Killtest 分享JN0-570 题库
Killtest 分享2B0-020 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. Exam: 2B0-020ES NetSight AtlasTitle:Version: DEMO1. Which of the following device communication methods is used by MIB Tools?A. SNMPv1B. SNMPv3 CredentialC. SNMPv3 ProfileD. Max Access/Super UserE. All of the aboveF.A and C onlyAnswer: E2. Which of the following definition(s) best describes the difference between managers and agents in SNMPv1 and SNMPv3?A. In SNMPv1, the manager and agent were distinctly different but performed overlapping functions. Managers resided on workstations; agents on remote devices.B. In SNMPv3, a distributed interacting collection of SNMP entities can reside on both management workstations and remote devices. Because each entity implements a portion of SNMP capability, an entity can act as an agent, a manager, or a combination of the two.C. In SNMPv1, the manager and agent were distinctly different and performed discrete functions: the manager ran applications; the agent provided functionality. Managers resided on workstations; agents on remote devices.D.Aand BE.B and CF.All of the aboveAnswer: E3. A MIB not supported on all devices should be assigned to which SNMP Request Group, when defininga FlexView?A. Group 1B. Group 2C. Group 3D. Group 4E. All of the aboveF. B or C onlyAnswer: F4. What are the three predefined groups in Inventory Manager Network Elements?A. Chassis, Device Type and IPB. Chassis, Matrix and X-PeditionC. Matrix, SmartSwitch and X-PeditionD. Matrix, X-Pedition and IPAnswer:A5. How can network masks be displayed in CIDR notation in Router Services Manager?A. By selecting CIDR in the Network Mask option of Tools > OptionsB. By selecting CIDR in the device properties windowC. By selecting Dot Delimited in the Display option of Tools > OptionsD. It is not possible to have network masks displayed in CIDR notationAnswer:A6. The MIB Tools Utility allows you to do all of the following, EXCEPTA. View object definitionsB. Set object valuesC. Change IP addresses on devicesD. Search for objectsE. Browse the MIB databaseAnswer: C7. Which of the following statements are true about FlexViews?A. You can use the FlexView editor to define as many FlexViews as you want.B. You can create custom tabs to display desired MIB information.C. The FlexView Wizard is not available with Atlas Lite.D. All of the aboveE. A and C onlyAnswer: D8. What is the name of the file that defines the absolute path to your NetSight Plug-In applications?A. PlugIn.detailsB. commonC. NetSight.propertiesD. Atlas.configAnswer: C9. The relationship among remote devices in each map is automatically generated by Console when you click the Retrieve button.A. TrueB. FalseAnswer: B10. What are the three tabs in the left panel of Inventory Manager?A. Devices, Traps, ArchivesB. Network Elements, Firmware Management, Configuration ManagementC. Details View, Archives, ChassisD. Properties, VLAN, CompassAnswer: BThis document was created with Win2PDF available at . The unregistered version of Win2PDF is for evaluation or non-commercial use only. This page will not be added after purchasing Win2PDF.。
Killtest 分享HP0-053 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : HP0-053Title:Version : DemoEnterprise Integration and Management of HP ProLiant Servers1. What is the highest level of availability that a standard HP ProLiant DL380 G3 server with just internal storage can provide?A.Availability Level 1B.Availability Level 2C.Availability Level 3D.Availability Level 4Answer: B2. The default setting in HP Rapid Deployment Pack uses a unique identifier for a system booting into the PXE server.Which type of unique identifier is recommended?A.NIC hardware addressB.system serial number onlyC.memory modules' serial numberD.chassis part number and serial numberAnswer: B3. Which environments require an HP Performance Management Pack (PMP) license? (Select three.)A.PMP reporting serverB.monitored x86 Linux serverC.PMP online analysis serverD.monitored MSA SAN storageE.monitored ia32 Windows serverAnswer: BDE4. Which ProLiant Essentials Software helps discover performance bottlenecks during the site survey portion of a customer needs analysis?A.Rapid Deployment Pack (RDP)B.HP Systems Insight Manager (SIM)C.Workload Management Pack (WMP)D.Performance Management Pack (PMP)Answer: D5. A customer wants to install several new servers. The customer wants to minimize the total cost of ownership per server.Which ProLiant solution best meets this requirement?A.Density Line (DL)B.Clustering solution (CL)C.Maximized solution (ML)D.BladeSystem solution (BL)Answer: D6. What is the maximum number of NIC ports supported in HP ProLiant Dual Channel Teaming?A.4B.8C.12D.16Answer: B7. What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be configured on an HP ProLiant server NC-series network with adapter teaming?A.1024B.2048C.4094D.8190Answer: C8. Which software program controls and dynamically allocates system resources to enable application consolidation and performance optimization on Windows 2003 server platforms?A.HP Workload Management PackB.HP Systems Insight Manager (SIM)C.HP OpenView Network Node ManagerD.Performance Management Pack (PMP)Answer: A9. In Windows, which tool lists various system performance statistics such as processor and memory usage?A.UltrasoundB.Task ManagerC.Application Center Monitoring ServiceD.Terminal Server Licensing Server ViewerAnswer: B10. If a customer has a combination of sequentially accessed files and randomly accessed files, what is the best way to increase performance?A.Add more NICs.B.Add processors and memory.C.Increase the size of the page file.D.Isolate the sequentially accessed files to their own sets of disks.Answer: D11. Instant Support Enterprise Edition allows you to proactively monitor and diagnose which three operating systems? (Select three.)A.IBM AIXB.NonStopC.HP-UX 11iD.OpenVMSAnswer: BCD12. What can be used to configure the advance parameters in iLO2?A.iLO2 Setup UtilityB.iLO2 web interfaceC.HP Smart Start CDD.SNMP set commandAnswer: B13. Which utility is used to update the Radia patch management database?A.HP VPM Acquisition UtilityB.Microsoft Windows Update UtilityC.HP Intelligent Networking Patch UtilityD.Microsoft System Console Update UtilityE.HP Version Control Repository Manager UtilityAnswer: A14. Instant Support Enterprise Edition (ISEE) allows you to proactively manage and support which operating systems? (Select three.)A.NovellB.HP-UXC.IBM AIXD.OpenVMSE.Sun SolarisAnswer: BDE15. Which firmware component is built into HP tape drives that allows the tape drive to emulate a SCSI CD-ROM drive for booting?A.Virtual Tape EmulatorB.Tape Emulater optionC.Instant Boot RecoveryD.One-Button Disaster RecoveryAnswer: D16. What is the maximum number of physical processor modules supported in ProLiant BL 20p blade servers?A.2B.4C.6D.8Answer: A17. HP Rapid Deployment Pack licenses are bundled with which x86 ProLiant servers?A.BL seriesB.DL seriesC.ML seriesD.TC seriesAnswer: A18. Which feature is supported in a Modular System Array (MSA) 1000?A.SAN-to-NAS migrationB.MSA20 capacity expansionC.limited Windows OS supportD.Selective Storage Presentation (SSP)Answer: D19. What is a characteristic of an MSA1000?A.allows MSA20 capacity expansionB.supports only Windows Server 2003C.provides 2Gb Fibre Channel connectivity supportD.migrates from SAN to NAS by adding iSCSI I/O portsAnswer: C20. Two arrays are configured on one Smart Array 6400 (SA6400) controller channel. One array consists of two Ultra 320 and three Ultra 3 hard drives and the other array consist of three Ultra 320 and two Ultra 3 hard drives. With a mix of Ultra 320 and Ultra 3 hard drives, what will help increase performance in the Ultra 320 storage subsystem?A.Do nothing because all hard drives will run at Ultra3.B.Add two port expansion modules (SA6400 EM).C.Keep Ultra 320 and Ultra 3 hard drives in separate SCSI channels.D.Keep Ultra 320 hard drives and Ultra 3 hard drives in separate arrays.Answer: D21. In an HP ProLiant ML370 G3 server with a SmartArray 6402 controller, you have the following configuration:Array A is connected to two Ultra320 SCSI drives and three Ultra3 SCSI drives on SCSI Bus 0.Array B is connected to three Ultra320 SCSI drives and two Ultra3 SCSI drives on SCSI Bus 1.All SCSI drives have the same raw capacity.How do you increase the performance in the storage subsystem?A.add two port expansion modules (SA6400 EM)B.replace all Ultra3 drives with Ultra320 SCSI drivesC.keep Ultra320 and Ultra3 hard drives in separate SCSI channelsD.keep Ultra320 hard drives and Ultra3 hard drives in separate arraysAnswer: D22. Which networks offer resilient solutions such as open systems, fast backup and restore, and high reliability?A.Local Area Networks (LAN)B.Wide Area Networks (WAN)apps Area Networks (NAN)D.Storage Area Networks (SAN)Answer: D23. Which networking technologies are used in SANs? (Select three.)A.iATAB.iSCSIC.CIFSD.FCIPE.FC FabricAnswer: BDE24. Which shared storage solution is used by the HP ProLiant Packaged Cluster and is end-to-end SCSI-based?A.MSA30B.MSA500C.MSA1000Answer: B25. Which HP ProLiant Packaged Cluster solution uses end-to-end SCSI based technology?A.HP ProLiant Cluster HA/F500B.HP ProLiant DL380 Packaged Cluster with MSA1000C.HP ProLiant DL380 Packaged Cluster with MSA1000D.HP ProLiant DL380 Packaged Cluster with MSA500G2Answer: D26. Which operating systems are certified for use on the HP ProLiant Packaged Cluster? (Select three.)A.SuSE LinuxB.VMWare ESXC.Windows 2003D.Novell NetWareAnswer: ACD27. Which server is used in the ProLiant Packaged Cluster solution?A.Proliant DL320B.Proliant DL380C.Proliant DL145D.Proliant ML370Answer: B28. What is defined as the ability of a server to maintain its service level when the server encounters hardware or software failures?A.availability levelB.utility continuityC.restore capabilityD.metered capacityAnswer: A29. What is the highest Availability Level that you can achieve using ECC memory protection without using disk array technology?A.Availability Level 1B.Availability Level 2C.Availability Level 3D.Availability Level 4E.Availability Level 530. With which availability level does a server use only ECC memory?A.Availability Level 1B.Availability Level 2C.Availability Level 3D.Availability Level 4Answer: A。
Killtest 分享190-833 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 190-833Title :Version : DEMOCreating ponents Using IBM WorkplaceDesigner 2.51.Troy wants very granular control of the data elements he places on his forms. Which of the following are properties he can control using the schema Properties panel?A.Basics, Connections, Constraints, and ValuesB.Basics, XSD Validation, Security and ConnectionsC.Basics, Security, Enumerate Values and ConstraintsD.Basics, Enumerate Values, Constraints, and AnnotationCorrect:D2.Tom has noticed that when opening a form with the Properties panel open, it defaults to the text properties on the form. How can he view the Form properties?e the menu item Form-PropertiesB.Right click on the form in the forms list and choose PropertiesC.Change the context by clicking on the form and choosing Form Propertiese the arrow control on the top right of the Properties panel to switch contextCorrect:D3.Sean wants to define a data element and have users choose from a specific list of available values. Which of the following should he do to accomplish this in the element's schema definition?A.Specify a pattern for element value matchingB.In the form layout, specify a schema override definitionC.Define values in the Enumerate Values tab of the element Properties panelD.Associate the element with a constraint set in the drop-down element type choiceCorrect:C4.Ellen created a schema data element early in her project, before she had established standards. Now she wants to rename the data element. Where can this performed?A.In the associated component scriptB.While placing the schema element on a formC.While defining the available values for a computed view columnD.In the Basics tab of the Properties panel of the schema elementCorrect:D5.Julian wants to create a new Workplace application using Workplace Designer. He will create a component. Which of the following sets of design elements properly describes the high-level design elements in a component?A.Forms, views, images and buttonsB.Forms, schemas, scripts and imagesC.Forms, images, schemas and templatesD.Forms, templates, schemas and UI design controlsCorrect:B6.As Sean is defining a data element using a schema, he wants to place some boundaries on how it is used. Where is this accomplished?A.UI controls paletteB.On a form where the data element is usedC.Element Constraints tab of Properties paletteD.In the right-click menu of the schema elementCorrect:C7.George has completed his schema definitions, and a new requirement has surfaced to adddefault values to several edit controls. Where is this option found?A.Only in the XSD text editorB.In the list of schema elementsC.On each form where the element is usedD.On the schema element properties paletteCorrect:D8.As George is building a new schema, he creates an element of the type Integer. He has several options for its properties. Which of the following is a valid option for the element as defined at the schema level?A.Set the display typeB.Set the text color and styleC.Associate with a data entry controlD.Define element events and program them using the Script EditorCorrect:C9.As Sean completes his schema, he realizes that much of the data his users will enter will be copied and pasted, and some imported, potentially adding whitespace to the data. What are his options for dealing with whitespace?A.Remove all, replace with spaces, or preserve allB.Remove all, replace with delimiters, or preserve allC.Trim ending spaces, trim beginning spaces, or preserve all spacesD.Remove all, preserve all, or activate a script to handle the whitespaceCorrect:A10.When Melissa creates a new schema element, there are options for the relationship of the element to the schema or other elements. Which of the following are valid schema element relationships?A.Child onlyB.Sibling onlyC.Descendent or parentD.Parent-child or siblingCorrect:D。
Killtest 分享E20-670 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : EMC e20-670Title :Version : DEMONetworked Storage-CAS Installat'n/TroubleshootingSpecialst1. Which network topology best describes how EMC Centera nodes are networked together?A. BusB. MeshC. RingD. StarAnswer: D2. How many leading bits are used to determine the class of an Internet address?A. 3B. 4C. 8D. 16Answer: C3. In the OSI model, which layer would a router be defined in?A. Data linkB. NetworkC. Network interfaceD. TransportAnswer: B4. Which layer of the OSI model does FTP use?A. ApplicationB. Data linkC. NetworkD. TransportAnswer: A5. What are four layers in the ARPA (TCP/IP) architecture?A. Application, session, transport, and physicalB. Application, transport, network, and network interfaceC. Presentation, network, data link, and network interfaceD. Presentation, transport, data link, and physicalAnswer: B6. Which port number is used to communicate to an SMTP server?A. 20 or 21B. 22C. 25D. 321Answer: C7. What is the key element in SMB solutions?Select the best response.A. They provide the lowest possible cost.B. They reduce the cost and complexity associated with multiple services in a single device.C. They reduce complexity by eliminating features.D. Consumer-level products are suitable for SMB needs.E. Reliability is not important since replacement products are inexpensive.Answer: B8. Which technology is best deployed to meet the needs of users who desire secure remote access to corporate resources?Select the best response.A. VPN-enabled routersB. Cisco Security AgentC. Cisco Adaptive Security AppliancesD. Cisco Adaptive Security Device ManagerE. Cisco Intrusion Prevention SystemAnswer: C9. Which three products are targeted primarily for deployment in enterprise environments? (Choose three.)Select 3 response(s).A. Cisco 1800 Series ISRsB. Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series SwitchesC. Cisco Catalyst 2960 Series SwitchesD. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series SwitchesE. Cisco 7200 Series RoutersF. Cisco 2800 Series ISRsAnswer: BDE10. What type of approach is used to deploy, operate, and optimize Cisco solutions?Select the best response.A. Lifecycle advantagesB. Lifecycle servicesC. Lifestyle servicesD. Lifestyle advantagesE. Lifetime advantageAnswer: B11. On what type of network does the Cisco Unified Communication system reside?Select the best response.A. Independent voice, video, and data networksB. Voice networks onlyC. A single, joined voice, video, and data networkD. Data networks onlyE. Wireless networks onlyAnswer: C12. What are the three commonly recognized top-level business drivers for data centers? (Choose three.) Select 3 response(s).A. Protecting the business from information outagesB. A need to decentralize IT assetsC. Increasing the rate of adoption of new, nonstandardized technologiesD. Optimizing the efficiency with which IT operatesE. An increased need for specialized IT silosF. Growing IT systemsAnswer: ADF13. Which type of deployment utilizes ISRs with Cisco IOS Security feature sets to provide an ideal, low-cost, yet capable and powerful platform?Select the best response.A. Small deploymentsB. Large deploymentsC. Medium deploymentsD. Commercial deploymentsE. Financial deploymentsAnswer: A14. Which stage of Cisco Lifecycle Services comprises services that ensure the design and deployment of the desired network functionality?Select the best response.A. PrepareB. PlanC. DesignD. ImplementE. OperateAnswer: D15. Which three of the following are benefits of Cisco TAC? (Choose three.)Select 3 response(s).A. Direct or indirect access to the global Cisco TAC organizationB. The ability to access teams of expertsC. Onsite engineering supportD. Minimizes risks associated with network downtimeE. Upgrades from base Cisco IOS Software to advanced feature set Cisco IOS SoftwareF. Project management and planning supportAnswer: ABD16. Which program has been specifically designed for small-sized and medium-sized businesses and provides easy, cost-effective network support to help ensure reliable operations, contain costs, andprotect their investments?Select the best response.A. Cisco Software Application Support ServicesB. Cisco Focused Technical Support ServicesC. Cisco Smart Foundation ServiceD. Cisco SP BaseE. Cisco SMARTnet OnsiteAnswer: C17. Which tool provides a complete guide that makes it easier for partners, regardless of their experience level, to sell Cisco Unified Communications solutions to their customers?Select the best response.A. Solution ExpertB. Quote BuilderC. Sales AcceleratorD. Competitive EdgeE. Cisco DiscoveryAnswer: C18. Which portal provides timely and concise information for sales professionals in competitive situations? Select the best response.A. Solution ExpertB. Quote BuilderC. Sales AcceleratorD. Competitive EdgeE. Cisco DiscoveryAnswer: D19. What resource allows Cisco partners to get funding for preapproved activities, such as catalogs, yellow pages, events, trainings, e-mail blasts, and advertising?Select the best response.A. Solution ExpertB. Quote BuilderC. Joint Marketing FundD. Cisco DiscoveryE. Steps to SuccessAnswer: C20. What feature does the Partner E-Learning Connection provide?Select the best response.A. Full versions of all Cisco technical-level classesB. Live instructor-led, web-based classesC. Flexible, web-based knowledge and learningD. Hosted website that partners use to deliver e-learning to customersE. Lists of training-partner class offerings Answer: C。
Killtest 分享920-805 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-805Title :Version : DEMONortel Data Networking Technology1. A manufacturing company is building a new plant. The equipment in the plant has been known to cause interference with the network at other sites and they want to be sure that they choose a media that is resistant to electrical interference. Which type of cable should they use?A. thick coaxial cableB. fiber optic cableC. unshielded twisted pairD. plenum twisted pairAnswer: B2. A department was moved from one floor to another. When the department was on the old floor, the users connected through a mixture of 10 Mb hubs and 10/100 Mb switches. When the department was moved all the hubs were replaced by 10/100 Mb switches.Two of the users are reporting that the network is much slower on the new floor even though the hubs were replaced. You discover that the switch ports these users connect to were used to connect to the hubs and are manually configured for 10Mb half-duplex. The PCs were connected to the switch and were manually configured for 100 Mb full-duplex.What could have been done to avoid this issue?A. Auto-negotiation only needed to be enabled on the switch.B. Auto-negotiation should have been enabled on the switch ports and on the PCs.C. Auto-sensing only needed to be enabled on the switch.D. Auto-sensing should have been enabled on the switch ports and on the PCs.Answer: B3. A corporation has decided to save money and buy remanufactured IP telephones. They purchased Phase 1 (One) IP telephones that do not support Power-over-Ethernet (PoE). The Ethernet Switches they purchased do supply PoE per the IEEE 802.3af specifications.Which statement regarding the Phase 1 IP telephones is true?A. They must be plugged into AC power outlets to function.B. They can use a power splitter to receive both power and data from the Ethernet Switch.C. They can use a power splitter to receive both power and data from the Ethernet Switch, but must alsobe attached to an AC outlet to boot and acquire an IP address.D. They must be plugged into AC power outlets to boot and acquire an IP address. After the telephone is operating, it can operate off the Ethernet Switch only.Answer: B4. Which order is correct for these components in the Ethernet frame?A. destination MAC address, source MAC address, length/type field, data, FCSB. destination MAC address, source MAC address, data, length/type field, FCSC. source MAC address, destination MAC address, length/type field, data, FCSD. source MAC address, destination MAC address, data, length/type field, FCSAnswer: A5. Which statement about broadcast domains and collision domains is false?A. When a connection is Ethernet full-duplex, the collision domain only contains two devices.B. When a connection is Ethernet full-duplex, the broadcast domain only contains two devices.C. When a hub is used to connect devices, all ports are in the same collision domain but not in the same broadcast domain.D. When a switch with multiple VLANs is used to connect devices, all ports are in the same broadcast domain.Answer: B6. Which function do Route policies on the Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) perform?A. Route policies can flush and clear the IP routing table.B. OSPF redistribute function is used to propagate OSPF routes within a single area.C. RIP announce policies determine how RIP learned routes are represented in the routing table.D. BGP redistribute function may be used to advertise OSPF learned routes using BGP.Answer: D7. Equal Cost MultiPath (ECMP) provides the ability to load-balance Layer 3 links and also to provide redundancy. When ECMP is enabled, which set of criteria initiates its use?A. OSPF and RIP have no overlapping network advertisements.B. OSFP or RIP have learned duplicate routes with the same cost or metric.C. OSPF and RIP have identical network advertisements with the same cost.D. OSPF and RIP are used in parallel with network advertisements with different costs.Answer: B8. You are configuring a static route on an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS). Which parameter must you specify? A.an IP address for device management purposes B.an interface IP address in the routing table for loop back C.an interface IP address of the next-hop router as a destination in the routing table D.an IP address for a network to be listed in the routing table by the network manager You are configuring a static route on an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS). Which parameter must you specify?A. an IP address for device management purposesB. an interface IP address in the routing table for loop backC. an interface IP address of the next-hop router as a destination in the routing tableD. an IP address for a network to be listed in the routing table by the network managerAnswer: D9. An Ethernet Routing Switch is building the routing table using default route precedence values. As it considers routes from various sources, which set of criteria does the routing table use to build its information?A. All sources are considered in a Weighted Round Robin order.B. RIP routes are considered at a higher precedence value than OSPF.C. OSPF routes have a lower precedence value than Static routes.D. BGP routes are always listed first and most important in the IP Routing Table.Answer: B10. You are designing a large network and are using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) for its efficiency with convergence times and its amount of traffic control. Which statement describes how OSPF accomplishes this?A. The metric is dynamic for each link.B. The metric is independent of the link speed.C. The metric reflects the link speed.D. The metric is the same regardless of link speed. Answer: C。
Killtest 分享920-451 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-451Title :Version : DEMOncde callpilot 2.x/3.0 unified messaging1. A customer has a network that contains several Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls 4.0 systems. They are networked together via Virtual Trunks. The customer has limited bandwidth on the WAN links between sites and has an Optimized WAN link to carry Voice calls that use G.729A. Which configuration setup will ensure that G.729 is always used on a virtual trunk call between sites?A. No extra configuration is needed. Virtual Trunk calls always use G.729A CODEC.B. ? configure the virtual route to be in same zone as voice gateway channels and IP sets ? verify that the customer has G.729A as part of CODEC profile ? verify all zones at the site are configured with best quality for intrazone calls and best bandwidth for interzone callsC. ? virtual route is configured to be in different zone than the voice gateway channels and IP sets ? verify the customer has G.729A as part of CODEC profile ? ensure all zones at the site are configured with best quality for intrazone calls and best quality for interzone callsD. ? the virtual route is configured to be in a different zone than voice gateway channels and IP Sets for each system ? verify the customer has G.729A as part of CODEC profile ? ensure all zones at the site are configured with best quality for intrazone calls and best bandwidth for interzone callsAnswer: D2. A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 4.0 that they want to network with two other sites using the corporate WAN. Why must zones be configured with Element Manager before the Virtual Routes? (Choose two.)A. Zones determine NCOS privileges on a given trunk.B. Zones govern trunk groupings for TGAR assignment.C. Zones help determine Best Bandwidth CODEC per virtual trunk call.D. Zones manipulate CODEC selections and assigns bandwidth to a route.E. Zones provide call blocking based on Bandwidth defined for inter- and intra-zone calls.Answer: CE3. A customer has installed two Communication Server (CS) 1000M Rls.4.0 systems networked over the corporate WAN. Some of the system management functions of the CS 1000M can be performed by the Command Line Interface (CLI) as well as Element Manager. Which is a false statement regarding the use of Element Manager (EM) over the CLI?A. EM provides for drop down menus for prompt choices.B. EM provides full text descriptions of parameters and acronyms.C. EM allows the programmer to use the LD commands as well as using menus.D. EM increases speed and efficiency be organizing parameters to logical groups.Answer: C4. A customer has just installed a Communication Server (CS) 1000M system. The CS 1000M is networked via the corporate WAN with several offices around the country. BARS is configured correctly for all telephones to use this route and the Virtual Trunks show IDLE. Traffic studies have shown that the majority of calls to remote locations are going out via the PSTN route instead of the virtual route. What in the configuration could cause this situation?A. CODEC is not assigned to the Virtual Trunk RouteB. Bandwidth is incorrectly defined in the Zone Basic PropertyC. CODEC not defined for the zone in the Zone Basic PropertyD. Bandwidth is not defined for the Virtual Trunk Route and member trunksAnswer: B5. A customer is installing a Communication Server (CS) 1000M-SG Rls. 4.0 at their Main Office (MO). They have a 10-member network using the corporate WAN and a Primary Gatekeeper. They want to use an Alternate Gatekeeper for redundancy. When are the Alternate Gatekeepers programmed? (Choose two.)A. during software installation and initial setup of the Signaling ServerB. in Overlay LD 17 (Configuration) under the ADAN as an ELAN IP addressC. in Overlay LD 117 (Configuration2) as an Embedded LAN (ELAN) IP addressD. in Element Manager under the Signaling Server setting after the software has been installed Answer:AD6. A company has a multi-site Communication Server (CS) 1000M-Chassis Rls. 4.0 system. If one of the Media Gateways goes into Survival Mode, they want Manual Control to restore the Media Gateway into Normal Mode. In Overlay LD 117, which command should you use to achieve this configuration?A. Chg Surv <port> NoB. Chg Surv <port> YesC. Chg Autosb <port> NoD. Chg Autosb <port> yesE. Chg Swoto <port> <value>Answer: C7. A company has a two-site Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 4.0 system (site A and B) providing IP-PBX services.Both systems are networked via a managed IP backbone. One system is a CS 1000 Rls. 3.0 Main Office (MO) and the other is a Media Gateway 1000 Rls. 4.0 branch office (BO). You configure the networked systems to enable the following: ? Users at the MO to call BO workstations by dialing 49xxx. ? Users at the BO to call MO workstations by dialing 2xxx. Which initial configuration task should you perform using Element Manager (EM)?A. Configure an LSC of 2 and a DSC of 49 in the MO.B. Configure a DSC of 2 in the MO and configure VNR in the BO.C. Configure a DSC of 49 in the MO and configure Vacant Number Routing (VNR) in the BO.D. Configure a Local Steering Code (LSC) of 49 and a Distant Steering Code (DSC) of 2 in the BO. Answer: C8. A customer has installed a Communication Server (CS) 1000M Rls 4.0 system. Currently all 800 IP telephones at the site are registered to a single Signaling Server . This site has three installed media cards. What component(s) should be added at the site to ensure full redundancy for IP telephones?A. an additional Signaling Server must be installed and set as FailsafeB. an additional Signaling Server must be installed and programmed as FollowerC. an additional Signaling Server must be installed and programmed as AlternateD. two additional media cards to ensure that all 800 IP telephones can register to media cards if the Leader Signaling Server failsAnswer: B9. A company plans to have a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 4.0 Main Office (MO) site with one Media Gateway 1000B branch office (BO) site. The BO and MO will be connected via virtual trunks. Users at both sites will use Coordinated Dialing Plans (CDPs) to dial between the sites. They want long distance and CDP calls originating from the BO to route to the MO. All long distance calls will be tagged as international calls originating from the BO. They have no plans to expand the BO in the future. What is the most efficient way of routing calls from the BO?A. In the Gatekeeper, select the BO as the tandem endpoint for the MO.B. In the Gatekeeper, select the MO as the tandem endpoint for the MO.C. In the Gatekeeper, select the MO as the default route for CDP and international calls. All NPA ranges will need to be defined under the MO.D. In the Gatekeeper, all Numbering Plan Areas (NPAs), international numbers, and CDP steering codes should be defined under the MO.Answer: C10. A company has two Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 4.0 systems networked together with the following components: ? 800 IP Phone 2002 telephones at site A ? 600 IP Phone 2004 and 300 IP Phone 2002 telephones at site BNetwork Virtual Office is configured to enable IP telephone users to use their customized settings (i.e., autodials, key layout, etc.) on every IP telephone in the CS network. They want to use the Virtual Office Automatic Logout (VO_ALO) feature to log out all IP telephone users from their IP telephones automatically. To configure the VO_ALO feature, which task should you perform using the Command Line Interface (CLI)?A. Access Overlay LD 15, then enable VOLA.B. Access Overlay LD 15, then enable VO_ALO.C. Access Overlay LD 11, then enable VO_ALO for each Terminal Number (TN).D. Access Overlay LD 11, then enable Virtual Office Login Allowed (VOLA) for each TN.Answer: B。
Killtest 分享251-240 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 251-240Title:Version : DEMOAdministration of Storage Foundation 4.0 for UNIX1. What is the virtual object that Volume Manager uses to represent the structured or ordered collection of subdisks?A. volumeB. plexC. vmdiskD. disk groupAnswer: B2. In this volume layout the mirroring occurs below the striping or concatenation in order to mirror each column of the stripe or each chunk of the concatenation. This type of layout is called a layered volume. What is the correct RAID level for a volume layout that combines mirroring with striping or concatenation?A. RAID-1+0B. RAID-0+1C. RAID-5D. RAID-2Answer: A3. Which two virtual objects are components of a Volume Manager volume? (Choose two.)A. VM diskB. subdiskC. plexD. physical diskAnswer: BC4. Which three are characteristics of a disk group? (Choose three.)A. collection of Volume Manager disksB. eases the use of resources in a high availability environmentC. allows Volume Manager objects to span multiple disk groupsD. represents a management and configuration boundaryAnswer: ABD5. Which three plex types are valid in Volume Manager? (Choose three.)A. completeB. partialC. logD. sparseE. partitionAnswer: ACD6. Which area of a disk is used by Volume Manager to store information such as disk headers, configuration copies, and kernel logs?A. the public regionB. the private regionC. the virtual regionD. the CDS regionAnswer: B7. When using Volume Manager, what is considered the correct definition for RAID-5?A. Combines mirroring with striping or concatenation where the mirroring occurs below the striping or concatenation in order to mirror each column of the stripe or each chunk of the concatenationB. Refers to mirroring where data from one disk is duplicated on another disk to provide redundancy and enable fast recovery.C. Refers to simple concatenation or striping where disk space is combined sequentially from two or more disks or striped across two or more disks. RAID-0 does NOT provide data redundancy.D. Refers to a striped layout that includes the calculation of parity information and the striping of that parity information across the disks.Answer: D8. You have a disk group named testdg, which you want to rename to engdg. To rename the disk group from the command line, you __________.A. must destroy the disk group and then re-create the disk group using the new nameB. must use the vxdg change command, which performs a deport and an import in a single stepC. use vxdg deport followed by vxdg import, and the volumes are automatically started in the disk group after the importD. use vxdg deport followed by vxdg import, then you must manually start volumes in the disk group by using the vxvol commandAnswer: D9. You have used the vxprint command with the appropriate options to save information about the volume layouts on your system. Now, you want to use vxprint to provide useful information that can be used later as input for the vxmake command to help rebuild your volume configurations. Which option must be used with vxprint?A. -rB. -tC. -aD. -mAnswer: D10. In order to resize an existing volume and its file system in Volume Manager while it remains online, the file system must be _____.A. in the bootdg disk groupB. checked before the processC. shared across disk groupsD. mounted during the processAnswer: D11. Which command is used to move the contents of the volumes from one disk to another?A. vxremoveB. vxevacC. vxdg moveD. vxdg evacAnswer: B12. When using the New Volume Wizard in VEA, what are the two layout options available to create a layered volume? (Choose two.)A. Concatenated MirroredB. Striped MirroredC. Mirrored StripedD. Mirrored ConcatenatedAnswer: AB13. The Volume View window in VEA displays the characteristics of the volumes on the disks. After selecting a volume or disk group in VEA, how is the Volume View window displayed?A. Tools -> Volume ViewB. Tools -> Volume -> ViewC. Actions -> Volume -> ViewD. Actions -> Volume ViewAnswer: D14. You are analyzing the output of the vxdisk alldgs list command. There are no entries in the DISK and GROUPcolumns; however, you see "online" in the output of the STATUS column. Which three explain the "online" status of the disk in this scenario? (Choose three.)A. The disk is in the free disk pool.B. The disk has been initialized or encapsulated.C. The disk is NOT currently assigned to a disk group.D. The disk is currently deported on another system.Answer: ABC15. You want to track changes to files and directories in a file system to improve performance of a search engineapplication. Which VERITAS File System feature do you enable?A. the intent logB. the file change logC. the object location table fileD. the quotas fileAnswer: B16. What are three advantages of a properly configured traditional mirrored volume layout? (Choose three.)A. improved reliability and availabilityB. decreases the need for Volume Manager disksC. improved read performanceD. fast recovery through loggingAnswer: ACD17. What are three advantages of a concatenated volume layout? (Choose three.)A. removes size restrictionsB. provides load balancingC. better usage of spaceD. simplifies administrationAnswer: ACD18. What must be performed before creating an empty concatenated volume in a new disk group?A. encapsulate the volume and assign a disk groupB. initialize the disks and assign them to a disk groupC. create an empty subdisk in the disk group and assign the volumeD. in VEA, select Actions -> Volume -> Disk Group -> NewAnswer: B19. Which two commands can be used to remove a mirror from a volume? (Choose two.)A. vxassist remove mirrorB. vxdiskC. vxremove mirrorD. vxplexAnswer: AD20. You want to remove the datavol volume from the datadg disk group by using the command line. A file system is currently mounted on the volume. You are sure that you do NOT need the data in the volume. What is the appropriate sequence of steps to remove the volume and avoid system errors?A. remove the volume by using the vxremove command (The file system will be unmounted automatically, and the filesystem table file will be automatically updated to remove the entry for the file system.)B. unmount the file system, then remove the volume using vxassist remove, and then manually edit the file system tablefile to remove the entry for the file systemC. remove the volume by using the vxassist remove command (The file system will be unmounted automatically;however, you must then manually edit the file system table file to remove the entry for the file system.)D. unmount the file system, then remove the volume using vxremove, and then manually edit the file system table file to remove the entry for the file systemAnswer: B。
Killtest 分享920-234 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 920-234Title :Version : DEMONortel VPN Router Ris. 7.0 Configuration &Management(NCSS)1. A customer has a VPN Router 1750 with VPN tunneling capabilities. They want to enable subscribers to have user tunnel connections to the router. Which parameter must be configured to implement user tunnels on a VPN Router?A. a user groupB. LDAP group settingsC. password group settingsD. an IP address assignmentE. tunneling protocols settingsAnswer: D2. An engineer wants to configure a firewall policy on the VPN router, and wants to change thesystem-wide rules that are applied and processed first by the firewall. Which Stateful Firewall rules need to be modified?A. Implied RulesB. Default RulesC. Override RulesD. Interface-specific Rules.Answer: C3. Which three VPN Router models support the "SSL VPN Module 1000" hardware option card? (Choose three.)A. VPN Router 1050B. VPN Router 1100C. VPN Router 1750D. VPN Router 2750E. VPN Router 5000Answer: CDE4. A customer would like to use a VPN Router 1750 for SSL VPN and offload encryption onto multiple hardware accelerator cards. Which statement is true?A. The 1750 chassis does not support the SSL VPN module or the hardware accelerator card.B. SSL VPN module and hardware accelerator cards can not be used in the same 1750 chassis.C. The 1750 chassis does support the SSL VPN module but only a single hardware accelerator card.D. The 1750 chassis does not support the SSL VPN module but multiple hardware accelerator cards could be installed.Answer: C5. A customer has just purchased a VPN Router 1750. They want to know how much RAM it has"out-of-the-box" and if it can be upgraded. Which statement is true?A. The VPN Router 1750 chassis comes with 256MB installed and is not upgradeable.B. The VPN Router 1750 chassis comes with 128MB of RAM installed and is upgradeable to 512MB.C. The VPN Router 1750 chassis comes with 256MB of RAM installed and is upgradeable to 512MB.D. The VPN Router 1750 chassis comes with 128MB of RAM installed and is upgradeable to 256MB. Answer: D6. A customer has just purchased a VPN Router. They want to know which License Keys are available and what functions each individual key enables. Which statement is true?A. The Advanced Routing key enables RIP, OSPF and VRRP functions.B. The Premium Routing key activates OSPF, VRRP, DLSw and BGP routing functions.C. The BGP Routing key enables Border Gateway Protocol routing and Data Link Switching capabilities.D. The VPN Router Stateful Firewall key enables stateful firewall capabilities but disables the standard VPN Router firewall functions.Answer: B7. On a VPN Router Rls. 7.0 system, on which two interface types can the routing protocols RIP, OSPF and VRRP be enabled? (Choose two.)A. Single HSSIB. Single or Dual V.35C. 10/100 Ethernet port, System BoardD. 10/100 Ethernet port, Expansion ModuleAnswer: CD8. Which three QoS features are available on the VPN Router? (Choose three.)A. CLIPB. DiffServC. Demand ServicesD. Forwarding PriorityE. Resource Reservation ProtocolAnswer: BDE9. Which three statements are true regarding IPSec Mobility? (Choose three.)A. VPN tunnel connections survive lost packets.B. IPSec Mobility is activated with the Advance Routing license key.C. For IPSec Mobility to work, any VPN Client version can be running.D. NAT Traversal and IPSec Fail-over will not interoperate with IPSec Mobility.E. IPSec Mobility is provisioned at the VPN Router, and the settings are pushed down from the server. Answer: ABE10. When configuring the VPN Router 1750 system, how are the management IP address and subnet mask initially configured?A. The management IP address and subnet mask are configured by using the serial interface.B. The management IP address and subnet mask will be automatically provided by a DHCP server.C. When powered up, the VPN Router will initially be configured with a default management IP address and subnet mask.D. Having the management IP address and subnet mask configured is not initially required and can be configured from a web browser at anytime.Answer: A。
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NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. Exam: JN0-570JN0-570 JNCIS-SSL EXAM Title:Version: Demo1. Which three statements are true regarding split-tunneling modes? (Choose three.)A. Choosing "Enable Split Tunneling with route change monitor" allows Network Connect to update the routing table if a route change is detected.B. Choosing "Disable Split Tunneling" forces all traffic through the Network Connect tunnel.C. Choosing "Enable Split Tunneling" will modify routes on the client so that any networks defined in the split-tunneling policy are routed through Network Connect.D. Choosing "Allow access to local subnet" will not modify the route table on the local client.E. Choosing "Enable Split Tunneling with allowed access to local subnet" requires that local resources be defined in the Network Connect access control list.Answer: BCE2. What should you do when you need to create a meeting on demand to troubleshoot a client issue?A. Schedule an on demand meeting that begins in 10 minutes.B. Schedule an instant meeting through Secure Meeting.C. Start up a support meeting.D. Start a secure meeting through the Microsoft Outlook plug-in.Answer: C3. Which statement about CRLs is true?A. CRLs are distributed automatically by the CA.B. CDP can be used to automatically validate a CRL.C. The base CRL contains only a subset of the certificates issued by a given CA.D. CRLs contain the serial number, revocation date, and reason code for withdrawn certificates. Answer: D4. What does Cache Cleaner remove by default?A. all content downloaded through the IVE Content Intermediation Engine during the user's IVE sessionB. the files in the user's Recycle Bin and the Recent Documents list at the end of the user sessionC. all temporary files created during the user's IVE sessionD. any AutoComplete usernames or passwords used during the user's IVE sessionAnswer:A5. Which three logs are used within the SA solution? (Choose three.)A. Event logB. System logC. Client-Side logD. User Access logE. Security logAnswer: ACD6. When conducting meetings with Secure Meeting, your users frequently complain about jitter in the video presentation. How might you attempt to improve performance?A. Ensure that image compression is enabled on the IVE device's Secure Meeting configuration page.B. Limit the presentation video size to 800x600 resolution on the IVE device's Secure Meeting configuration page.C. Enable the Secure Meeting acceleration feature with the optional license upgrade.D. Ensure that 32-bit presentations mode is not enabled on the IVE device's Secure Meeting configuration page.Answer: D7. Your company is rolling out Secure Meeting to assist the helpdesk in troubleshooting desktop issues. Which type of meeting should you enable on the SSL VPN?A. scheduled meetingB. technical meetingC. support meetingD. instant meetingAnswer: C8. Which three variables can be used for a username in a custom expression? (Choose three.)A. usernameB. username1C. username2D. username[1]E. username[2]Answer:ADE9. Which two statements about OCSP are true? (Choose two.)A. The IVE device is an OCSP client.B. OCSP requires the configuration of a CDP server.C. OCSP requires the use of SSL to secure certificate validation.D. OCSP provides real-time certificate verification.Answer:AD10. Which three statements are correct when configuring delegated administrator access? (Choose three.)A. Modify an existing admin URL.B. Create a new user role.C. Modify role mapping rules.D. Specify role restrictions.E. Select "delegated access" at the role level.Answer: ACD11. Click the Exhibit button.A user browses to https://.Referring to the exhibit, which authentication realm will be available to the user?A. UsersB. LDAP RealmC. ALLD. Users and LDAP RealmAnswer:A12. Which Single Sign-On (SSO) policy relies on the IVE domain name?A. SAMLB. Headers/CookiesC. Form POSTD. Basic Auth/NTLMAnswer: D13. Which three configuration data items can you export with the XML Export function? (Choose three.)A. user role mapping rulesB. policy tracing sessionsC. local users accountsD. delegated administrator rolesE. IDP sensorsAnswer: ACD14. Which statement accurately describes resource profiles?A. Resource profiles are a collection of resources and ACLs.B. Resource profiles are where ACLs are set up for resources.C. Resource profiles are a collection of resources and their descriptions.D. Resource profiles are where the resources, roles, and ACLs are in one location.Answer: D15. You have just finished creating an IVS on your device. You can log in to your IVS but you cannot access any backend resources. What should you troubleshoot first?A. Verify that you have associated your IVS to the correct virtual IP.B. Verify that you have allocated enough users for your IVS.C. Verify that you have associated your IVS to the correct VLAN.D. Verify that you are not blocked because of an untrusted certificate on the IVS.Answer: C16. Which custom expression would allow users to login only during business hours (8:00AM to 5:00PM, Monday through Friday)?A. (loginTime.day = (Mon - Fri) AND loginTime = (8:00AM - 5:00PM))B. (loginTime.dayofWeek = (Mon - Fri) AND loginTime in (8:00AM - 5:00PM))C. (loginTime.dayofWeek = (Mon - Fri) AND loginTime = (08:00 - 17:00))D. (loginTime.Weekday = (Mon - Fri) AND loginTime in (08:00 - 17:00))Answer: C17. Which three proxy scenarios are supported by Network Connect when split tunneling is enabled? (Choose three.)A. explicit proxy to get to the IVE deviceB. support for a Winsock proxy clientC. explicit proxy to get to internal applicationsD. PAC file to get to internal applicationsE. automatic setting detection is configured in the client's browserAnswer: ACD18. Which two are valid options for using CRLs to validate a user's certificate? (Choose two.)A. Use LDAP to access the CDP.B. Use the CDP specified in the CA certificate.C. Use the CDP specified in the user certificate.D. Use OCSP to access the CDP.Answer: BC19. Which two are valid regarding the deployment of an active/active cluster? (Choose two.)A. It allows you to keep configurations synchronized.B. An external load balancing system is required.C. It can be used to scale the total number of licensed users.D. A virtual IP address must be configured on only one device.Answer:AB20. Which ActiveX parameter rewrite option does the IVE support?A. rewrite hostname and portB. rewrite ClassIDC. rewrite cookies and headersD. rewrite URLAnswer: D。