【20套精选试卷合集】青海省海南市2019-2020学年高考英语模拟试卷含答案

高考模拟英语试卷

第一卷（共115分）

第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）

第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1.What will the speakers bring to the picnic?

A. Some drinks.

B. Some fruit.

C. Some desserts

2. What did the man like about the movie?

A. The acting.

B. The music.

C. The scenery.

3. What is the woman going to do?

A. play baseball.

B. Watch a game.

C. Do her work.

4. What will the woman work as?

A. An assistant.

B. A lawyer.

C.A teacher.

5. What are the speakers talking about?

A. A new TV set.

B. A TV program.

C. A radio program.

第二节（共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。

6. What does the man take to school?

A. Five books .

B. Three pens.

C. Two rulers.

7. Why does the man`s back hurt?

A. He studies for too long.

B. He picks up some dictionaries.

C. He carries a heavy backpack.

听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。

8.Who lost the car keys?

A. kelsey

B.Tim

C. David

9. Where are the speakers?

A.in a car .

B. in the main office.

C. in Tim`s office.

听第8段材料，回答第10、11、12题。

10. What does Emma need?

A. Dresses .

B. Shirts.

C. Pants.

11. Why is Emma unsure of the store?

A. She wants the latest styles .

B. She wants a lot of choices,

C. She wants helpful clerks.

12. What does Emma often do?

A. She often goes to fashion shows .

B. She often reads the fashion magazines .

C. She often shops in the department store.

听第9段材料，回答第13、14、15、16题。

13. Who got a new job?

A. Anna .

B. Anna`s father.

C.Anna`s mother.

14. what do we know about Anna`s new house?

A. It has small room .

B. It has few windows.

C. It has many trees around it.

15.How does Anna feel about the old house?

A. She miss it .

B. She thinks it`s pretty.

C. She loves it the most.

16.When is Dave coming over probably?

A. This summer .

B. This weekend.

C. Next weekend.

听第10段材料，回答第17听第9段材料，回答第17、18、19、20题。

17. What is a major challenge that Stevie Wonder has had to face?

A. His unsuccessful records.

B. Pressure from other musicians.

C. Not being able to use his eyes.

18. When did Stevie Wonder start his professional career?

A. At the age of 6 .

B. At the age of 11

C. At the age of 19

19.How many Grammy Awards did Stevie Wonder receive?

A. 10.

B. 25.

C. 30.

20. What kinds of songs did Stevie Wonder often record?

A. Rap songs about life

B. Sad songs about death.

C. Happy songs about love.

第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）

第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。

A

The Best Places to See Giant Pandas

Dujiangyan Panda Base—Best Panda Volunteer Program

Location Dujiangyan Prefecture, 67 km or 1.5 hour from Chengdu

Activities panda viewing, holding pandas, and panda keeper program

Suitable for those who want a less-crowed panda volunteer program

Though newly established in 2014,Dujiangyan Panda Base is quieter and sees fewer travelers than Bifengxia Panda Centre, so volunteers have more time and chances to get close to the pandas. Besides, this centre boasts(以有…而自豪) an interactive experience the Panda eeper Program. Travelers can assist caretakers in taking care of pandas.

Chengdu Giant Panda Breeding(繁殖) Centre—Most Popular

Location Chengdu city outskirts(市郊), 10 km away from Chengdu, easily accessible

Activities seeing pandas, watching panda breeding movies

Best for tourists who have limited time, and are only interested in seeing or holding pandas Well-equipped, especially, for giant panda breeding, the base aims to create an approximation of the panda’s wild living environment, and to train the pandas to adapt to wild living, and then releases them into the wild.

Wolong Panda Centre—Home of Wild Pandas

Location southwest Wenchuan County, 121 km west of Chengdu

Activities seeing pandas, taking care of pandas, taking a photo with a panda

Best for people who want to take part in the volunteer program (taking care of pandas ) With rich natural resources, Wolong Panda Centre has been opened after the “5.12”earthquake. Visitors can not only see pandas, but also participate in panda keeper programs to experience taking care of pandas, and take photos with them.

21. What is special about Dujiangyan Panda Base?

A. It is easily accessible.

B. It was once destroyed.

C. It is the most popular.

D. It is less crowded.

22. Which centre is nearest to Chengdu according to the passage?

A. Dujiangyan Panda Base.

B. Chengdu Giant Panda Breeding Centre.

C. Wolong Panda Centre.

D. Bifengxia Panda Centre.

23. Why is Wolong Panda Centre the home of wild pandas?

A. Because of its rich natural conditions.

B. Because of its man-made wild environment.

C. Because of its convenient traffic.

D. Because of its fewer visitors.

B

When people ask me to name typical British dishes, I have, however, struggled to think of an answer. Yes, we do have our own national dishes. We do have fish and chips, and we have other dishes like roast dinner and shepherd’s pie. But how muc h do we actually eat them?

Fish and chips, is made up of battered (绞碎的) fish and chips, which is often accompanied by a thick paste (酱). The majority of British people really do love this dish but it is not something that we would eat, say, on a weekly bas is. It’s also not usually something that we would cook at home. The British people associate this dish with the seaside and it’s something that will usually be eaten on a day trip there, bought from a takeaway fish and chip shop.

Another favourite British dish is roast dinner. This is made up of roast meat, usually chicken or beef, accompanied by roast vegetables and a meat sauce called gravy (肉汁). It is usually eaten on a Sunday, perhaps for a special family dinner. It can either be cooked at home or eaten in a traditional pub. We also eat a more elaborate version of this for our Christmas dinner.

Although we do have our traditional dishes, our diet has been greatly influenced by other countries. You can find a wide range of international foods in the supermarket or varieties of different restaurants on our high streets. A famous saying among British people is that our national dish is now chicken tikka masala, a dish which is heavily influenced by Indian cuisine.

Don’t expect to be served a traditional dish if you ever get invited for dinner at a British family’s home!

24. What do you know about fish and chips?

A. It is a home cooking for the British people.

B. It is a seaside dish eaten on a day trip there.

C. It is a Sunday dish for a family dinner.

D. It is an international food from India.

25. What is special about roast dinner?

A. It is only served for Christmas dinner.

B. It is the top choice for a family dinner.

C. It is the most popular with foreigners.

D. It comes from a foreign cuisine.

26. Which of the following might be an international food?

A. Fish and chips.

B. Roast dinner.

C. Shepherd’s pie.

D. Chicken tikka masala.

27. What is the purpose of the text?

A. To explore some British national dishes.

B. To make an advertisement for British Dishes.

C. To introduce the British table manners.

D. To tell about British Eating Habits.

C

Traveling without a map in different countries, I find out about different ways of directions every time I ask “How can I get to the post office?”

Foreign tourists are often puzzled in Japan because most streets there don’t have name signs. In Japan, people use landmarks (地标) in their directions instead of street names. For example, the Japanese will say to travelers, “Go straight down to the corner. Turn left at the big hotel and go past a fruit market. The post office is across from the bus stop.” People in Los Angeles, the US, have no idea of distance on the map they measure distance by time, not miles. “How far away is the post office?” you ask. “Oh,” they answer, “it’s about five minutes from here.”You don’t understand completely,“Yes, but how many miles away is it, please?”To this question you won’t get an answer, because most probably they don’t know it themselves. People in Greece sometimes do not even try to give directions because tourists seldom understand the Greek language. Instead, a Greek will often say, “Follow me.”Then he’ll lead you through the streets of the city to the post office.

Sometimes a person doesn’t know the answer to your question. What hap pens in the situation? A New Yorker might say, “Sorry, I have no idea.” But in Yucatan, Mexico, no one answers “I don’t know.” People there believe that “I don’t” is impolite. They usually give an answer, but often a wrong one. So a tourist can get lost ve ry easily in Yucatan! However, one thing will help you everywhere in the world. It’s body language!

28．Which of the following is probably an example of Japanese directions?

A. “The post office is at Street amira.”

B. “Turn right at the hospital and go past a school.”

C. “The post office is about five minutes from here.”

D. “Go south two miles. Turn west and then go another mile.”

29．Why don’t people in Los Angeles give directions in miles?

A. They prefer to lead you the way.

B. They prefer to use body language.

C. They often have no idea of distance measured by miles.

D. They use landmarks in their directions instead of distance.

30．How do Greeks give directions?

A. Using street names.

B. Using landmarks.

C. Leading people the way.

D. Giving people a wrong direction.

31． According to the last paragraph, we can learn that_____________________.

A. people in Yucatan always give wrong directions

B. people in Mexico know streets’ name well

C. body language makes you get lost in Yucatan

D. people in Mexico prefer to use body language

D

In ancient Egypt, a shopkeeper discovered that he could attract customers to his shop simply by making changes to its environment. Modern businesses have been following his lead, with more tactics（策略）.

One tactic involves where to display the goods. Foe example, stores place fruits and vegetables in the first section. They know that customers who buy the healthy food first will feel happy so that they will buy more junk food（垃圾食品）later in their trip. In department stores, shoe section is generally next to the women’s cosmetics(化妆品) section：while the shop assistant is going back to find the right size shoe, bored customers are likely to wander over cosmetics they might want to try later.

Besides, businesses seek to appeal to customers’ senses. Stores notice that the smell of baked goods encourages shopping, they make their own bread each morning and then fan the bread smell into the store throughout the day. Music sells goods, too. Researchers in Britain found that when French music was played, sales of French wine went up.

When it comes to the selling of houses, businesses also use highly rewarding tactics. They find that customers make decision in the first few second upon walking in the door, and turn it into a business opportunity. A California builder designed the structure of its houses smartly. When entering the house, the customer would see the Pacific Ocean through the windows, and then the pool through an open stairway leading to the lower level. The instant view of water on both levels helped sell these $10 million houses.

32. Why do stores usually display fruits and vegetables in the first section?

A. To save customers times.

B. To show they are high quality foods.

C. To help sell junk food.

D. To sell them at discount prices.

33. According to Paragraph 3, which of the following encourages customers to buy?

A. Opening the store early in the morning.

B. Displaying British wines next to French ones.

C. Inviting customers to play music.

D. Filling the store with the smell of fresh bread.

34. What is the California builder’s story intended to prove?

A. The house structure is a key factor customers consider.

B. The more costly the house is, the better it sells.

C. An ocean view is much to the customers’ taste.

D. A good first impression increases sales.

35. What is the main purpose of the passage?

A. To explain how businesses turn people into their customers.

B. To introduces how businesses have grown from the past.

C. To report researches on customer behavior.

D. To show dishonest business practices.

第二节 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Do you know how to deal with failure at school? Four steps will help you get the most out of each failure and more on.

36 When you feel bad after failing, talk with your parents or good friends, or any other adult. Then decide to take the duty to improve yourself. Read the teachers’ comments on your test carefully.

Ask yourself what you were trying to do and why you failed. 37 Maybe you didn’t have all the information you needed; maybe you made a mistake or a poor decision. If so, give yourself a pat on the back. Fewer people ever get something right the first time they try it, and often it takes them many times. 38 Sometimes the failure isn’t because of something you did or didn’t do; it is someone else’s fault. But don’t spend time blaming them; instead, move on toward your goals.

39 . Review the situation to see what your choices are. There is a different between making a decision and giving up. Deciding to follow a better way is one thing; simply walking away means you really have failed.

eep trying again. Successful people are different because they choose their next steps instead of just reacting to feelings. If a goal still important to you, figure out what to do and go after it again. 40 .

A. No pains, no gains.

B. Don’t give up easily

C. Failure is unavoidable

D. Remove your bad feelings

E. If it isn’t, do your best on something else

F. Actually it was because you were very lazy

G. Usually it was because you were trying out a new skill or learning a new subject.

第二部分语言知识运用(共两节，满分45分)

第一节(共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)

阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

It was unusually quiet in the emergency room on December 25. I was the nurse on duty that day. I didn’t think there would be any 41 , sighing(叹气) about having to work on Christmas. Just then five bodies 42 at my desk, a pale woman and four children.

“Are you all 43 ?” I asked.

“Yes,” she said weakly and lowered her head.

But when it came to 44 of their problems, things got a little strange. Two of the children had headaches , two children had earaches, 45 only one could tell me which ear was affected. The 46 complained of a cough but seemed to produce it. I didn’t say anything but 47 that it might be a little while 48 a doctor could see her. She responded, “ 49 your time,” and then added, “It’s warm in here.”

Then, I checked their registration form(登记表) out of curiosity. No address---they were 50 . The waiting room was warm. I went back to the nurse station and mentioned we had a homeless 51 in the waiting room. The nurses, complaining of 52 on Christmas, turned to sympathy for a family just trying to get 53 on Christmas. The team went into action, much as we do when there’s a54 emergency. But this was a Christmas emergency.

We were all 55 a free meal on Christmas Day, so we took back that meal and prepared a big dinner for our 56 . We needed presents. We 57 from different departments candies , fruits and other things 58 that could be presents. As seriously as we met the 59 needs of the patients, our team worked to meet the needs of a family who just wanted to be warm on Christmas.

Later, as the family walked to the door to 60 , the mother came running back, gave me a hug and whispered, “Thanks for being our angels today.”

41. A. customers B. patients C. workers D. tourists

42. A. showed up B. took in C. came out D. looked on

43. A. eager B. hungry C. sick D. warm

44. A. descriptions B. comments C. instructions D. results

45. A. so B. for C. thus D. but

46. A. mother B. children C. nurses D. doctor

47. A. answered B. imagined C. explained D. analyzed

48. A. after B. since C. before D. when

49. A. Make B. Take C. Care D. Spend

50. A. lonely B. greedy C. clever D. homeless

51. A. family B. holiday C. woman D. Christmas

52. A. operating B. interrupting C. managing D. working

53. A. present B. warm C. relief D. comfort

54. A. beneficial B. friendly C. medical D. different

55. A. rewarded B. offered C. allowed D. ordered

56. A. neighbors B. relations C. brothers D. guests

57. A. borrowed B. received C. collected D. bought

58. A. expensive B. fantastic C. generous D. available

59. A. permanent B. physical C. endless D. ridiculous

60. A. leave B. travel C. rest D. relax

第二节 (共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

Wasting food has become a big problem in the developed world. While some people there throw away unwanted food, people in other 61 (part) of the world face food shortages. It’s an 62 (astonish) fact that a third of the world’s food is wasted each year, which is enough 63 (feed) a billion hungry people.

Most of the wasted food 64 (bury) in the landfill(垃圾填埋场) sites. 65 (unlucky), this causes

greenhouse gases which eventually lead to global warming and climate change. In Denmark, a girl called Selina Juul has been working hard to deal with 66 problem . She thinks people shouldn’t waste food, 67 rich they are. She persuaded some supermarkets to stop 68 (sell) their items (物品) in quantity so that people bought only what they needed. Also, she produced a leftovers cookbook and set up an education program in schools, 69 food waste was rather common. Now the effects are quite noticeable.

Clearly, we need to think 70 (two) when we put something in our shopping basket, and we should make the most of the food we have—use up our leftovers or even share our extra food with our friends and neighbors.

第三部分写作(共两节，满分35分)

第一节短文改错(共10小题；每小题l分，满分10分)

增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)，并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除：把多余的词用斜线(＼)划掉。

修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意：1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；

2. 只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。

On July 5th, some students in our school visited Robot World, which we saw a great number of robots. It was amazed to find those robots could do a lot of things just like real people, included playing chess, playing the piano and drawing pictures. What’s more, the robots were in different kinds and shapes, which made ourselves enjoyable. In addition, what excited me most is the show given by a group of robots. They danced just as if they were dancer on the stage. By visiting Robot World, I have learned a lot of about robots, especial about their functions and shapes. The great human wisdom is so powerful that it make us feel more comfortable live in the world.

第二节书面表达(满分25分)

假定你是李华，你班计划组织同学到西山进行一次郊游，请给你的英国朋友Mark写封邮件邀请他参加。内容包括：

1、参加者；

2、时间、地点；

3、活动：登山、野餐等。

注意：

1、词数100左右；

2、可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。

Dear Mark,

___________________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________________________________________ _________________________

Y ours,

Lihua

听力1-5 CABAB 6-10 ACBCA 11-15 ABBCA 16-20 BCBBC

阅读理解21-23 DBA 24-27 BBAD 28-31 BCCA32-35 CDDA

七选五DGCBE

完形41-45 BACAD 46-50 ACCBD 51-55 ADBCB 56-60 DCDBA

语法填空61. parts 62. astonishing 63. to feed 64. is buried 65.Unluckily

66. the 67. however 68. selling 69. where 70. twice

短文改错

On July 5th, some students in our school visited Robot World, which we saw a great number

where

of robots. It was amazed to find those robots could do a lot of things just like real people, included amazing including

playing chess, playing the piano and drawing pictures. What’s more, the robots were in different

kinds and shapes, which made ourselves enjoyable. In addition, what excited me most is the show

us was

given by a group of robots. They danced just as if they were dancer on the stage. By visiting

dancers

Robot World, I have learned a lot of about robots, especial about their functions and shapes. The

删掉especially

great human wisdom is so powerful that it make us feel more comfortable∧live in the world.

makes to

书面表达参考范文

Dear Mark,

I am sincerely inviting you to join our class to go for an outing this weekend. In order to enhance our relation and build up our bodies, the trip includes climbing mountains and a picnic in West Hill. As is scheduled, we will be leaving at 800 a.m. on Saturday at the gate of our school by bus and all the students in our class will take an active part in it. About 2 hours will be spent climbing the mountain. After that we will have a picnic on the top of the mountain.

I hope you won’t miss the joyful activity. Y our attendance is greatly expected.

Looking forward to hearing from you.

Yours,

Li Hua

高考模拟英语试卷

本试卷共150分，共12页。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）

做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）

听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一道小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

例：How much is the shirt?

A. ￡19.15.

B. ￡9.18.

C. ￡9.15.

答案是C。

1. How are the two speakers going to the concert?

A. By car.

B. By bike.

C. By bus.

2. When will the man have his next driving lesson?

A. On Friday.

B. On Saturday.

C. On Monday.

3. What are the speakers going to do on Saturday?

A. Go to the beach.

B. Study history

C. Play basketball.

4. Why did the man come back late?

A. He was stuck in a traffic jam.

B. He did homework at John’s house.

C. He played football with his friends.

5. What is the woman doing?

A. Offering the man some advice.

B. Telling the man the bad news.

C. Playing a joke on the man.

第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒中的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。

6. What can we learn about the woman?

A. She didn’t watch the football game.

B. She is not interested in football.

C. She doesn’t work hard.

7. What are the speakers mainly talking about?

A. A football player

B. A football match.

C. A football fan.

听第7段材料，回答第8至9题。

8. What kind of pizza is the man ordering?

A. Tomato pizza.

B. Seafood pizza.

C. Cheese pizza.

9. How soon will the pizza be ready?

A. In about 10 minutes.

B. In about 20 minutes.

C. In about half an hour.

听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。

10. Which library will the speakers go to?

A. The one near the shopping center.

B. The one opposite the park.

C. The one by the hospital.

11. How will they get to the library?

A. By car.

B. By bus .

C. On foot.

12. What time will they meet?

A. At 1000.

B. At 1020.

C. At 1030.

听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。

13. What does the woman advise the man to do first?

A. Focus on his question.

B. Do a lot of reading.

C. Choose key arguments.

14. What is the man’s main problem?

A. He doesn’t analyze the material.

B. He doesn’t narrow the topic down.

C. He doesn’t make a note of different ideas.

15. How should the man begin his research project?

A. Make a list of reading.

B. eep talking about questions.

C. Begin with a general topic.

16. What are the two speakers talking about?

A. The importance of choosing the topic.

B. The process of doing a research project.

C. The difficulty in arranging different ideas.

听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。

17. What does PS Camping offer now?

A. Camping equipment.

B. Camping places in the U.

C. Camping plans for families.

18. Which could be the children’s activity in the afternoon?

A. An opera.

B. A drawing competition.

C. A football match.

19. When should be tent areas be quiet?

A. At 930 pm.

B. At 1000 pm.

C. At 1030 pm.

20. What’s the purpose of the speaker’s talk?

A. Introducing the company and its activities.

B. Providing camping equipment for families.

C. Organizing competition for children only.

第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）

第一节（共15题；每小题2分，满分30分）

阅读下列短文，从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。

A

Public transport in New ealand

Bus

Buses are the cheapest and most common form of public transport available for travelling between towns and cities. Intercity and Naked Bus are the two main providers of this service, and fares start from N$10.

Although not public transport, hop-on hop-off buses are also a popular way to get around New ealand, especially among backpackers. Choose your pass and make up your route as you go along.

Train

Trains are not a common form of public transport in New ealand; however there are three main train lines operated by iwiRail; Auckland to Wellington (Northern Explorer), Picton to Christchurch (Coastal Pacific), and Christchurch to the West Coast (the TranzAlpine –considered one of the most scenic rail journeys in the world). Train tickets start from around N$49 per person.

Ferry

Ferries are popular for travel between the North and South Islands. The two major providers are interIslander and Bluebr idge, and fares start at N$55 for foot passengers. Taking the ferry means you’ll experience the beautiful Marlborough Sounds on your way into or out of Picton.

Ferry travel is also available between the mainland and New ealand’s offshore islands, including Waiheke, Rangitoto and Great Barrier near Auckland city, and Stewart Island just below the South Island. In some coastal areas, ferries connect towns which are closer via water than via road – including Russell and Paihia in the Bay of Islands.

Water taxi s are smaller vessels which offer a scheduled service visiting the small ports that ferries can’t reach – handy for reaching out of the way hiking and mountain biking spots in places like Queen Charlotte Sounds and Abel Tasman National Park.

21. Intercity and Naked Bus fares between cities and towns in New ealand per person are ________.

A. at least N$10

B. less than N$55

C. around N$49

D. between N$10 and N$55

22. According to the passage, we can know that iwiRail ________.

A. is a form of public transport

B. operates three main travel lines

C. is a popular way for backpackers

D. runs between the North and South Islands

23. The best way to travel between the main island and Great Barrier is to take ________.

A. buses

B. trains

C. ferries

D. water taxis

B

I have an unusual hobby by keeping thousands of earthworms in my home. It sounds crazy, but there’s actually a very good reason. I live in a suburb（郊区）of Los Angeles, where people waste a lot and cause many environmental problems. Over time I have begun to feel unhappy living like that.

I decided to see how simply I could live, so I stopped buying anything that came in a package or plastic bags. This helped somewhat, but there was still one big source of rubbish food waste like fruit and vegetable peelings. It seemed a waste to throw them away. So that’s why I bought the worms.

I knew that earthworms did a lot of work in the soil, but I didn’t think there was much for them to do in my apartment. After reading a book about how to recycle food waste into soil, I bought a big plastic box and filled it with dirt. Then I bought a kilogram of worms from a local fishing store and put them all into the box. I put the food waste I’d collected on top and put the cover on. That night I was so a fraid the worms would escape and I would wake up to find them all over the house.

But that didn’t happen. What did happen was that the worms ate my food waste, digested it, and what came out was very rich soil! It was really amazing to watch my rubbish disappear like that. I started

growing vegetables, and used this soil to help them grow. It was a perfect cycle and that’s how I know just how hard worms work – by feasting. Thanks largely to the earthworms, I only throw way two small bags of rubbish every two months, and live very happily because of my simplicity.

24. Why did the author decide to live simply?

A. Because she decided to develop a new hobby.

B. Because she felt bored with such a wealthy life.

C. Because she followed the people in Los Angeles.

D. Because she didn’t want to produce so much rubbish.

25. The author decided to raise earthworms because she wanted ________.

A. to keep some earthworms as pets

B. to be different from her neighbors

C. to do research about how earthworms work

D. to have the worms make waste food into soil

26. How did the author benefit from having the earthworms?

A. She didn’t need to buy any vegetables or fruit.

B. She started a new business of raising earthworms.

C. She had the food waste changed into soil for her plants.

D. She made some extra money by selling her earthworms.

27. Which word best describes the author?

A. Creative.

B. Confident.

C. Conventional.

D. Cautious.

B

People are fatter than ever before. Obesity（肥胖症）has more than doubled since 1980. But the biggest rise has occurred in the developing world.

Anyone with a body mass index, or BMI, over 30 is considered to be over-fat. The higher your BMI, the greater your risk of developing weight-related diseases like diabetes（糖尿病）and heart disease.

Nearly half of the world’s overweight and fat children under five live in Asia. And in Africa, the number of overweight children under five has increased by nearly 50% since 2000.

Hunger still affects many parts of the world. But the share of people who do not have enough to eat is in decline. Globally, one in nine people suffers from undernourishment（营养不良）. One in ten is overweight. If current trends continue, the share of fat children in the world will surpass the number of undernourished by 2022.

Africa has the fastest-growing middle class in the world. A move from traditional foods to high-calorie fast food and a more lazy lifestyle is driving the rise in obesity. Fast food outlets like FC and McDonalds have seen rapid growth in Africa. Women appear to be most affected. More than half of women in Botswana are overweight. Ethiopia, known for its terrible shortage of food, has seen obesity rates in women rise by 600% since 1984. Health systems in Africa, more focused on treating undernourishment and diseases like malaria and HIV, are ill-equipped to deal with obesity-related illness like heart disease and diabetes.

Pacific islands have the highest obesity rates in the world, due to the spread of western fast food. Diets which a generation ago largely consisted of fish and coconuts are now mainly made up of processed meat. Nauru is top on the list, 61% of the population is over-fat, making this tiny paradise island the world’s fattest nation. Cook Islands take second place, with an obesity rate of 56% and Marshall Islands come in third, with 53%. The Middle East is also facing an obesity crisis. In Saudi Arabia, Qatar and uwait, more

than a third of the population is overweight.

Obesity is already a global epidemic and is rapidly spreading from the rich world to the poor.

28. What do we know about BMI according to Paragraph 2?

A. Diabetes and heart disease are caused by BMI.

B. Anyone with BMI over 30 is considered over-fat.

C. BMI is the greatest risk faced by the developing countries.

D. People with BMI over 30 will develop weight-related diseases.

29. According to the passage, obesity in Africa is caused by ________.

A. its terrible shortage of food

B. its suffering from the famine

C. the challenges of diseases like Malaria and HIV

D. its shift from traditional food to high-calorie fast food

30. It can be inferred that people on the Pacific Islands ________.

A. try to avoid the processed meat

B. used to have healthier diets

C. suffer from undernourishment

D. prefer fast foods to fish and coconut

31. What is the best title of the passage?

A. Obesity Not Just a Rich-World Problem

B. BMI Index of Your Body Mass

C. Fast Foods Main Cause of Obesity

D. Diabetes Obesity-Related Illness

D

A new study says a widely-used insecticide（杀虫剂）is damaging wild bee populations. Wild bees are important, because they pollinate（给……授粉）crops and wild plants.

Environmentalists in the United States and Europe say chemicals called neonicotinoids（新烟碱）are causing a drop in the number of bees. Farmers often use seeds treated with these chemicals. The chemicals target insects that eat crops, and they do not spread beyond the field. But they do get into pollen（花粉）, which is where the bees come into contact with them.

Maj Rudlof is a researcher at Lund University in Sweden who led the neonicotinoids study. She and other researchers studied bees in fields. Half of the fields were grown with seeds treated with neonicotinoids. The other half was grown with seeds that were not treated. “The most impressive result we found was that bumblebee settlement almost didn’t grow at all at the treated sites in comparison with the controlled sites.” She says there were about half as many wild bees per square meter in treated fields as in untreated ones.

Dennis vanEngelsdorp, a scientist who studies insects, works at the University of Maryland. He was not involved with the research on neonicotinoids. But he says banning the chemicals may not be the answer. He says they are not as bad as other insecticides. “In many cases, neonicotinoids are actually the safest alternative. So by banning it, what you’re doing is forcing farmers to use products that may e ither be just as bad or worse.” He says farmers often use the chemicals too much, and that may be hurting bees. Mr. vanEngelsdorp thinks farmers might not need to stop using neonicotinoids completely. He suggested that the chemicals should be used only when necessary.

A United States Department of Agriculture report included information about the effects of neonicotinoids. It says the chemicals make the bees more likely to become sick. The bees cannot fight the viruses that commonly affect them.

32. The wild bees get poisoned with the chemicals because ________.

A. they feed on the insects that eat the crops

B. they eat the seeds treated with these chemicals

C. they land on the pollen containing such chemicals

D. they cannot tell where the chemicals have been spread

33. What happened in the fields where seeds were treated with neonicotinoids?

A. Almost no crops grew in the fields.

B. The bumblebees almost didn’t grow.

C. There was an increase in the number of the bumblebee.

D. There were about 50% less wild bees than in untreated sites.

34. Dennis vanEnglesdorp believes that neonicotinoids ________.

A. do not hurt the bees

B. have safer alternatives

C. must be banned completely

D. should be used only when needed

35. The underlined word “them” in Parag raph 5 refers to ________.

A. the chemicals

B. the neonicotinoids

C. the bees

D. the viruses

第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

How similar are language and music?

Language is a part of our daily lives. Similarly, music is a part of many people’s lives, either listening to the radio on your drive to work or playing in an orchestra（管弦乐队）. Both language and music play a huge role in our culture. 36

In English we record language using a collection of letters. 37 Just as you are reading this collection of letters and find meaning in it, musicians read notes and create meaning in the form of music which we can hear. So just as you reach English, you can read music. By writing pieces of text of music, we can share experiences through time. It’s exciting to be able to read the ideas or hear the composition of someone who lived hundreds of years ago.

38 In the same way, we know that styles of music are different around the world, giving us the opportunity to explore many different cultures through their music. This also means that there is something for everyone! Even if you don’t like Britpop tunes, you may love Latin American music.

39 Of course you may be able to see it in my face, but you will know for sure through my words. Similarly, music can sound angry, sad or happy. Music can show you exactly how the composer was or is feeling and allow us to share in that emotion. When you feel happy, you may want to sing and dance to a happy song to celebrate your happy mood. 40 I think we have all used music to express our emotions, often combining it with language in the form of lyrics（歌词）.

A. How do you know that I am angry?

B. And here are some of their similarities.

C. Similarly we use notes to keep a record of music.

D. Reading music is like learning a whole new language.

E. Music, on the contrary, can be interpreted based on personal experience.

F. In contrast, you have probably also listened to sad music when you were feeling down.

G. You can make a good guess at where someone is from by listening to the language they use.

第一节完形填空（共20小题，每小题1.5分，满分30分）

阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A, B, C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

Ever feel like time flies? Well for me, it literally has. I 41 my career as a flight attendant 60 years ago this month. And while I certainly didn’t set out to become the most senior flight attendant at American –or, as some would argue, the world-my 42 affair with the profession did start at a 43 age.

When I was in my late teens, the cool appearance and gracious 44 of crew members first caught my eye. But what really 45 me in was the hospitality of it all a stage to simply say “thank you for your business and for 46 with us.” Being able to offer these 47 of kindness has kept me flying all these years. Sure, I’ve needed to 48 like everyone else. And I’ve enjoyed visiting so many countries and cities throughout my 49 for both work and fun. 50 my favorite part has always been 51 customers as they board and thanking them as they get off the plane.

I’ve also enjoyed getting to know our 52 . People really are interesting and every one of us has a great story. I have always tried to be aware and 53 of customers when they’re working, reading or resting, but I must admit I 54 enjoy my three-minute conversations 5 . And I’m often amazed at the interesting work, 56 and lives people have. In today’s world, I also appreciate that when I approach people at 30,000 feet, conversations start from in an impersonal manner. 57 goes a long way and I think every one can use a little love.

58 American and my more than 120,000 colleagues, thank you for flying with us. And on a more personal note, thanks for 59 your journey with me these past 60 years. I owe you my career, and I’m incr edibly 60 .

41. A. started B. liked C. hated D. ended

42. A. past B. love C. simple D. last

43. A. old B. young C. middle D. small

44. A. behaviors B. actions C. manners D. activities

45. A. put B. made C. took D. drew

46. A. talking B. living C. flying D. working

47. A. gestures B. service C. attention D. positions

48. A. do some reading B. make a living C. have a good time D. enjoy myself

49. A. effect B. effort C. career D. progress

50. A. So B. For C. Or D. But

51. A. greeting B. telling C. waving D. showing

52. A. customers B. friends C. relatives D. leaders

53. A. pleasure B. important C. respectful D. considerate

54. A. quickly B. seldom C. carefully D. thoroughly

55. A. near-by B. on-board C. at home D. in the office

56. A. travels B. books C. stories D. notes

57. A. Humour B. indness C. Happiness D. Journey

58. A. By means of B. As regard of C. In spite of D. On behalf of

59. A. planning B. stating C. sharing D. having

60. A. delighted B. helpful C. amazed D. grateful

第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）

阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。

I visited Antarctica and was greatly 61 (impress) by it’s unique beauty, after ha ving a taste of the monotonous and barren blue and white colors in the early spring of the Southern Hemisphere. A hundred years ago, 62 (explorer) at that time were taking a tremendous risk in approaching the cold wonderland on the southernmost tip of the planet, 63 now we are so lucky to reach the Antarctic without too much difficulty. In fact, the “hard to reach” part 64 (be) attractive for travelers. Moreover, the purest scenery on the earth and all kinds of rare wildlife can only lead us 65 one destination – Antarctica.

66 (compare) with the Yellow River Station in the Arctic, the Great Wall Station has a much

67 (long) history. Built on Feb 20, 1985, the Great Wall Station has a length of 2 kilometers and a 68 (wide) of 1 km. There are 25 buildings including seven main buildings such as the office building, meteorological（气象的）building, communication and scientific research building, as 69 as several other science-related buildings. Only two buildings are open to visitors. The team members have to face long polar nights, snowstorms and the same color for years. And their only company is the penguins. This life is indeed not easy. But I 70 (feel) warm as my first stop was China’s own scientific station in Antarctica.

第四部分写作（共两节，满分35分）

第一节短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）

增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（/\），并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除：把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。

修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意：

1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；

2. 只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。

Dear Tom,

Here comes a good news. An annually International ite Festival will be held in my hometown, Weifang, so I am writing to invite you experience the festival.

In China, flyi ng kites in spring, that has a history of over 2000 year, can help to build up man’s vital energy. Weifang, known as kite-making, enjoys fame as “ite Capital of the World” and host an international kite festival every year. The 35th International ite Festival will start on April 21. More than 40 activities covered kite flying competitions, exhibitions or economic and trade events will take place during the festival.

I hope you can accept your invitation. All the best!

Yours,

Li Hua 第二节书面表达（满分25分）

注意：

1. 词数不少于100；

2. 可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；

3. 开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。

Dear Alice,

I’m so glad you shred your reading with me.

_____________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________________ __

___________________________________________________________________________________________ __

___________________________________________________________________________________________ __

Best wishes!

Yours, Li Hua

听力：

1-5 CAACC 6-10 BCBAB 11-15 CAACB 16-20 CBAAB

阅读理解：

A篇

21-23 CDA

B篇

24-27 CDBA

C篇

28-31 CACD

D篇

32-35 ADBB

七选五

36-40 BFCDA

完形填空

41-45 BDBAC 46-50 DCBDA 51-55 CBAAD 56-60 ACDCB

语法填空

61. attractive 62. is listed 63. distributed 64. or 65. freshly

66. which 67. to preserve 68. appearance 69. for 70. characteristics

短文改错

71. outdoor-outdoors 72. comfort-comfortable 73. amused-amusing 74. leaf-leaves 75. end-ended 76. 在video前面加a 77. begin-beginning 78. 删掉of 79. another-other 80. played-playing

范文：

Dear Peter,

I’m glad to know you have interest in Spring Festival couplets. Now, let me introduce some details of them to you. As a symbol of Chinese traditional culture, Spring Festival couplets are always stuck on the door or the wall of a house. They are necessities for Chinese people to celebrate the Spring Festival. Written with a writing brush on red paper, Spring Festival couplets use some positive words showing wishes for love, health, success, wealth, happiness and so on. They always have a theme, and they represent better life or successful future, and some of them include wishes and expectations. Of course, the topic of singing the praises of our motherland is another good choice.

Yours,

Li Hua

高考模拟英语试卷

第I卷（115分）

第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）

第一节（共5小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。

1.Where are the two speakers?

A. In the classroom.

B. At the post office.

C. In the bank.

2.How is the man going to Beijing?

A. By air.

B. By train.

C. By sea.

3.What are the two speakers talking about?

A. Past experiences.

B. Family members.

C. Traveling.

4.What does the man say about the meeting?

A.It has been put off.

B.It has been cancelled.

C.It will be held in a different place.

5.What do we learn from the conversation about the woman?

A.She lacks confidence in herself.

B.She is not interested in computer programming.

C.She has never signed up for any competition before.

第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。

听第6段材料，回答第6 、7 小题。

6.What is the job?

A.To serve in a phone company.

B.To work for a newspaper.

C.To look after children.

7.How does the woman contact the company?

A. Through a newspaper.

B. Over the phone.

C. By a letter.

听第7段材料，回答第8、9小题。

8.What determines the cost of posting the package?

A.The distance the package covers and the item it takes.

B.The contents in the package and its weight.

C.The kind of mail and the weight of the package.

9.How much does the man pay at last?

A. $18.25.

B. $11.12.

C. $12.11.

听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。

10.Why is the woman so eager to get to Stratford-on-Avon?

A.She wants to eat at a local pub.