ensures rigid adherence to operational policies.D. It ensures that customers speak only to the help desk personnel.Answer: B20. You are a help desk analyst and you are having difficulty understanding a customer from another country. What is the best action for you to take? (Choose 1)A. Ask the customer if there is someone else who speaks your language more fluently who could assist.B. Ask the customer to email you instead.C. Tell the customer you are sorry but you cannot understand him, and suggest he calls back another time.D. Tell the customer you will send him a user manual.Answer: A。
Killtest 分享QQ0-100 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : QQ0-100Title :Version : DemoHDI qualified help desk analyst(hda)1. An analyst has conveyed incorrect information to a customer. Which action demonstrates personal accountability?A. The analyst has another analyst call the customerB. The analyst closes the call and moves to the next callC. The analyst calls the customer back to correct the informationD. The analyst calls the customer back and blames the incorrect information on bad documentation Answer: C2. For which two reasons do help desk's log all calls? (Choose two.)A. Allows ticket monitoringB. Measure frequency of callsC. Prove the help desk is rightD. Provide an audit trail of activitiesAnswer: BD3. In which four circumstances is it appropriate to use open questions? (Choose three.)A. When your time is limitedB. When you need to build rapportC. When you need the customer to elaborateD. When you have exhausted your possibilitiesAnswer: BCD4. Why are customer satisfaction surveys important?A. They reveal what abandon rate is acceptableB. They reveal how the help desk is perceived by the customerC. They determine the percentage of first call resolution (FCR)D. They determine what level of support the customer is receivingAnswer: B5. A customer calls with a printing problem. You start the troubleshooting process by asking some simple questions. The customer admits that this is his first time using a computer Which three questions should be used to obtain necessary information to solve the problem? (Choose three.)A. Ask the customer if he is the only one who can print to this printerB. Ask the customer if a start button or disk icon appears on the screenC. Ask the customer if he has experienced any problems recently with any other applicationsD. Guide the customer through checking the printer connection and making sure the power is turned on Answer: ACD6. What is the primary role of support service?A. To track problems and bugsB. To provide quality assistanceC. To provide technical resolutionsD. To provide the customer with a knowledge-baseAnswer: B7. A customer calls you in a frantic state. The customer has a big presentation in an hour and cannot get the presentation to print. You ask questions about the problem, but the customer keeps talking about what will happen to her if she does not have the presentation ready. Which two actions should you take to get the customer's attention? (Choose two.)A. Empathise with the customerB. Tell the customer to "snap out of it"C. Regularly use the customer's first nameD. Raise your voice when asking questionsAnswer: AC8. What are three reasons for providing consistent service? (Choose three.)A. To guarantee professionalismB. To instill confidence in your customerC. To ensure a commitment to excellenceD. To ensure empathy to customer needsAnswer: ABC9. What is a key benefit of a knowledge-base system?A. Increases call volumeB. Saves time and moneyC. Decreases network trafficD. Requires lower maintenanceAnswer: B10. What should you do to assess a customer level of knowledge? What should you do to assess a customer? level of knowledge?A. Ask open questionsB. Ask closed questionsC. Provide more detailed explanationsD. Assume the customer has a basic level of knowledgeAnswer: A11. Which two organisational characteristics are typically found in a supportive workplace environment? (Choose two.)A. High employee moraleB. Low employee turnoverC. High adherence to policiesD. Low superior-subordinate interactionAnswer: AB12. What is the number one goal of support services?A. To give technical support to anyone who callsB. To resolve all calls requiring technical supportC. To obtain information for any questions that are askedD. To keep the customer performing at the highest level possibleAnswer: D13. You are having a trouble understanding a customer with a strong accent. The first thing you should do is ______?A. Find someone else who can understand the customer betterB. Tell the customer you are having difficulty understanding themC. Ask the customer is there is someone else in their organisation for you to talk toD. Inform the customer that you cannot understand them and there is nothing you can do to help them Answer: B14. What two considerations need to be made when sharing workspace? (Choose two.)A. Maintain a clean environmentB. Discretion and courtesy when decoratingC. Share only with persons with similar likes/dislikesD. None, each person needs to take care of it themselvesAnswer: AB15. Which two are characteristics of a team player? (Choose two.)A. CourtesyB. ConformityC. ParticipationD. IndependenceAnswer: AC16. Which two are the primary purpose of an annual (periodic) survey? (Choose two.)A. Determine management bonusesB. Identify changes to products, services and processesC. Measure performance of individual analysts at the help deskD. Evaluate customer satisfaction with products, services, and personnelAnswer: BD17. Which technique will best optimise talk time?A. Analyst asks clarifying questionsB. Analyst uses business languageC. Customer should be prepared to actively listenD. Analyst adjusts to customer pace and competence level Analyst adjusts to customer? pace and competence levelAnswer: D18. What are two benefits of encouraging customers to follow standard procedures? (Choose two.)A. Improves quality and accuracyB. Helps customers make better decisionsC. Results in customers calling less frequentlyD. Keeps customers up-to-date on new applications Answer: AB19. Which three approaches help create a positive business reputation? (Choose three.)A. When you hear complaints about your organisation, change the subjectB. Have a good attitude and never speak negatively about your organisationC. See what you can do to assist any co-worker who is unhappy or experiencing problemsD. Try to have a positive and memorable effect on every person you communicate with each day Answer: BCD20. Which two are effective techniques for dealing with stress? (Choose two.)A. Take long breaksB. Set realistic goals/objectivesC. Exercise and observe good nutrition practicesD. Use high energy drinks, e.g., coffee, caffeine drinks to keep energy levels upAnswer: BC。
Killtest 分享920-240 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-240Title :Version : DEMONortel Wireless Mesh Network Rls. 2.3Implementation &Management1. Software running on a Wireless AP detects operational and functional anomalies that can cause fault conditions. On which three can the Wireless AP software detect status and problems? (Choose three.)A. DHCP leasesB. Network Time SynchronizationC. Wireless Gateway 7250 software errorD. Wireless AP FTP server misconfiguredE. Mobile node quarantine and IPsec tunnel statusAnswer: ABE2. A Wireless AP 7220 has reported a fault condition to Enterprise Network Management System (ENMS).A technician has identified and taken corrective action to resolve the alarm condition. Which action may be required to clear future traps?A. Restart ENMS to apply new parameter values.B. Reboot the Wireless AP 7220 to apply new parameter values.C. Drop and reestablish transit links to apply new parameter values.D. Reboot the Wireless Gateway 7250 to apply new parameter values.Answer: B3. What must be installed with Enterprise Network Management System (ENMS) to provide support for the Wireless Mesh Network?A. SNMP agent softwareB. Device Integrated ToolkitC. Wireless Mesh Network MIBD. ICMP polling and trap registrationAnswer: B4. A customer is using Enterprise Network Management System (ENMS) to manage fault data for a Wireless Mesh Network. Which two ways does ENMS collect this data? (Choose two.)A. Via polling by ENMSB. Via FTP server in NOSSC. Via traps sent by a deviceD. Via Syslog server in NOSSAnswer: AC5. A technician has implemented the Wireless AP@NAP, but there are problems downloading the FTP configuration. Sessions indicate that an IPsec tunnel is established. Which two statements describe possible causes of this problem? (Choose two.)A. The FTP server is not started.B. The private IP address Pool is exhausted.C. The configuration file is named incorrectly.D. There is an incorrect Default Gateway on AP@NAP.Answer: AC6. A university has provisioned a Wireless Mesh Network (WMN) for its campus. What is the packet flow for a standalone Wireless AP?A. Transit Link Up, Radius Authentication, IP received via DHCP, Config downloaded via FTP OSPF routes populate, IPsec Tunnel establishedB. Transit Link Up, Radius Authentication, IP received via DHCP, OSPF routes populate, IPsec Tunnel established, Config downloaded via FTPC. Transit Link Up, IP received via DHCP, OSPF routes populate, Radius Authentication, IPsec Tunnel established, Config downloaded via FTPD. Transit Link Up, IP received via DHCP, Radius Authentication, OSPF routes populate, IPsec Tunnel established, Config downloaded via FTPAnswer: B7. A university has provisioned a Wireless Mesh Network (WMN) for its campus. What is the packet flow for a mobile node joining the network?A. associate to a Wireless AP, authenticate through RADIUS, obtain IP address from DHCP server, register with home agent on the Wireless Gateway 7250B. associate to a Wireless AP, authenticate through RADIUS, register with home agent on the Wireless Gateway 7250, obtain IP address from DHCP serverC. associate to a Wireless AP, obtain IP address from DHCP server, authenticate through RADIUS, register with home agent on the Wireless Gateway 7250D. associate to a Wireless AP, register with home agent on the Wireless Gateway 7250, authenticate through RADIUS, obtain IP address from DHCP serverAnswer: A8. The Wireless Gateway 7250 has had a nonfatal fault condition; however, the Wireless Gateway 7250 has since been rebooted. What are two locations where information on the fault condition would be stored? (Choose two.)A. FTP serverB. ENMS Fault ManagerC. Crash file in the Wireless AP 7250D. Eventlog file on the Wireless Gateway 7250Answer: BD9. A technician has implemented the Wireless AP@NAP, but there are problems connecting to the 7250. Information in the event log indicates IPsec tunnel is not able to establish. Which two statements describe possible causes of this problem? (Choose two.)A. The MIP firewall filter was not configured.B. The AP@NAP IP address is set incorrectly.C. The IP address Pool for private IPs is exhausted.D. The user account for AP@NAP has the incorrect password.Answer: CD10. A university has provisioned a Wireless Mesh Network (WMN) for its campus. What is the packet flow for an AP@NAP joining the network?A. IPsec tunnel initiated, OSPF routes are populated, FTP session initiatedB. IPsec tunnel initiated, FTP session initiated, OSPF routes are populatedC. OSPF routes are populated, IPsec tunnel initiated, FTP session initiatedD. OSPF routes are populated, FTP session initiated, IPsec tunnel initiatedAnswer: C。
Killtest 分享NS0-510 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : NS0-510Title :Version : DEMONCIE - Backup & Recovery Implementation EngineerExam1.Which two technologies serve as the basis for SnapVault-based backups? (Choose two.)A.QSMB.VSMC.SyncMirrorD.SnapshotCorrect:A D2.Which NetApp backup and recovery solution is best for backing up remote office heterogeneous data storage?A.Snapshot copiesB.SnapManagerC.SnapVaultD.Open System SnapVaultCorrect:D3.From which three platforms does Open Systems SnapVault support backup and restore? (Choose three.)A.IBM AIXB.SunOSC.HP HP-UXD.LinuxE.Windows NT, Windows 2000, and Windows Server 2003F.SGI IRIXCorrect:A C D4.What are three components of an Open Systems SnapVault (OSSV) installation? (Choose three.)A.Primary SystemB.Secondary SystemC.OSSV agent installed on the primary systemD.OSSV agent installed on the secondary systemApp primary systemCorrect:A B C5.The NearStore VTL provides a masking function to control Host access to virtual devices.A.TrueB.FalseCorrect:A6.The SnapVault Secondary is configured for user access of qtrees via NAS. How do you restore a file?A.by using SnapRestoreB.by using the SnapVault GUIC.by users with sufficient privilegesD.by only storage administrators with sufficient privilegesCorrect:C7.A-SIS optimization can be configured at _____.A.the volume level onlyB.the aggregate level onlyC.both the aggregate and volume levelsD.the qtree levelCorrect:A8.What are two applications that can manage Open Systems SnapVault-based backup environments via NDMP? (Choose two.)App Protection ManagerB.Legato NetworkerC.Symantec NetBackupD.Syncsort Backup ExpressCorrect:A D9.SnapVault is a disk-based backup solution that _____. (Choose three.)A.enables backup of heterogeneous primary storage systems to a NetApp secondary storage systemB.enables restoration of data from a SnapVault secondary storage system, with minimum downtime and better reliability than tape-based backup and restoreC.requires both NetApp primary and secondary storage systemsD.enables data stored on multiple NetApp storage systems to be backed up to a central secondary system as read-only Snapshot copiesCorrect:B C D10.When a SnapVault Secondary requests an incremental backup from the primary, the SnapVault Primary creates a new snapshot and compares it to the most recent ONTAP-scheduled snapshot in order to identify the changed data blocks.A.TrueB.FalseCorrect:B11.Which two events occur when a volume with qtrees is backed up using SnapVault from Primary to Secondary? (Choose two.)A.Qtrees in Primary are stored as qtrees on Secondary.B.Qtrees in Primary are stored as directories on Secondary.C.Restores of original volume from Secondary to Primary are done as a qtree.D.Restores of original volume from Secondary to Primary are done as a volume.Correct:B C12.What is the maximum number of concurrent A-SIS sessions on a NetApp controller?A.2B.4C.8D.16Correct:C13.Without the nearstore_option license installed, what are the total concurrent SnapVault transfer streams for the FAS3020/3050?A.16 for FC drives and 8 for SATA drivesB.8 for FC drives and 16 for SATA drivesC.32 for FC drives and 16 for SATA drivesD.16 for FC drives and 32 for SATA drivesCorrect:A14.Which two NetApp products support heterogeneous storage environments? (Choose two.)A.NearStore VTLB.SnapVaultC.OSSVD.StoreVaultCorrect:A C15.SnapVault supports a multi-vendor storage infrastructure environment.A.TrueB.FalseCorrect:B16.In which two situations is Snapshot the preferred strategy for backup and recovery? (Choose two.)A.when file systems or raw partitions consist of a single LUNB.when file systems span multiple LUNs via Volume Manager Enterprise or a similar productC.when selective restoration of files within the LUN is a requirementD.when offloading the majority of backup overhead from the host system is a requirementCorrect:A D17.SnapVault allows data to be _____.A.centralized for enterprise-wide data management and allows backup applications to control native backup and recovery facilities in NetApp storage systemsB.recovered from a corrupted database, application, or damaged file system in less than a minute, regardless of the size of the volume being restoredC.backed up via Snapshot and transferred on a scheduled basis to a destination NearStore applianceD.virtualized and tightly integrated with Microsoft NTFS, providing a layer of abstraction between application data and its physical storageCorrect:C18.What are three NetApp backup and recovery solutions based on Snapshot technology? (Choose three.)A.SnapVaultB.OSSVC.VTLD.SnapManager productsCorrect:A B D19.Tape backups are widely used because they are considered the most secure form of media backup.A.TrueB.FalseCorrect:B20.What is RTO?A.the amount of time that an organization will NOT have access to lost data while the data is being recoveredB.the amount of time that an organization will take to recover their dataC.the time-out period for remote device accessD.the recorded time of the data outageCorrect:AThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.。
Killtest 分享920-334 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-334Title :Version : DEMOBCM50 Rls.3.0 BCM200/400 Rls.4.0 SalesEngineering1. Which encryption method does a BCM system support when IPSec is configured on it?A. PKIB. RC4C. AESD. PPTPAnswer: C2. A customer has several remote locations that they want to securely connect through the Internet. You explain that using IPSec tunnels between these sites would provide this security; however, they are concerned about it being able to handle all of the remote locations. What is the maximum number of remote sites that can be connected to a BCM50 using IPSec tunnels?A. 10B. 12C. 14D. 16Answer:A3. Fallback is a feature that allows a call to progress when a VoIP trunk is unavailable or is not providing adequate quality of service (QoS). By enabling PSTN fallback, you allow the system to check the availability of the VoIP trunks and then switch the call to a PSTN line. For the PSTN fallback to work on a suitable bandwidth, which two statements must be true on a BCM 200 platform? (Choose two.)A. The QoS Monitor must be enabled.B. The jitter buffer must be configured.C. The Transmit threshold must be set.D. Proactive Voice Quality Monitoring (PVQM) must be enabled.E. IP sets must be configured to use the G.723 Codec.Answer:AC4. A remote user has the ability to connect to an ISP and then to a specific route into a BCM that is configured for IPSec Remote User. The remote user can also print locally even while connected remotely to the BCM. Which functionality does this describe?A. split routingB. dual routingC. split tunnelingD. dual tunnelingAnswer: C5. BCM supports a queue service discipline that allows packets to be serviced in an absolute priority fashion or using a weighted-fair-queuing scheduler. This service discipline ensures that packets in the highest priority queue are serviced quickly without starving the lower priority queues. How many quality of service (QoS) queues does BCM Rls. 4.0 support?A. 1B. 2C. 4D. 7Answer: D6. A network administrator needs to calculate the maximum number of voicemail ports required on their BCM 400 system. Which two factors should be considered when making this determination? (Choose two.)A. The range is 0 to 16 ports.B. The range is 0 to 32 ports.C. Each voicemail port requires one media channel resource.D. Each voicemail port requires two signaling channel resources.Answer: BC7. A client has a BCM 400 that is performing all IPSec processing using software. They are concerned about overloading the BCM 400 processor with IPSec traffic processing. What is the maximum number of simultaneous tunnels?A. 12 tunnelsB. 16 tunnelsC. 24 tunnelsD. 30 tunnelsAnswer: B8. In planning a network configuration for a customer there are tools available to help you with your plan. Which tool should you use to determine the specific requirements for the system design, including pricing information?A. BCM MonitorB. AppManagerC. Startup ProfileD. Enterprise ConfiguratorAnswer: D9. A customer's new system will be configured with 55 IP telephones, an IVR system and a voicemail. This system will also use over 30 analog and digital telephones. What should the DS30 split be for this customer?A. A 2/5 splitB. A 2/6 splitC. A 3/5 splitD. A 3/6 splitAnswer: C10. Which statement should be considered when you allocate DS30 channel Block resources using a 3/5 channel split configuration?A. This configuration is achieved by assigning bus two to the voice data sector.B. This configuration allocates three DS30 channel blocks to Media Bay Modules.C. This configuration may be configured during system startup using the Startup Profile.D. This configuration may be used to accommodate increased IP telephony or VoIP trunk requirements. Answer: D。
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The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. Exam: 920-504
Carrier Ethernet Operations Title:
Version: DEMO
1. Which mechanism provides service separation for OEL-2 based VPNs?
A. TDI
B. I-SID
C. PBT MAC
D. C-Tag + P-Tag
Answer:A
2. Which mechanism provides service separation for 802.1ad based VPNs?
A. P bit
B. P-Tag
C. C-TAG
D. MiM header
Answer: B
3. Which mechanism provides service separation for 802.1ah PBB-based VPNs?
A. TDI
B. I-SID
C. B-VID
D. C-TAG
Answer: B
4. Which one of the following features consists within the PBT Trunk group protection?
A. No reversion is possible
B. Static Primary PBT Trunk
C. Dynamic Backup PBT Trunk
D. Dynamic Primary PBT Trunk
Answer: B
5. Which mechanisms are used when PBT Trunks forward traffic?
A. IP Address + MAC
B. Port MAC + PBT MAC
C. PBT VLAN + Port MAC
D. PBT MAC + PBT VLAN
Answer: D
6. Which MERS 8600 component processes 802.1ag Ethertype Frames for the PBT Trunks?
A. UNI
B. Super Mezz
C. R Module Processor
D. ESM 8668 port Processor
Answer: B
7. Which hardware requirement for the MERS 8600 will enable the use of PBT?
A. ESM 8668
B. ESM 8692
C. 8692 without Super Mezz
D. 8630 and/or 8683 R Modules
Answer: D
8. Which of the following is true regarding PBT Trunks?
A. PBT Trunks rely on STP for resiliency.
B. PBT Trunks are addressed to port MACs.
C. A PBT trunk uses a single bidirectional PBT VLAN.
D. A PBT Trunk consists of a pair of unidirectional PBT VLANs.
Answer: D
9. A Carrier is creating OEL2 TLS-Switched VPN service for a Customer. All port-based VLAN provisioning has already been completed. Under which OEL2 parameter would you reference the SP-VLAN that the VPN traffic will be forwarded through the CE Core?
A. UNI
B. TDI
C. UNI End-point
D. TDI End-point
Answer: B
10. A Customer wishes to separate its traffic, based on its 802.1Q VLAN ID upon ingress to the CE Network. Which UNI type is required to support this?
A. Q-n-Q1
B. Q-n-Q2
C. TLS-Switched
D. TLS-Transparent
Answer: C。