四川省资阳市2016届高三下学期高考模拟考试英语试卷(含答案)

四川省资阳市2016届高三下学期高考模拟考试英语试卷(含答案)
四川省资阳市2016届高三下学期高考模拟考试英语试卷(含答案)

资阳市高中2013级高考模拟考试

英语

本试卷分第Ⅰ卷(选择题)和第Ⅱ卷(非选择题)两部分。第Ⅰ卷1至8页。第Ⅱ卷9至10页。共150分。考试时间120分钟。考试结束时,将本试卷和答题卡一并收回。

第Ⅰ卷(选择题共100分)

注意事项:

1. 答第Ⅰ卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、考号、考试科目用铅笔涂写在答题卡上。

2. 每小题选出答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其它答案,不能答在试题卷上。

第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)

第一节(共5 小题;每小题1.5 分,满分7.5 分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

例:How much is the shirt?

A. £19.15.

B. £9.18.

C. £9.15.

答案是C。

1. How will the man send the books?

A. By ship.

B. By air.

C. By truck.

2. What’s the probable relationship between the two speakers?

A. Old classmates.

B. Tourist and guide.

C. Travelers in England.

3. Why does the woman apologize to the man?

A. She kept it a secret.

B. She broke his telephone.

C. She forgot to tell him the message.

4. Where is the man’s mother now?

A. In a hospital.

B. At home.

C. At a bus stop.

5. What is the woman doing?

A. Offering help.

B. Giving suggestions.

C. Asking for information.

第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料,回答第6至7题。

6. What did the woman do last Sunday?

A. She visited a park.

B. She attended a party.

C. She saw a film.

7. Why didn’t the man get in touch with th e woman?

A. She moved to a new house.

B. She changed her telephone number.

C. She gave him the wrong e-mail address.

听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。

8. What are the two speakers talking about?

A. Having a trip.

B. Doing paper work.

C. Buying some food.

9. Who will pay for the gas?

A. Tony.

B. Catherine.

C. Lisa.

10. When will the two speakers leave?

A. This Saturday.

B. Next Monday.

C. Next Tuesday.

听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。

11. Where does the conversation probably take place?

A. In a restaurant.

B. In a hotel.

C. In a school.

12. How long will the breakfast time last?

A. 2.5 hours.

B. 2 hours.

C. 1.5 hours.

13. What can be used for free?

A. The refrigerator.

B. The exercise room.

C. The wireless Internet.

听第9段材料,回答第14至16题。

14. What is the problem with the lockers?

A. They are unlocked.

B. They are all removed.

C. They are not used properly.

15. What does the man suggest about the clothes-hangers?

A. They should be bigger.

B. They should be smaller.

C. They should be stronger.

16. What’s the woman’s reaction to the man’s complaint?

A. She will try to improve.

B. She doesn’t know what to do.

C. She will tell her boss about it.

听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。

17. How many people took part in the swimming activity?

A. About 300.

B. About 3,000.

C. About 30,000.

18. Why did they organize the swimming activity?

A. To celebrate the Dragon-boat Festival.

B. To get ready for a swimming competition.

C. To make people aware of environmental protection.

19. Who organized the swimming activity?

A. The local authority.

B. The tourism agency.

C. The sports center.

20. What can we know from the 62-year-old swimmer?

A. The river was very clean when he was a child.

B. T he river isn’t as clean as it was several years ago.

C. The river is where people swim across for many years.

第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)

第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

A

A Special Appointment

Years ago I moved to Woodland Hills to take a job in a small hospital’s emergency department. No one wanted to work on Christmas Eve, so the shift (轮班) went to me. I kissed my family goodbye and went off to spend the night in the hospital. It was a thankless job.

At 9 pm, the ambulance brought in a man in his 60s who was having a heart attack. His face was pale, and he was frightened. The whole night I did my best to save his life. Before I left in the morning to spend Christmas with my family, I stopped by to see how he was doing. It was still tough, but he had survived the night and was sleeping.

The following year I got Christmas Eve duty again. At 9 pm sharp, the ward clerk told me there was a couple who wanted to speak with me. When I approached them, the man introduced himself as Mr. Lee and said, “You probably don’t remember me, but last Christmas Eve you saved my life. Thank you fo r the year you gave me.” He and his wife hugged me, handed me a small gift, and left.

The following year a new doctor had joined the group, but I wanted to see if Mr. and Mrs. Lee would return. This time, I volunteered for the shift. I kept an eye on the door. Once again, at exactly 9 pm, the Lees appeared, carrying a warmly wrapped bundle. It was their new grandchild. Mr. Lee, his family and I spent 13 Christmas Eves together. In the later years the staff all knew about the story and would work to give me time with him in the break room, where we spent a half-hour each Christmas Eve.

The last year I saw him, he brought me a gift. I carefully opened the package and found a crystal (水晶) bell inside. It was engraved (镌刻) with a single word: Friendship. Now, my family, friends and I ring that bell every Christmas Eve at exactly 9 pm and offer our best wishes to the man who we won’t forget.

21. Working on Christmas Eve was considered “a thankless job” because ______.

A. most patients were seriously ill

B. patients refused to express thanks

C. doctors had nothing to do on that day

D. doctors couldn’t get praise for the hard job

22. When the author left the hospital the next morning, Mr. Lee ______.

A. was still in a state of danger

B. was really angry with her

C. got ready to leave the hospital

D. recovered from his heart attack

23. According to the passage, the author formed a habit of ______.

A. celebrating Christmas Eve with her family

B. giving Christmas gifts to the hospital staff

C. spending Christmas Eve with Mr. Lee in hospital

D. ringing the bell for patients in the emergency department

24. Why does the author ring the bell on Christmas Eve?

A. To honor her working experience.

B. To tell kids the traditional custom.

C. To remember an old friend of hers.

D. To show the beginning of the holiday.

B

Warley Woods Community (社区) Trust

Welcome to our third newsletter of the year!

Our main activity for March is our Walk for the Woods fundraising events on Saturday, 17th March, starting any time between 10 a.m. and 2 p.m. We will be walking the distance between Warley Woods and Tipperary. It is indeed a long way — 80 miles. The more people that you can get sponsor you, the more money we can raise to help look after our beautiful woodland. More information is available at

our website.

?The Sunday volunteers planted two beeches and an oak last week. This was thanks to the money from

the Big Tree Plant and to Lisa and Gordon Whitiker, whose friends gave money for the big trees instead of for their wedding presents. Thanks to everyone who took part.

?There were 15 volunteers at the Oral History Training Day which was led very ably by Julia Letts. The

group will be meeting again and will start to interview the local people who have offered to tell their stories. We are happy to hear from others who would like to be interviewed about their memories of the Woods for the project. If you or anyone you know is interested, please call Viv Cole at the office. This project is financed by Heritage Lottery Fund.

?There was a huge response to the Forest Schools activities held at half term. These will be held again

during the Easter holidays on the following dates: 4th April from 10 a.m. to 3 p.m. for over 8s. On 12th April form 10 a.m. to 12 noon, there will be a Teddy Bears’ Picnic for the under 8s. All these must be booked in advance.

?Finally, don’t forget the Easter Egg Roll on Bank Holiday, 9th April, staring at 11 a.m. Bring your own

hard-boiled and decorated egg to roll down the hill in the woods. The first past the finishing line will win a large chocolate egg! This year, due to popular demand, there will also be an Adults’ Easter Egg Roll following the children’s competition.

We look forward to seeing you all soon, at one of our many events.

25. Which of the following will be on 9th April?

A. Walk for the Woods

B. Teddy Bears’ Picnic

C. The Easter Egg Roll

D. The Oral History Training Day

26. Heritage Lottery Fund provides money to ______.

A. help look after the wood land

B. collect stories about the community

C. hold activities for the Forest Schools

D. organize the Easter holiday competition

27. The passage is written to ______.

A. inform people of the coming events

B. encourage people to work as volunteers

C. tell people about some famous organization

D. invite people to take part in the competition

C

In Britain, it’s bottoms up from the week before Christmas till the last firework explodes in the sky announcing the new year. The last Friday before Christmas, popularly known as ‘Mad Friday’, is one of the busiest periods fo r the country’s pubs and clubs.

But it’s not just the bars that get busy. Ambulances and A&E departments around Britain get packed out too. Head injuries, cuts, falls…it’s easy to end up hurting yourself or others when self-control disappear and your head is spinning due to alcoho1 revelers have been warned by the health authorities about the dangers of deadly drinking but drinking crazily seems to be part of the festivities for some.

The charity Alcohol Concern is running a campaign of restriction by encouraging people to have a dry January.

Jackie Ballard, the charity’s Chief Executive, believes the campaign has been successful in recent years. She says, “More than two-thirds of people even six months later are drinking at reduced levels having had a month off drink. But also a study has shown the impact it has on people’s health reducing their blood pressure and blood sugar levels.”

The study by the University of Sussex followed up nearly 900 participants in Alcohol Concern’s Dry January campaign and found out that 72%of them had kept harmful drinking sessions down and 4%were

still not drinking.

Moderation (适度) seems to be the key to everything. The official recommendation for women is not to regularly drink more than 2 to 3 units of alcohol a day. The limit for men is 3 to 4 units of alcohol — no more than a pint of 5.2%ABV lager, beer or cider.

28. The last Friday before Christmas is called ‘Mad Friday’ because _____.

A. people stay up too late

B. people go out and drink a lot

C. firework explodes in the sky

D. people go shopping madly

29. What is the second paragraph mainly about?

A. The atmosphere of the bars.

B. The effect of drinking too much.

C. The customs of the festivities.

D. The importance of the health authorities.

30. The result of dry January campaign is that _____.

A. many people stop drinking

B. people drink more than before

C. people’s blood pressure increases

D. people can improve their health

31. What is the official suggestion of drinking alcohol?

A. Women shouldn’t drink any alcoh ol.

B. People should stay away from alcohol.

C. Moderate alcohol drinking can be accepted.

D. Men may drink 3 to 4 units of alcohol at least.

D

Phrases like “tiger mom” and ‘‘helicopter parent” have made their way into everyday language. Many of us find ourselves drawn to the idea that with just a bit more parental hard work and effort, we might turn out children with bright futures. But is there anything wrong with a kind of “overparenting style”?

Parental involvement has a long history of being studied. Many of the studies, conducted by Diana Baumrind, a famous psychologist at the University of California, Berkeley, have found that a good parent is the one who is involved and reacts to her child in a positive way, who sets high expectations but gives her child independence. These “authoritative parents” appear to hit the sweet spot of parental involvement and generally raise children who do better academically, psychologically and socially than children whose parents are not strict and less involved, or controlling and more involved. Why is this parenting style so successful?

Authoritative parents actually help improve motivation in their children. Carol Dweck, a social psychologist at Stanford University, has done research that indicates why authoritative parents raise more motivated children. In a typical experiment, Dr. Dweck takes young children into a room and asks them to solve a simple puzzle. Most do so with little difficulty. But then Dr. Dweck tells some, but not all, of the kids how clever they are. As it turns out, the children who are not told they’re smart are more motivated to solve increasingly difficult puzzles. They also show higher levels of confidence and show greater progress in puzzle-solving.

As the experiment suggests, praising child ren’s talents and abilities seems to shake their confidence. Dealing with more difficult puzzles carries the risk of losing one’s status as “smart”. Dr. Dweck’s work strongly supports that of Dr. Baumrind, who also found that reasonably supporting a child’s independence and limiting interference (干涉) causes better academic and emotional results.

The central task of growing up is to develop a sense of self that is independent and confident. If you treat your young child who is just learning to walk as if she can’t walk, you reduce her confidence. Allowing children to make mistakes is one of the greatest challenges of parenting. It is easier when they are young.

The potential mistakes carry greater risks, and part of being a parent is reducing risk for our children.

32. According to the passage, a “tiger mom” ______.

A. helps her children realize their dreams

B. speaks her children’s everyday language

C. places reasonable expectations on her children

D. pays close attention to her children’s experiences

33. It is implied that controlling style of parenting may _____.

A. cause more problems in children

B. foster independence in children

C. face more challenges of children

D. lead to children’s academic success

34. The example of the children doing the puzzles suggests that ______.

A. a good game plays a big role in training young minds

B. overpraising makes children less motivated and confident

C. puzzle-solving can give children the motivation they need

D. bright children usually show less confidence in difficult games

35. The last paragraph tells us that ______.

A. children should not be given much freedom

B. parents should not increase the risk of challenging

C. parents should allow their children to learn from mistakes

D. children should correct mistakes with the help of their parents

第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)

根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Since the day of its birth, the United Nations has been the subject of much debate.

36 Others think that it is too weak. We can better understand this debate if we learn more about the U.N. and its history.

The U.N. was started for two reasons. First, when the idea was born, people all over the world were tired of war. They felt that there must be peaceful answers to the world’s problems.

37

The second reason was that modern science had developed new bombs and airplanes.

38 National borders were beginning to lose their meaning. Science would develop even more dangerous weapons in the future. Only an international organization would be able to control modern science.

Franklin D. Roosevelt, U.S. President at the time, believed that the Allies (联盟) should plan for peace before the war ended. On December 1, 1943, Roosevelt, Britain’s Winston Churchill and Joseph Stalin from S o v i e t U n i o n a g r e e d t o s t a r t a n o r g a n i z a t i o n f o r w o r l d p e a c e.

39

During the next year and a half, the idea of such an organisation was debated around the world. Then came the big day. On April 11, 1945, the first international meeting of the United Nations took place in San Francisco. The goal of the meeting was to write the U.N. Charter (宪章). All of the fifty-one nations at the m e e t i n g h a d t h e i r o w n i d e a s t o o f f e r f o r t h e C h a r t e r.

40 Every nation present voted for the Charter. No one voted against it.

A. The U.N. Charter is a beautiful piece of writing.

B. After a long debate, a final Charter was agreed upon.

C. Even the smallest country on earth can have its voice heard.

D. They asked all countries, large and small, to join the organization.

E. These weapons made it almost impossible for a country to defend itself.

F. Some people attack the organization because they think it is too powerful.

G. They also felt that only an international organization could keep world peace.

第三部分英语知识运用(共两节,满分45分)

第一节完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)

阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

It was my sister Sandra’s first Christmas without her husband. Last Thursday, she was in the store 41 for an ideal card for her two sons and daughter. Time passed by quickly as she 42 the many choices. She wanted a card that sent something 43 to each of them, as she knew they would have a(n) 44p l a c e i n t h e i r h e a r t t h i s h o l i d a y s e a s o n.

Finally, she found the one that expressed the 45 feeling. 46 , a sharp pain pierced (穿透) her heart when she realized that the card was 47 “mom and dad”. She stood, holding it close for a long time, unable to move from the spot. 48 began to run over her cheeks.

“Is there something I can do for you?” a49 voice asked. She 50 to face a stranger, a woman. “Uh..oh...OH!” Sandra 51 , “I can’t give this card to my children because…because my husband died and this is the 52 card.”

The stranger’s face softened with 53 and love. She reached out and 54 my sister into her arms, giving her unspoken 55 to cry in the protection of her embrace (拥抱). She 56 held my sister until her 57 returned.

During her telling of this event I was feeling 58 that I hadn’t been there. My sister needed me and a stranger had to do my 59 . “You know,” she went on, “a friend suggested that it was like meeting with an Angel.” My guilt60 in an instant. My sister required an Angel, and I think that is exactly what she got.

41. A. paying B. caring C. calling D. looking

42. A. left B. offered C. read D. discovered

43. A. attractive B. special C. traditional D. wealthy

44. A. unknown B. empty C. safe D. different

45. A. sad B. strange C. amazing D. perfect

46. A. However B. Therefore C. Anyhow D. Otherwise

47. A. for B. to C. from D. by

48. A. Tears B. Sweats C. Lights D. Smiles

49. A. firm B. proud C. cold D. soft

50. A. walked B. turned C. decided D. woke

51. A. responded B. demanded C. asked D. explained

52. A. delicate B. old C. wrong D. decorative

53. A. devotion B. respect C. sympathy D. responsibility

54. A. pulled B. caught C. sent D. threw

55.A. thought B. permission C. sorrow D. suggestion

56. A. quietly B. tightly C. eagerly D. seriously

57. A. confidence B. courage C. happiness D. calmness

58. A. shocked B. angry C. shy D. hopeless

59. A. task B. housework C. favor D. job

60. A. struck B. returned C. disappeared D. sank

第Ⅱ卷(非选择题共50分)

注意:将答案写在答题卡上。写在试卷上无效。

第三部分英语知识运用(共两节,满分45分)

第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)

阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。

We think that life in Chinese high school is an adventure in which we have to survive mountains of homework and all kinds of exams. Yet would it be 61 (surprise) if I tell you that high school life in the US is almost as stressful and demanding 62 it is in China?

In US high school, everything must 63 (record) into your studying document, including your grades on quizzes, tests and final examinations. Failing 64 (turn) in your homework on time will directly affect your grade for a certain course. Perhaps completely different from 65 we used to think of the US high school students, they pay great attention to 66 (they) academic performance in order that they can get into a distinguished university.

Like university students, US high school students have the 67 (free) to choose the courses that most interest them. Even a ninth-grader can sit 68 the same classroom as 12th-graders. But this also 69 (mean) he or she has to work very hard, because the teacher will not treat him or her 70 (different).

第四部分写作(共两节,满分35分)

第一节短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

请改正下面短文中的错误。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词;

删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉;

修改:在错的词下画一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;

2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。

Last Saturday, my parents and I paid visit to my grandparents by train. There was a large number of people in the crowded train, but everyone help those who had lots of baggage and behaved politely. Along the way, we enjoyed beautifully views. At first, we saw one hill after another. Then what came into our eye were fields with green crops. In a six-hour trip, we arrived at my grandparents’ house. Exhausted though I felt, but I was happy to see my grandparents, which I had n’t seen for a long time. It’s really an excited trip because it was the first time I had taken so a long-distance train.

第二节书面表达(满分25分)

假设你是李华,你们班的外教Lisa已经结束教学工作回到美国,请给她写一封邮件。邮件的内容包括:

1. 询问她的近况;

2. 回顾你在Lisa课上的收获;

3. 就你目前英语学习中的问题征求她的建议;

4. 表达对她的感谢和祝福。

注意:

1. 词数100左右;

2. 可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;

3. 结语已为你写好。

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

Looking forward to hearing from you.

Yours,

Li Hua

资阳市高中2013级高考模拟考试

英语答案及评分意见

第一部分(每小题1.5分)

1-5 BACAB 6-10 CBABC 11-15 BACCC 16-20 ABCAA

第二部分(每小题2分)

21-25 DACCC 26-30 BABBD 31-35 CDABC 36-40 FGEDB

第三部分(每小题1.5分)

41-45 DCBBD 46-50 ACADB 51-55 ACCAB 56-60 BDBDC

61. surprising 62. as 63. be recorded 64. to turn 65. what

66. their 67. freedom 68. in 69. means 70. differently

第四部分

第一节(每小题1分)

二、评分意见

1. 未标注符号或符号标注不规范一律不给分。

2. 答题位置(需修改的词下方或需添加位置的下方)不对(如答在上方或相距甚远的位置)一律不给分。

第二节

一、评分原则

1. 本题总分为25分,按5个档次给分。

2. 评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。

3. 词数少于80或多于120的,从总分中减去2分。

4. 评分时,应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文的连贯性。

5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。

6. 如书写较差,以至影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。

二、内容要点

1. 询问近况;

2. 回顾收获;

3. 陈述问题并请求建议;

4. 表达感谢和祝福。

三、各档次的给分范围和要求

第五档:(21-25分)

完全完成了试题规定的任务。

-覆盖所有内容要点。

-应用了较为丰富的语法结构和词汇。

-仅有个别语法结构或词汇方面的错误,具备较强的语言运用能力。

-有效地使用了语句之间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。

完全达到了预期的写作目的。

第四档:(16-20分)

完成了试题规定的任务。

-虽漏掉一两个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容。

-应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。

-有少量的语法结构或词汇方面应用的错误,但表达清楚。

-应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。

达到了预期的写作目的。

第三档:(11-15分)

基本完成了试题规定的任务。

-虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。

-应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。

-有较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。

-应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。

整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。

第二档:(6-10分)

未恰当完成试题规定的任务。

-漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。

-语法结构单调,词汇知识有限。

-有相当多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。

-较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。

信息未能清楚地传达给读者。

第一档:(1-5分)

未完成试题规定的任务。

-明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未能理解试题要求。

-语法结构单调,词汇项目有限。

-语言支离破碎,严重影响对写作内容的理解。

-缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。

信息未能传达给读者。

0分

未能传达给读者任何信息:内容太少,无法评判;写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。

四、说明

1. 内容要点可用不同方式表达。

2. 应紧扣主题,可适当发挥。

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