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Testpassport最新IBM IBM-Lotus LOT-701 题库免费下载

Testpassport最新IBM  IBM-Lotus LOT-701 题库免费下载

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : LOT-701Title :Version : DemoIBM Lotus Notes Domino Application DevelopmentUpdate1. Sally has a JavaScript library design element in a Domino application that was last signed by a developer who no longer works for the company. What new feature can she use in ND7 to resign that single design element with her ID?A. Edit the JavaScript library design element and resave it.B. Highlight the library in Domino Designer and click the Sign button.C. Click the Sign button on the Design tab of the Design Properties box.D. Launch the Administrator client and use Tools - Sign - Script Libraries.Answer: B2. Jose needs to modify a Domino application that has a Web service as part of the application design. Where can he find the Web service design element?A. Other - Web ServicesB. Shared Code - AgentsC. Shared Code - Web ServicesD. Shared Resources - Web ServicesAnswer: C3. Tony has deleted a Shared Column in Domino Designer, but it was still used in a view. What will happen to that column in the view?A. The column will remain in the view.B. The column will be flagged as "hidden".C. The column will be deleted from the view.D. Domino Designer will not let you delete a Shared Column that is still being used in at least one view. Answer: A4. What information is reported on the Profile document for an agent that has been profiled?A. Class, Method, Operation, Calls, TimeB. Statement, Execution Count, Execution TimeC. Start Time, End Time, Total Statements ExecutedD. Agent, Server, Statement, Calls, Milliseconds RunAnswer: A5. Bertha has a number of open Notes documents in her Notes client, and she would like to quickly close all the tabs at once. How can she do this?A. Actions - Close All TabsB. File - Close Current OpenC. Actions - Close Current OpenD. File - Close All Open Window TabsAnswer: D6. Jackie has a number of shared actions in her Domino application, and she needs to make sure the action buttons are all using standard Notes icons. What new feature in Domino Designer can she check to find this information?A. The Icon Type section of the Design Synopsis.B. The shared actions design column for icon type.C. The Icon field in the Shared Action property dialog box.D. The Find Shared Actions button in the Action Bar design element.Answer: B7. Gail has a complex column defined in an existing view in her Domino application. She would like to use this column in four other views. How should she make this a shared column to be used in the other views?A. Select the column and choose Create - Copy As Shared Column.B. Select the Share this column option in the Column Properties dialog box.C. Copy the column into the other views and choose Share this column in the Column Properties dialog box.D. Copy the column from the existing design and paste it into the Shared Column design area in Domino Designer.Answer: A8. Rebecca has a number of shared actions in her Domino application, but she needs to quickly determine which actions display in the action bar and which actions display in the menu. What feature in Domino Designer can she check to find this information?A. The Shared Action Location section of the Design Synopsis.B. The Location field in the Shared Action property dialog box.C. The Find Shared Actions button in the Action Bar design element.D. The shared actions design columns for action bar and menu locations.Answer: D9. Tony needs to change a Shared Column formula, but he needs to know what views will be affected by this change. How can Tony determine which views use a specific Shared Column?A. In Domino Designer, Tools - Find Shared ColumnsB. In Domino Designer, File - Database - Design SynopsisC. In Domino Designer, Design - Design Properties - Shared Column UseD. In Domino Designer, Shared Columns - Who is using this Shared ColumnAnswer: D10. Tom needs to add a form alias named frmInvoice to his Invoice form design element. How can he addthis information to the form design?A. Add the alias in the Alias field in the Form Properties dialog box.B. On the Object tab in the Programmer's pane, select Alias and add the form alias.C. Select the Invoice form in the Domino Designer client and click in the Alias column to edit the alias.D. Delete the existing form and recreate it, specifying the alias name when the form is initially created. Answer: C。

Testpassport最新IBM CATE 000-101题库免费下载

Testpassport最新IBM CATE 000-101题库免费下载

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 000-101Title :Version : DemoVirtualization Technical Support for Aix and LinuxThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.1. Which of the following statements is true regarding implementing Live Partition Mobility on two existing POWER6 based systems?A.The systems must use internal storage for boot purposes.B.All virtualized ethernet adapters must be numbered below 10.C.The mobile partition's network and disk access must be virtualized.D.Each system must be controlled by a different Hardware Management Console (HMC). WArialCourier NewZANSWER: C2. Which of the following statements is true regarding virtual Ethernet redundancy?A.Specifying an IP Address to ping is optional with Network Interface Backup (NIB) and is optional with Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) failover.B.Specifying an IP Address to ping is optional with Network Interface Backup (NIB) and is required with Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) failover.C.Specifying an IP Address to ping is required with Network Interface Backup (NIB) and is required with Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) Failover.D.Specifying an IP Address to ping is required with Network Interface Backup (NIB) and is optional with Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) failover.WArialCourier NewZANSWER: D3. Which of the following can be used to re-deploy a system configuration in a disaster recovery scenario?A.System planB.System profileC.Critical console dataD.VIO server partition profileWArialCourier NewZANSWER: A4. A customer has 5 older POWER5 systems and they want to consolidate them onto a POWER6 system. What information is important to analyze when deciding how to design the new machine using the System Planning Tool?A.vmstat and iostat data from the older machinesB.The number of CPUs that were installed in the original machinesC.Data from Workload Estimator (WLE) and IBM Performance Management (PM)D.Performance data that is collected from the new system after it has been put into production WArialCourier NewZANSWER: CThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.5. The system administrator for a company plans to consolidate the workload of several ageing servers onto a new Power server. The administrator's intention is to virtualize all network and disk resources for each LPAR in the new system using VIOS 1.x.Which of the following is correct regarding MAC addresses and World Wide Port Names (WWPN) in a client partition?A.Each client LPAR will have its own MAC address and WWPN.B.Each client LPAR will have no unique MAC address or WWPN.C.Each client LPAR will have its own MAC address, but no unique WWPN.D.Each client LPAR will have no unique MAC address, but will have its own WWPN.WArialCourier NewZANSWER: C6. An administrator has a Power 570 in default configuration with a 4 port 1 Gbps Integrated Virtual Ethernet (IVE) adapter. A new application requires that the MCS value for the first port group of the IVE adapter be set to 1.If this change is made, what is the maximum number of logical ports, across both port groups, that the IVE adapter can provide?A.4B.16C.20D.32WArialCourier NewZANSWER: C7. A company has a new Power 570. They will install 2 LPARs and 1 VIO server. All networking will be virtualized.Their application requires a large amount of bandwidth, and Link Aggregation on the VIO server will be utilized.They have 4 dual port gigabit Ethernet cards. The network infrastructure team has advised the implementation team that they are able to allocate 8 ports split between two switches, SwitchA and SwitchB.How can Link Aggregation (LA) be configured for maximum possible bandwidth available for the LPARs?A.Configure 2 LA devices, each containing 2 ports from SwitchA and 2 ports from SwitchB, no backup interfaces.B.Configure 2 LA devices, each containing any 4 of the 8 available gigabit Ethernet interfaces and 1 backup interface.C.Configure 1 LA device with all 8 gigabit Ethernet interfaces split between the two switches, and no backup interface.D.Configure 2 LA devices, each containing 4 gigabit Ethernet interfaces connected to the same switch, no backup interfaces.WArialCourier NewZANSWER: D8. Which functionality would a customer use to share available CPU resources between AIX and Linux partitions on a Power system?A.Dynamic LPARB.Micro PartitionsC.Entitled capacityD.Multiple Shared Processor PoolsWArialCourier NewZANSWER: B9. A customer is interested in server consolidation of their AIX and POWER Linux (SLES 10) environments and sees virtualization as an important component of this.Which of the following options provides the required virtualization and optimizes the use of the hardware?A.A VIO server can provide virtualization capabilities of network and disk for both AIX and Linux clients.B.A VIO server partition with the PowerVM Lx86 for x86 installed can provide virtualization capabilities of network and disk for both AIX and Linux clients.C.A VIO Server partition can provide virtualization of network and disk for AIX clients. A separate Linux partition can provide virtualization of network and disk to Linux clients.D.A VIO Server can provide virtualization of network and disk for AIX clients. A separate Linux partition running PowerVM Lx86 for x86 can provide virtualization capabilities of network and disk to Linux clients. WArialCourier NewZANSWER: A10. A customer has a requirement to provide VLAN tagging and a highly available network infrastructure for the logical partitions. A dual VIO server environment with Shared Ethernet Adapters (SEAs) is in place. How can the customer support these requirements?A.Create a SEA failover infrastructure with each having a Virtual Ethernet with a unique PVID mapping to a Virtual Ethernet on the LPAR with unique PVID.B.Create a SEA failover infrastructure with each having a Virtual Ethernet with the same PVID mapping to a Virtual Ethernet on the LPAR with the same PVID.C.Create a Network Interface Backup (NIB) infrastructure with each SEA having a Virtual Ethernet with the same PVID mapped to a Virtual Ethernet with the corresponding PVID on the LPAR.D.Create a Network Interface Backup (NIB) infrastructure with each SEA having a Virtual Ethernet with a different PVID. Map one to a Virtual Ethernet with the corresponding PVID on the client LPAR. WArialCourier NewZANSWER: B。

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Testpassport最新 000-007题库 免费下载

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 000-007Title : Version : DEMOIBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbusV7.3 Implementation1. A customer is migrating from IBM Tivoli Enterprise Console (Tivoli Enterprise Console) to IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3 (Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3). This customer's environment has many custom applications sending postemsg events to Tivoli Enterprise Console server.How will the custom applications send events to Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3 environment by making only minimal changes on the custom applications?A.Custom applications should be reconfigured to send postmsg events to Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3 ObjectServer.B.Custom applications should be reconfigured to send postemsg events to Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3 Tivoli EIF Probe.C.Custom applications should be reconfigured to send nco_sendmsg events to Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3 ObjectServer.D.Custom applications should be reconfigured to send sendmsg events to Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3 Probe for Tivoli Common Event Infrastructure.Answer: B2. Which IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.3 feature must be installed before probe installation?Probe ControlAdministratorProbe SupportProcess ControlAnswer: C3. The customer is upgrading from Tivoli Integrated Portal (Webtop 2.2) to Web GUI.Which file should be restored to get all the filters?A.install_dir/profiles/TIPProfile/etc/WebGUI/WebGUI_22B.install_dir/profiles/TIPProfile/etc/WebGUI/WebGUI_21C.install_dir/profiles/TIPProfile/etc/WebGUI/deprecatedD.install_dir/profiles/TIPProfile/etc/WebGUI/migrated_dataAnswer: C4. Which statement is true regarding Accelerated Event Notification channels?A.Channels cannot be copied and pasted from one ObjectServer to another.B.Any authenticated ObjectServer user may create a channel through the Netcool admin client.C.ObjectServer channels only support the broadcast of data from alerts.status, alerts.journal, and alerts.details.D.Although channels in different ObjectServers may be named differently, all channels within a single ObjectServer must have the same name in order for the broadcast function to work correctly. Answer: A5. Which two options are true about configuring Probes to use failover Netcool Proxy Servers? (Choose two.)A.The Probe's "NetworkTimeout" property should be set to 0.B.The Probe's "IsOSConnection" property should be set to 0.C.The Probe's "IsProxyConnection" property should be set to 1.D.The Probe's "Server" property should be configured to point at the primary Proxy Server.E.The Probe's "ServerBackup" property should be configured to point at the backup Proxy Server. Answer: DE6. Which two components are used in the Tivoli Integrated Portal console to create custom screens for users? (Choose two.)A.WindowB.FoldersC.PortletsD.ViewpointsE.External URLsAnswer: BE7. What does nco_p_syntax do?A.It connects to the ObjectServer, tests the rules file, and corrects any syntax errors.B.It connects to the ObjectServer, tests the rules file, and removes lines with syntax errors.C.It connects to the ObjectServer, tests the rules file,and displays any errors to the screen.D.It connects to the ObjectServer, tests the rules file, and comments out lines with syntax errors. Answer: C8. All the processes in the current ObjectServer are functioning normally. The customer security requirements have changed and all the data in the network must be passed securely.Which change will be made at the ObjectServer level?A.Just run the Active Event List in the secure mode.B.Start all the processes under the process control agent.C.ObjectServer data is encrypted by default so that no change is required.e SSL communication port and run the ObjectServer by using -secure option.Answer: D9. A customer has a large, complex environment to monitor, with many sources of events, some at remote sites. The event volume from these sources is high. There are requirements to do advanced correlation and event enrichment, as well as providing browser access to event list views for many operators. Based on the scenario, which type of installation is recommended?A.Multi Tier Architecture with Web GUIB.Single Tier Architecture with Web GUIC.Individual failover server pair per siteD.Web GUI and OMNIbus installed in single systemAnswer: A10. Which probe will be required to integrate events from IBM Tivoli Enterprise Console with IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus?A.TEC probeB.Syslog probeC.MTTrapd probeD.Tivoli EIF probeAnswer: D11. The customer wants all the events to be archived to a file with the name NCOMS.txt.Which type of gateway should be installed?A.Reporter GatewayB.Archiving GatewayC.Flat File GatewayD.Event File GatewayAnswer: C12. In the probe's rules files, what does the getload() function do?A.Return the CPU percentage the probe is using.B.Return the number of events processed per minute.C.Return the number of events processed per second.D.Return the percentage of events processed by the probe.Answer: C13. The $NCHOME/omnibus/log/NCOMS_profiler_report.log file contains the following information:Thu Nov 20 14:02:50 2009: Individual user profiles:Thu Nov 20 14:02:50 2009: 'Administrator' (uid = 0) time on IBM-ADAF9B5BAFC: 0.020000sThu Nov 20 14:02:50 2009: 'PROBE' (uid = 0) time on server1: 55.050000sThu Nov 20 14:02:50 2009: 'GATEWAY' (uid = 0) time on server1: 0.000000sThu Nov 20 14:02:50 2009: Grouped user profiles:Thu Nov 20 14:02:50 2009: Execution time for all connections whose application name is 'Administrator': 0.020000sThu Nov 20 14:02:50 2009: Execution time for all connections whose application name is 'PROBE': 55.050000sThu Nov 20 14:02:50 2009: Execution time for all connections whose application name is 'GATEWAY': 0.000000sThu Nov 20 14:02:50 2008: Total time in the report period (59.989325s): 55.070000sWhat can be deduced from the log file?A.The gateway is not running.B.There is a high load of events inserted from the probe.C.The bi-directional ObjectServer gateway is in failover mode.D.There are too many clients connected to the ObjectServer.Answer: B14. What is the purpose of the flood.rules file?A.Insert flood-related events.B.Calculate event rates for detecting event floods.C.Parse the information of flood events for correlation.D.Delete flood events from IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus.Answer: BThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.15. What does the $NCHOME/omnibus/log/servername_profiler_report.log file contain?A.historical ObjectServer event reportsrmation of all the profile roles created in the ObjectServerC.historical information of changes made to the ObjectServer propertiesrmation about the amount of time spent running SQL queries for ObjectServer connections Answer: D16. Which three groups are identified when creating users for IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus? (Choose three.)A.OperatorsB.Root GroupC.Super UsersD.Support StaffE.Desktop UsersF.AdministratorsAnswer: ACF17. Which action is required to define groups, once the IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus is installed?A.Verify that each group has access to the system.B.Test each user for system access before adding them to a group.C.Identify which role each user is going to have and assign them into groups.D.Disable default user accounts for System Administration and default Operations accounts. Answer: C18. What is taken into consideration while calculating sizing for a server that will only run an IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus ObjectServer ?A.number of Web GUI maps configuredB.number of operator users configuredC.number of custom SQL triggers configuredD.number of Process Control agents configured within the solutionAnswer: C19. Which step is critical while calculating sizing for an IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus system?A.Determine the display resolution used by system users.B.Determine the number of calls managed by system users.C.Determine if network bandwidth will support event throughput.D.Determine if a Database Cluster is connected through an OMNIbus Gateway.Answer: C20. Which step is critical while calculating sizing for an IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus system?A.Determine the appropriate method for migration.B.Determine the number of events that will occur per hour.The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.C.Determine the number of users configured within OMNIbus.D.Determine the number of probes attached to the ObjectServer.Answer: B。

Testpassport最新 000-009题库考题分享

Testpassport最新 000-009题库考题分享

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 000-009Title :Version : DEMOIBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager V7.1.1Implementation1. How can the client be enabled to write the Host Integrity script to the disk?A. set a condition in a custom requirement to write the scriptB. set it in the Host Integrity policy under Advanced settingsC. enable debug logging through the registry on the endpointD. enable from the Clients tab under the Endpoint Machines PropertiesAnswers: C2. Which role is required to perform virtualization tasks?A. Provisioning AnalystB. Deployment AdministratorC. Provisioning AdministratorD. Automation Package DeveloperAnswers: C3. if the global variable TCA Create.EO.SAP is set to true on IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manger server and the UNIX target computer was discovered by Initial Discovery,after Installing Tivoli Common Agent on this target computer ,which Server Access Points(SAP) should be present on this target with default configuration?A. SSH-Server, Agent-ServerB. RXA-Server, Agent-ServerC. RXA-Server,SDI-SAP,Agent-ServerD. SSH-Server,SDI-SAP,Agent-ServerAnswers: D4. What are three types of operation accepted by the dcmQueryCommand command?A. DCMInsert. DCMImport,and DCMDeleteB. DCMInsert, DCMExport,and DCMUpdateC. DCMinsert, DCMChange, and DCMDeleteD. DCMInsert,DCMChange, and DCMDeleteAnswers: C5. A Windows IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager(TPM) server,by default,has the IBM Tivoli Directory Server Instance service configured for a manual start, After booting , the Tivoli Directory Server Instance has been manualty started . what is the final step to activate the TPM server?A. Nothing else is required ,TPM is ready to goB. Select/click the TPM start icon on the desktopC. Start WebSphere and then select the TPM start iconD. Start WebSphere byselecting the start WebShphere iconAnswers: D6. In which instance is a federated agent deployed?A. when the network has broadband linksB. when the network environment has DS4 trunk linesC. when the network environment is designed with high performing routersD. when the network environment has slow links and target machines are located remotelyAnswers: D7. Running an Initial Discovery without explicit authorization credentials results in the discovered devices being added on to which group?A. static groupB. unknown resourcesC. untyped dynamic groupD. default provisioning groupAnswers: B8. Click the Exhibit button.Which action results in what this Exhibit shows?A. a failed Deployment Engine activityB. a Tivoli Common Agent reinstallationC. the execution of ./installguide_solaris2.sh commandD. the execution of /opt/Tivoli/ep/runtime/agent/endpoint.sh start commandAnswers: C9. what are the two main requirements for running the xmlConvert command?(Choose two.)A. IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager (TPM) must be running before issuing this commandB. the user must be logged into the TPM Web Interface as °ti oad m iC. The TPM engines must be shutdown and only the middleware components runningD. The data in encrypted format must have already been exported by dcmexport commandE. The TPM Computers that are being used must be running the same version of TPMAnswers: AE10. Which two scripts are required to be created and distributed to the target computer when creating a custom inventory discovery by using extensionsA. Pre and postB. hw_scn.ext and sw_scn.extC. inventory id and platform extensionD. my_table.windows.mif.backup and my_table.mif.backupAnswers: A11. An Operating System Patches and Updates scan has been run and checked against a group of Windows computers. A recommended Microsoft Office patch does not appear on the list.What are two potential reasons for this? (Choose two)A. The wsusscn2.cab file is corruptB. The deadline to install the patch has not been reachedC. The Windows patch has not been approved in the data center modelD. The latest wuascan.cab file was not copied to the LocalFileRepository.E. When the Microsoft patches were acquired, the discovery to Include the Office Product Family was not configured.Answers: CE12. In the Compliance tab of a particular computer, the Operating System Patches and Updates compliance check shows it is not compliant. What should be investigated to make the computer compliant?A. Review the computer¯s P r ope rti es t aB. Review the computer¯s R eco mm enda ti ons t aC. Review the computer¯s So ft w a r e and H a r d w a r e t absD. Run the recommendations report for that computerAnswers: B13. A Tivoli Common Agent is already deployed in a development environment and needs to have a faster polling Interval for testing purposes. Which configuration file controls the polling rate of the target?A. tca.propertiesB. jes.propertiesC. endpoint.propertiesD. cdsclient.propertiesAnswers: D14. On a UNIX or Linux operating system, which command can ben used to start the Agent Manager?A. startServer.shB. startAMServer.shC. startAgentManager.shD. startAgentMangerServer.shAnswers: A15. IN IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager V7.1.1 patch management ,which two tasks are allowed to be performed by a Provisioning Configuration Librarian Provisioning role?(Choose two)A. Publish patchesB. Monitor path installationC. Discover and reboot target computersD. Organzie and maintain the patch catalogE. Scan the target computers for missing patchesAnswers: DE16. Which three supported languages can be used in the definition of a scriptlet inside a provisioning workflow?(Choose three)A. PHPB. C++C. kshD. PerlE. JythonF. VBScriptAnswers: CDF17. As a prerequisite for Windows patch management on IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager V7.1.1 , on which operating system should the Microsoft patch download server be installed?A. any Windows Server operating systemB. Windows Server 2008 Standard EditionC. Windows Server 2008 Enterprise EditionD. Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition SP2Answers: A18. When planning for a multi-server topology ,which three components can be installed on a machine other than the IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager server?(Choose three)A. database serverB. directory serverC. middleware serverD. deployment engineE. Administrative workstationF. scalable distribution serverAnswers: ABEThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.19. Which IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager V7.1.1 configuration parameter must be configured on a UNIX endpoint to enable scriptlet support?A. root user authenticationB. Sevure Shell service access pointC. Rivest,Shaw,Adleman service access pointD. Remote Execution and Access service access pointAnswers: B20. What are the two steps that must ve performed before running a Windows Operating System Patches and Updates check in a scalable distribution infrastructure environment?(Choose two)A. The wsuscn2.cab file must be distributed to the targetsB. The file system must be scanned for sufficient disk spaceC. The Windows Update Agent must be Installed on the targetsD. The Windows patch acquisition(Microsoft Updates Discovery) must be runE. The Microsoft Windows Sever Update Services server must be updated with the latest Microsoft patchesAnswers: CD。

Testpassport最新 IBM 000-071题库

Testpassport最新 IBM 000-071题库

Testpassport最新IBM 000-071题库Testpassport IBM certifications III 000-071试题库由资深IT认证讲师和IBM certifications III产品专家结合PROMETRIC的真实考试环境最新原题倾心打造.题库覆盖了当前最新的真实考题,并且全部附有正确答案,我们承诺题库对IBM certifications III000-071(IBM eserver x series technical principle v5)考试原题完整覆盖.000-071 题库助您轻松通过认证考试.需要完整考题的请登录查询最新题库1. The IBM eServer xSeries 236 server indicated an error during the power on self test (POST). Theserver madeseveral beeps and stopped. Which IBM resource would be best to determine the cause of this failure?A. IBM eServer xSeries tuning RedBookB. IBM eServer xSeries 236 server Users GuideC. IBM eServer xSeries 236 server Hardware Maintenance ManualD. IBM eServer xSeries 236 server Installation and Setup GuideAnswer: C2. A customer has purchased an additional ServeRAID 6M card together with an EXP-400 and disks. Atechnician has been called to install this option into an xSeries 365 that has free slots. The customer doesnotwant to use Hot Add PCI. The technician should do which of the following after discussing the requiredconfiguration?A. Attend the site, power down the server, and install the option.B. Power down the server and install the card in slot 1. Cable up the EXP-400 and use ServerGuide toconfigurethe RAID option as the server re-boots from the ServerGuide CD.C. Power down the server and install the options as requested. Power up the server and then wait for twominutes to allow the server to boot, and power up the EXP-400. Use IBM Director to configure the BIOS.D. Download the latest drivers and firmware before attending the site to install according to the user guide.Readthe COG (Configurations and Options Guide) for information regarding the supported slots for this card.Beforecommencing, ensure a backup of data is carried out.Answer: D3. Which IBM tool is required to utilize Remote Deployment Manager4.11?A. IBM Director 4.xB. IBM AdStar Distribution Manager 3.1C. Tivoli Enterprise Storage Manager 5.1D. IBM Software Distribution Manager 1.0.2Answer:A4. Which two of the following tasks can be performed with ServerGuide?A. Install the OSB. Upgrade the current OSC. Update system device driversD. Update system BIOS and firmwareE. Install third party applicationsAnswer:AD5. A ServeRAID adapter is being installed in an IBM eServer xSeries server. Prior to installing a NOS,whatembedded utility provides an overview of the current RAID settings?A. IBM ServeRAID ManagerB. SCSI BIOS Set-Up utilityC. IPSSEND GETCONFIG commandD. ServeRAID Mini-Configuration programAnswer: D6. An xSeries technician is asked to upgrade a customer's system by adding more drives to an installed11-driveEXP-400. The rack is complex with many populated EXP-400s installed. The technician wants to addextradrives to the enclosure. Which two of the following methods could be employed to visually identify theexistingphysical drives connected on this controller?A. Reboot the server and press CTRL-I at bootup to enter the ServeRAID Mini-Config utility. Select"IdentifyDrives Within An Array."B. Enter ServeRAID manager and expand the controller concerned. Right click on the "Physical Drive"and select"set drive state to defunct." The drive will be identified by a solid amber light.C. Enter ServerGuide CD and expand the controller concerned. Right click on the "physical Drive" andselect"Identify Physical Drive" in turn for each drive. The drive will be identified by a flashing light.D. Enter ServeRAID manager and expand the controller concerned. Right click on the "Physical Drive"and select"Identify Physical Drive (number)" in turn for each drive. The drive will be identified by a flashing light.E. Enter ServeRAID manager and expand the controller concerned. Right click on "Channel(number)"and select"Identify SCSI channel(number)." Drives concerned will be identified by flashing lights.Answer: DE7. A customer has an IBM x445 server installed with an RXE-100 external I/O drawer. A number of cardsarealready installed within the machine, and the customer has purchased a pair of Ethernet adapters.Whichprocedure would ensure that the system is configured for optimal performance?A. Use Active PCI Manager in IBM Director Server Plus Pack to identify the recommended slots for thecards.B. Install one card in the x445 server and the other card in the RXE-100 to ensure that bus loading is keptto aminimum.C. Slide out the RXE-100 and take the lid off to check for free slots and select two immediately adjacentfree slotsof the right length.D. View the rear of the RXE-100 and identify already installed cards and install the new cards in the twoslots thatare most distant from each other to ensure the cards are not on the same PCI Bus.Answer:A8. The IBM eServer xSeries 336 contains three similar ports at the back of the unit. Two of these ports areusedfor the on-board Ethernet. What is the remaining port used for?A. Central Electronics Complex (CEC)B. Service Processor Ethernet portC. RS485 Systems Management PortD. Integrated Server Maintenance Controller (ISMC) Answer: B。

Testpassport 最新 646-578题库免费下载

Testpassport 最新 646-578题库免费下载

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 646-578Title :Version : DemoASAM Advanced Security for Account Managers Exam1. When do you align customer business requirements with the needed solution functionality?A. when preparing for the business requirements workshopB. while conducting the business requirements workshopC. during preliminary technical discoveryD. in a technology strategy meetingAnswer: B2. A company believes that buying and installing a firewall can solve their security problems. What reason for insufficient security is this customer illustrating?A. risk analysisB. lack of perceived riskC. quantifying risksD. quickly evolving networks and applicationsAnswer: B3. How does preliminary technical discovery benefit the customer?A. Information regarding an existing customer network is analyzed, which allows an appropriate solution to be developed.B. Detailed technical requirements are defined and documented.C. A technology strategy is presented to the customer.D. The account team analyzes and validates the business requirements.Answer: A4. How does the Cisco SDN relate to compliance?A. It addresses a large majority of PCI requirements.B. It uses anomaly detection to secure a device.C. It is point product-based.D. It uses IP protocol 50 (ESP) to securely communicate to network devices.Answer: A5. What trigger question would you use when assessing the benefit of a secure network access solution?A. Have you ever experienced business disruption from an Internet attack, such as viruses or worms?B. Do you want to provision your VPN, firewall, and IPS devices with a single management system?C. Do you think you have a thorough strategy for detecting and correlating network intrusions?D. What type of end users and applications need to access your network?Answer: D6. What are two outcomes of preparing for the business requirements workshop? (Choose two.)A. aligning the solution with customer business needsB. defining stakeholdersC. discovering which requirements conflict with the solutionD. defining detailed customer requirementsAnswer: BD7. Which scenario illustrates a breach in security integrity?A. A system upgrade slows the network down and prevents employees from accessing data.B. Service is disrupted due to a power outage.C. An unauthorized party obtains a credit card number.D. Someone is able to cast a large number of votes in an online poll.Answer: D8. Which government regulation was designed to restore investor confidence in the financial reporting of public companies?A. Basel IIB. PCIC. SOX ActD. GLBAAnswer: C9. Which government regulation specifies which patient information must be kept private, how companies must secure the information, and the standards for electronic communication between medical providers and insurance companies?A. Basel IIB. GLB ActC. HIPAAD. USA PATRIOT ActAnswer: C10. Which two of these describe how security contributes to profitability? (Choose two.)A. by not complying with government regulationsB. by enabling businesses to gain the maximum advantage from advanced technologiesC. by decreasing downtime and productivity lossesD. by providing access to information based on need rather than locationE. by providing the company an insurance policyAnswer: BC11. During the optimize phase, how can the account manager help the customer reach operational excellence?A. by enabling ongoing improvement of system performance and functionalityB. by evaluating the solution against competitor performanceC. by making recommendations for integration of the security solutionD. by defining project milestonesAnswer: A12. How do you calculate risk quantitatively for SLE?A. single loss expectancy divided by the annualized rate of occurrenceB. exposure factor multiplied by the asset valueC. cost of recovery multiplied by the number of compromised serversD. average revenue per hour divided by the hourly server downtimeAnswer: B13. Which compliance standard will directly affect the security policy of a local bookstore?A. PCIB. SOX ActC. HIPPAD. Basel IIAnswer: A14. Which government regulation was implemented to promote world financial stability by coordinating definitions of capital and risk assessment across countries?A. BS 7799/ISO 17799B. SOXC. HIPAAD. Basel IIE. USA PATRIOT ActAnswer: D15. Which two of these activities does the risk analysis process include? (Choose two.)A. Determine the potential for each type of threat.B. Identify potential threats.C. Determine the impact on business.D. Prioritize security needs due to cost.E. Determine vulnerabilitiesAnswer: BC。

IBM 000-100题库

IBM 000-100题库

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 000-100Title :Version : DemoEnterprISE TECHNICAL SUPPORT FOR Aix ANDLINUX1. A customer has 2 VIO servers, supporting 4 client partitions. They want to configure Shared Ethernet Adapter Failover.What is the minimum number of physical Ethernet adapters required for each VIO server?A.1B.2C.4D.8ANSWER: A2. What is the minimum requirement to update the managed system's firmware from the HMC if inventory scout is already installed?A.A public internet connectionB.All logical partitions must be activeC.One partition must be configured with Service AuthorityD.A local repository must be configured prior to the updateANSWER: C3. A customer wants to use Live Application Mobility which comes as part of the Workload Partition virtualization offering. Which of the following is the minimum configuration that will satisfy the customer requirement?A.AIX 6.1 with POWER6B.AIX 6.1 with POWER4C.AIX 5.3 with POWER5D.AIX 5.3 with POWER4ANSWER: B4. A customer wishes to use Live Partition Mobility for system maintenance. What is the minimum requirement?A.PowerHAB.Virtual I/O server 1.4C.AIX Enterprise EditionD.PowerVM Standard EditionANSWER: C5. A customer is planning to use Live Partition Mobility on a new Power 570. Which of the following must be considered when pre-configuring the system in the IBM System Planning Tool (SPT)?A.VIO-server setup is unsupported in SPTB.Live Partition Mobility is unsupported in SPTC.IVE setup is unsupported when using Live Partition MobilityD.VIO-server setup is unsupported when using Live Partition MobilityANSWER: C6. The Integrated Virtualization Manager is packaged with which of the following?A.PowerVMB.Virtual I/O ServerC.Partition Load ManagerD.Virtual Workload ManagerANSWER: B7. What is required to collect data for analysis by the Workload Estimator (WLE)?A.WLE LPPB.WLE servletC.bos.wle.rte filesetD.AIX 5.3 TL3 or laterANSWER: D8. A customer has multiple POWER5 systems connected to one HMC at version 6. They have ordered a new POWER6 system. What is necessary in order to get the new POWER6 system managed by an HMC?A.The old HMC can be used without change.B.The old HMC must be upgraded to the latest level.C.POWER6 and POWER5 must be connected to different HMCs.D.The POWER6 system must have a separate partition on the HMC.ANSWER: B9. A customer has purchased a 64-way Power 595. What must be considered when planning the physical location?A.A Power 595 requires three-phase electricity on its own UPS.B.A Power 595 must be placed on a concrete floor due to its weight.C.A Power 595 must be placed on a raised floor because of the cooling requirement.D.A Power 595 requires 1 meter of clear space on all sides for maintenance and airflow.ANSWER: C10. A customer has a VIOS environment configured on a Power 570 server. There are two LPARs with application servers and three with Oracle databases. Data disks are located on EMC Symmetrix boxes attached via SVC. Which driver should be used for disks on VIO servers?A.SVCDB.RDACC.SDDPCMD.PowerPathANSWER: C。

Testpassport最新Symantec ST0-079 题库下载

Testpassport最新Symantec ST0-079 题库下载

TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : ST0-079Title :Version : DEMOSymantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0 (STS)The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.1. In addition to storing messages for Spam Quarantine and Suspect Virus Quarantine, which type of messages can the Control Center store?A.notification messagespliance triggered messagesC.delivered messagesD.deleted messagesANSWER: B2. To reach Message Audit logs, which tab should be selected in the Brightmail Control Center?A.StatusB.AdministrationC.ReportsplianceANSWER: A3. Which feature requires Invalid Recipient Handling to be enabled?A.Bounce Attack PreventionB.Directory Harvest Attack recognitionC.Reputation LookupD.FastpassANSWER: B4. An administrator has navigated through Status -> LDAP Synchronization.Which tab will display details about an LDAP Synchronization?A.LDAP to ScannersB.LDAP to CCC.LDAP Status to LDAPANSWER: B5. A client needs to import structured customer data.Which resource is used for this requirement?A.recordsB.dictionariesC.regular expressionsD.patternsANSWER: A6. What does the Fastpass feature do?A.skips virus scanning for known virusesB.skips resource intensive spam scanning stepsC.passes incoming mail directly to the downstream MTAD.bypasses scanning on outgoing mailANSWER: BThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.7. Which feature of Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0 detects Non-Delivery Reports (NDR) created by an attacker?A.Directory Harvest AttackB.Anti-Phishing FilterC.Bounce Attack PreventionD.Symantec Probe NetworkANSWER: C8. What is the Heuristic Detection (Bloodhound) feature designed to detect?A.unknown virusesB.fuzzy matches against compliance rulesC.regex matchesD.Denial of Service (DoS) attacksANSWER: B9. What happens to a message that is forwarded to the Suspect Virus Quarantine?A.It is automatically deleted after one week.B.It is rescanned when the configured hold time has elapsed.C.It is placed in the administrator's queue for review.D.It is forwarded to Symantec Security Response.ANSWER: B10. True file typing is a feature used to combat which behavior?A.spammingB.renamingC.phishingD.spimmingANSWER: B11. Which two email authentication technologies are included in Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0? (Select two.)A.Sender IDB.POP before SMTPC.Domain Keys Identified Mail (DKIM)D.Certified EmailE.Sender Policy Framework (SPF)ANSWER: AE12. Spam Rule sets are automatically downloaded from Symantec on a regular basis.How often are these rule sets refreshed?A.every 5 to 10 minutesB.every 30 to 60 minutesC.every 3 to 5 hoursD.every dayANSWER: A13. Which two tasks are performed by the SMTP session component of the MTA? (Select two.)A.It verifies the IP address reputation with the BMServer.B.It performs aliasing/masquerading for messages.C.It reports the message as spam.D.It applies the specified queue thresholds.E.It interacts with the BMServer to access the filtering modules.ANSWER: BD14. Which service retrieves new and updated email filters from Symantec Security Response through HTTPS file transfer?A.LiveUpdateB.ConduitC.Brightmail EngineD.MTAANSWER: B15. What are two functions of the Control Center? (Select two.)A.It provides message management services.B.It routes messages for delivery.C.It hosts Spam Quarantine.D.It downloads virus definitions.E.It runs filters.ANSWER: AC16. Which MTA operation is used if incoming messages need to be stopped while waiting for new virus definitions?A.Accept and deliver messages normallyB.Pause message scanning and deliveryC.Do not accept incoming messagesD.Accept but do not scan incoming messagesANSWER: B17. Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue scanning and delivery of messages?A.Accept and deliver messages normallyB.Pause message scanning and deliveryC.Do not accept incoming messagesD.Accept but do not scan incoming messagesANSWER: C18. What are two parts of the Control Center? (Select two.)A.Message StoreB.LDAP Sync ServiceC.Brightmail EngineD.LiveUpdate ConduitE.Suspect Virus QuarantineANSWER: BE19. What is the recommended hard-drive size for a scanner-only virtual machine?A.60GBB.80GBC.100GBD.160GBANSWER: A20. What is the minimum required memory size for virtual machine deployments?A.1GBB.2GBC.4GBD.6GBANSWER: B。

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TThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam . 000-008Title .Version . DemoIBM Tivoli Business Service Manager V4.2.1Implementation1.Why is a data source required?A.Data source contains data required for impact event enrichment.B.Data source contains data required for calculating server downtime.C.Data source contains data required for services and other related service information.D.Data source contains data required for LDAP configurations, including login attempts and errors. Answer:C2.Which two steps are performed when creating a user interface for a customer that involves custom canvases? (Choose two.)A.Spend a couple of days mocking up some examples.B.Develop the operational requirements with the customer.C.Show some quick examples before doing extensive development.D.Determine if one will be using static or dynamic visual elements.E.Specify the screen real estate with the customer so that one has room.Answer:C D3.A customer will install IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager V4.2.1 (Tivoli Business Service Manager) in an environment with an existing OMNIbus installation. Which two groups should be interviewed when designing the Tivoli Business Service Manager services? (Choose two.)work group to obtain firewall informationB.database administrators to obtain database informationC.monitoring group to find out how their enterprise is monitoredD.OMNIbus administrators to find out which events are coming into OMNIbusE.operation group to find out what they want to see on Tivoli Business Service Manager console Answer:D E4.When utilizing Oracle database information to create IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager service models, what is the primary method used to create service models?A.ESDAsB.Discovery Library Toolkit modelsC.event-based automatic population rulesD.data fetcher automated population rulesAnswer:A5.When planning the deployment of IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager V4.2.1, which primary task must be performed to create a document of deployment?A.Determine the database for deployment.B.Determine the schema for operational displays.C.Determine the operational display requirements.D.Determine roll-out architecture across the environments.Answer:D6.Which two steps are used to help document the customer's service requirements? (Choose two.)A.Determine which CPAs are reviewed.B.Determine the number of incoming events.C.Determine what interacts with the solution.D.Determine which ports will be used to access the data sources.E.Determine the size of the organization and the number of end users.Answer:B E7.Which application is used by IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager to provide details about the relationship among network assets?A.IBM Tivoli ImpactB.IBM Tivoli Asset Manager for ITC.IBM Tivoli Dependency Discovery ManagerD.IBM Tivoli Application Performance ManagementAnswer:C8.What is needed, in addition to documentation, access to and knowledge of a client's existing monitoring system, to effectively implement IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager?A.project timelineB.database structures for ESDA'sC.security policies of the clientD.personnel responsible for existing productsAnswer:D9.What are three sources for a Discovery Library Toolkit? (Choose three.)A.DB2 V9.5B.WebSphere Application ServerC.zSeries Discovery Library AdapterD.Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery ManagerE.physical topology layout in Tivoli Enterprise PortalF.any Tivoli or non-Tivoli source with conforming IDML booksAnswer:C D F10.What should be asked first when reviewing a trend perspective?A.What kind of presentation layer will this trend perspective require?B.What kind of data source is needed and what is the polling interval for the key performance indicators (KPIs)?C.Is the trend, long-term or short-term and what are the trend calculation intervals?D.Is there historical data and forecast data in the KPIs?Answer:C11.Which three customers are interviewed to gather requirements for deploying a business service management solution? (Choose three.)A.facilities staffB.external vendorsC.research department managementrmation technology managementE.line of business owners and product managementF.data center operations and network operations personnelAnswer:D E F12.An IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager V4.2.1 (Tivoli Business Service Manager) administrator is designing a new service model. What has to be done so that the service status is accurately propagated up the hierarchy?A.Create correct aggregation rules.B.Create correct auto-population rules.C.Create correct incoming status rules.D.Make correct child-parent hierarchical relation for all Tivoli Business Service Manager services. Answer:A13.Which operating system prevents the successful installation of the Data server when working with the Hardware Deployment team?A.HP UXB.IBM AIXC.Sun SolarisD.Microsoft WindowsAnswer:A14.IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager V4.2.1 is to be installed at a customer site by a consultant in two weeks. What must be done to ensure that the software is available?A.Send the customer a list of software to download from Passport Advantage.B.Download the software and burn a DVD to take to the customer site when installing.C.Download the software and place it on a thumb drive for the customer from Extreme Leverage.D.Wait until arriving at the customer site and download the software to make sure everything is available. Answer:A15.What are the minimum hardware requirements when planning an IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager V4.2.1 Dashboard server installation?A.2 GB RAM, 4 CPU, 2 GB disk spaceB.4 GB RAM, 4 CPU, 8 GB disk spaceC.2 GB RAM, 2 CPU, 4 GB disk spaceD.1.5 GB RAM, 2 CPU, 4 GB disk spaceAnswer:C16.Which two pieces of information are required regarding user authentication when planning an IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager V4.2.1 installation? (Choose two.)A.Which user groups are the users in?B.Will OMNIbus be used for using authentication?C.Are there any special password policies implemented?D.Are the users defined on Windows or UNIX/Linux systems?E.Is a file-based repository or an LDAP repository being used?Answer:B E17.What can simplify SQL query creation in data fetchers?A.Database viewsB.Database indexesC.Left Outer joinsD.Automation scriptsAnswer:A18.Which two sources of data can IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager V4.2.1 use as input to create and drive its service models? (Choose two.)A.CSV filesB.LDAP serversC.SQL databasesD.OMNIbus eventswork devicesAnswer:C D19.Which step is recommended before exporting from the IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager (Tivoli Business Service Manager) V4.1.x system?A.Suspend ITM Situations.B.Stop the XML Toolkit Service.C.Shut down the ObjectServer(s).D.Shut down data sources used by data fetchers.Answer:B20.What is the first step to be taken when configuring IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager V4.2.1 (Tivoli Business Service Manager) for certificate-based authenticated communications to the ObjectServer?A.Retrieve the ObjectServer certificate and save it to the truststore.B.Enable SSL for the primary ObjectServer by modifying RAD_com.sybase.jdbc3.SybDriver.props with USESSLPRIMARY=TRUE.C.Generate a certificate that will be used for the ObjectServer and the Tivoli Business Service Manager object store.D.Generate a certificate for the Tivoli Business Service Manager object store, extract it and install it on the ObjectServer.Answer:A。

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