国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案4

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国际财务管理课后作业答案

国际财务管理课后作业答案

《国际财务管理》章后练习题第一章【题1—1】某跨国公司A,2006年11月兼并某亏损国有企业B。

B企业兼并时账面净资产为500万元,2005年亏损100万元(以前年度无亏损),评估确认的价值为550万元。

经双方协商,A 跨国公司可以用以下两种方式兼并B企业。

甲方式:A公司以180万股和10万元人民币购买B企业(A公司股票市价为3元/股);乙方式:A公司以150万股和100万元人民币购买B企业。

兼并后A公司股票市价3.1元/股。

A公司共有已发行的股票2000万股(面值为1元/股)。

假设兼并后B企业的股东在A公司中所占的股份以后年度不发生变化,兼并后A公司企业每年未弥补亏损前应纳税所得额为900万元,增值后的资产的平均折旧年限为5年,行业平均利润率为10%。

所得税税率为33%。

请计算方式两种发方式的差异。

【题1—1】答案(1)甲方式:B企业不需将转让所得缴纳所得税;B 企业2005年的亏损可以由A公司弥补。

A公司当年应缴所得税=(900-100)×33%=264万元,与合并前相比少缴33万元所得税,但每年必须为增加的股权支付股利。

(2)乙方式:由于支付的非股权额(100万元)大于股权面值的20%(30万元)。

所以,被兼并企业B应就转让所得缴纳所得税。

B企业应缴纳的所得税=(150 ×3 + 100- 500)×33% = 16.5(万元)B企业去年的亏损不能由A公司再弥补。

(3)A公司可按评估后的资产价值入帐,计提折旧,每年可减少所得税(550-500)/5×33%=3.3万元。

【题1—2】东方跨国公司有A、B、C、D四个下属公司,2006年四个公司计税所得额和所在国的所得税税率为:A公司:500万美元 33%B公司:400万美元 33%C公司:300万美元 24%D公司:-300万美元 15%东方公司的计税所得额为-100万美元,其所在地区的所得税税率为15%。

国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案2

国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案2

CHAPTER 1 GLOBALIZATION AND THE MULTINATIONAL FIRMSUGGESTED ANSWERS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONSQUESTIONS1. Why is it important to study international financial management?Answer:We are now living in a world where all the major economic functions,i.e., consumption, production,and investment,are highly globalized。

It is thus essential for financial managers to fully understand vital international dimensions of financial management。

This global shift is in marked contrast to a situation that existed when the authors of this book were learning finance some twenty years ago. At that time, most professors customarily (and safely, to some extent) ignored international aspects of finance。

This mode of operation has become untenable since then。

2. How is international financial management different from domestic financial management?Answer: There are three major dimensions that set apart international finance from domestic finance。

国际财务管理课后习题答案

国际财务管理课后习题答案

CHAPTER 1 GLOBALIZATION AND THE MULTINATIONAL FIRM ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Why is it important to study international financial management?Answer: We are now living in a world where all the major economic functions, i。

e。

,consumption,production,and investment,are highly globalized。

It is thus essential for financial managers to fully understand vital international dimensions of financial management. This global shift is in marked contrast to a situation that existed when the authors of this book were learning finance some twenty years ago。

At that time, most professors customarily (and safely, to some extent)ignored international aspects of finance。

This mode of operation has become untenable since then.2. How is international financial management different from domestic financial management?Answer: There are three major dimensions that set apart international finance from domestic finance. They are:1. foreign exchange and political risks,2. market imperfections, and3. expanded opportunity set.3. Discuss the major trends that have prevailed in international business during the last two decades。

国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter

国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter

C H A P T E R8M A N A G E M E N T O F T R A N S A C T I O N E X P O S U R ESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS ANDPROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. How would you define transaction exposure? How is it different from economic exposure?Answer: Transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency values of the firm’s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpected changes in exchange rates. Unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term.2. Discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure using the forward contract vs. money market instruments. When do the alternative hedging approaches produce the same result?Answer: Hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling or buying foreign currency receivables or payables forward. On the other hand, money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables, thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions. If the interest rate parity is holding, the two hedging methods are equivalent.3. Discuss and compare the costs of hedging via the forward contract and the options contract.Answer: There is no up-front cost of hedging by forward contracts. In the case of options hedging, however, hedgers should pay the premiums for the contracts up-front. The cost of forward hedging, however, may be realized ex post when the hedger regrets his/her hedging decision.4. What are the advantages of a currency options contract as a hedging tool compared with the forward contract?Answer: The main advantage of using options contracts for hedging is that the hedger can decide whether to exercise options upon observing the realized future exchange rate. Options thus provide a hedge against ex post regret that forward hedger might have to suffer. Hedgers can only eliminate the downside risk while retaining the upside potential.5. Suppose your company has purchased a put option on the German mark to manage exchange exposure associated with an account receivable denominated in that currency. In this case, your company can be said to have an‘insurance’ policy on its receivable. Explain in what sense this is so.Answer: Your company in this case knows in advance that it will receive a certain minimum dollar amount no matter what might happen to the $/€ exchange rate. Furthermore, if the German mark appreciates, your company will benefit from the rising euro.6. Recent surveys of corporate exchange risk management practices indicate that many U.S. firms simply do not hedge. How would you explain this result?Answer: There can be many possible reasons for this. First, many firms may feel that they are not really exposed to exchange risk due to product diversification, diversified markets for their products, etc. Second, firms may be using self-insurance against exchange risk. Third, firms may feel that shareholders can diversify exchange risk themselves, rendering corporate risk management unnecessary.7. Should a firm hedge? Why or why not?Answer: In a perfect capital market, firms may not need to hedge exchange risk. But firms can add to their value by hedging if markets are imperfect. First, if management knows about the firm’s exposure better than shareholders, the firm, not its shareholders, should hedge. Second, firms may be able to hedge at a lower cost. Third, if default costs are significant, corporate hedging can be justifiable because it reduces the probability of default. Fourth, if the firm faces progressive taxes, it can reduce tax obligations by hedging which stabilizes corporate earnings.8. U sing an example, discuss the possible effect of hedging on a firm’s tax obligations.Answer: One can use an example similar to the one presented in the chapter.9. Explain contingent exposure and discuss the advantages of using currency options to manage this type of currency exposure.Answer: Companies may encounter a situation where they may or may not face currency exposure. In this situation, companies need options, not obligations, to buy or sell a given amount of foreign exchange they may or may not receive or have to pay. If companies either hedge using forward contracts or do not hedge at all, they may face definite currency exposure.10. Explain cross-hedging and discuss the factors determining its effectiveness.Answer: Cross-hedging involves hedging a position in one asset by taking a position in another asset. The effectiveness of cross-hedging would depend on the strength and stability of the relationship between the two assets.PROBLEMS1. Cray Research sold a super computer to the Max Planc k Institute in Germany on credit and invoiced €10 million payable in six months. Currently, the six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€ and the foreign exchange advisor for Cray Research predicts that the spot rate is likely to be $1.05/€ in six months.(a) What is the expected gain/loss from the forward hedging?(b) If you were the financial manager of Cray Research, would you recommend hedging this euro receivable? Why or why not?(c) Suppose the foreign exchange advisor predicts that the future spot rate will be the same as the forward exchange rate quoted today. Would you recommend hedging in this case? Why or why not?Solution: (a) Expected gain($) = 10,000,000(1.10 – 1.05)= 10,000,000(.05)= $500,000.(b) I would recommend hedging because Cray Research can increase the expected dollar receipt by $500,000 and also eliminate the exchange risk.(c) Since I eliminate risk without sacrificing dollar receipt, I still would recommend hedging.2. IBM purchased computer chips from NEC, a Japanese electronics concern, and was billed ¥250 million payable in three months. Currently, the spot exchange rate is ¥105/$ and the three-month forward rate is ¥100/$. The three-month money market interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the U.S. and 7 percent per annum in Japan. The management of IBM decided to use the money market hedge to deal with this yen account payable.(a) Explain the process of a money market hedge and compute the dollar cost of meeting the yen obligation.(b) Conduct the cash flow analysis of the money market hedge.Solution: (a). Let’s first compute the PV of ¥250 million, i.e.,250m/1.0175 = ¥245,700,245.7So if the above yen amount is invested today at the Japanese interest rate for three months, the maturity value will be exactly equal to ¥25 million which is the amount of payable.To buy the above yen amount today, it will cost:$2,340,002.34 = ¥250,000,000/105.The dollar cost of meeting this yen obligation is $2,340,002.34 as of today.(b)___________________________________________________________________Transaction CF0 CF1____________________________________________________________________1. Buy yens spot -$2,340,002.34with dollars ¥245,700,245.702. Invest in Japan - ¥245,700,245.70 ¥250,000,0003. Pay yens - ¥250,000,000Net cash flow - $2,340,002.34____________________________________________________________________3. You plan to visit Geneva, Switzerland in three months to attend an international business conference. You expect to incur the total cost of SF 5,000 for lodging, meals and transportation during your stay. As oftoday, the spot exchange rate is $0.60/SF and the three-month forward rate is $0.63/SF. You can buy the three-month call option on SF with the exercise rate of $0.64/SF for the premium of $0.05 per SF. Assume that your expected future spot exchange rate is the same as the forward rate. The three-month interest rate is6 percent per annum in the United States and 4 percent per annum in Switzerland.(a) Calculate your expected dollar cost of buying SF5,000 if you choose to hedge via call option on SF.(b) Calculate the future dollar cost of meeting this SF obligation if you decide to hedge using a forward contract.(c) At what future spot exchange rate will you be indifferent between the forward and option market hedges?(d) Illustrate the future dollar costs of meeting the SF payable against the future spot exchange rate under both the options and forward market hedges.Solution: (a) Total option premium = (.05)(5000) = $250. In three months, $250 is worth $253.75 = $250(1.015). At the expected future spot rate of $0.63/SF, which is less than the exercise price, you don’t expect to exercise options. Rather, you expect to buy Swiss franc at $0.63/SF. Since you are going to buy SF5,000, you expect to spend $3,150 (=.63x5,000). Thus, the total expected cost of buying SF5,000 will be the sum of $3,150 and $253.75, i.e., $3,403.75.(b) $3,150 = (.63)(5,000).(c) $3,150 = 5,000x + 253.75, where x represents the break-even future spot rate. Solving for x, we obtain x = $0.57925/SF. Note that at the break-even future spot rate, options will not be exercised.(d) If the Swiss franc appreciates beyond $0.64/SF, which is the exercise price of call option, you will exercise the option and buy SF5,000 for $3,200. The total cost of buying SF5,000 will be $3,453.75 = $3,200 + $253.75.This is the maximum you will pay.4. Boeing just signed a contract to sell a Boeing 737 aircraft to Air France. Air France will be billed €20million which is payable in one year. The current spot exchange rate is $1.05/€ and the one -year forwardrate is $1.10/€. The annual interest rate is 6.0% in the U.S. and 5.0% in France. Boeing is concerned with the volatile exchange rate between the dollar and the euro and would like to hedge exchange exposure.(a) It is considering two hedging alternatives: sell the euro proceeds from the sale forward or borrow euros from the Credit Lyonnaise against the euro receivable. Which alternative would you recommend? Why?(b) Other things being equal, at what forward exchange rate would Boeing be indifferent between the twohedging methods?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the future dollar proceeds will be (20,000,000)(1.10) =$22,000,000. In the case of money market hedge (MMH), the firm has to first borrow the PV of its euro receivable, i.e., 20,000,000/1.05 =€19,047,619. Then the firm should exchange this euro amount into dollars at the current spot rate to receive: (€19,047,619)($1.05/€) = $20,000,000, which can be invested at the dollar interest rate for one year to yield: $20,000,000(1.06) = $21,200,000.Clearly, the firm can receive $800,000 more by using forward hedging.(b) According to IRP, F = S(1+i $)/(1+i F ). T hus the “indifferent” forward rate will be: F = 1.05(1.06)/1.05 = $1.06/€.5. Suppose that Baltimore Machinery sold a drilling machine to a Swiss firm and gave the Swiss client a choice of paying either $10,000 or SF 15,000 in three months.(a) In the above example, Baltimore Machinery effectively gave the Swiss client a free option to buy up to $10,000 dollars using Swiss franc. What is the ‘implied’ exercise exchange rate?(b) If the spot exchange rate turns out to be $0.62/SF, which currency do you think the Swiss client will choose to use for payment? What is the value of this free option for the Swiss client? (c) What is the best way for Baltimore Machinery to deal with the exchange exposure? Solution: (a) The implied exercise (price) rate is: 10,000/15,000 = $0.6667/SF .(b) If the Swiss client chooses to pay $10,000, it will cost SF16,129 (=10,000/.62). Since the Swiss client has an option to pay SF15,000, it will choose to do so. The value of this option is obviously SF1,129 (=SF16,129-SF15,000).(c) Baltimore Machinery faces a contingent exposure in the sense that it may or may not receive SF15,000 in the future. The firm thus can hedge this exposure by buying a put option on SF15,000.6. Princess Cruise Company (PCC) purchased a ship from Mitsubishi Heavy Industry. PCC owes Mitsubishi Heavy Industry 500 million yen in one year. The current spot rate is 124 yen per dollar and the one-year forward rate is 110 yen per dollar. The annual interest rate is 5% in Japan and 8% in the U.S. PCC can also buy a one-year call option on yen at the strike price of $.0081 per yen for a premium of .014 cents$ Cost Options hedgeForward hedge$3,453.75$3,1500.5790.64(strike price) $/SF$253.75per yen.(a) Compute the future dollar costs of meeting this obligation using the money market hedge and the forward hedges.(b) Assuming that the forward exchange rate is the best predictor of the future spot rate, compute the expected future dollar cost of meeting this obligation when the option hedge is used.(c) At what future spot rate do you think PCC may be indifferent between the option and forward hedge? Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the dollar cost will be 500,000,000/110 = $4,545,455. In the case of money market hedge, the future dollar cost will be: 500,000,000(1.08)/(1.05)(124)= $4,147,465.(b) The option premium is: (.014/100)(500,000,000) = $70,000. Its future value will be $70,000(1.08) = $75,600.At the expected future spot rate of $.0091(=1/110), which is higher than the exercise of $.0081, PCC will exercise its call option and buy ¥500,000,000 for $4,050,000 (=500,000,000x.0081).The total expected cost will thus be $4,125,600, which is the sum of $75,600 and $4,050,000.(c) When the option hedge is used, PCC will spend “at most” $4,125,000. On the other hand, when the forward hedging is used, PCC will have to spend $4,545,455 regardless of the future spot rate. This means that the options hedge dominates the forward hedge. At no future spot rate, PCC will be indifferent between forward and options hedges.7. Airbus sold an aircraft, A400, to Delta Airlines, a U.S. company, and billed $30 million payable in six months. Airbus is concerned with the euro proceeds from international sales and would like to control exchange risk. The current spot exchange rate is $1.05/€ and six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€ at the moment. Airbus can buy a six-month put option on U.S. dollars with a strike price of €0.95/$ for a premium of €0.02 per U.S. dollar. Currently, six-month interest rate is 2.5% in the euro zone and 3.0% in the U.S.pute the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale if Airbus decides to hedge using aforward contract.b.If Airbus decides to hedge using money market instruments, what action does Airbus need to take?What would be the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale in this case?c.If Airbus decides to hedge using put options on U.S. dollars, what would be the ‘expected’ europroceeds from the American sale? Assume that Airbus regards the current forward exchange rate as an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate.d.At what future spot exchange rate do you think Airbus will be indifferent between the option andmoney market hedge?Solution:a. Airbus will sell $30 million forward for €27,272,727 = ($30,000,000) / ($1.10/€).b. Airbus will borrow the present value of the dollar receivable, i.e., $29,126,214 = $30,000,000/1.03, and then sell the dollar proceeds spot for euros: €27,739,251. This is the euro amount that Airbus is going to keep.c. Since the expected future spot rate is less than the strike price of the put option, i.e., €0.9091< €0.95, Airbus expects to exercise the option and receive €28,500,000 = ($30,000,000)(€0.95/$). This is gross proceeds. Airbus spent€600,000 (=0.02x30,000,000) upfront for the option and its future cost is equal to €615,000 = €600,000 x 1.025. Thusthe net euro proceeds from the American sale is €27,885,000, which is the difference between the gross proceeds and the option costs.d. At the indifferent future spot rate, the following will hold:€28,432,732 = S T (30,000,000) - €615,000.Solving for S T, we obtain the “indifference” future spot exchange rate, i.e., €0.9683/$, or $1.0327/€. Note that €28,432,732 is the future value of the proceeds under money market hedging:€28,432,732 = (€27,739,251) (1.025).Suggested solution for Mini Case: Chase Options, Inc.[See Chapter 13 for the case text]Chase Options, Inc.Hedging Foreign Currency Exposure Through Currency OptionsHarvey A. PoniachekI. Case SummaryThis case reviews the foreign exchange options market and hedging. It presents various international transactions that require currency options hedging strategies by the corporations involved. Seven transactions under a variety of circumstances are introduced that require hedging by currency options. The transactions involve hedging of dividend remittances, portfolio investment exposure, and strategic economic competitiveness. Market quotations are provided for options (and options hedging ratios), forwards, and interest rates for various maturities.II. Case Objective.The case introduces the student to the principles of currency options market and hedging strategies. The transactions are of various types that often confront companies that are involved in extensive international business or multinational corporations. The case induces students to acquire hands-on experience in addressing specific exposure and hedging concerns, including how to apply various market quotations, which hedging strategy is most suitable, and how to address exposure in foreign currency through cross hedging policies.III. Proposed Assignment Solution1. The company expects DM100 million in repatriated profits, and does not want the DM/$ exchange rate at which they convert those profits to rise above 1.70. They can hedge this exposure using DM put options with a strike price of 1.70. If the spot rate rises above 1.70, they can exercise the option, while if that rate falls they can enjoy additional profits from favorable exchange rate movements.To purchase the options would require an up-front premium of:DM 100,000,000 x 0.0164 = DM 1,640,000.With a strike price of 1.70 DM/$, this would assure the U.S. company of receiving at least:DM 100,000,000 – DM 1,640,000 x (1 + 0.085106 x 272/360)= DM 98,254,544/1.70 DM/$ = $57,796,791by exercising the option if the DM depreciated. Note that the proceeds from the repatriated profits are reduced by the premium paid, which is further adjusted by the interest foregone on this amount. However, if the DM were to appreciate relative to the dollar, the company would allow the option to expire, and enjoy greater dollar proceeds from this increase.Should forward contracts be used to hedge this exposure, the proceeds received would be:DM100,000,000/1.6725 DM/$ = $59,790,732,regardless of the movement of the DM/$ exchange rate. While this amount is almost $2 million more than that realized using option hedges above, there is no flexibility regarding the exercise date; if this date differs from that at which the repatriate profits are available, the company may be exposed to additional further current exposure. Further, there is no opportunity to enjoy any appreciation in the DM.If the company were to buy DM puts as above, and sell an equivalent amount in calls with strike price 1.647, the premium paid would be exactly offset by the premium received. This would assure that the exchange rate realized would fall between 1.647 and 1.700. If the rate rises above 1.700, the company will exercise its put option, and if it fell below 1.647, the other party would use its call; for any rate in between, both options would expire worthless. The proceeds realized would then fall between:DM 100,00,000/1.647 DM/$ = $60,716,454andDM 100,000,000/1.700 DM/$ = $58,823,529.This would allow the company some upside potential, while guaranteeing proceeds at least $1 million greater than the minimum for simply buying a put as above.Buy/Sell OptionsDM/$SpotPut Payoff “Put”Profits Call Payoff“Call”Profits Net Profit1.60 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.61 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.62 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.63 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.64 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.65 (1,742,846) 60,606,061 1,742,846 0 60,606,061 1.66 (1,742,846) 60,240,964 1,742,846 0 60,240,964 1.67 (1,742,846) 59,880,240 1,742,846 0 59,880,240 1.68 (1,742,846) 59,523,810 1,742,846 0 59,523,810 1.69 (1,742,846) 59,171,598 1,742,846 0 59,171,598 1.70 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.71 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.72 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.73 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.74 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.75 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.76 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.77 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.78 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.79 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,5291.80 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.81 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.82 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.83 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.84 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.85 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529Since the firm believes that there is a good chance that the pound sterling will weaken, locking them into a forward contract would not be appropriate, because they would lose the opportunity to profit from this weakening. Their hedge strategy should follow for an upside potential to match their viewpoint. Therefore, they should purchase sterling call options, paying a premium of:5,000,000 STG x 0.0176 = 88,000 STG.If the dollar strengthens against the pound, the firm allows the option to expire, and buys sterling in the spot market at a cheaper price than they would have paid for a forward contract; otherwise, the sterling calls protect against unfavorable depreciation of the dollar.Because the fund manager is uncertain when he will sell the bonds, he requires a hedge which will allow flexibility as to the exercise date. Thus, options are the best instrument for him to use. He can buy A$ puts to lock in a floor of 0.72 A$/$. Since he is willing to forego any further currency appreciation, he can sell A$ calls with a strike price of 0.8025 A$/$ to defray the cost of his hedge (in fact he earns a net premium of A$ 100,000,000 x (0.007234 –0.007211) = A$ 2,300), while knowing that he can’t receive less than 0.72 A$/$ when redeeming his investment, and can benefit from a small appreciation of the A$.Example #3:Problem: Hedge principal denominated in A$ into US$. Forgo upside potential to buy floor protection.I. Hedge by writing calls and buying puts1) Write calls for $/A$ @ 0.8025Buy puts for $/A$ @ 0.72# contracts needed = Principal in A$/Contract size100,000,000A$/100,000 A$ = 1002) Revenue from sale of calls = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,573 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007234 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)3) Total cost of puts = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,332 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007211 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)4) Put payoffIf spot falls below 0.72, fund manager will exercise putIf spot rises above 0.72, fund manager will let put expire5) Call payoffIf spot rises above .8025, call will be exercised If spot falls below .8025, call will expire6) Net payoffSee following Table for net payoff Australian Dollar Bond HedgeStrikePrice Put Payoff “Put”Principal Call Payoff“Call”Principal Net Profit0.60 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.61 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.62 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.63 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.64 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.65 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.66 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.67 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.68 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.69 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.70 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.71 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.72 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.73 (75,332) 73,000,000 75,573 0 73,000,2410.74 (75,332) 74,000,000 75,573 0 74,000,2410.75 (75,332) 75,000,000 75,573 0 75,000,2410.76 (75,332) 76,000,000 75,573 0 76,000,2410.77 (75,332) 77,000,000 75,573 0 77,000,2410.78 (75,332) 78,000,000 75,573 0 78,000,2410.79 (75,332) 79,000,000 75,573 0 79,000,2410.80 (75,332) 80,000,000 75,573 0 80,000,2410.81 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.82 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.83 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.84 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.85 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2414. The German company is bidding on a contract which they cannot be certain of winning. Thus, the need to execute a currency transaction is similarly uncertain, and using a forward or futures as a hedge is inappropriate, because it would force them to perform even if they do not win the contract.Using a sterling put option as a hedge for this transaction makes the most sense. For a premium of:12 million STG x 0.0161 = 193,200 STG,they can assure themselves that adverse movements in the pound sterling exchange rate will not diminish the profitability of the project (and hence the feasibility of their bid), while at the same time allowing the potential for gains from sterling appreciation.5. Since AMC in concerned about the adverse effects that a strengthening of the dollar would have on its business, we need to create a situation in which it will profit from such an appreciation. Purchasing a yen put or a dollar call will achieve this objective. The data in Exhibit 1, row 7 represent a 10 percent appreciation of the dollar (128.15 strike vs. 116.5 forward rate) and can be used to hedge against a similar appreciation of the dollar.For every million yen of hedging, the cost would be:Yen 100,000,000 x 0.000127 = 127 Yen.To determine the breakeven point, we need to compute the value of this option if the dollar appreciated 10 percent (spot rose to 128.15), and subtract from it the premium we paid. This profit would be compared with the profit earned on five to 10 percent of AMC’s sales (wh ich would be lost as a result of the dollar appreciation). The number of options to be purchased which would equalize these two quantities would represent the breakeven point.Example #5:Hedge the economic cost of the depreciating Yen to AMC.If we assume that AMC sales fall in direct proportion to depreciation in the yen (i.e., a 10 percent decline in yen and 10 percent decline in sales), then we can hedge the full value of AMC’s sales. I have assumed $100 million in sales.1) Buy yen puts# contracts needed = Expected Sales *Current ¥/$ Rate / Contract size9600 = ($100,000,000)(120¥/$) / ¥1,250,0002) Total Cost = (# contracts)(contract size)(premium)$1,524,000 = (9600)( ¥1,250,000)($0.0001275/¥)3) Floor rate = Exercise – Premium128.1499¥/$ = 128.15¥/$ - $1,524,000/12,000,000,000¥4) The payoff changes depending on the level of the ¥/$ rate. The following table summarizes thepayoffs. An equilibrium is reached when the spot rate equals the floor rate.AMC ProfitabilityYen/$ Spot Put Payoff Sales Net Profit120 (1,524,990) 100,000,000 98,475,010121 (1,524,990) 99,173,664 97,648,564122 (1,524,990) 98,360,656 96,835,666123 (1,524,990) 97,560,976 86,035,986124 (1,524,990) 96,774,194 95,249,204125 (1,524,990) 96,000,000 94,475,010126 (1,524,990) 95,238,095 93,713,105127 (847,829) 94,488,189 93,640,360128 (109,640) 93,750,000 93,640,360129 617,104 93,023,256 93,640,360130 1,332,668 92,307,692 93,640,360131 2,037,307 91,603,053 93,640,360132 2,731,269 90,909,091 93,640,360133 3,414,796 90,225,664 93,640,360134 4,088,122 89,552,239 93,640,360135 4,751,431 88,888,889 93,640,360136 5,405,066 88,235,294 93,640,360137 6,049,118 87,591,241 93,640,360138 6,683,839 86,966,522 93,640,360139 7,308,425 86,330,936 93,640,360140 7,926,075 85,714,286 93,640,360141 8,533,977 85,106,383 93,640,360142 9,133,318 84,507,042 93,640,360143 9,724,276 83,916,084 93,640,360144 10,307,027 83,333,333 93,640,360145 10,881,740 82,758,621 93,640,360146 11,448,579 82,191,781 93,640,360147 12,007,707 81,632,653 93,640,360148 12,569,279 81,081,081 93,640,360149 13,103,448 80,536,913 93,640,360150 13,640,360 80,000,000 93,640,360The parent has a DM payable, and Lira receivable. It has several ways to cover its exposure; forwards, options, or swaps.The forward would be acceptable for the DM loan, because it has a known quantity and maturity, but the Lira exposure would retain some of its uncertainty because these factors are not assured.The parent could buy DM calls and Lira puts. This would allow them to take advantage of favorable。

国际财务管理 课后答案

国际财务管理 课后答案

1/Banker`s AcceptancesA.Describe how foreign trade would be affected if banks did not provide trade services.Foreign trade would be reduced without the trade-related services by banks, because some trade can only occur if banks back the transaction with bankers acceptances.B.How can a banker`s acceptance be beneficial to an exporter, an importer, and a bank?The exporter does not need to worry about the credit risk of the importer and can therefore penetrate new foreign markets without concern about the credit risk of potential customer.The importer benefit from a banker`s acceptance by obtaining greater access to foreign markets when purchasing supplies and other products. Without banker`s acceptances, exporters may be unwilling to accept credit risk of importers.The bank accepting the draft benefits in that it can earns a commission for creating an acceptance.A banker’s acceptance guarantees payment to the exporter so that credit risk of the importer is not worrisome. It allows the importers to import goods without being turned down due to uncertainty about their credit standing. It is a revenue generator for the bank since a fee is received by the bank for this service.2/Export Financing.a. Why would an exporter provide financing for an importer?b. Is there much risk in this activity? Explain.ANSWER: An exporter could increase sales by allowing the importer to pay at a future date. Importers may not be able to afford to pay. There may be high credit risk incurred by the exporter here, especially if the importer is an unknown small company.3/ Role of Factors. What is the role of a factor in international trade transactions?ANSWER: A factor can relieve the exporter of the worry about the credit risk of the importer. In return, the factor is rewarded by being able to purchase the accounts receivables at a lower price than their cash value.5/What are bills of lading, and how do they facilitate international trade transactions?A bill of lading is a document issued by a carrier which details a shipment of merchandise and gives title of that shipment to a specified party.Bills of lading are one of three important documents used in international trade to help guarantee that exporters receive payment and importers receive merchandise.6/Forfaiting. What is forfaiting? Specify the type of traded goods for which forfaiting is applied. Forfaiting is a type of trade finance. Forfaiting is refers to the purchase of financial obligations, such as bills of exchange or promissory notes, without recourse to the original holder, usually the exporter. In a forfaiting transaction, the importer issues a promissory note to pay the exporter for the importer for the importer goods over a period that generally ranges from 3 to 7years. The exporter then sells the notes, without recourse, to the forfaiting bank.Like mechanical, electronic or complete sets of equipment and other capital goods trading, the amount of the transaction is large. The longer importer’s deferred payment period is, the more suitable for Forfaiting is.9/ Countertrade. What is countertrade?The term countertrade denotes all types of foreign trade transaction in which the sale of goods toone country is linked to t/he purchase or exchange of goods from that same country. Countertrade can be classified into three broad categories-barter, compensation and counterpurchase. Barter is the exchange of goods between two parties without the use of any currency as a medium of exchange. In a compensation, the delivery of goods to one party is compensated for by the seller's buying back a certain amount of the product from the same party. The counterpurchase means that the exchange of goods between two parties under two distinct contracts expressed in monetary terms.。

国际财务管理课后习题答案

国际财务管理课后习题答案

C H A P T E R8M A N A G E M E N T O F T R A N S A C T I O N E X P O S U R ESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS ANDPROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. How would you define transaction exposure How is it different from economic exposureAnswer: Transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency values of the firm’s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpected changes in exchange rates. Unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term.2. Discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure using the forward contract vs. money market instruments. When do the alternative hedging approaches produce the same resultAnswer: Hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling or buying foreign currency receivables or payables forward. On the other hand, money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables, thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions. If the interest rate parity is holding, the two hedging methods are equivalent.3. Discuss and compare the costs of hedging via the forward contract and the options contract. Answer: There is no up-front cost of hedging by forward contracts. In the case of options hedging, however, hedgers should pay the premiums for the contracts up-front. The cost of forward hedging, however, may be realized ex post when the hedger regrets his/her hedging decision.4. What are the advantages of a currency options contract as a hedging tool compared with the forward contractAnswer: The main advantage of using options contracts for hedging is that the hedger can decide whether to exercise options upon observing the realized future exchange rate. Options thus provide a hedge against ex post regret that forward hedger might have to suffer. Hedgers can only eliminate the downside risk while retaining the upside potential.5. Suppose your company has purchased a put option on the German mark to manage exchange exposure associated with an account receivable denominated in that currency. In this case, your company can be said to have an ‘insurance’ policy on its receivable. Explain in what sense this is so.Answer: Your company in this case knows in advance that it will receive a certain minimum dollar amount no matter what might happen to the $/€exchange rate. Furthermore, if the German mark appreciates, your company will benefit from the rising euro.6. Recent surveys of corporate exchange risk management practices indicate that many U.S. firms simply do not hedge. How would you explain this resultAnswer: There can be many possible reasons for this. First, many firms may feel that they are not really exposed to exchange risk due to product diversification, diversified markets for their products, etc. Second, firms may be using self-insurance against exchange risk. Third, firms may feel that shareholders can diversify exchange risk themselves, rendering corporate risk management unnecessary.7. Should a firm hedge Why or why notAnswer: In a perfect capital market, firms may not need to hedge exchange risk. But firms can add to their value by hedging if markets are imperfect. First, if management knows about the firm’s exposure better than shareholders, the firm, not its shareholders, should hedge. Second, firms may be able to hedge at a lower cost. Third, if default costs are significant, corporate hedging can be justifiable because it reduces the probability of default. Fourth, if the firm faces progressive taxes, it can reduce tax obligations by hedging which stabilizes corporate earnings.8. Using an example, discuss the possible effect of hedging on a firm’s tax obligations.Answer: One can use an example similar to the one presented in the chapter.9. Explain contingent exposure and discuss the advantages of using currency options to manage this type of currency exposure.Answer: Companies may encounter a situation where they may or may not face currency exposure. In this situation, companies need options, not obligations, to buy or sell a given amount of foreign exchange they may or may not receive or have to pay. If companies either hedge using forward contracts or do not hedge at all, they may face definite currency exposure.10. Explain cross-hedging and discuss the factors determining its effectiveness.Answer: Cross-hedging involves hedging a position in one asset by taking a position in another asset. The effectiveness of cross-hedging would depend on the strength and stability of the relationship between the two assets.PROBLEMS1. Cray Research sold a super computer to the Max Planck Institute in Germany on credit and invoiced €10 million payable in six months. Currently, the six-month forward exchange rate is $€ and the foreign exchange advisor for Cray Research predicts that the spot rate is likely to be $€ in six months.(a) What is the expected gain/loss from the forward hedging(b) If you were the financial manager of Cray Research, would you recommend hedging this euro receivable Why or why not(c) Suppose the foreign exchange advisor predicts that the future spot rate will be the same as the forward exchange rate quoted today. Would you recommend hedging in this case Why or why not Solution: (a) Expected gain($) = 10,000,000 –= 10,000,000(.05)= $500,000.(b) I would recommend hedging because Cray Research can increase the expected dollar receipt by $500,000 and also eliminate the exchange risk.(c) Since I eliminate risk without sacrificing dollar receipt, I still would recommend hedging.2. IBM purchased computer chips from NEC, a Japanese electronics concern, and was billed ¥250 million payable in three months. Currently, the spot exchange rate is ¥105/$ and the three-month forward rate is ¥100/$. The three-month money market interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the U.S. and 7 percent per annum in Japan. The management of IBM decided to use the money market hedge to deal with this yen account payable.(a) Explain the process of a money market hedge and compute the dollar cost of meeting the yen obligation.(b) Conduct the cash flow analysis of the money market hedge.Solution: (a). Let’s first compute the PV of ¥250 million, .,250m/ = ¥245,700,So if the above yen amount is invested today at the Japanese interest rate for three months, the maturity value will be exactly equal to ¥25 million which is the amount of payable.To buy the above yen amount today, it will cost:$2,340, = ¥250,000,000/105.The dollar cost of meeting this yen obligation is $2,340, as of today.(b)___________________________________________________________________Transaction CF0 CF1____________________________________________________________________1. Buy yens spot -$2,340,with dollars ¥245,700,2. Invest in Japan - ¥245,700, ¥250,000,0003. Pay yens - ¥250,000,000Net cash flow - $2,340,____________________________________________________________________3. You plan to visit Geneva, Switzerland in three months to attend an international business conference.You expect to incur the total cost of SF 5,000 for lodging, meals and transportation during your stay. As of today, the spot exchange rate is $SF and the three-month forward rate is $SF. You can buy the three-month call option on SF with the exercise rate of $SF for the premium of $ per SF. Assume that your expected future spot exchange rate is the same as the forward rate. The three-month interest rate is 6 percent per annum in the United States and 4 percent per annum in Switzerland.(a) Calculate your expected dollar cost of buying SF5,000 if you choose to hedge via call option on SF.(b) Calculate the future dollar cost of meeting this SF obligation if you decide to hedge using a forward contract.(c) At what future spot exchange rate will you be indifferent between the forward and option market hedges(d) Illustrate the future dollar costs of meeting the SF payable against the future spot exchange rate under both the options and forward market hedges.Solution: (a) Total option premium = (.05)(5000) = $250. In three months, $250 is worth $ = $250. At the expected future spot rate of $SF, which is less than the exercise price, you don’t expect to exercise options. Rather, you expect to buy Swiss franc at $SF. Since you are going to buy SF5,000, you expect to spend $3,150 (=.63x5,000). Thus, the total expected cost of buying SF5,000 will be the sum of $3,150 and $, ., $3,.(b) $3,150 = (.63)(5,000).(c) $3,150 = 5,000x + , where x represents the break-even future spot rate. Solving for x, we obtain x = $SF. Note that at the break-even future spot rate, options will not be exercised.(d) If the Swiss franc appreciates beyond $SF, which is the exercise price of call option, you will exercise the option and buy SF5,000 for $3,200. The total cost of buying SF5,000 will be $3, = $3,200 + $.This is the maximum you will pay.4. Boeing just signed a contract to sell a Boeing 737 aircraft to Air France. Air France will be billed €20million which is payable in one year. The current spot exchange rate is $€ and the one -year forward rateis $€. The annual interest rate is % in the U.S. and % in France. Boeing is concerned with the volatile exchange rate between the dollar and the euro and would like to hedge exchange exposure.(a) It is considering two hedging alternatives: sell the euro proceeds from the sale forward or borrow euros from the Credit Lyonnaise against the euro receivable. Which alternative would you recommend Why(b) Other things being equal, at what forward exchange rate would Boeing be indifferent between the two hedging methodsSolution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the future dollar proceeds will be (20,000,000) = $22,000,000. In the case of money market hedge (MMH), the firm has to first borrow the PV of its euro receivable, ., 20,000,000/ =€19,047,619. Then the firm should exchange this euro amount into dollars at the current spot rate to receive: (€19,047,619)($€) = $20,000,000, which can be in vested at the dollar interest rate for one year to yield:$20,000,000 = $21,200,000.Clearly, the firm can receive $800,000 more by using forward hedging.(b) According to IRP, F = S(1+i $)/(1+i F ). Thus the “indifferent” forward rate will be: F = / = $€.5. Suppose that Baltimore Machinery sold a drilling machine to a Swiss firm and gave the Swiss client a choice of paying either $10,000 or SF 15,000 in three months.(a) In the above example, Baltimore Machinery effectively gave the Swiss client a free option to buy up to $10,000 dollars using Swiss franc. What is the ‘implied’ exercise exchange rate(b) If the spot exchange rate turns out to be $SF, which currency do you think the Swiss client will choose to use for payment What is the value of this free option for the Swiss client (c) What is the best way for Baltimore Machinery to deal with the exchange exposure Solution: (a) The implied exercise (price) rate is: 10,000/15,000 = $SF .(b) If the Swiss client chooses to pay $10,000, it will cost SF16,129 (=10,000/.62). Since the Swiss client has an option to pay SF15,000, it will choose to do so. The value of this option is obviously SF1,129 (=SF16,129-SF15,000).(c) Baltimore Machinery faces a contingent exposure in the sense that it may or may not receive SF15,000 in the future. The firm thus can hedge this exposure by buying a put option on SF15,000. 6. Princess Cruise Company (PCC) purchased a ship from Mitsubishi Heavy Industry. PCC owes Mitsubishi Heavy Industry 500 million yen in one year. The current spot rate is 124 yen per dollar and the one-year forward rate is 110 yen per dollar. The annual interest rate is 5% in Japan and 8% in the .$ Cost Options hedgeForward hedge$3,$3,1500 (strike price)$/SF$PCC can also buy a one-year call option on yen at the strike price of $.0081 per yen for a premium of .014 cents per yen.(a) Compute the future dollar costs of meeting this obligation using the money market hedge and the forward hedges.(b) Assuming that the forward exchange rate is the best predictor of the future spot rate, compute the expected future dollar cost of meeting this obligation when the option hedge is used.(c) At what future spot rate do you think PCC may be indifferent between the option and forward hedge Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the dollar cost will be 500,000,000/110 = $4,545,455. In the case of money market hedge, the future dollar cost will be: 500,000,000/(124)= $4,147,465.(b) The option premium is: (.014/100)(500,000,000) = $70,000. Its future value will be $70,000 = $75,600.At the expected future spot rate of $.0091(=1/110), which is higher than the exercise of $.0081, PCC will exercise its call option and buy ¥500,000,000 for $4,050,000 (=500,000,.The total expected cost will thus be $4,125,600, which is the sum of $75,600 and $4,050,000.(c) When t he option hedge is used, PCC will spend “at most” $4,125,000. On the other hand, when the forward hedging is used, PCC will have to spend $4,545,455 regardless of the future spot rate. This means that the options hedge dominates the forward hedge. At no future spot rate, PCC will be indifferent between forward and options hedges.7. Airbus sold an aircraft, A400, to Delta Airlines, a U.S. company, and billed $30 million payable in six months. Airbus is concerned with the euro proceeds from international sales and would like to control exchange risk. The current spot exchange rate is $€ and six-month forward exchange rate is $€ at the moment. Airbus can buy a six-month put option on . dollars with a strike price of €$ for a premium of € per . dollar. Currently, six-month interest rate is % in the euro zone and % in the U.S.pute the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale if Airbus decides to hedge using aforward contract.b.If Airbus decides to hedge using money market instruments, what action does Airbus need to takeWhat would be the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale in this casec.If Airbus decides to hedge using put options on . dollars, what would be the ‘expected’ europroceeds from the American sale Assume that Airbus regards the current forward exchange rate as an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate.d.At what future spot exchange rate do you think Airbus will be indifferent between the option andmoney market hedgeSolution:a. Airbus will sell $30 million for ward for €27,272,727 = ($30,000,000) / ($€).b. Airbus will borrow the present value of the dollar receivable, ., $29,126,214 = $30,000,000/, and then sell the dollar proceeds spot for euros: €27,739,251. This is the euro amount that Airbus is going to ke ep.c. Since the expected future spot rate is less than the strike price of the put option, ., €< €, Airbus expects to exercise the option and receive €28,500,000 = ($30,000,000)(€$). This is gross proceeds. Airbus spent €600,000 (=,000,000) upfront for the option and its future cost is equal to €615,000 = €600,000 x . Thus the net europroceeds from the American sale is €27,885,000, which is the difference between the gross proceeds and the option costs.d. At the indifferent future spot rate, the following will hold:€28,432,732 = S T (30,000,000) - €615,000.Solving for S T, we obtain the “indifference” future spot exchange rate, ., €$, or $€. Note that €28,432,732 is the future value of the proceeds under money market hedging:€28,432,732 = (€27,739,251) .Suggested solution for Mini Case: Chase Options, Inc.[See Chapter 13 for the case text]Chase Options, Inc.Hedging Foreign Currency Exposure Through Currency OptionsHarvey A. PoniachekI. Case SummaryThis case reviews the foreign exchange options market and hedging. It presents various international transactions that require currency options hedging strategies by the corporations involved. Seven transactions under a variety of circumstances are introduced that require hedging by currency options. The transactions involve hedging of dividend remittances, portfolio investment exposure, and strategic economic competitiveness. Market quotations are provided for options (and options hedging ratios), forwards, and interest rates for various maturities.II. Case Objective.The case introduces the student to the principles of currency options market and hedging strategies. The transactions are of various types that often confront companies that are involved in extensive international business or multinational corporations. The case induces students to acquire hands-on experience in addressing specific exposure and hedging concerns, including how to apply various market quotations, which hedging strategy is most suitable, and how to address exposure in foreign currency through cross hedging policies.III. Proposed Assignment Solution1. The company expects DM100 million in repatriated profits, and does not want the DM/$ exchange rate at which they convert those profits to rise above . They can hedge this exposure using DM put options with a strike price of . If the spot rate rises above , they can exercise the option, while if that rate falls they can enjoy additional profits from favorable exchange rate movements.To purchase the options would require an up-front premium of:DM 100,000,000 x = DM 1,640,000.With a strike price of DM/$, this would assure the U.S. company of receiving at least:DM 100,000,000 – DM 1,640,000 x (1 + x 272/360)= DM 98,254,544/ DM/$ = $57,796,791by exercising the option if the DM depreciated. Note that the proceeds from the repatriated profits are reduced by the premium paid, which is further adjusted by the interest foregone on this amount. However, if the DM were to appreciate relative to the dollar, the company would allow the option to expire, and enjoy greater dollar proceeds from this increase.Should forward contracts be used to hedge this exposure, the proceeds received would be:DM100,000,000/ DM/$ = $59,790,732,regardless of the movement of the DM/$ exchange rate. While this amount is almost $2 million more than that realized using option hedges above, there is no flexibility regarding the exercise date; if this date differs from that at which the repatriate profits are available, the company may be exposed to additional further current exposure. Further, there is no opportunity to enjoy any appreciation in the DM. If the company were to buy DM puts as above, and sell an equivalent amount in calls with strike price , the premium paid would be exactly offset by the premium received. This would assure that the exchange rate realized would fall between and . If the rate rises above , the company will exercise its put option, and if it fell below , the other party would use its call; for any rate in between, both options would expire worthless. The proceeds realized would then fall between:DM 100,00,000/ DM/$ = $60,716,454andDM 100,000,000/ DM/$ = $58,823,529.This would allow the company some upside potential, while guaranteeing proceeds at least $1 million greater than the minimum for simply buying a put as above.Buy/Sell OptionsDM/$SpotPut Payoff “Put”Profits Call Payoff“Call”Profits Net Profit(1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 60,606,061 1,742,846 0 60,606,061 (1,742,846) 60,240,964 1,742,846 0 60,240,964 (1,742,846) 59,880,240 1,742,846 0 59,880,240 (1,742,846) 59,523,810 1,742,846 0 59,523,810 (1,742,846) 59,171,598 1,742,846 0 59,171,598 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529(1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529Since the firm believes that there is a good chance that the pound sterling will weaken, locking them into a forward contract would not be appropriate, because they would lose the opportunity to profit from this weakening. Their hedge strategy should follow for an upside potential to match their viewpoint. Therefore, they should purchase sterling call options, paying a premium of:5,000,000 STG x = 88,000 STG.If the dollar strengthens against the pound, the firm allows the option to expire, and buys sterling in the spot market at a cheaper price than they would have paid for a forward contract; otherwise, the sterling calls protect against unfavorable depreciation of the dollar.Because the fund manager is uncertain when he will sell the bonds, he requires a hedge which will allow flexibility as to the exercise date. Thus, options are the best instrument for him to use. He can buy A$ puts to lock in a floor of A$/$. Since he is willing to forego any further currency appreciation, he can sell A$ calls with a strike price of A$/$ to defray the cost of his hedge (in fact he earns a net premium of A$ 100,000,000 x –= A$ 2,300), while knowing that he can’t receive less than A$/$ when redeeming his investment, and can benefit from a small appreciation of the A$.Example #3:Problem: Hedge principal denominated in A$ into US$. Forgo upside potential to buy floor protection.I. Hedge by writing calls and buying puts1) Write calls for $/A$ @Buy puts for $/A$ @# contracts needed = Principal in A$/Contract size100,000,000A$/100,000 A$ = 1002) Revenue from sale of calls = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,573 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007234 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)3) Total cost of puts = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,332 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007211 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)4) Put payoffIf spot falls below , fund manager will exercise putIf spot rises above , fund manager will let put expire5) Call payoffIf spot rises above .8025, call will be exercised If spot falls below .8025, call will expire6) Net payoffSee following Table for net payoff Australian Dollar Bond HedgeStrikePrice Put Payoff “Put”Principal Call Payoff“Call”Principal Net Profit(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 73,000,000 75,573 0 73,000,241(75,332) 74,000,000 75,573 0 74,000,241(75,332) 75,000,000 75,573 0 75,000,241(75,332) 76,000,000 75,573 0 76,000,241(75,332) 77,000,000 75,573 0 77,000,241(75,332) 78,000,000 75,573 0 78,000,241(75,332) 79,000,000 75,573 0 79,000,241(75,332) 80,000,000 75,573 0 80,000,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241 4. The German company is bidding on a contract which they cannot be certain of winning. Thus, the need to execute a currency transaction is similarly uncertain, and using a forward or futures as a hedge is inappropriate, because it would force them to perform even if they do not win the contract.Using a sterling put option as a hedge for this transaction makes the most sense. For a premium of:12 million STG x = 193,200 STG,they can assure themselves that adverse movements in the pound sterling exchange rate will not diminish the profitability of the project (and hence the feasibility of their bid), while at the same time allowing the potential for gains from sterling appreciation.5. Since AMC in concerned about the adverse effects that a strengthening of the dollar would have on its business, we need to create a situation in which it will profit from such an appreciation. Purchasing a yen put or a dollar call will achieve this objective. The data in Exhibit 1, row 7 represent a 10 percent appreciation of the dollar strike vs. forward rate) and can be used to hedge against a similar appreciation of the dollar.For every million yen of hedging, the cost would be:Yen 100,000,000 x = 127 Yen.To determine the breakeven point, we need to compute the value of this option if the dollar appreciated 10 percent (spot rose to , and subtract from it the premium we paid. This profit would be compared with the profit earned on five to 10 percent of AMC’s sales (which would be lost as a result of the dollar appreciation). The number of options to be purchased which would equalize these two quantities would represent the breakeven point.Example #5:Hedge the economic cost of the depreciating Yen to AMC.If we assume that AMC sales fall in direct proportion to depreciation in the yen ., a 10 percent decline in yen and 10 percent decline in sales), then we can hedge the full value of AMC’s sales. I have assumed $100 million in sales.1) Buy yen puts# contracts needed = Expected Sales *Current ¥/$ Rate / Contract size9600 = ($100,000,000)(120¥/$) / ¥1,250,0002) Total Cost = (# contracts)(contract size)(premium)$1,524,000 = (9600)( ¥1,250,000)($¥)3) Floor rate = Exercise – Premium¥/$ = ¥/$ - $1,524,000/12,000,000,000¥4) The payoff changes depending on the level of the ¥/$ rate. The following table summarizes thepayoffs. An equilibrium is reached when the spot rate equals the floor rate.AMC ProfitabilityYen/$ Spot Put Payoff Sales Net Profit120 (1,524,990) 100,000,000 98,475,010121 (1,524,990) 99,173,664 97,648,564122 (1,524,990) 98,360,656 96,835,666123 (1,524,990) 97,560,976 86,035,986124 (1,524,990) 96,774,194 95,249,204125 (1,524,990) 96,000,000 94,475,010126 (1,524,990) 95,238,095 93,713,105127 (847,829) 94,488,189 93,640,360128 (109,640) 93,750,000 93,640,360129 617,104 93,023,256 93,640,360130 1,332,668 92,307,692 93,640,360131 2,037,307 91,603,053 93,640,360132 2,731,269 90,909,091 93,640,360133 3,414,796 90,225,664 93,640,360134 4,088,122 89,552,239 93,640,360135 4,751,431 88,888,889 93,640,360136 5,405,066 88,235,294 93,640,360137 6,049,118 87,591,241 93,640,360138 6,683,839 86,966,522 93,640,360139 7,308,425 86,330,936 93,640,360140 7,926,075 85,714,286 93,640,360141 8,533,977 85,106,383 93,640,360142 9,133,318 84,507,042 93,640,360143 9,724,276 83,916,084 93,640,360144 10,307,027 83,333,333 93,640,360145 10,881,740 82,758,621 93,640,360146 11,448,579 82,191,781 93,640,360147 12,007,707 81,632,653 93,640,360148 12,569,279 81,081,081 93,640,360149 13,103,448 80,536,913 93,640,360150 13,640,360 80,000,000 93,640,360The parent has a DM payable, and Lira receivable. It has several ways to cover its exposure; forwards, options, or swaps.The forward would be acceptable for the DM loan, because it has a known quantity and maturity, but the Lira exposure would retain some of its uncertainty because these factors are not assured.The parent could buy DM calls and Lira puts. This would allow them to take advantage of favorable。

国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案2

国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案2

CHAPTER 1 GLOBALIZATION AND THE MULTINATIONAL FIRMSUGGESTED ANSWERS TO END-OF—CHAPTER QUESTIONS QUESTIONS1. Why is it important to study international financial management?Answer:We are now living in a world where all the major economic functions,i.e。

,consumption, production, and investment,are highly globalized. It is thus essential for financial managers to fully understand vital international dimensions of financial management。

This global shift is in marked contrast to a situation that existed when the authors of this book were learning finance some twenty years ago。

At that time,most professors customarily (and safely,to some extent)ignored international aspects of finance。

This mode of operation has become untenable since then。

2. How is international financial management different from domestic financial management?Answer: There are three major dimensions that set apart international finance from domestic finance. They are:1。

国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案(整合版)

国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案(整合版)

CHAPTER 1 GLOBALIZATION AND THE MULTINATIONAL FIRM SUGGESTED ANSWERS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONSQUESTIONS1. Why is it important to study international financial managementAnswer: We are now living in a world where all the major economic functions i.e. consumptionproduction and investment are highly globalized. It is thus essential for financial managers to fullyunderstand vital international dimensions of financial management. This global shift is in markedcontrast to a situation that existed when the authors of this book were learning finance some twenty yearsago.At that time most professors customarily and safely to some extent ignored international aspectsof finance. This mode of operation has become untenable since then.2. How is international financial management different from domestic financial managementAnswer: There are three major dimensions that set apart international finance from domestic finance.They are: 1. foreign exchange and political risks 2. market imperfections and 3. expanded opportunity set.3. Discuss the three major trends that have prevailed in international business during the last two decades.Answer: The 1980s brought a rapid integration of international capital and financial markets. Impetus forglobalized financial markets initially came from the governments of major countries that had begun toderegulate their foreign exchange and capital markets. The economic integration and globalization thatbegan in the eighties is picking up speed in the 1990s via privatization. Privatization is the process bywhich a country divests itself of the ownership and operation of a business venture by turning it over tothe free market system. Lastly trade liberalization and economic integration continued to proceed at boththe regional and global levels.4. How is a country‟s economic well-being enhanced through free international trade in goods andservicesAnswer: According to David Ricardo with free international trade it is mutually beneficial for twocountries to each specialize in the production of the goods that it can produce relatively most efficientlyand then trade those goods. By doing so the two countries can increase their combined productionwhich allows both countries to consume more of both goods. This argument remains valid even if acountry can produce both goods more efficiently than the other country. International trade is not a …zero-sum‟ game in which one country benefits at the expense of another country. Rather international tradecould be an …increasing-sum‟ game at which all players become winners.5. What considerations might limit the extent to which the theory of comparative advantage is realisticAnswer: The theory of comparative advantage was originally advanced by the nineteenth centuryeconomist David Ricardo as an explanation for why nations trade with one another. The theory claimsthat economic well-being is enhanced if each country‟s citizens produce what they have a comparativeadvantage in producing relative to the citizens of other countries and then trade products. Underlying thetheory are the assumptions of free trade between nations and that the factors of production landbuildings labor technology and capital are relatively immobile. To the extent that these assumptions donot hold the theory of comparative advantage will not realistically describe international trade.6. What are multinational corporations MNCs and what economic roles do they playAnswer: A multinational corporation MNC can be defined as a business firm incorporated in onecountry that has production and sales operations in several other countries. Indeed some MNCs haveoperations in dozens of different countries. MNCs obtain financing from major money centers around theworld in many different currencies to finance their operations. Global operations force the treasurer‟soffice to establish international banking relationships to place short-term fundsin several currencydenominations and to effectively manage foreign exchange risk.7. Mr. Ross Perot a former Presidential candidate of the Reform Party which is a third political party inthe United States had strongly objected to the creation of the North American Trade AgreementNAFTA which nonetheless was inaugurated in 1994 for the fear of losing American jobs to Mexicowhere it is much cheaper to hire workers. What are the merits and demerits of Mr. Perot‟s position onNAFTA Considering the recent economic developments in North America how would you assess Mr.Perot‟s position on NAFTAAnswer: Since the inception of NAFTA many American companies indeed have invested heavily inMexico sometimes relocating production from the United States to Mexico. Although this might havetemporarily caused unemployment of some American workers they were eventually rehired by otherindustries often for higher wages. Currently the unemployment rate in the U.S. is quite low by historicalstandard. At the same time Mexico has been experiencing a major economic boom. It seems clear thatboth Mexico and the U.S. have benefited from NAFTA. Mr. Perot‟s concern appears to hav e been illfounded.8. In 1995 a working group of French chief executive officers was set up by the Confederation of FrenchIndustry CNPF and the French Association of Private Companies AFEP to study the French corporategovernance structure. The group reported the following among other things “The board of directorsshould not simply aim at maximizing share values as in the U.K. and the U.S. Rather its goal should be toserve the company whose interests should be clearly distinguished from those of its shareholdersemployees creditors suppliers and clients but still equated with their general common interest which isto safeguard the prosperity and continuity of the company”. Evaluate the above recommendation of theworking group.Answer: The recommendations of the French working group clearly show that shareholder wealthmaximization is not a universally accepted goal of corporate management especially outside the UnitedStates and possibly a few other Anglo-Saxon countries including the United Kingdom and Canada. Tosome extent this may reflect the fact that share ownership is not wide spread in most other countries. InFrance about 15 of households own shares.9. Emphasizing the importance of voluntary compliance as opposed to enforcement in the aftermath ofcorporate scandals e.g. Enron and WorldCom U.S. President George W. Bush stated that while tougherlaws might help “ultimately the ethics of American business depends on the conscience of America‟sbusiness leaders.” Describe your view on this statement.Answer: There can be different answers to this question. If business leaders always behave with a highethical standard many of the corporate scandals we have seen lately might not have happened. Since wecannot fully depend on the ethical behavior on the part of business leaders the society should protectitself by adopting therules/regulations and governance structure that would induce business leaders tobehave in the interest of the society at large.10. Suppose you are interested in investing in shares of Nokia Corporation of Finland which is a worldleader in wireless communication. But before you make investment decision you would like to learnabout the company. Visit the website of CNN Financial network and collectinformation about Nokia including the recent stock price history and analysts‟ views of the company.Discuss what you learn about the company. Also discuss how the instantaneous access to information viainternet would affect the nature and workings of financial markets.Answer: As students might have learned from visiting the website information is readily available evenfor foreign companies like Nokia. Ready access to international information helpsintegrate financialmarkets dismantling barriers to international investment and financing. Integration however may help afinancial shock in one market to be transmitted to other markets.MINI CASE: NIKE‟S DECISION Nike a U.S.-based company with a globally recognized brand name manufactures athletic shoes insuch Asian developing countries as China Indonesia and Vietnam using subcontractors and sells theproducts in the U.S. and foreign markets. The company has no production facilities in the United States.In each of those Asian countries where Nike has production facilities the rates of unemployment andunderemployment are quite high. The wage rate is very low in those countries by the U.S. standardhourly wage rate in the manufacturing sector is less than one dollar in each of those countries which iscompared with about 18 in the U.S. In addition workers in those countries often are operating in poorand unhealthy environments and their rights are not well protected. Understandably Asian host countriesare eager to attract foreign investments like Nike‟s to develop their economies and raise the livingstandards of th eir citizens. Recently however Nike came under a world-wide criticism for its practice ofhiring workers for such a low pay “next to nothing” in the words of critics and condoning poor workingconditions in host countries. Evaluate and discuss various …ethical‟ as well as economic ramifications of Nike‟s decision toinvest in those Asian countries.Suggested Solution to Nike‟s Decision Obviously Nike‟s investments in such Asian countries as China Indonesia and Vietnam weremotivated to take advantage of low labor costs in those countries. While Nike was criticized for the poorworking conditions for its workers the company has recognized the problem and has substantiallyimproved the working environments recently. Although Nike‟s workers get paid very low wages by theWestern standard they probably are making substantially more than their local compatriots who are eitherunder- or unemployed. While Nike‟s detractors may have valid points one should not ignore the fact thatthe company is making contributions to the economic welfare of those Asian countries by creating jobopportunities. CHAPTER 1A THEORY OF COMPARATIVE ADVANTAGE SUGGESTED SOLUTIONS TO APPENDIX PROBLEMSPROBLEMS1. Country C can produce seven pounds of food or four yards of textiles per unit of input. Compute theopportunity cost of producing food instead of textiles. Similarly compute the opportunity cost ofproducing textiles instead of food.Solution: The opportunity cost of producing food instead of textiles is one yard of textiles per 7/4 1.75pounds of food. A pound of food has an opportunity cost of4/7 .57 yards of textiles.2. Consider the no-trade input/output situation presented in the following table for Countries X and Y.Assuming that free trade is allowed develop a scenario that will benefit the citizens of both countries.INPUT/OUTPUT WITHOUT TRADE_________________________________________________________________ ______ Country X YTotal___________________________________________________________________ _____I. Units of Input000000_____________________________________________________Food 70 60Textiles 4030______________________________________________________________________ __II. Output per Unit of Inputlbs or yards____________________________________________________Food 17 5Textiles 52_______________________________________________________________________ _III. Total Outputlbs or yards000000____________________________________________________Food 1190 300 1490Textiles 200 60260_____________________________________________________________________ ___IV. Consumptionlbs or yards000000___________________________________________________Food 1190 300 1490Textiles 200 60260_____________________________________________________________________ ___Solution: Examination of the no-trade input/output table indicates that Country X has an absoluteadvantage in the production of food and textiles. Country X can “trade off” one unit of productionneeded to produce 17 pounds of food for five yards of textiles. Thus a yard of textiles has an opportunitycost of 17/5 3.40 pounds of food or a pound of food has an opportunity cost of 5/17 .29 yards oftextiles. Analogously Country Y has an opportunity cost of 5/2 2.50 pounds of food per yard oftextiles or 2/5 .40 yards of textiles per pound of food. In terms of opportunity cost it is clear thatCountry X is relatively more efficient in producing food and Country Y is relatively more efficient inproducing textiles. Thus Country X Y has a comparative advantage in producing food textile iscomparison to Country Y X. When there are no restrictions or impediments to free trade the economic-well being of thecitizens of both countries is enhanced through trade. Suppose that Country X shifts 20000000 unitsfrom the production of textiles to the production of food where it has a comparative advantage and thatCountry Y shifts 60000000 units from the production of food to the production of textiles where it has acomparative advantage. Total output will now be 90000000 x 17 1530000000 pounds of food and20000000 x 5 100000000 90000000 x 2 180000000 280000000 yards of textiles.Further suppose that Country X and Country Y agree on a price of 3.00 pounds of food for one yard oftextiles and that Country X sells Country Y 330000000 pounds of food for 110000000 yards of textiles.Under free trade the following table shows that the citizens of Country X Y have increased theirconsumption of food by 10000000 30000000 pounds and textiles by 10000000 10000000 yards.INPUT/OUTPUT WITH FREE TRADE_________________________________________________________________ _________ Country X YTotal___________________________________________________________________ _______I. Units of Input 000000_______________________________________________________Food 90 0Textiles 2090______________________________________________________________________ ____II. Output per Unit of Input lbs or yards______________________________________________________Food 17 5Textiles 52_______________________________________________________________________ ___III. Total Output lbs or yards 000000_____________________________________________________Food 1530 0 1530Textiles 100 180280_____________________________________________________________________ _____IV. Consumption lbs or yards 000000_____________________________________________________Food 1200 330 1530Textiles 210 70280_____________________________________________________________________ _____ CHAPTER 3 BALANCE OF PAYMENTS SUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Define the balance of payments.Answer: The balance of payments BOP can be defined as the statistical record of a country‟sinternational transactions over a certain period of time presented in the form of double-entry bookkeeping.2. Why would it be useful.。

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CHAPTER 3 BALANCE OF PAY MENTSSUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Define the balance of payments.Answer: The balance of payments (BOP) can be defined as the statistical record of a country‟s international transactions over a certain period of time presented in the form of double-entry bookkeeping.2. Why would it be useful to examine a country‟s balance of payments data?Answer: It would be useful to examine a country‟s BOP for at least two reaso ns. First, BOP provides detailed information about the supply and demand of the country‟s currency. Second, BOP data can be used to evaluate the performance of the country in international economic competition. For example, if a country is experiencing per ennial BOP deficits, it may signal that the country‟s industries lack competitiveness.3. The United States has experienced continuous current account deficits since the early 1980s. What do you think are the main causes for the deficits? What would be the consequences of continuous U.S. current account deficits?Answer: The current account deficits of U.S. may have reflected a few reasons such as (I) a historically high real interest rate in the U.S., which is due to ballooning federal budget deficits, that kept the dollar strong, and (ii) weak competitiveness of the U.S. industries.4. In contrast to the U.S., Japan has realized continuous current account surpluses. What could be the main causes for these surpluses? Is it desirable to have continuous current account surpluses?Answer: Japan‟s continuous current account surpluses may have reflected a weak yen and high competitiveness of Japanese industries. Massive capital exports by Japan prevented yen from appreciating more than it did. At the same time, foreigners‟ exports to Japan were hampered by closed nature ofJapanese markets. Continuous current account surpluses disrupt free trade by promoting protectionist sentiment in the deficit country. It is not desirable especially when it is brought about by the mercantilist policies.5. Comment on the following statement: “Since the U.S. imports more than it exports, it is necessary for the U.S. to import capital from foreign countries to finance its current account deficits.”Answer: The statement presupposes that the U.S. current account deficit causes its capital account surplus. In reality, the causality may be running in the opposite direction: U.S. capital account surplus may cause the country‟s current account deficit. Suppose foreigners fin d the U.S. a great place to invest and send their capital to the U.S., resulting in U.S. capital account surplus. This capital inflow will strengthen the dollar, hurting the U.S. export and encouraging imports from foreign countries, causing current account deficits.6. Explain how a country can run an overall balance of payments deficit or surplus.Answer: A country can run an overall BOP deficit or surplus by engaging in the official reserve transactions. For example, an overall BOP deficit can be su pported by drawing down the central bank‟s reserve holdings. Likewise, an overall BOP surplus can be absorbed by adding to the central bank‟s reserve holdings.7. Explain official reserve assets and its major components.Answer: Official reserve assets are those financial assets that can be used as international means of payments. Currently, official reserve assets comprise: (I) gold, (ii) foreign exchanges, (iii) special drawing rights (SDRs), and (iv) reserve positions with the IMF. Foreign exchanges are by far the most important official reserves.8. Explain how to compute the overall balance and discuss its significance.Answer: The overall BOP is determined by computing the cumulative balance of payments including the current account, capital account, and the statistical discrepancies. The overall BOP is significant because it indicates a country‟s international payment gap that must be financed by the government‟s official reserve transactions.9. Since the early 1980s, foreign portfolio investors have purchased a significant portion of U.S. treasury bond issues. Discuss the short-term and long-term effects of foreigners‟ portfolio investment on the U.S. balance of payments.Answer: As foreigners purchase U.S. Treasury bonds, U.S. BOP will improve in the short run. But in the l ong run, U.S. BOP may deteriorate because the U.S. should pay interests and principals to foreigners. If foreign funds are used productively and contributes to the competitiveness of U.S. industries, however, U.S. BOP may improve in the long run.10. Describe the balance of payments identity and discuss its implications under the fixed and flexible exchange rate regimes.Answer: The balance of payments identity holds that the combined balance on the current and capital accounts should be equal in size, but opposite in sign, to the change in the official reserves: BCA + BKA = -BRA. Under the pure flexible exchange rate regime, central banks do not engage in official reserve transactions. Thus, the overall balance must balance, i.e., BCA = -BKA. Under the fixed exchange rate regime, however, a country can have an overall BOP surplus or deficit as the central bank will accommodate it via official reserve transactions.11. Exhibit 3.3 indicates that in 1991, the U.S. had a current account deficit and at the same time a capital account deficit. Explain how this can happen?Answer: In 1991, the U.S. experienced an overall BOP deficit, which must have been accommodated by the Federal Reserve‟s official reserve action, i.e., drawing down its reserve holdings.12. Explain how each of the following transactions will be classified and recorded in the debit and credit of the U.S. balance of payments:(1) A Japanese insurance company purchases U.S. Treasury bonds and pays out of its bank account kept in New York City.(2) A U.S. citizen consumes a meal at a restaurant in Paris and pays with her American Express card.(3) A Indian immigrant living in Los Angeles sends a check drawn on his L.A. bank account as a gift to his parents living in Bombay.(4) A U.S. computer programmer is hired by a British company for consulting and gets paid from the U.S. bank account maintained by the British company.Answer:_________________________________________________________________Transactions CreditDebit_________________________________________________________________Japanese purchase of U.S. T bonds √Japanese payment using NYC account √U.S. citizen having a meal in Paris √Paying the meal with American Express √Gift to parents in Bombay √Receipts of the check by parents (goodwill) √Export of programming service √British payment out its account in U.S. √_________________________________________________________________13. Construct the balance of payment table for Japan for the year of 1998 which is comparable in format to Exhibit 3.1, and interpret the numerical data. You may consult International Financial Statistics published by IMF or research for useful websites for the data yourself.Answer:A summary of the Japanese Balance of Payments for 1998 (in $ billion)Credits DebitsCurrent Account(1) Exports 646.03(1.1) Merchandise 374.04(1.2) Services 62.41(1.3) Factor income 209.58(2) Imports -516.50(2.1) Merchandise -251.66(2.2) Services -111.83(3.3) Factor income -153.01(3) Unilateral transfer 5.53 -14.37Balance on current account 120.69[(1) + (2) + (3)]Capital Account(4) Direct investment 3.27 -24.62(5) Portfolio investment 73.70 -113.73(5.1) Equity securities 16.11 -14.00(5.2) Debt securities 57.59 -99.73(6) Other investment 39.51 -109.35Balance on financial account -131.22[(4) + (5) + (6)](7) Statistical discrepancies 4.36Overall balance -6.17Official Reserve Account 6.17Source: IMF, International Financial Statistics Yearbook, 1999.Note: Capital account in the above table corresponds with the …Financial account‟ in IMF‟s balance of payment statistics. IMF‟s Capital account‟ is included in …Other investment‟ in the above table.MINI CASE: MEXICO‟S BALANCE OF PAYMENTS PROBLEMRecently, Mexico experienced large-scale trade deficits, depletion of foreign reserve holdings and a major currency devaluation in December 1994, followed by the decision to freely float the peso. These events also brought about a severe recession and higher unemployment in Mexico. Since the devaluation, however, the trade balance has improved.Investigate the Mexican experiences in detail and write a report on the subject. In the report, you may:(a) document the tr end in Mexico‟s key economic indicators, such as the balance of payments, the exchange rate, and foreign reserve holdings, during the period 1994.1 through 1995.12.;(b) investigate the causes of Mexico‟s balance of payments difficulties prior to the peso devaluation;(c) discuss what policy actions might have prevented or mitigated the balance of payments problem and the subsequent collapse of the peso; and(d) derive lessons from the Mexican experience that may be useful for other developing countries.In your report, you may identify and address any other relevant issues concerning Mexico‟s balance of payment problem.Suggested Solution to Mexico‟s Balance-of-Payments ProblemTo solve this case, it is useful to review Chapter 2, especially the section on the Mexican peso crisis. Despite the fact that Mexico had experienced continuous trade deficits until December 1994, the country‟s currency was not allowed to depreciate for political reasons. The Mexican government did not want the peso devaluation before the Presidential election held in 1994. If the Mexican peso had been allowed to gradually depreciate against the major currencies, the peso crisis could have been prevented.The key lessons that can be derived from the peso crisis are: First, Mexico depended too much on short-term foreign portfolio capital (which is easily reversible) for its economic growth. The country perhaps should have saved more domestically and depended more on long-term foreign capital. This can be a valuable lesson for many developing countries. Second, the lack of reliable economic information was another contributing factor to the peso crisis. The Salinas administration was reluctant to fully disclose the true state of the Mexican economy. If investors had known that Mexico was experiencing serious trade deficits and rapid depletion of foreign exchange reserves, the peso might have been gradually depreciating, rather than suddenly collapsed as it did. The transparent disclosure of economic data can help prevent the peso-type crisis. Third, it is important to safeguard the world financial system from the peso-type crisis. To this end, a multinational safety net needs to be in place to contain the peso-type crisis in the early stage.。

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