SOLUTIONS TO MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS - MMST 2
How to answer multiple choice questions
HOW TO ANSWER MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONSAnswering multiple-choice questions (MCQs) successfully requires you to develop a range of skills and exam techniques. Taking the steps set out below will help you to maximise your marks in these papersPREPARE TO PASSAs with any assessment, the golden rule for success is to prepare thoroughly. It is not unusual for ACCA examiner reports to note that some candidates were not adequately prepared for the exam. In many cases, candidates attempt to compensate for inadequate preparation by ‘question spotting’, or concentrating on a small number of ‘pet’ topics. These approaches to preparation are extremely risky and are always strongly discouraged by examiners – for good reason.As each MCQ relates to a specific issue within the syllabus, each exam will include broad coverage of the syllabus. This means that to maximise your chances of success you must have studied the whole syllabus.You may be lucky enough to find that a particular MCQ is on a topic that was part of your most recent studies, but this will not be the case with the vast majority of the questions you will face. As well as studying topics right across the syllabus, it is important to attempt past exams and exam-standard questions. Examples of MCQs are available on ACCA’s website together with specimen papers for the paper-based exams in the Foundation level and for Papers F1, F2 and F3.Of course, it is essential that you use all of the questions carefully and follow up on all of your answers. Whether a question was answered correctly or incorrectly during exam preparation, it will provide an opportunity to enhance your understanding of the topic. By reflecting on why a specific option is correct, you can improve your understanding, while reflecting on why the other options are wrong can help to overcome misunderstanding and eliminate confusion. When attempting questions as part of your preparation, it is useful to remember that the key purpose of the exercise is to enhance your understanding – not just to get the right answer.When reviewing each option, it is important to ensure that you understand exactly what the underlying point is – and to make sure that you reflect on this to enhance your learning.READ THE QUESTIONThe amount of time, effort, and discussion that is put into each question before it appears in an exam is likely to surprise most candidates. Every question is subjected to a number of rigorous reviews as it progresses fro m an idea in the writer’s mind to the exam paper. These reviews mean that you need toread the question extremely carefully, remembering that the wording has been chosen deliberately. This is intended to ensure that the question is unambiguous and does not mislead candidates.An example of the need to read the question carefully might be the way in which a question communicates cost information. It is not unusual for a question to relate to a production period of, say, three months, but for fixed costs to be stated as an annual figure. To get the correct answer, candidates must have recognised this fact. This is not an attempt to catch out candidates, but rather an attempt to ensure that candidates can apply the technique in a real-life situation, where information must be clearly understood and is frequently communicated in this way.A further aspect is to recognise that the answer will be based on the data included in the question. There are two aspects to this. First, in order to ensure that questions are not too long, the data may have been simplified. To some candidates, this may seem to be unrealistic when compared to a real-life situation. A particular example of this is the way in which the labour cost is described in many questions. More often than not, direct labour is described as a variable cost, with no reference to the cost of laying off staff. For a candidate who has experience of staff rationalisation, this assumption will be totally unrealistic. While a longer question may provide the opportunity to critically examine the underlying assumptions, this is not possible in an MCQ and the question should be answered on the basis of the data provided. Second, only the data included in a question is required to obtain the answer. That means you should not waste time wondering about additional data, or inferring additional data into the question.An example of this could be a question that tests the ability to calculate the closing balance on a ledger account. The question may give details of transactions during a period and a closing prepayment, but there may be no reference to an opening prepayment. In such cases, you can assume that this was nil. As already noted, the writer will have sought to keep the question as short as possible by omitting unnece ssary words such as ‘the opening prepayment was nil’ or ‘there was no opening prepayment’.It is imperative that the prompt (the actual question that is to be answered) is read carefully. For example, a question may give information on receivables, irrecoverable debts, and required allowances for receivables. Here, the prompt could require any of the following to be calculated:∙the movement on the allowance∙the closing receivables allowance∙the charge to the income statement, or∙the net value of receivables to be reported on the statement of financial position.Rather than actually reading and noting the prompt, some candidates assume that they know what it is. This is usually on the basis of a question they have seen previously. More often than not, this approach leads to the wrong option being selected.THINKIt is a common fallacy that MCQs are easy. This is based on the fact that one of the options is the correct answer. Therefore, the argument goes, all you have to do is make the correct selection. While it is fair to say that some questions may be easy, that is usually because you have prepared thoroughly. Hopefully, this will happen in some questions, but it is more likely that the answer will not be obvious. A question from the specimen papers for Paper F1/FAB, Accountant in Business illustrates this:SAMPLE QUESTION 1ABC Co has a system that records details of orders received and goods dispatched, invoices customers and allocates remittances to customers.What type of system is this?A Management information systemB Decision support systemC Knowledge management systemD Transaction processing systemEven a casual reading of the question will highlight that the word ‘system’ is a key word. It is used in the stem (the initial statement that describes the system), the prompt (the actual question) and in each of the choices.This means that unless care is taken to read the question and think carefully about what is being asked, it would be easy to become confused. A further problem is that all four of the systems in the choices are examples of systems that might be utilised in an organisation.To select the correct answer, the best approach is to consider what each of the four systems is intended to achieve.A management information system is intended to provide information to managers. Information is processed data, which is useful for making decisions. In this case, the stem refers to data (as it is unprocessed – information would not be an individual order, but the total value of orders for a particular product or from a specific customer). Therefore, A is not correct.A decision support system is intended to do exactly what the name suggests – provide information to assist managers to make decisions. Once again, the system relates to information. As we have already decided that the stem refers to data,B cannot be the correct answer.Choice C presents a potential problem. A knowledge management system is intended to create, capture, store and share information. The stem notes that the system ‘records details of orders’ (capture) and invoices customers (creates). This may create confusion for the ill-prepared candidate. However, awell-prepared candidate will note that, once again, the issue is that ‘information’ is relevant to a knowledge management system. On that basis, choice C is incorrect.D is the correct choice because a transaction processing system deals with data – which is processed to create information.From, this we can see that a candidate who is clear about the difference between ‘data’ and ‘information’ will be able to answer this question without undue difficulty, but very clear thinking, and application of knowledge, is needed.It is essential that, having read the question carefully, you think about your response, and that your answer is the result of a considered choice. This is because of the way in which the incorrect options have been constructed. In ACCA exams, MCQs have one correct option and three incorrect options. The incorrect options are referred to as ‘distractors’. This term is used because, in writing the question, the examiner attempts to identify the most common mistakes made by candidates and uses these as a basis for the incorrect options. This can be illustrated by a question taken from the specimen paper for Paper F2/FMA, Management Accounting.SAMPLE QUESTION 2Information relating to two processes (F and G) was as follows:ProcessNormalloss as% of inputInput(litres)Output(litres)F 8 65,000 58,900G 5 37,500 35,700For each process, was there an abnormal loss or an abnormal gain?Process F Process GA Abnormal gain Abnormal gainB Abnormal gain Abnormal lossC Abnormal loss Abnormal gainD Abnormal loss Abnormal lossSolutionEach process must be considered separately.Process FNormal loss is 8%, thus expected output is 92% of input.Input was 65,000 litres.Thus, expected output was 59,800 litres.Actual output was 58,900 litres.As actual output was less than expected, there was an abnormal loss.That means that choices A and B are incorrect. However, a common mistake by candidates is to assume that the performance in both processes is the same. Making this mistake leads to the selection of choice D.Process GNormal loss is 5%, thus expected output is 95% of input.Input was 37,500 litres.Thus, expected output was 35,625 litres.Actual output was 35,700 litres.As actual output was more than expected, there was an abnormal gain.Thus, the correct choice is C.Another common mistake in questions such as this is to mix up the values for expected output and actual output. Well laid-out workings and a logical approach can help to overcome this problem.Work out your answerAs the incorrect answers are based on common mistakes, it follows that attempting to guess the correct answer is not likely to be productive. Rather, it is essential that you use your understanding of the topic to work out your answer. This will prevent you from being distracted by incorrect options.SAMPLE QUESTION 3 (taken from the specimen paper for Paper FA2)At 30 November, Charles is owed a total of $72,660 by his customers. His receivables allowance brought forward from the previous year end is $11,700. He estimates that his receivables allowance should be equivalent to 15% of the amounts due from customers.What value should be included in the income statement for receivables expense for the year to 30 November?A $801 debitB $10,899 debitC $801 creditD $10,899 creditSolutionThe receivables allowance should be equivalent to 15% of the amounts due from customers ($72,660 x 15% = $10,899).If a candidate completes this calculation and then reviews the choices, there is a danger that, because $10,899 is included in two of the choices, one or other of those choices will be selected.This ignores the fact that the amount to be included in the income statement is the movement in the allowance – which has fallen from $11,700 to $10,899, or $801. A reduction in the allowance will be a credit in the income statement – thus, the answer is C.This illustrates that, for questions that require calculations, covering up the options while you work out your answer can be a productive strategy. Of course, with questions that do not require calculations, the possible answers need to be considered in turn. However, this still requires your answer to be worked out, not randomly selected. These questions might require a decision on which one of two or more statements are correct, or which one of a number of statements is correct. In such cases, the best approach is to consider each statement in turn, and decide whether or not it is correct. Once again, the fact that incorrect options are distractors must be borne in mind.ELIMINATE INCORRECT ANSWERSThis approach is likely to be most effective in discursive questions that require the correct combination of statements to be selected. Consider a question that offers three statements, and requires the correct combination of correct statements to be selected. The ideal way to answer this is to consider each statement in turn, and decide if it is correct or not. Often, candidates will find that they can quickly identify one incorrect statement. On that basis, it is possible to eliminate the options that include that statement.A question from the Paper F2, Management Accounting specimen paper illustrates this point.SAMPLE QUESTION 4Which TWO of the following statements relating to relevant cost concepts in decision making are correct?1.Materials can never have an opportunity cost whereas labour can2.The annual depreciation charge is not a relevant cost3.Fixed costs would have a relevant cost element if a decision causes a change in their total expenditure4.Materials already held in inventory never contribute to relevant costA 1 and 3B 1 and 4C 2 and 3D 3 and 4SolutionIn this case, a little thought will confirm that statement 1 is incorrect. Thorough preparation will mean that you know that materials can often have an opportunity cost. Once this decision has been made, choices A and B can be eliminated, leaving either C or D as the correct choice. As statement 3 is included in both of these choices, it does not need to be considered. The question now requires a decision on whether choice 2 or choice 4 is correct.Both of these relate to issues in which many candidates experience difficulty. How a particular candidate will progress from this point will depend on the knowledge they have brought into the exam, as this will be the basis of their decision regarding statements 3 and 4.Let’s consider statement 3 first. The key issue is that a cost is relevant if the decision leads to a future incremental cash flow. Statement 3 effectively says this in the phrase ‘a change in their total expenditure’.A candidate who recognises this will thus select choice C – if they are confident about their understanding of statement 3. If there is any doubt, or to provide reassurance, statement 4 can then be considered.In this case, well-prepared candidates will recognise that if materials already held in inventory can be sold, using them will have a relevant cost – the benefit foregone by using them rather than selling them. Thus, statement 4 is incorrect and choice 3 is the correct answer.OTHER POINTSThere are some other points on which you need to make decisions in order to maximise your marks. For each of these, the exam room is the wrong place to make the decision. It is essential that you have prepared thoroughly and have decided on your own approach to each of the following:∙Above all else, remember that you should not allow yourself to become so stuck on a question that you run out of time. Generally speaking, exams are drafted so that the time spent on each part of a question is in proportion to the marks allocated. With MCQs, however, it may be that some candidates will find some questions are morestraightforward than others, and can therefore be answered more quickly. For that reason, it may be better toconsider the time allocation for a group of, say, five MCQs, rather than for each question individually.∙If there is no penalty for an incorrect answer in ACCA exams, there is nothing to be gained by leaving an MCQ unanswered. If you are stuck on a question, as a last resort, it is worth selecting the option you consider most likely to be correct, and moving on. Make a note of the question, so if you have time after you have answered the rest of the questions, you can revisit it.∙If you are sitting a paper-based exam, you must remember to record your answers to MCQs on your Candidate Registration Sheet (CRS), as this is the only way you can obtain the marks you deserve for all your efforts.Workings for MCQs are not marked, nor are answers written in script booklets as opposed to on the CRS. CONCLUSIONFrom this discussion, you can see that MCQs are not an easy option. Maximising your marks when attempting MCQs requires:∙sound preparation∙studying across the syllabus∙practising as many different types of question as possible∙developing your own strategy for different types of question∙thinking clearly in the exam∙working out your answers∙structuring your approach to the paper∙answering all the questions.Taking this approach does not make answering MCQs easy, but it should mean that you obtain the marks you deserve.。
雅思阅读Multiple Choice解题技巧
雅思阅读Multiple Choice解题技巧Multiple Choice(选择题)1.题型要求这是一个传统题型，大家都很熟悉。
但就是这种大家都熟悉的题型，IELTS考试也要弄出新花样：四选一和多选多两种。
四选一，选项肯定是四个。
即要求从A、B、C、D四项中选择一个最符合题意的选项。
多选多，选项肯定是五个或五个以上，而正确答案的数目肯定在两个以上。
哪个更难呢?很多同学会好不犹豫地说是多选多。
实际上，多选多很容易，是一种简单题型。
它具有以下几个特点：(1) 正确答案的数目是已知的。
在题目的要求中会告诉你要选出几个选项。
题目要求中常WHICH FOUR，WHICH THREE 等字样。
(2) 答案在原文中是集中出现的，对应原文中的例举。
找着一个答案，其余几个就在它的前后不远处。
我们举一个中文阅读的例子来说明。
文章如下：帕金森症是一种顽症。
它是由大脑中缺乏一种叫多巴胺的化学物质引起的。
(后面删减100字)很多名人深受其苦。
比如，我们的改革的总设计师邓小平、拳王阿里、以故数学家陈景润等等。
(后面删减100字)题目是：以下哪三个人得过帕金森症?A. 邓小平B. 里根C. 拳王阿里D. 布什E.陈景润答案：ACE四选一在考试中，一般比较难。
它的特点是：四个选项，哪个都像。
好像在原文中都提到了，但又都和原文的叙述不太一样。
很容易选错。
选择题和问答题的区别在于：问答题要求你自己从原文中找答案。
而选择题给你四个选项，让你选择，在给你提示的同时，也给了你一个陷阱。
有些选择题，如果改为回答题，你可能能够做对，但给了你四个选项，反而选错了。
考试中，四选一，A类和G类一般都是每次必考，考一组，共3题左右。
多选多，不是每次必考。
2. 解题步骤(1) 找出题干中的关键词，最好先定位到原文中的一个段落。
将题干中的关键词与原文各段落的小标题或每段话的第一句相对照。
有些题目能先定位到原文中的一个段落，着必将大大加快解题时间，并提高准确率。
雅思听力解题技巧：多选题（multiplechoice）
多选题是考试中最传统的题型之⼀，⽐起单选题，多选题需要在审题时处理更多的选项信息，所以对考⽣的看题分析速度要求⽐较⾼;选项⼏乎在原⽂中都会出现，所以在做题时更需要集中精神进⾏分析和判断，区分⼲扰信息，找出多个正确答案。
⼀般来说多选题为五选⼆，六选⼆，六选三，七选⼆或者七选三。
在审题的过程中，当然还是要对题⼲和选项进⾏全⾯的分析。
和单选题相同，题⼲主要起到⼀个定位的作⽤，告诉考⽣⽂章的发展⽅向，提⽰考题答案的出现。
看题时⾸先需弄清楚题⽬问的是什么，当然多选题必然问的是有多种选择可能的地⽅，常见的有： Include/not include Dos/don’ts Advantages/ disadvantages Types/skills/topics/problems/reasons/results/requirements 除此之外，题⼲中的其他成分还能提⽰考⽣如何来区分正确答案，特别是题⼲中的时间状语或者地点状语。
例1： Cambridge 5 Test 1 Section 3 Question 24 and 25 What two types of coursework are required each month on the part-time course? A. a case study B. an essay C. a survey D. a short report E. a study diary 解析：题⼲要求选择两种类型的作业，时间状语each month题⽬中已由斜体字标出，必定是重要信息，限定了选择的⽅向，也提⽰考⽣选项的⼲扰可能会在时间上做⽂章。
五个选项各不相同，选项之间没有⼲扰，因此要根据题⼲要求对每个选项进⾏判断。
原⽂中前四个选项都有提到，根据题⼲中提⽰的⼲扰⽅向，A选项为学期结束要求完成的作业，并且可能包含了C 选项中的survey。
B选项直接以each month作时间状语，⽽D选项以 every four weeks为时间状语，作了⼀个同义转换，和each month是⼀样的。
MultipleChoiceQuestions
MultipleChoiceQuestionsMultiple Choice QuestionsMultiple Choice. Choose the best answer to each of the following questions.1. If a nation's domestic savings equals 6 and a nation's domestic investment equals10, then the nation is experiencing:A. a net capital outflow.B. a net capital inflow.C. no net capital inflow or outflow.D. a current account surplus.2. If a nation's domestic saving is 25 and the nation's domestic investment is 30,then the nation is experiencing:A. a current account surplus.B. a current account deficitC. a net capital inflowD. both B and C3. The balance on merchandise trade is a component ofA. the current account.B. the capital account.C. foreign direct investment.D. portfolio investment.4. A debit entry in the balance of payments accounts representsA. a transaction that includes a payment from abroad a domestic resident.B. a transaction that includes a payment abroad by a domestic resident.C. a decrease in the current account deficit.D. an increase in the capital account surplus.5. When a country faces a current account deficit, it also faces:A. a services trade deficit.B. a capital account deficit.C. a capital account surplus.D. a merchandise trade deficit.6. Given the following data, what is the country's current account balance?Merchandise trade balance = -120; Services trade balance = +45; Unilateral transfers made in excess of those received = 15.A. -60B. -90C. -100D. -1507. Which of the following exchange rates is adjusted for price changes?A. Nominal exchange rate.B. Real exchange rate.C. Effective exchange rate.D. Forward exchange rate.8. An economic transaction is recorded in the balance of payments as a credit if itleads toA. a payment to foreigners.B. the receipt of a payment from foreigners.C. a decrease in foreign exchange reserves.D. neither an inflow nor an outflow of value.9. When American residents buy bonds from Her Majesty’s Treasury in London, inthe foreign exchange market this will give rise toA. a demand for American dollars.B. a supply of British pounds.C. a supply of American dollars.D. none of the above.10. If a country’s nominal interest rate increases by the same percentage that th einflation rate has increased,A. international investors will withdraw their funds from the country.B. international investors will pour more funds into the country.C. international investors will demand an increase in the real interest rate the y are paid.D. none of the above.11. The difference between real income and absorption is equal to theA. current account.B. public budget deficit.C. exchange-rate.D. net national product.12. The simple model of the portfolio approach assumes households choose to holdtheir wealth in:A. money, domestic bonds, or foreign bonds.B. stocks and bonds only.C. bonds only.D. money only.13. When a central bank intervenes in foreign exchange markets, it does so using:A. the reserves it has deposited at the World Bank.B. a combination of foreign exchange reserves and private bank reserves.C. its own reserves of assets denominated in foreign currencies.D. a combination of reserve requirement and discount rate adjustments.14. The Group of Seven is a group of countries that have agreed to engage inA. a monetary union.B. a fixed exchange rate regime.C. international policy cooperation.D. a shared independent central bank.15．If a nation's domestic saving equals 18 and a nation's domestic investment equals 12, then the nation is experiencing:A. a current account deficit.B. a net capital inflow.C. no net capital inflow or outflow.D. a current account surplus.16．Suppose exchange rate of the Japanese Y en relative to the RMB is 14 (CNY 1=JPY 14). If the RMB is to undergo a 50 percent appreciation, the new exchange value would be:A. 7B. 21C. 8D. 1617. A phenomenon in which a depreciation of the domestic currency causes a nation'sbalance of payments to worsen before it improves is called:A. the J-curve effect.B. the S-curve effect.C. pass-through effects.D. devaluation.18．Which of the following BOP disequilibrium could not last long relatively？A. monetary disequilibrium.B. income disequilibrium.C. temporary disequilibrium.D. structural disequilibrium.19．An exchange rate that is weighted by the share of each partner in a nation's trade is an example of aA. spot exchange rate.B. nominal exchange rate.C. effective exchange rate.D. real exchange rate.20．If the price of a T-shirt in the U.S. is $12, the price of the same T-shirt in Ger many is €8, and the exchange rate is 1.5 $/€, the Euro:A. is correctly valued according to PPP.B. is overvalued according to PPP.C. is undervalued according to PPP.D. none of the above.21. Which of the following is recorded as a debit item in the U.S. balance ofpayments accounts?A. An Italian firm pays $5 million in dividends to the holders of its stock in the U.S.B. The French Club Med hires four American scuba diving instructors for its new resort on the Italian island of Sardinia.C. Toyota builds a factory in the U.S. to manufactureautomobiles.D. Remittances from Cambodian immigrants in the U.S. flow to their relatives in Thailand’s refugee centers.22．The most heavily traded currency on the Eurocurrency market is theA. Japanese yen.B. British pound.C. Canadian dollar.D. U.S. dollar.23．If domestic saving equals 20 and domestic investment equals 8, then the current account balance equals:A. -28B. -12C. +12D. +2824．In order for the purchase of stocks to be categorized as foreign direct investment, it must represent at least _______ percent of the foreign entity's outstanding stock.A. 1B. 10C. 25D. 4025. Which of the following statements is false?A. British imports of Florida oranges will create a demand for U.S. dollars.B. If all Americans buy Japanese cars, the dollar will appreciate relative to the yen.C. The American dollar is often used as a vehicle currency.D. Australia, Canada, New Zealand and Taiwan all use currencies called “dollars.”26．The spot exchange rates published in financial newspapers are usually:A. nominal exchange rates.B. real exchange rates.C. effective exchange rates.D. forward exchange rates.27. All other things being equal, which of the following would not cause the price ofa foreign currency (e) to fall?A. A rise in the home country’s expected inflation rate.B. A rise in the foreign country’s expected inflation rate.C. A drop in the foreign country’s real income.D. A rise in the foreign count ry’s money supply.28. If a U.S. firm borrows one billion dollars in Mexican pesos from Citibank’sMexico branch and uses the money to build a factory in Mexico, the transition will enter the U.S. balance of payments as a credit onA. short-term private capital inflow and a debit on direct investmentpayments.B. long-term private capital inflow and a debit on long-term private capitaloutflow.C. long-term private capital inflow and a debit on direct investment.D. short-term private capital inflow and a debit on short-term private capitaloutflow.29. The dominant international borrower in the past decadehas beenA. the developing countries.B. t he European countries.C. t he countries of the former Soviet Union.D. the United States.30. Borrowing from abroad is aA. capital import and therefore a debit item.B. c apital export and therefore a credit item.C. capital import and therefore a credit item.D. capital export and therefore a debit item.31. If a coun try’s net foreign investment amounts to –$15 billion, this implies anequivalentA. current account deficit.B. c urrent account surplus.C. t rade balance surplus.D. overall balance deficit.32. Suppose the exchange rate between the Canadian dollar (C$) and theAmerican dollar (US$) changes from C$1.340/US$ to C$1.325/US$, but theCanadian government wants to maintain a fixed exchange rate ofC$1.340/US$. What should the Bank of Canada do?A. Stop trading with the U.S. so that fewer U.S. dollars will flow into Canada.B. S ell U.S. dollars (buy Canadian dollars).C. Sell Canadian dollars (buy U.S. dollars).D. Purchase British pounds and sell French francs.33. If a dollar equals 400 Mexican pesos in the foreignexchange market, what isthe value of one peso?A. $250B. $0.0025C. $0.04D. $1.2534. Suppose an American speculator anticipates the spot rate on the yen in 180days will be higher than today’s 180-day forward rate on yen ($0.0072).Which of these investments is best if she is correct?A. Sell one million yen today in the forward market for delivery in 180 days.B. B uy one million yen today in the forward market for delivery in 180days.C. B uy dollars today in the spot market.D. Buy dollars today in the forward market for delivery in 180 days.35. Covered interest parity is a condition whereA. the forward value of a currency will tend to exceed its spot value bythe same percentage as its interest rate is lower than foreign interestrates.B. t he spot value will tend to exceed its forward value by the same percentageas the domestic interest rate is lower than foreign interest rates.C. t he domestic and foreign interest rates are equalized.D. the spot and forward rates are equalized.36. Suppose you are an established speculator with an excellent reputation, butcurrently without liquid funds. You believe the dollar is going to appreciate.What would you do?A. Borrow dollars in the U.S. and sell the dollars in the spot exchange market.B. B uy foreign (non-dollar) currencies forward.C. Sell foreign (non-dollar) currencies forward.D. Borrow yen in Japan and sell them on the spot market.37. If today’s spot rate on the British p ound is $2 and the 30-day forward rate onthe pound is $2.10 (ignoring any interest earnings or costs), then a speculatorwhoA. purchased 100 British pounds forward today can make $10 profit in 30days.B. p urchased 100 British pounds spot today can make $10 profit 30 daysfrom now.C. s old 100 British pounds forward today can make ￡10 profit 30 days fromnow.D. sold 100 British pounds spot today can make ￡10 profit30 days from now.38. Assume the interest rate in the U.S. exceeds Japan’s by 4 p ercentage points onan annual basis. If you were a speculator, you would take along position inyen ifA. the value of the yen is expected to increase by two percentage points on anannual basis.B. t he value of the yen is expected to fall by four percentage points.C. t he value of the yen is expected to fall by less than four percentage points.D. the value of the dollar is expected to fall by more than four percentagepoints.39. Under the asset market approach, if both U.S. and British interest rates rise bythree percentage points, we could expectA. the dollar to appreciate.B. t he dollar to depreciate.C. the exchange rate between the dollar and the pound to remainunchanged.D. investors to move their funds to a third country.40. If monetary authorities in the U.S. want to “lean against the wind,” theyshouldA. sell the dollar when it is depreciating relative to the yen.B. s ell the dollar when it is appreciating relative to the yen.C. b uy the yen when it is appreciating relative to the dollar.D. buy the dollar when it is appreciating relative to the yen.41. Under fixed exchange rates, if capital is perfectly mobile,A. both monetary and fiscal policy are powerful.B. n either monetary nor fiscal policy is powerful.C. fiscal policy is powerful but monetary policy is not.D. monetary policy is powerful but fiscal policy is not.42. International macroeconomic policy coordination has been rare becauseA. people speak different languages, making meetings difficult.B. c ountries do not always agree on goals that are mutually consistent.C. t he gains to coordination may be small.D. all of the above.。
新视野大学英语(第二版)读写教程-3-课后习题答案unit-unit7
Unit 1III1 beneath2 disguised3 whistles4 restrain5 grasp6 longing7 praying8 faithful9 pledge 10 drainIV1 tell …on you2 track down3 work it out4 picking on me5 reckoned with6 call on7 on his own8 get through9 in disguise 10 revolves around VG O D I K L B F A NVI1 advise2 level3 problems4 necessity5 skills6 experience7 solution8 value9 tool 10 mannerVII1 air-conditioned(装空调的；有冷气的)2 handmade（手工制作的）3 thunderstruck（非常吃惊的）4 heartfelt（衷心的；诚挚的）5 data-based （基于数据的）6 self-employed（自主经营的）7 custom-built（定制的；定做的）8 weather-beaten（饱经风霜的）VIII1. well-informed（对……非常熟悉的）2 new-found（新获得的）3hard-earned（辛苦挣得的）4 soft-spoken（说话温柔的）5 newly-married（新婚的）6 widely-held（普遍认为的）7 well-meant（出于好意的）8 well-educated（受过良好教育的）IX1 no matter how different it may seem form any other substance2 no matter what a woman tries to do to improve her situation3 no matter what excuse he gives4 no matter what anyone else may think5 no matter how they rewrite historyX1 just as we gained fame in victory, we lost nothing in defeat2 just as the head teacher plays a significant role in the school, Jane plays a significant role f leader in the classroom.3 whoever was out there obviously couldn’t see him just as he couldn’t see them.4 she has been searching all her life for the perfect chocolate just as I have been searching for the perfect beer.5 you can make those kinds of parisons just as you were doing the analyses a minute ago.XI1. No matter how experienced a speaker you are, and how well you have prepared your speech, you will have difficulty making a speech at such a noisy reception.2. Just as all his sister’s friends cared about him, Jimmy cared about them.3. Car manufacturers stamp a vehicle identification number at several places on new cars to help track down stolen vehicles.4. If you dare tell on me when the teacher gets back I won’t say a word to you any more.5. Some elderly people prefer to live on their own while the great majority choose to live with their children.6. Here is something that needs to be reckoned with: how to get the necessary finances to establish the pany.XII1. 每当有人帮了你，无论事情大小，无论他地位高低，你都应该对他说声“谢谢”。
2013年上半年三级秘书资格证国家统考真题（英语）
以下是为⼤家整理的关于《2013年上半年三级秘书资格证国家统考真题（英语）》的⽂章，供⼤家学习参考！ 涉外秘书(国家职业资格三级)英语试卷 注意事项 1、请按要求在试卷的标封处填写您的姓名、准考证号、⾝份证号和所在地区。
2、请仔细阅读各种题⽬的回答要求，并在规定的位置填写您的答案。
3、请保持卷⾯整洁，不要在试卷上作任何与答题⽆关的标记，也不得在标封区 填写⽆关的内容。
A. Listening Test 【注意：本试卷听⼒部分录⾳在“秘书英语听⼒录⾳三级03”中。
】 I.Directions：Listen to the dialogue and choose the best answers for the questions.(5 questions， 2 marks for each question， 10 marks altogether) 1. Who is receiving the call? (A)The manger of the Sale Department (B)Anyone in the office (C)Miss Wood (D)Mr. Bligh 正确率：92.99% 2. Who is Mr. Heine? . (A)The General Manager (B)The assistant manager (C)The secretary (D)The manager of the Sales Department 正确率：80.90% 3. What does the man complain about on the phone call? (A)The product they receive from the company (B)The service it offers (C)The appointment delayed (D)The General Manager 正确率：83.73% 4. The woman promised to call the man back _________ . (A)in 13 minutes (B)in half an hour (C)in 20 minutes (D)in an hour 正确率：58.96% 5. What’s the woman’s attitude towards the man? (A)Polite and patient (B)Conceited and dominant (C)Indignant and impatient (D)Cold and rude 正确率：89.10% II. Directions： Listen to the passage and fill in the gaps with the correct words you hear. (1 mark for each blank， 10 marks altogether). Shop workers probably have the untidiest desks of all. The desks of shop workers are used for a number of 1 . They often have a 2.________ and a telephone to take care of paper work， but they also use their desk as a place to lay their 3._______ tools as they work at their 4.______tasks.In many machine shops，you will also be 5._______at how dirty a shop worker's desk is! Shop 6._________have to do a variety of physical tasks that often 7. _____greasy equipment. Of course， the grease from the tools and the 8._______ dirty the desk as the shop worker sits down to do a 9._______or make a telephone call. Shop workers 10. _______don't clean their desk too often as they know that the desks will just get dirty the next time they sit down to have a cup of coffee. 过半⽐率：84.93% 得分 评分⼈ B. Written Test I. Vocabulary and structure Directions： Multiple Choice questions (1 mark for each， 20 questions， 20 marks altogether) 1 .After two hours waiting， her patience was beginning to ____________. (A) break up (B) run out (C) pass by (D) give away 正确率：68.96% 2. They suggested she should ________advice from the legal department. (A) seek (B) find (C) search (D) ask 正确率：20.30% 3. Will you help me _______how to do these sums? I’m completely stuck. (A) point out (B) come across (C) figure out (D) look out 正确率：63.88% 4. The discovery of the ruins of an ancient palace was the _______ of their expedition. (A) climax (B) crisis (C) opportunity (D) adventure 正确率：25.97% 5. I’d like to write to him， but what’s the _________? He never writes back. (A) significance (B) business (C) point (D) purpose 正确率：32.99% 6. He would see Sarah tonight， and a ________ of her face suddenly came to his mind. (A) scene (B) vision (C) sign (D) symbol 正确率：36.27% 7. It was his wife’s encouragement that had __________him through the bad times. (A) delivered (B) sent (C) relieved (D) brought 正确率：55.52% 8. One of the _______ of foreign travel is learning how to cope with the unexpected.(A) benefits (B) profits (C) interests (D) services 正确率：73.73% 9. The work he was upon would ______ him， he hoped， the fellowship to Oxford. (A) allow (B) earn (C) accept (D) reward 正确率：8.96% 10. He ______ that his guests were bored， although they were listening politely. (A) impressed (B) inferred (C) sensed (D) identified 正确率：47.01% 11. ______ who would like to go on the trip should put their names on the list. (A) Those (B) Somebody (C) These (D) The ones 正确率：46.87% 12. The only thing ______ is that you consult your lawyer about it. (A) which I can suggest (B) that I can suggest (C) which can suggest (D) that can suggest 正确率：57.91% 13. She must know what’s happening， ______ a complete idiot. (A) so is she (B) and she is (C) or she is (D) nor is she 正确率：49.40% 14. For ten years he did not see Sophia______ to her. (A) or to telephone (B) or telephone (C) nor telephoning (D) nor telephone 正确率：44.03% 15. The children were eventually found ______ in an old mineshaft (矿井). (A) to hide (B) hide (C) hiding (D) hid 正确率：61.79% 16. He isn’t rich. ______ that he ever will be. (A) Nor I imagine (B) Neither do I imagine (C) I also don’t imagine (D) I neither imagine 正确率：68.36% 17. I want you to tell my friend your very interesting experience ______ you have told it to me. (A) the way (B) just like (C) the manner (D) the same as 正确率：17.01% 18. “Do you want to stay for supper?” “I ______， if you don’t mind. (A) would much rather go home (B) much rather go home (C) would rather go home much (D) go home much rather 正确率：50.00%19. Show me the man you honor ______ what kind of a man you are. (A) that I will know (B) but I will know (C) so will I know (D) and I will know 正确率：59.40% 20. ______ I’ve got my own car I don’t get as much exercise as I used to. (A) For (B) Now that (C) While (D) Just that 正确率：20.60% II. Reading Comprehension SectionADirections：Read the following passage and do the multiple choice questions. (2 marks each， 10marks altogether) Globalcall Communications 13 Globalcall Communications has grown from a telecommunications solutions provider for local businesses in the greater Seattle metropolitan area to a truly global corporation providing telecommunications solutions for clients both large and small. Established to fill a significant market gap for simple communication solutions， the company first expanded to most major North American cities before becoming a major multinational player. Presently， the company is extending operations to include voice over IP， as well as high -speed cable Internet access. Globalcall Communications' team includes more than 40，000 specialists worldwide in more than 20 countries on three continents. Next year will see the deployment of a third generation wireless communications network in Asian countries. The future looks bright for Globalcall Communications. By 2005 the company will be servicing more than 15 million households and businesses globally. Globalcall Communications will have become a household word. We look forward to serving clients and are planning to do everything in our power to make sure that your communication future is unlimited AND simple. Questions： 1. The company has become ___________to provide telecommunications solutions to various clients. (A) a computer software solutions (B) a telecommunications solutions provider (C) a major multinational company (D) an agent offering solutions to clients 14 2. The company was first built to ________________. (A) become a multinational player in some North American cities (B) to meet the need of most large North American cities as a major multinational player (C) fill a market gap as a major multinational player (D) to meet the demand of the market to provide simple communication solutions 3. Globalcall communications is extending operations and their business including all of the following except _________________. (A) high-speed cable Internet access (B) voice over IP (C) PC computers (D) a third generation wireless communications network 4. The company will extend their business and ___________ . 15 (A) will do business only on three continents in the future (B) will serve more than 15 million households and business in the world (C) will become a provider only for households in the future. (D) will be a well-known company in the world in the future 5. The passage is most probably written for the purpose of __________. (A) promoting the company (B) informing the customer of some news (C) encouraging consumers (D) entertaining readers Section B Directions： Read the following paragraph and do the multiple choice.(2 marks each， 10marks altogether) Two years of responsible and varied secretarial and clerical experience. Education equivalent to the completion of the twelfth grade， including or supplemented by coursework in typing， office management， or other related skill areas. Organization and coordination of 16 clerical functions at an above average level of responsibility. Typing or keyboard certificate for 50 words per minute. Ability to demonstrate basic competency in Microsoft Word or Word Perfect. Knowledge of English usage， grammar， spelling and punctuation and ability to compose correspondence independently and prepare concise and complete reports as required. Ability to speak， read， and write Spanish fluently. Questions： 1. The passage above is most probably _________ . (A) a job advertisement for a secretary. (B) a job advertisement for a clerk (C) a job advertisement for a manager (D) a job advertisement for a teacher 2. Candidates must complete ___________ . (A) vocational college education. (B) university education (C) high school education 17 (D) postgraduate education 3. What kind of competencies are demanded for candidates? _________ . (A) Typing (B) Computer (C) English and Spanish (D) All of the above 4. All of the following are the qualification demanded for candidates Except _ _. (A) organization and cooperation (B) excellent problem solving ability (C) secretarial and clerical experience (D) responsibility 18 5. The passage is most probably taken from _____________ . (A) newspapers and magazines (B) a book (C) a training course book (D) a menu 过半⽐率：85.97% III. Translation Directions： Translate the following passage into Chinese. (20 marks) 1. Many thanks for your hospitality during my visit to Manchester. It was very kind of you to give me so much of your valuable time， especially when you have such a lot to do. 2.Two of our export representatives will be flying from New York to London in two weeks’ time. We would be obliged if you book two economy class seats for them on a flight. 3.The high quality of our product is well known and universally acknowledged and we are confident that a trial order would convince you that the goods we offer are excellent value for money. 19 4.When we say that language is always ambiguous， what we mean is that we can never fully control the meanings of the things we say and write. 5.Such a greenhouse effect is created when energy in the form of sunlight easily passes through a planet’s atmosphere， warms its surface， and is converted to heat radiation that is then held in by the atmosphere. 过半⽐率：59.70% IV. Writing： Below is a note provided for you to write a letter to informa visit.(5 marks for the format of letter， the body of the letter is 15marks， altogether 20 marks) You are Diana Dearing，secretary of NEC Company.You are going to write a letter on May 27，2007 to inform Henry Bonnington of DMF Company，20 Jinhua Nanlu，Xian，about your manager’s visit to Xian. Your address is NEC Company， 67， 52nd Street， New York， NY 13007， USA. Your letter should include the following items. - Mr. Hanson， Manager of the Company and Mr. Robinson， Marketing Director would like to visit Xian in Sept. for a week. - to continue the discussions on the project . - ask if the planned visit is convenient. - ask them to suggest an itinerary. - ask them to request the Embassy here to issue the visa. 过半⽐率：54.93%。
MultiplechoiceQuestions2007
Name: _____________________________SID: ______________University of New South WalesSchool of AccountingACCT2542 - Corporate Financial Reporting and AnalysisMid-session ExaminationSession 2, 2007Time allowed: 90 minutes (inclusive of reading time) Total number of questions: 30 multiple choice questions1.For all multiple choice questions the best answer must be indicated in pencil onthe generalised answer sheet provided. If the student fails to properly indicate his/her answer on the generalised answer sheet provided, all requests for special consideration to remark the examination paper will be denied.2.There is no negative marking for these questions.3.Questions 1-30 are of equal marks.4.Electronic calculators may be used.5.This exam paper and the answer sheet must be submitted at the end of theexamination.Multiple Choice Questions (30 Marks)Choose the best answer and indicate this on the generalised answer sheet provided.Introduction to Corporate Financial Reporting1. A taskforce of the Institute of Chartered Accountants in Australia suggestedthat directors be permitted, as they were some years ago, to elect not to comply with Accounting Standards if they considered compliance with the Standards was not in the interests of presenting true-and-fair financial statements (that is, to reintroduce the ‘true-and-fair over-ride system’).Disadvantages of this initiative include:I.creates flexibility for those situations where an Accounting Standard isnot particularly suited to particular transactions or circumstances;II.allows management to select its own accounting methods, which may enable it to prepare financial statements which more efficiently reflectthe financial performance and financial position of the entity;III.allows too much discretion for managers and therefore would tend to provide some scope for opportunism;IV.creates problems in terms of comparing results across periods in which directors elect not to comply with Accounting Standards;V.increases the objectivity of financial statements.A.I, II and IIIB.I, III and IVC.II, III and IVD.III and IVE.All of the above2. The Financial Reporting Panel established under the auspices of the AustralianSecurities and Investments Commission intends to provide:A.A timely, efficient and cost-effective way of resolving disputes concerningaccounting treatments in financial reports.B.The opportunity to be heard by persons with relevant expertise.C. A mechanism to alleviate some concerns regarding the use of the courts foradjudication on technical accounting issues.D.All of the above.E.None of the above.3. A recent noteworthy development in relation to Australian Stock Exchangerequired disclosures is the establishment of the ASX Corporate GovernanceCouncil, and the issue of Principles of Good Corporate Governance and BestPractice Recommendations. In relation to these principles:A.All companies governed by the Corporations Act 2001 must abide by theseprinciples and recommendations.B.The Australian Accounting Standards Board (AASB) has incorporated theprinciples and recommendations into the Accounting Framework.C.All ASX-listed companies are compelled by law to comply in entirety withthese principles and recommendations.D.All ASX-listed companies are compelled to change their corporate governancesystems to ensure total compliance with these principles andrecommendations.E.All ASX-listed companies must follow these principles and recommendations,and where they have not, they must identify the fact that they have not andgive reasons for not following them.4. In accordance with Corporations Act, which of the following companies arerequired to prepare financial reports?I.Proprietary Company with revenues of $12 million, total assets of $4million and number of employees totalling 80.II.Proprietary Company with revenues of $25.5 million, total assets of $13 million and number of employees totalling 40.pany listed on the stock exchange.pany that issued a public debtV.Reporting entitiesA.All of the aboveB.I, II, III, and IV onlyC.II, III, IV and V onlyD.II, III and IV onlyE.III, IV and V only5. Bowen Pty Ltd is a small proprietary company with seven directors. Four ofthe seven directors own 75% of the ordinary shares and the remaining sharesare owned by family members of the directors. The company also has 15 trade creditors and an open line of credit with one state bank. Is Bowen Pty Ltd areporting entity and hence required to prepare general-purpose financialreports?A.Yes, because dependent users exist.B.Yes, because there are trade creditors who are external users.C.No, because it is a small proprietary firm.D.No, because there are no obvious users who are unable to command thepreparation of information from the entity.E.None of the above6. Ms Marple is an accounting cadet for one of the big accounting firms. She is abit confused as to which of the following references should be applied first indealing with an accounting issue.I. Industry PracticeII. Accounting StandardsIII. Conceptual FrameworkIV. International Financial Reporting Interpretations CommitteeWhich ordering would you recommend?A.I, II, III, IV;B.II, IV, III, I;C.II, I, IV, III;D.III, II, I, IV;E.IV, III, II, I.Principles of Disclosure7. Which of the following material after balance day events are considered adjusting events?A: Settlement after reporting date of a court case that confirms that the entity has a present obligation on reporting date.B: An announcement of a plan to discontinue a business operation after balance date. C: Decline in market value of investments between reporting date and the date when the financial report is authorised for issue.D: All of the above.E: A and C.8. To conform with AASB 101 “Presentation of Financial Statements”, which statements are required to be included in a general purpose financial report?A: Statement of financial position, Statement of financial performance, Statement of cash flows and notes to the accounts.B: Statement of financial position, Statement of financial performance, Statement of cash flows, Statement of changes in owners’ equity and notes to the accounts.C: Balance sheet, Income statement, Cash flow Statement, Statement of changes in owners’ equity and notes to the accounts.D: Balance sheet, Income statement, Cash flow Statement and notes to the accounts. E: C or D.9. Birong Ltd. issued $200 million preference shares after reporting date. What is the classification of this subsequent event and what is the accounting treatment prescribed in AASB 110?A: adjusting event; no disclosure necessary.B: adjusting event; with appropriate disclosure.C: non-adjusting event; no disclosure necessary.D: non-adjusting event; with appropriate disclosure.E: None of the above10: If it becomes apparent to an entity that new events or conditions have resulted that indicate that the entity is no longer a going concern, the entity must:A: treat this as a non-adjusting event and disclose the reason for the breach of the going concern assumption.B: treat this as an adjusting event and adjust the affected accounts in the financial report.C: prepare its financial report on a going concern basis and ask the auditor to indicate in the opinion the breach of the going concern basis.D: prepare the financial reports adopting a fundamental change in the basis of accounting, say use of liquidation values instead of modified historical cost basis. E: None of the above.11. The new accounting standard on intangible assets AASB 138 applies to all financial reports issued after 1 January 2005. The company accountant of Knapp Ltd was unaware that this standard was applicable to research and development (R&D) expenses. In brief, the new standard requires all expenditures in the research phase be recognised as expense when incurred. On the other hand, development phase expenditures may be capitalised if future economic benefits are expected to exceed the costs incurred. The company is preparing the accounts for the year ended 30 June 2007. But after careful analysis of the R&D asset account, the company accountant noted that the following research phase expenditures have been capitalised:Period spentYear ending 2007 $60,000Year ending 2006 $80,000Total $140.000To comply with AASB 108, Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors, the accountant should: (assume amounts are material)A: Write-off R&D asset balance of $140,000 to retained earnings in 2007.B: Write-off R&D asset balance of $60,000 to profit and loss in 2007 and write-off R&D asset balance of $80,000 to profit and loss of 2006 (comparative amount).C: Write-off R&D asset balance by $70,000 (half of the write down) to profit and loss and half the balance to $70,000 to profit and loss of 2006 (comparative amount);D: Write-off R&D asset of $140,000 to profit and loss in 2007.E: Make no changes to the amounts, i.e. apply the change prospectively in 2008.12. The accountant realised that he had used the incorrect depreciation rates to calculate the carrying amount of several buildings when preparing the 2006 statements. The accountant is preparing the financial statement for the year ended 30 June 2007. The difference between using the different rates amounts to a difference of $300,000. To comply with AASB 108, Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors, the accountant should:A: Make a prospective change to the 2007 figures, on the basis that he has made an error in 2006;B: Make a prospective change to the 2007 figures, on the basis that he is making a change to an estimate in 2006;C: Make a retrospective change to the 2006 figures, on the basis that there has been a change in accounting policy;D: Make a retrospective change to the 2006 figures, on the basis that he is making a change to an estimate in 2007E: Make a retrospective change to the 2006 figures, on the basis that he has made an error in 2006Presentation of Financial Statements13. When items of income and expense are material, and their nature and amount are separately disclosed, this could indicate the existence of:A: An extraordinary item.B: An abnormal item.C: An adjusting item.D: An unusual item.E: A major item.14: Total recognised income and expense is also defined as:A: Net profit reported in the income statement.B: Net operating cash flows reported on the cash flow statement.C: Net profit reported on the income statement, plus total of all income and expenses recognised directly in equity.D: Net operating cash flows reported on the cash flow statement, plus total of all income and expenses recognised directly in equity.E: Net operating cash flows reported on the cash flow statement, plus net profit reported in the income statement.15. Which of the following items is/are limitations of a balance sheet?A: The optional measurement of assets at historical cost or depreciated historical cost rather than at current values;B: The omission of internally generated intangibles;C: The existence of items that lead to off-balance sheet rights and obligations;D: All of the above.E: A and B.16. For each of the following items, choose the presentation basis required in AASB 101 for Income Statements (i.e. disclosure either on the face or on the notes to the accounts).Revenue Profit attributed tominority interests Disposal of majorplant andequipmentFinance CostA: Face Face Choice of face ornotesFaceB: Face Choice of face ornotesFace FaceC: Choice of face or notes Face Choice of face ornotes FaceD: Choice of face or notes Choice of face ornotesFace Choice of face ornotesE: None of the above17. Which of the following statement(s) are true of balance sheets?A: All current assets are always expected to be realised within the next accounting period.B: The current and non-current presentation is most relevant to those entities with clearly identifiable operating cycle.C: Banks and financial institutions commonly use the current and non-current format of presentation.D: All of the above.E: A and B.18: Examples of classification of expenses by their nature are:A: Employee expenses and distribution expenses.B: Depreciation and marketing expenses.C: Borrowing costs and distribution expenses.D: Employee expenses and depreciation expenses.E: None of the above.Earnings per share19. The earnings per share figure is of interest to shareholders and potential investors because:A: It calculates the relationship between the share price and the earnings of the entity so that it reflects the market’s evaluation of the quality of earnings of the entity.B: It may be a useful predictor of share price to the extent that earnings are linked to future cash flows and the market reacts to unexpected changes in earnings.C: The relationship between dividends and earnings provides a useful prediction of the likely future cash flows to shareholders from their investment in the entity.D: It calculates the return on the capital invested by each shareholder for the period and so is a key benchmark for evaluating the success of the entity.E: None of the above.20. In accordance with AASB 133 “Earnings per share” the number of shares included in the weighted-average number of shares is determined by:A: The number of shares that meet the definition of ordinary shares as at the end of the reporting period.B: The number of shares that are on issue as ordinary shares for part or all of the period.C: The number of ordinary shares (that meet the definition of ordinary shares) at the beginning of the period plus any ordinary shares issued during the period less any reductions in ordinary shares during the period.D: The number of ordinary shares (as defined) that are issued or partly paid up at the beginning of the period plus any shares issued during the period whether fully or partly paid up.E: None of the above.。
Solutions to Problems
Solutions to ProblemsChapter 111.Solutions:The term “lipid”does not specify a particular chemical structure.Compounds are categorized as lipids based on their greater solubility in organic solvents than in water.4. Hydrophobic units:(a) 2 fatty acids; (b), (c) and (d) 1 fatty acid and the hydrocarbonchain of sphingosine; (e) the hydrocarbon backbone.Hydrophilic units:(a) phosphoethanolamine; (b) phosphocholine; (c) D-galactose; (d)several sugar molecules; e) alcohol group (OH)6. (a) The free OH group on C-2 and the phosphorylcholine head groupon C-3 are hydrophilic; the fatty acid on C-1 of lysolecithin ishydrophobic.(b) Certain steroids such as prednisone inhibit the action of phospholipase A2, inhibiting the release of arachidonic acid from C-2. Arachidonic acid is converted to a variety of eicosanoids, some of which cause inflammation and pain.(c) Phospholipase A2 releases arachidonic acid, a precursor of other eicosanoids with vital protective functions in the body; it also breaks down dietary glycerophospholipids.8. Water-soluble vitamins are more rapidly excreted in the urine and are not stored effectively. Fat-soluble vitamins have very low solubility in water and are stored in body lipids.11. First eluted to last eluted: cholesteryl palmitate and triacylglycerol; cholesterol and n-tetradecanol; phosphatidylcholine and phosphatidylethanolamine; sphingormyelin; and phosphatidylserine and palmitate.Chapter 122.The data support a bilayer of lipid in the dog erythrocytes. The surfacearea of 8x109 dog cells is 62 m2, or 190 um2, and the total area of a lipid monolayer from one cell is 98 um2. In the case of sheep and human erythrocytes, the data suggest a monolayer, not a bilayer. In fact, there were significant experimental errors in these early experiments; recent, more accurate measurements support a bilayer in all cases.3.Solution: The molecular weight of SDS is :Mr = 23 + 12x12 + 25 + 96 = 288The number of SDS molecules existing in the average micelle is :N = 18000/288 = 63So, there are 63 SDS molecules per micelle.4.(a) Lipids that form bilayers are amphipathic molecules: they containa hydrophilic and a hydrophobic unit. To minimize the hydrophobicarea that is exposed to the water surface, these lipids form two-dimensional sheets with the hydrophilic units exposed to water and the hydrophobic units buried in the interior of the sheet.Furthermore, to avoid exposing the hydrophobic edges of the sheet to water, lipid bilayers close upon themselves. Similarly, if the sheet is perforated, the hole will seal because the membrane is semifluid.(b) These sheets form the closed membrane surfaces that envelop cellsand compartments within cells. (organelles)7.1) If neglecting the effects of transmembrane electrical potential, theamount of free energy required to concentrate the H+in 1 liter of gastric juice at 370C is:△G t =RT ln(C2/C1)=8.315 x 310 x ln(10-1.5/10-7.4) = 35 (kJ/mol)2) The amount of ATP required for coupling is :N = 35 / 58 = 0.60 mol8.The free energy change for transporting 1 mol of Na+ out of the celland into the blood at 370C is:△G t = RT ln(C2/C1) + ZF△Φ= 8.315 x 310 x ln (145/12) + 96480 x 0.07= 13 kJ/mol9.Most of the oxygen consumed by a tissue is for oxidativephosphorylation, the source of most of the ATP. Therefore, abouttwo-thirds of the ATP synthesized by the kidney is used for pumping K+ and Na+.11.S alt extraction indicates a peripheral location, and inaccessibility toprotease in intact cells indicates an internal location. X resembles a peripheral membrane protein.16. (Note: pay attention to the unit of each quantity)The total number of AQP-1 tetramer in an erythrocyte is:N tetramer = 2 x 105 /4 = 5 x 104The total number of water molecules flow through an erythrocyte in a second is:N water = 5 x 104 x 5 x 108 = 2.5 x 1013The molar number of 2.5 x 1013 H2O is2.5 x 1013 / 6.02x1023=4.15x10-11(mol)That is, the flow rate of water molecules through erythrocyte in mol/sec is 4.15x10-11mol/secSo, the time required to halve the volume of erythrocyte is: T = 2.5x10-11/(18x4.15x10-11)= 2.2 x 10-3 second17. Treat a suspension of cells with unlabeled NEM in the presence of excess lactose, remove the lactose, then add rediolabeled NEM. Use SDS-PAGE to determine the M r of the radiolabeled band (the transporter).19. The leucine transporter is specific for the L isomer, but the binding site can accommodate either L-leucine or L-valine. Reduction of V max in the absence of Na+indicates that leucine (valine) is transported by symport with Na+.。
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SOLUTIONS TO MULTIPLE CHOICEQUESTIONS_________________________________________Chapter 5: Overview of elements of the financial report audit process5.1(a) B The auditor analyses and reviews accounting data as part of the evidence gatheringprocess. The auditor does not record data or prepare financial reports.(b) D The auditor is concerned with the truth and fairness of the presentation of accounting datain the financial report, which is affected by the way the original accounting data iscollected and the allocation and reclassification of the accounting data.5.2 (a) A If inventory is being stolen, then the recorded inventory may no longer exist.(b) C Completeness means that all transactions and accounts that should be included in thefinancial report are included. Goods owned by the company that are in transit should beincluded, but may be missed because they are not on hand.5.3 (a) B Ultimately the decision as to the audit procedures that need to be applied requiresprofessional judgment based on the facts of the situation.(b) C Audit procedures are used to obtain evidence to corroborate accounting data.5.4 (a) B External evidence obtained directly by the auditor is the most reliable form of evidence.(b) B Client invoices are internal documents.5.5(a) A The higher the level of assurance required, the lower the required detection risk.(b) D If control risk increases, then detection risk needs to decrease to achieve the same level ofaudit risk.5.6(a) D Testing evidence to establish whether a check has been carried out is a test of control.(b) C Substantive tests are aimed at verifying the reasonableness of the dollar amounts in thefinancial report.5.7(a) C The valuation of fixed assets is the least subjective item listed and the easiest to verify.(b) B The expert does not have to use the same methods and assumptions as the client; ratherthey apply their own expertise in these matters..5.6 (a) C Lead schedules summarise all final amounts that will appear in the financial report.(b) A Analysis of share capital and other owners’ equity accounts will be relevant to ongoingaudits.Chapter 6: Planning, understanding the entity and evaluating business risk6.1(a) B The auditor’s inquiries of the previous auditor cover the previous auditor’s understandingof the reasons for the change to enable a decision to be made as to whether to accept thenomination.(b) C The engagement letter sets out the terms of the engagement, including the responsibilitiesassumed by management and the auditors.6.2(a) A Early appointment of the auditor enables efficient planning, as the auditor is able toidentify risks and take early action where necessary.(b) B A key element of planning is to identify key risks and ensure appropriate attention is givento these high-risk areas.6.3(a) B The auditor uses financial report assertions to identify risks and then ensure an appropriateresponse through audit procedures set out in the audit program addressing those assertions.(b) D An audit program should set out the detailed audit procedures necessary to achieve theobjective of the audit.6.4(a) D Time budgets are used to estimate the costs of the audit, determine the staffingrequirements and then monitor the actual costs incurred.(b) A A time budget assists in controlling the total time worked on an audit and the amount oftime spent on the different areas of the audit.6.5(a) C If the auditor does not have the necessary knowledge about the industry in which the clientoperates, the auditor should obtain that knowledge before commencing the audit, as thisinformation is necessary for the auditor to carry out their work properly.(b) C The auditor gains knowledge of the client’s business to identify the events, transactions,practices and risks that could have a significant effect on the financial report..6.6 (a) B A poor distribution network is an internal fact and so is a weakness, not a threat.(b) D Business risk is the risk that an entity’s business objectives will not be attained as a resultof the external and internal factors, pressures and forces brought to bear on the entity and,ultimately, the risk associated with the entity’s profitability and survival.6.7(a) D Comparing disbursements with supporting documentation is vouching, which is asubstantive test of details.(b) A A decrease in the inventory turnover ratio indicates a build-up in inventory, which mightbe caused by obsolete inventory.Chapter 8: Understanding and assessing internal control8.1 (a) C The auditor is concerned with controls that affect the financial report.(b) C The auditor’s understanding of internal control makes it possible to assess control risk, inorder to determine the nature, timing and extent of other audit tests.8.2(a) A Embezzlement cannot be eliminated.(b) B Controls all have a cost, and entities will only implement controls if the benefits exceed thecosts.8.3(a) D Employees must be competent and not given tasks above their abilities in order for thecontrols to be carried out properly.(b) A The cashier would have both custody of and recording functions in relation to theremittances, which is a lack of segregation of duties.8.4(a) B Internal audit monitors employees compliance with controls.(b) D Authorisation is a control activity, not part of the control environment.8.5(a) C Observation is an audit procedure that is often used to test procedures that leave no audittrail, such as segregation of duties.(b) D The auditor must always document the assessment of control risk. However, when theauditor assesses control risk as high, the basis for that assessment need not be documented.8.6(a) A The auditor is likely to want to rely on the IT controls, as no paper trail is generated.(b) B The auditor will initially focus on general controls, as these must be satisfactory beforeother controls can be relied on.8.7(a) B The extent to which the external auditor is able to rely on internal audit affects control riskand, therefore, affects the nature, timing and extent of the auditor’s procedures.(b) A Preparation of the schedules does not require the internal auditor to exercise professionaljudgment, which should be exercised by the external auditor.Chapter 9: Tests of controls9.1(a) B Controls are tested only if the auditor intends to rely on those controls to reduce substantivetesting.(b) D If the tests of control indicate that controls can be relied on, the auditor is able to assesscontrol risk at less than high and so increase the level of acceptable detection risk.9.2(a) C Tests of control should cover effectiveness and continuity of controls that have beendetermined to exist at the control risk evaluation stage. Design is usually considered duringthe control risk evaluation stage, as are the control environment and the entity’s riskassessment process.(b) A The control is the review of the bank reconciliation by the chief accountant, and the auditoris testing whether this has been done.9.3(a) A Appropriate authorisation of a purchase document is a control. This is the only test of adesignated control.(b) C If there is no audit trail, the auditor will need to either observe the control being carried outor inquire of personnel as to what procedures they undertake.9.4(a) B The entity is ensured of compensation for a cash transaction (auditor will be moreconcerned that cash received is accurately recorded).(b) D Completeness involves testing from source records (shipping documents) to accountingrecords (sales invoice).9.5(a) B The matching of these documents from separate sources will ensure that goods arereceived.(b) C Confirmation of inventory held at a public warehouse is a substantive test.9.6(a) A This separates the authorisation (hiring) step from access to the cheques so fictitiousemployees cannot be included on the payroll.(b) D Approval of hours worked is a control over ensuring that employees are only paid forhours they worked.9.7(a) C Test data are dummy transactions that the auditor processes on the client’s computer todetermine whether IT program controls are working.(b) D Test data are dummy transactions processed by the client’s computer under the auditor’scontrol to test whether controls that the auditor intends to rely on are working.Chapter 10: Substantive tests of transactions and balances10.1 (a) C Substantive tests of balances are directed at year-end account balances.(b) B Dual-purpose tests are both tests of controls and substantive tests.10.2 (a) B The major risk for liabilities is understatement, as this will result in overstatement of profit,which is the major risk.(b) A Tracing costs from accounting records to suppliers’ invoices verifies the accuracy of thecost recorded.10.3 (a) D Tracing from the source document (remittance advice) to the amount recorded in the ledgerverifies that no entries have been left out (completeness).(b) C The bank confirmation corroborates the information already recorded by the client.10.4 (a) B Substantive testing is not aimed at verifying adequacy of internal control.(b) A Confirmations are primarily aimed at verifying the existence of recorded amounts.10.5 (a) D Examination of costs from the standard costing system will be related to the valuation andallocation assertion.(b) A Checking recorded amounts back to the physical items is verifying existence of thatinventory recorded.10.6 (a) B A search for unrecorded liabilities will include checking payments made after year end todetermine that, if they relate to goods received prior to year end, they were included inaccounts payable at year end.(b) B A search for unrecorded liabilities will include checking goods received just prior to yearend from goods received records to the accounts payable listing to ensure that, if they werenot paid for, they were included in accounts payable at year end.10.7 (a) D Depreciation is part of the method by which property, plant and equipment are valued, andits carrying value allocated to accounting periods. Testing the depreciation calculation ispart of the verification of the accumulated depreciation balance that is deducted from thevalue of depreciable assets.(b) A Testing repairs and maintenance is checking that amounts that should have been capitalisedinto fixed assets have not been omitted by being included in repairs and maintenanceexpense instead.10.8 (a) C As the number of transactions is small for equity accounts, a substantive approach isusually more cost effective.(b) B Analysis and recalculation of depreciation expense is likely to pick up errors in non-currentasset balances and will not be effective at identifying an unrecorded liability.10.9 (a) C Interest expense should be directly related to notes payable, so these two accounts shouldbe analysed together.(b) A Depreciation expense is usually verified by establishing the basis and recalculation.10.10 (a) A Generalised audit software can perform several audit tasks for many different clients withdifferent computer systems.(b) B Inputting test transactions to ensure that a credit limit control is working would be a testdata technique.。