投资学第7版TestBank答案04
投资学第7版TestBank答案20

投资学第7版TestBank答案20Multiple Choice Questions1. The price that the buyer of a call option pays to acquire the option is called theA) strike priceB) exercise priceC) execution priceD) acquisition priceE) premiumAnswer: E Difficulty: Easy2. The price that the writer of a call option receives to sell the option is called theA) strike priceB) exercise priceC) execution priceD) acquisition priceE) premiumAnswer: E Difficulty: Easy3. The price that the buyer of a put option pays to acquire the option is called theA) strike priceB) exercise priceC) execution priceD) acquisition priceE) premiumAnswer: E Difficulty: Easy4. The price that the writer of a put option receives to sell the option is called theA) premiumB) exercise priceC) execution priceD) acquisition priceE) strike priceAnswer: A Difficulty: Easy5. The price that the buyer of a call option pays for the underlying asset if she executes heroption is called theA) strike priceB) exercise priceC) execution priceD) A or CE) A or BAnswer: E Difficulty: Easy6. The price that the writer of a call option receives for the underlying asset if the buyerexecutes her option is called theA) strike priceB) exercise priceC) execution priceD) A or BE) A or CAnswer: D Difficulty: Easy7. The price that the buyer of a put option receives for the underlying asset if she executesher option is called theA) strike priceB) exercise priceC) execution priceD) A or CE) A or BAnswer: E Difficulty: Easy8. The price that the writer of a put option receives for the underlying asset if the option isexercised is called theA) strike priceB) exercise priceC) execution priceD) A or BE) none of the aboveAnswer: E Difficulty: Easy9. An American call option allows the buyer toA) sell the underlying asset at the exercise price on or before the expiration date.B) buy the underlying asset at the exercise price on or before the expiration date.C) sell the option in the open market prior to expiration.D) A and C.E) B and C.Answer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: An American call option may be exercised (allowing the holder to buy the underlying asset) on or before expiration; the option contract also may be sold prior to expiration.10. A European call option allows the buyer toA) sell the underlying asset at the exercise price on the expiration date.B) buy the underlying asset at the exercise price on or before the expiration date.C) sell the option in the open market prior to expiration.D) buy the underlying asset at the exercise price on the expiration date.E) C and D.Answer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: A European call option may be exercised (allowing the holder to buy the underlying asset) on the expiration date; the option contract also may be sold prior to expiration.11. An American put option allows the holder toA) buy the underlying asset at the striking price on or before the expiration date.B) sell the underlying asset at the striking price on or before the expiration date.C) potentially benefit from a stock price decrease with less risk than short selling thestock.D) B and C.E) A and C.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: An American put option allows the buyer to sell the underlying asset at the striking price on or before the expiration date. The put option also allows the investor to benefit from an expected stock price decrease while risking only the amount invested in the contract.12. A European put option allows the holder toA) buy the underlying asset at the striking price on or before the expiration date.B) sell the underlying asset at the striking price on or before the expiration date.C) potentially benefit from a stock price decrease with less risk than short selling thestock.D) sell the underlying asset at the striking price on the expiration date.E) C and D.Answer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: A European put option allows the buyer to sell the underlying asset at the striking price on or before the expiration date. The put option also allows the investor to benefit from an expected stock price decrease while risking only the amount invested in the contract.13. An American put option can be exercisedA) any time on or before the expiration date.B) only on the expiration date.C) any time in the indefinite future.D) only after dividends are paid.E) none of the above.Answer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: American options can be exercised on or before expiration date.14. An American call option can be exercisedA) any time on or before the expiration date.B) only on the expiration date.C) any time in the indefinite future.D) only after dividends are paid.E) none of the above.Answer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: American options can be exercised on or before expiration date.15. A European call option can be exercisedA) any time in the future.B) only on the expiration date.C) if the price of the underlying asset declines below the exercise price.D) immediately after dividends are paid.E) none of the above.Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: European options can be exercised at expiration only.16. A European put option can be exercisedA) any time in the future.B) only on the expiration date.C) if the price of the underlying asset declines below the exercise price.D) immediately after dividends are paid.E) none of the above.Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: European options can be exercised at expiration only.17. To adjust for stock splitsA) the exercise price of the option is reduced by the factor of the split and the numberof option held is increased by that factor.B) the exercise price of the option is increased by the factor of the split and the numberof option held is reduced by that factor.C) the exercise price of the option is reduced by the factor of the split and the numberof option held is reduced by that factor.D) the exercise price of the option is increased by the factor of the split and the numberof option held is increased by that factor.E) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: Easy18. All else equal, call option values are lowerA) in the month of May.B) for low dividend payout policies.C) for high dividend payout policies.D) A and B.E) A and C.Answer: C Difficulty: Easy19. The current market price of a share of AT&T stock is $50. If a call option on this stockhas a strike price of $45, the callA) is out of the money.B) is in the money.C) sells for a higher price than if the market price of AT&T stock is $40.D) A and C.E) B and C.Answer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: If the striking price on a call option is less than the market price, the option is in the money and sells for more than an out of the money option.20. The current market price of a share of Boeing stock is $75. If a call option on this stockhas a strike price of $70, the callA) is out of the money.B) is in the money.C) sells for a higher price than if the market price of Boeing stock is $70.D) A and C.E) B and C.Answer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: If the striking price on a call option is less than the market price, the option is in the money and sells for more than an at the money option.21. The current market price of a share of CSCO stock is $22. If a call option on this stockhas a strike price of $20, the callA) is out of the money.B) is in the money.C) sells for a higher price than if the market price of CSCO stock is $21.D) A and C.E) B and C.Answer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: If the striking price on a call option is less than the market price, the option is in the money and sells for more thana less in the money option.22. The current market price of a share of Disney stock is $30. If a call option on this stockhas a strike price of $35, the callA) is out of the money.B) is in the money.C) can be exercised profitably.D) A and C.E) B and C.Answer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: If the striking price on a call option is more than the market price, the option is out of the money and cannot beexercised profitably.23. The current market price of a share of CAT stock is $76. Ifa call option on this stockhas a strike price of $76, the callA) is out of the money.B) is in the money.C) is at the money.D) A and C.E) B and C.Answer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: If the striking price on a call option is equal to the market price, the option is at the money.24. A put option on a stock is said to be out of the money ifA) the exercise price is higher than the stock price.B) the exercise price is less than the stock price.C) the exercise price is equal to the stock price.D) the price of the put is higher than the price of the call.E) the price of the call is higher than the price of the put.Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: An out of the money put option gives the owner the right to sell the shares for less than market price.25. A put option on a stock is said to be in the money ifA) the exercise price is higher than the stock price.B) the exercise price is less than the stock price.C) the exercise price is equal to the stock price.D) the price of the put is higher than the price of the call.E) the price of the call is higher than the price of the put.Answer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: An in the money put option gives the owner the right to sell the shares for more than market price.26. A put option on a stock is said to be at the money ifA) the exercise price is higher than the stock price.B) the exercise price is less than the stock price.C) the exercise price is equal to the stock price.D) the price of the put is higher than the price of the call.E) the price of the call is higher than the price of the put.Answer: C Difficulty: Easy27. A call option on a stock is said to be out of the money ifA) the exercise price is higher than the stock price.B) the exercise price is less than the stock price.C) the exercise price is equal to the stock price.D) the price of the put is higher than the price of the call.E) the price of the call is higher than the price of the put.Answer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: An out of the money call option gives the owner the right to buy the shares for more than market price.28. A call option on a stock is said to be in the money ifA) the exercise price is higher than the stock price.B) the exercise price is less than the stock price.C) the exercise price is equal to the stock price.D) the price of the put is higher than the price of the call.E) the price of the call is higher than the price of the put.Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: An in the money call option gives the owner the right to buy the shares for less than market price.29. A call option on a stock is said to be at the money ifA) the exercise price is higher than the stock price.B) the exercise price is less than the stock price.C) the exercise price is equal to the stock price.D) the price of the put is higher than the price of the call.E) the price of the call is higher than the price of the put.Answer: C Difficulty: Easy30. The current market price of a share of AT&T stock is $50. If a put option on this stockhas a strike price of $45, the putA) is out of the money.B) is in the money.C) sells for a lower price than if the market price of AT&T stock is $40.D) A and C.E) B and C.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: If the striking price on a put option is more than the market price, the option is out of the money and sells for less than an in the money option.31. The current market price of a share of Boeing stock is $75. If a put option on this stockhas a strike price of $70, the putA) is out of the money.B) is in the money.C) sells for a higher price than if the market price of Boeing stock is $70.D) A and C.E) B and C.Answer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: If the striking price on a put option is more than the market price, the option is out of the money and sells for less than an at the money option.32. The current market price of a share of CSCO stock is $22. If a put option on this stockhas a strike price of $20, the putA) is out of the money.B) is in the money.C) sells for a higher price than if the strike price of the put option was $25.D) A and C.E) B and C.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: If the striking price on a put option is less than the market price, the option is out of the money and sells for less than an in the money option.33. The current market price of a share of Disney stock is $30. If a put option on this stockhas a strike price of $35, the putA) is out of the money.B) is in the money.C) can be exercised profitably.D) A and C.E) B and C.Answer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: If the striking price on a put option is less than the market price, the option is out of the money.34. The current market price of a share of CAT stock is $76. Ifa put option on this stock hasa strike price of $80, the putA) is out of the money.B) is in the money.C) can be exercised profitably.D) A and C.E) B and C.Answer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: If the striking price on a put option is less than the market price, the option is in the money and can be profitably exercised.35. Lookback options have payoffs thatA) have payoffs that depend in part on the minimum or maximum price of theunderlying asset during the life of the option.B) have payoffs that only depend on the minimum price of the underlying asset duringthe life of the option.C) have payoffs that only depend on the maximum price of the underlying asset duringthe life of the option.D) are known in advance.E) none of the above.Answer: A Difficulty: Easy36. Barrier Options have payoffs thatA) have payoffs that only depend on the minimum price of the underlying asset duringthe life of the option.B) depend both on the asset's price at expiration and on whether the underlying asset'sprice has crossed through some barrier.C) are known in advance.D) have payoffs that only depend on the maximum price of the underlying asset duringthe life of the option.E) none of the above.Answer: A Difficulty: Easy37. Currency-Translated Options haveA) only asset prices denoted in a foreign currency.B) only exercise prices denoted in a foreign currency.C) have payoffs that only depend on the maximum price of the underlying asset duringthe life of the option.D) either asset or exercise prices denoted in a foreign currency.E) none of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: Easy38. Binary OptionsA) are based on two possible outcomes--yes or no.B) may make a payoff of a fixed amount if a specified event happens.C) may make a payoff of a fixed amount if a specified event does not happen.D) A and B only.E) A, B, and C.Answer: E Difficulty: Easy39. The maximum loss a buyer of a stock call option can suffer is equal toA) the striking price minus the stock price.B) the stock price minus the value of the call.C) the call premium.D) the stock price.E) none of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: If an option expires worthless all the buyer has lost is the price of the contract (premium).40. The maximum loss a buyer of a stock put option cansuffer is equal toA) the striking price minus the stock price.B) the stock price minus the value of the call.C) the put premium.D) the stock price.E) none of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: If an option expires worthless all the buyer has lost is the price of the contract (premium).41. The lower bound on the market price of a convertible bond isA) its straight bond value.B) its crooked bond value.C) its conversion value.D) A and C.E) none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: Easy42. The potential loss for a writer of a naked call option on a stock isA) limitedB) unlimitedC) larger the lower the stock price.D) equal to the call premium.E) none of the above.Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: If the buyer of the option elects to exercise the option and buy the stock at the exercise price, the seller of the option must go into the open market and buy the stock (in order to sell the stock to the buyer of the contract) at the current market price.Theoretically, the market price of a stock is unlimited; thus the writer's potential loss is unlimited.43. The intrinsic value of an out-of-the-money call option is equal toA) the call premium.B) zero.C) the stock price minus the exercise price.D) the striking price.E) none of the above.Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: The fact that the owner of the option can buy the stock at a price greater than the market price gives the contract an intrinsic value of zero, and the holder will not exercise.44. The intrinsic value of an at-the-money call option is equal toA) the call premium.B) zero.C) the stock price plus the exercise price.D) the striking price.E) none of the above.Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: The fact that the owner of the option can buy the stock at a price equal to the market price gives the contract an intrinsic value of zero.45. The intrinsic value of an in-of-the-money call option is equal toA) the call premium.B) zero.C) the stock price minus the exercise price.D) the striking price.E) none of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: The fact that the owner of the option can buy the stock at a price less than the market price gives the contract a positive intrinsic value.46. The intrinsic value of an in-the-money put option is equal toA) the stock price minus the exercise price.B) the put premium.C) zero.D) the exercise price minus the stock price.E) none of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The intrinsic value of an in-the-money put option contract is the strike price less the stock price, since the holder can buy the stock at the market price and sell it for the strike.47. The intrinsic value of an at-the-money put option is equal toA) the stock price minus the exercise price.B) the put premium.C) zero.D) the exercise price minus the stock price.E) none of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The intrinsic value of an at-the-money put option contract is zero.48. The intrinsic value of an out-of-the-money put option is equal toA) the stock price minus the exercise price.B) the put premium.C) zero.D) the exercise price minus the stock price.E) none of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The intrinsic value of an out-of-the-money put option contract is zero.49. You write one AT&T February 50 put for a premium of $5. Ignoring transactions costs,what is the breakeven price of this position?A) $50B) $55C) $45D) $40E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: +$50 - $5 = $45.50. You purchase one IBM 70 call option for a premium of $6. Ignoring transaction costs,the break-even price of the position isA) $98B) $64C) $76D) $70E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: +70 + $6 = $76.51. Call options on IBM listed stock options areA) issued by IBM Corporation.B) created by investors.C) traded on various exchanges.D) A and C.E) B and C.Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Options are merely contracts between buyer and seller and sold primarily on various organized exchanges.52. Buyers of call options __________ required to post margin deposits and sellers of putoptions __________ required to post margin deposits.A) are; are notB) are; areC) are not; areD) are not; are notE) are always; are sometimesAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Buyers of call options pose no risk as they have no commitment. If theoption expires worthless, the buyer merely loses the option premium. If the option is in the money at expiration and the buyer lacks funds, there is no requirement to exercise.The seller of a put option is committed to selling the stock at the exercise price. If the seller of the option does not own the underlying stock the seller must go into the open market and buy the stock in order to be able to sell the stock to the buyer of the contract.53. Buyers of put options anticipate the value of the underlying asset will __________ andsellers of call options anticipate the value of the underlying asset will ________.A) increase; increaseB) decrease; increaseC) increase; decreaseD) decrease; decreaseE) cannot tell without further informationAnswer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The buyer of the put option hopes the price will fall in order to exercise the option and sell the stock at a price higher than the market price. Likewise, the seller of the call option hopes the price will decrease so the option will expire worthless.54. The Option Clearing Corporation is owned byA) the Federal Reserve System.B) the exchanges on which stock options are traded.C) the major U. S. banks.D) the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.E) none of the above.Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The exchanges on which options are traded jointly own the Option Clearing Corporation in order to facilitate option trading.55. A covered call position isA) the simultaneous purchase of the call and the underlying asset.B) the purchase of a share of stock with a simultaneous sale of a put on that stock.C) the short sale of a share of stock with a simultaneous sale of a call on that stock.D) the purchase of a share of stock with a simultaneous sale of a call on that stock.E) the simultaneous purchase of a call and sale of a put on the same stock.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Writing a covered call is a very safe strategy, as the writer owns theunderlying stock. The only risk to the writer is that the stock will be called away, thus limiting the upside potential.56. A covered call position is equivalent to aA) long put.B) short put.C) long straddle.D) vertical spread.E) none of the above.Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: With a short put, the seller of the contract must buy the stock if the option is exercised; however, this cash outflow is offset by the premium income as in the covered call scenario.57. According to the put-call parity theorem, the value of a European put option on anon-dividend paying stock is equal to:A) the call value plus the present value of the exercise price plus the stock price.B) the call value plus the present value of the exercise price minus the stock price.C) the present value of the stock price minus the exercise price minus the call price.D) the present value of the stock price plus the exercise price minus the call price.E) none of the above.Answer: B Difficulty: DifficultRationale: P = C - SO + PV(X) + PV(dividends), where SO = the market price of the stock, and X = the exercise price.58. A protective put strategy isA) a long put plus a long position in the underlying asset.B) a long put plus a long call on the same underlying asset.C) a long call plus a short put on the same underlying asset.D) a long put plus a short call on the same underlying asset.E) none of the above.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: If you invest in a stock and purchase a put option on the stock you areguaranteed a payoff equal to the exercise price; thus the protection of the put.59. Suppose the price of a share of IBM stock is $100. An April call option on IBM stockhas a premium of $5 and an exercise price of $100. Ignoring commissions, the holder of the call option will earn a profit if the price of the shareA) increases to $104.B) decreases to $90.C) increases to $105.D) decreases to $96.E) none of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: $100 + $5 = $105 (Breakeven). The price of the stock must increase to above $105 for the option holder to earna profit.60. You purchased one AT&T March 50 call and sold one AT&T March 55 call. Yourstrategy is known asA) a long straddle.B) a horizontal spread.C) a vertical spread.D) a short straddle.E) none of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: A vertical or money spread involves the purchase one option and thesimultaneous sale of another with a different exercise price and same expiration date.61. You purchased one AT&T March 50 put and sold one AT&T April 50 put. Yourstrategy is known asA) a vertical spread.B) a straddle.C) a horizontal spread.D) a collar.E) none of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: A horizontal or time spread involves the simultaneous purchase and sale of options with different expiration dates, same exercise price.62. Before expiration, the time value of a call option is equal toA) zero.B) the actual call price minus the intrinsic value of the call.C) the intrinsic value of the call.D) the actual call price plus the intrinsic value of the call.E) none of the above.Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The difference between the actual call price and the intrinsic value is the time value of the option, which shouldnot be confused with the time value of money. The option's time value is the difference between the option's price and the value of theoption were the option expiring immediately.63. All of the following factors affect the price of a stock option exceptA) the risk-free rate.B) the riskiness of the stock.C) the time to expiration.D) the expected rate of return on the stock.E) none of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: A, B, and C are directly related to the price of the option; D does not affect the price of the option.64. The value of a stock put option is positively related to the following factors exceptA) the time to expiration.B) the striking price.C) the stock price.D) all of the above.E) none of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The time to expiration and striking price are positively related to the value ofa put option; the stock price is inversely related to the value of the option.65. You purchase one IBM March 100 put contract for a put premium of $6. What is themaximum profit that you could gain from this strategy?A) $10,000B) $10,600C) $9,400D) $9,000E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: -$600 + $10,000 = $9,400 (if the stock falls to zero.)66. The following price quotations on IBM were taken from the Wall Street Journal.The premium on one IBM February 90 call contract isA) $4.1250B) $418.00C) $412.50D) $158.00E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 4 1/8 = $4.125 X 100 = $412.50. Price quotations are per share; however, option contracts are standardized for 100 shares of the underlying stock; thus, thequoted premiums must be multiplied by 100.。
(完整版)投资学第7版TestBank答案11

Multiple Choice Questions1.If you believe in the ________ form of the EMH, you believe that stock prices reflectall relevant information including historical stock prices and current public informationabout the firm, but not information that is available only to insiders.A)semistrongB)strongC)weakD)A, B, and CE)none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: The semistrong form of EMH maintains that stock prices immediatelyreflect all historical and current public information, but not inside information.2.Proponents of the EMH typically advocateA)an active trading strategy.B)investing in an index fund.C) a passive investment strategy.D) A and BE) B and CAnswer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: Believers of market efficiency advocate passive investment strategies, andan investment in an index fund is one of the most practical passive investment strategies, especially for small investors.3.If you believe in the _______ form of the EMH, you believe that stock prices reflect allinformation that can be derived by examining market trading data such as the historyof past stock prices, trading volume or short interest.A)semistrongB)strongC)weakD)all of the aboveE)none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: The information described above is market data, which is the data set forthe weak form of market efficiency. The semistrong form includes the above plus allother public information. The strong form includes all public and private information.4.If you believe in the _________ form of the EMH, you believe that stock prices reflectall available information, including information that is available only to insiders.A)semistrongB)strongC)weakD)all of the aboveE)none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: The strong form includes all public and private information.5.If you believe in the reversal effect, you shouldA)buy bonds in this period if you held stocks in the last period.B)buy stocks in this period if you held bonds in the last period.C)buy stocks this period that performed poorly last period.D)go short.E) C and DAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: The reversal effect states that stocks that do well in one period tend to perform poorly in the subsequent period, and vice versa.6.__________ focus more on past price movements of a firm's stock than on theunderlying determinants of future profitability.A)Credit analystsB)Fundamental analystsC)Systems analystsD)Technical analystsE)All of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: Technicians attempt to predict future stock prices based on historical stock prices.7._________ above which it is difficult for the market to rise.A)Book value is a valueB)Resistance level is a valueC)Support level is a valueD) A and BE) A and CAnswer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: When stock prices have remained stable for a long period, these prices are termed resistance levels; technicians believe it is difficult for the stock prices to penetrate these resistance levels.8.___________ the return on a stock beyond what would be predicted frommarket movements alone.A)An excess economic return isB)An economic return isC)An abnormal return isD) A and BE) A and CAnswer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: An economic return is the expected return, based on the perceived level of risk and market factors. When returns exceed these levels, the returns are called abnormal or excess economic returns.9.The debate over whether markets are efficient will probably never be resolvedbecause of ________.A)the lucky event issue.B)the magnitude issue.C)the selection bias issue.D)all of the above.E)none of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: Factors A, B, and C all exist make rigid testing of market efficiencydifficult or impossible.10. A common strategy for passive management is ____________.A)creating an index fundB)creating a small firm fundC)creating an investment clubD) A and CE) B and CAnswer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: The index fund is, by definition, passively managed. The other investment alternatives may or may not be managed passively.11.Arbel (1985) found thatA)the January effect was highest for neglected firms.B)the book-to-market value ratio effect was highest in JanuaryC)the liquidity effect was highest for small firms.D)the neglected firm effect was independent of the small firm effect.E)small firms had higher book-to-market value ratios.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Arbel divided firms into highly researched, moderately researched,and neglected groups based on the number of institutions holding the stock.12.Researchers have found that most of the small firm effect occursA)during the spring months.B)during the summer months.C)in December.D)in January.E)randomly.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Much of the so-called small firm effect simply may be the tax-effect as investors sell stocks on which they have losses in December and reinvest the funds in January. As small firms are especially volatile, these actions affect small firms in a more dramatic fashion.13.Malkiel (1995) calculated that the average alphas, or abnormal returns, on alarge sample of mutual funds between 1972 and 1991 wereA)significantly positive.B)significantly negative.C)statistically indistinguishable from zero.D)positive before 1981 and negative thereafter.E)negative before 1981 and positive thereafter.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Malkiel's study suggests that fund managers do not beat the market on a risk-adjusted basis.14.Basu (1977, 1983) found that firms with low P/E ratiosA)earned higher average returns than firms with high P/E ratios.B)earned the same average returns as firms with high P/E ratios.C)earned lower average returns than firms with high P/E ratios.D)had higher dividend yields than firms with high P/E ratios.E)none of the above.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Firms with high P/E ratios already have an inflated price relative toearnings and thus tend to have lower returns than low P/E ratio stocks. However, the P/E ratio may capture risk not fully impounded in market betas so this may represent an appropriate risk adjustment rather than a market anomaly.15.Jaffe (1974) found that stock prices _________ after insiders intensively bought shares.A)decreasedB)did not changeC)increasedD)became extremely volatileE)became much less volatileAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Insider trading may signal private information.16.Banz (1981) found that, on average, the risk-adjusted returns of small firmsA)were higher than the risk-adjusted returns of large firms.B)were the same as the risk-adjusted returns of large firms.C)were lower than the risk-adjusted returns of large firms.D)were unrelated to the risk-adjusted returns of large firms.E)were negative.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Banz found A to be true, although subsequent studies have attemptedto explain the small firm effect as the January effect, the neglected firm effect, etc.17.Proponents of the EMH think technical analystsA)should focus on relative strength.B)should focus on resistance levels.C)should focus on support levels.D)should focus on financial statements.E)are wasting their time.Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Technical analysts attempt to predict future stock prices from historic stock prices; proponents of EMH believe that stock price changes are random variables.18.Studies of positive earnings surprises have shown that there isA) a positive abnormal return on the day positive earnings surprises are announced.B) a positive drift in the stock price on the days following the earningssurprise announcement.C) a negative drift in the stock price on the days following the earningssurprise announcement.D)both A and B are true.E)both A and C are true.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The market appears to adjust to earnings information gradually, resulting ina sustained period of abnormal returns.19.On November 22, 2005 the stock price of Walmart was $39.50 and the retailer stockindex was 600.30. On November 25, 2005 the stock price of Walmart was $40.25 and the retailer stock index was 605.20. Consider the ratio of Walmart to the retailer index on November 22 and November 25. Walmart is _______ the retail industry andtechnical analysts who follow relative strength would advise _______ the stock.A)outperforming, buyingB)outperforming, sellingC)underperforming, buyingD)underperforming, sellingE)equally performing, neither buying nor sellingAnswer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 11/22: $39.50/600.30 = 0.0658; 11/25: $40.25/605.20 = 0.0665; Thus,K-Mart's relative strength is improving and technicians using this technique wouldrecommend buying.20.Work by Amihud and Mendelson (1986,1991)A)argues that investors will demand a rate of return premium to invest in lessliquid stocks.B)may help explain the small firm effect.C)may be related to the neglected firm effect.D) B and C.E)A, B, and C.Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Lack of liquidity may affect the returns of small and neglected firms;however the theory does not explain why the abnormal returns are concentratedin January.21.Fama and French (1992) found that the stocks of firms within the highest decile ofmarket/book ratios had average monthly returns of _______ while the stocks offirms within the lowest decile of market/book ratios had average monthly returnsof________.A)greater than 1%, greater than 1%B)greater than 1%, less than 1%C)less than 1%, greater than 1%D)less than 1%, less than 1%E)less than 0.5%, greater than 0.5%Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: This finding suggests either that low market-to-book ratio firms arerelatively underpriced, or that the market-to-book ratio is serving as a proxy for arisk factor that affects expected equilibrium returns.22. A market decline of 23% on a day when there is no significant macroeconomic event______ consistent with the EMH because ________.A)would be, it was a clear response to macroeconomic news.B)would be, it was not a clear response to macroeconomic news.C)would not be, it was a clear response to macroeconomic news.D)would not be, it was not a clear response to macroeconomic news.E)none of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: This happened on October 19, 1987. Although this specific event is not mentioned in this edition of the book, it is an example of something that would be considered a violation of the EMH.23.In an efficient market, __________.A)security prices react quickly to new informationB)security prices are seldom far above or below their justified levelsC)security analysts will not enable investors to realize superior returns consistentlyD)one cannot make moneyE)A, B, and CAnswer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: A, B, and C are true; however, even in an efficient market one should be able to earn the appropriate risk-adjusted rate of return.24.The weak form of the efficient market hypothesis asserts thatA)stock prices do not rapidly adjust to new information contained in past prices orpast data.B)future changes in stock prices cannot be predicted from past prices.C)technicians cannot expect to outperform the market.D) A and BE) B and CAnswer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: Stock prices do adjust rapidly to new information.25. A support level is the price range at which a technical analyst would expect theA)supply of a stock to increase dramatically.B)supply of a stock to decrease substantially.C)demand for a stock to increase substantially.D)demand for a stock to decrease substantially.E)price of a stock to fall.Answer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: A support level is considered to be a level below that the price of the stock is unlikely to fall and is believed to be determined by market psychology.26. A finding that _________ would provide evidence against the semistrong form ofthe efficient market theory.A)low P/E stocks tend to have positive abnormal returnsB)trend analysis is worthless in determining stock pricesC)one can consistently outperform the market by adopting the contrarianapproach exemplified by the reversals phenomenonD) A and BE) A and CAnswer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Both A and C are inconsistent with the semistrong form of the EMH.27.The weak form of the efficient market hypothesis contradictsA)technical analysis, but supports fundamental analysis as valid.B)fundamental analysis, but supports technical analysis as valid.C)both fundamental analysis and technical analysis.D)technical analysis, but is silent on the possibility of successfulfundamental analysis.E)none of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The process of fundamental analysis makes the market more efficient, and thus the work of the fundamentalist more difficult. The data set for the weak form of the EMH is market data, which is the only data used exclusively by technicians.Fundamentalists use all public information.28.Two basic assumptions of technical analysis are that security prices adjustA)rapidly to new information and market prices are determined by the interactionof supply and demand.B)rapidly to new information and liquidity is provided by security dealers.C)gradually to new information and market prices are determined by the interactionof supply and demand.D)gradually to new information and liquidity is provided by security dealers.E)rapidly to information and to the actions of insiders.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Technicians follow market data--price changes and volume of trading (asindicator of supply and demand) believing that they can identify price trends assecurity prices adjust gradually.29.Cumulative abnormal returns (CAR)A)are used in event studies.B)are better measures of security returns due to firm-specific events than areabnormal returns (AR).C)are cumulated over the period prior to the firm-specific event.D) A and B.E) A and C.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: As leakage of information occurs, the accumulated abnormal returns that are abnormal returns summed over the period of interest (around the event date) are better measures of the effect of firm-specific events.30.Studies of mutual fund performanceA)indicate that one should not randomly select a mutual fund.B)indicate that historical performance is not necessarily indicative offuture performance.C)indicate that the professional management of the fund insures above market returns.D) A and B.E) B and C.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: Studies show that all funds do not outperform the market and thathistorical performance is not necessarily an indicator of future performance.31.The likelihood of an investment newsletter's successfully predicting the direction of themarket for three consecutive years by chance should beA)between 50% and 70%.B)between 25% and 50%.C)between 10% and 25%.D)less than 10%.E)greater than 70%.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The probability of successful prediction for 3 consecutive years is 23,or 12.5%.32.In an efficient market the correlation coefficient between stock returns fortwo non-overlapping time periods should beA)positive and large.B)positive and small.C)zero.D)negative and small.E)negative and large.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: In an efficient market there should be no serial correlation betweenreturns from non-overlapping periods.33.The weather report says that a devastating and unexpected freeze is expected to hitFlorida tonight, during the peak of the citrus harvest. In an efficient market one would expect the price of Florida Orange's stock toA)drop immediately.B)remain unchanged.C)increase immediately.D)gradually decline for the next several weeks.E)gradually increase for the next several weeks.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: In an efficient market the price of the stock should drop immediatelywhen the bad news is announced. If later news changes the perceived impact toFlorida Orange, the price may once again adjust quickly to the new information. Agradual change is a violation of the EMH.34. Matthews Corporation has a beta of 1.2. The annualized market return yesterday was13%, and the risk-free rate is currently 5%. You observe that Matthews had anannualized return yesterday of 17%. Assuming that markets are efficient, this suggests thatA) bad news about Matthews was announced yesterday.B) good news about Matthews was announced yesterday.C) no news about Matthews was announced yesterday.D) interest rates rose yesterday.E) interest rates fell yesterday.Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: AR = 17% - (5% + 1.2 (8%)) = +2.4%. A positive abnormal return suggests that there was firm-specific good news.th 35. Nicholas Manufacturing just announced yesterday that its 4 quarter earnings will be 10% higher than last year's 4th quarter. You observe that Nicholas had anabnormal return of -1.2% yesterday. This suggests thatA) the market is not efficient.B) Nicholas' stock will probably rise in value tomorrow.C) investors expected the earnings increase to be larger than what was actuallyannounced.D) investors expected the earnings increase to be smaller than what was actuallyannounced.E) earnings are expected to decrease next quarter.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Anticipated earnings changes are impounded into a security's price as soon as expectations are formed. Therefore a negative market response indicates that the earnings surprise was negative, that is, the increase was less than anticipated.36.When Maurice Kendall first examined stock price patterns in 1953, he found thatA)certain patterns tended to repeat within the business cycle.B)there were no predictable patterns in stock prices.C)stocks whose prices had increased consistently for one week tended to have anet decrease the following week.D)stocks whose prices had increased consistently for one week tended to have anet increase the following week.E)the direction of change in stock prices was unpredictable, but the amount ofchange followed a distinct pattern.Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: The first studies in this area were made possible by the development of computer technology. Kendall's study was the first to indicate that marketswere efficient.37.If stock prices follow a random walkA)it implies that investors are irrational.B)it means that the market cannot be efficient.C)price levels are not random.D)price changes are random.E)price movements are predictable.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: A random walk means that the changes in prices are randomand independent.38.The main difference between the three forms of market efficiency is thatA)the definition of efficiency differs.B)the definition of excess return differs.C)the definition of prices differs.D)the definition of information differs.E)they were discovered by different people.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The main difference is that weak form encompasses historical data,semistrong form encompasses historical data and current public information, and strong form encompasses historical data, current public information, and inside information. All of the other definitions remain the same.39.Chartists practiceA)technical analysis.B)fundamental analysis.C)regression analysis.D)insider analysis.E)psychoanalysis.Answer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: Chartist is another name for a technical analyst.40.Which of the following are used by fundamental analysts to determine properstock prices?I)trendlinesII)earningsIII)dividend prospectsIV) expectations of future interest ratesV)resistance levelsA)I, IV, and VB)I, II, and IIIC)II, III, and IVD)II, IV, and VE)All of the items are used by fundamental analysts.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Analysts look at fundamental factors such as earnings, dividend prospects, expectation of future interest rates, and risk of the firm. The information is used todetermine the present value of future cash flows to stockholders. Technical analysts use trendlines and resistance levels.41.According to proponents of the efficient market hypothesis, the best strategy for asmall investor with a portfolio worth $40,000 is probably toA)perform fundamental analysis.B)exploit market anomalies.C)invest in Treasury securities.D)invest in derivative securities.E)invest in mutual funds.Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Individual investors tend to have relatively small portfolios and are usually unable to realize economies of size. The best strategy is to pool funds with other small investors and allow professional managers to invest the funds.42.Which of the following are investment superstars who have consistently shownsuperior performance?I)Warren BuffetII)Phoebe BuffetIII)Peter LynchIV) Merrill LynchV)Jimmy BuffetA)I, III, and IVB)II, III, and IVC)I and IIID)III and IVE)I, III, IV, and VAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Warren Buffet manages Berkshire Hathaway and Peter Lynch managed Fidelity's Magellan Fund. Phoebe Buffet is a character on NBC's and Jimmy Buffet is Away in Margaritaville. Merrill Lynch isn't a person.43.Google has a beta of 1.0. The annualized market return yesterday was 11%, and therisk-free rate is currently 5%. You observe that Google had an annualized returnyesterday of 14%. Assuming that markets are efficient, this suggests thatA)bad news about Google was announced yesterday.B)good news about Google was announced yesterday.C)no news about Google was announced yesterday.D)interest rates rose yesterday.E)interest rates fell yesterday.Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: AR = 14% - (5% + 1.0 (6%)) = +3.0%. A positive abnormal return suggests that there was firm-specific good news.44.Music Doctors has a beta of 2.25. The annualized market return yesterday was 12%,and the risk-free rate is currently 4%. You observe that Music Doctors had anannualized return yesterday of 15%. Assuming that markets are efficient, this suggests thatA)bad news about Music Doctors was announced yesterday.B)good news about Music Doctors was announced yesterday.C)no news about Music Doctors was announced yesterday.D)interest rates rose yesterday.E)interest rates fell yesterday.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: AR = 15% - (4% + 2.25 (8%)) = -7.0%. A negative abnormal return suggests that there was firm-specific bad news.45.QQAG has a beta of 1.7. The annualized market return yesterday was 13%, and therisk-free rate is currently 3%. You observe that QQAG had an annualized returnyesterday of 20%. Assuming that markets are efficient, this suggests thatA)bad news about QQAG was announced yesterday.B)good news about QQAG was announced yesterday.C)no significant news about QQAG was announced yesterday.D)interest rates rose yesterday.E)interest rates fell yesterday.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: AR = 20% - (3% + 1.7 (10%)) = 0.0%. A positive abnormal return suggests that there was firm-specific good news and a negative abnormal return suggests that there was firm-specific bad news.46.QQAG just announced yesterday that its th4 quarter earnings will be 35% higherthan last year's 4thquarter. You observe that QQAG had an abnormal return of -1.7% yesterday. This suggests thatA)the market is not efficient.B)QQAG stock will probably rise in value tomorrow.C)investors expected the earnings increase to be larger than what wasactually announced.D)investors expected the earnings increase to be smaller than what wasactually announced.E)earnings are expected to decrease next quarter.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Anticipated earnings changes are impounded into a security's price as soon as expectations are formed. Therefore a negative market response indicates that the earnings surprise was negative, that is, the increase was less than anticipated.47.LJP Corporation just announced yesterday that it would undertake an international jointventure. You observe that LJP had an abnormal return of 3% yesterday. This suggests thatA)the market is not efficient.B)LJP stock will probably rise in value again tomorrow.C)investors view the international joint venture as bad news.D)investors view the international joint venture as good news.E)earnings are expected to decrease next quarter.Answer: D Difficulty: Moderate48.Music Doctors just announced yesterday that its st1 quarter sales were 35% higherthan last year's 1stquarter. You observe that Music Doctors had an abnormal returnof -2% yesterday. This suggests thatA)the market is not efficient.B)Music Doctors stock will probably rise in value tomorrow.C)investors expected the sales increase to be larger than what was actually announced.D)investors expected the sales increase to be smaller than what wasactually announced.E)earnings are expected to decrease next quarter.Answer: C Difficulty: Moderate49.The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) just announced yesterday that they wouldapprove a new cancer-fighting drug from King. You observe that King had an abnormal return of 0% yesterday. This suggests thatA)the market is not efficient.B)King stock will probably rise in value tomorrow.C)King stock will probably fall in value tomorrow.D)the approval was already anticipated by the marketE)none of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: Moderate50.Your professor finds a stock-trading rule that generates excess risk-adjusted returns.Instead of publishing the results, she keeps the trading rule to herself. This is mostclosely associated with ________.A)regret avoidanceB)selection biasC)framingD)insider tradingE)none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: Moderate51.At freshman orientation, 1,500 students are asked to flip a coin 20 times. One student iscrowned the winner (tossed 20 heads). This is most closely associated with ________.A)regret avoidanceB)selection biasC)overconfidenceD)the lucky event issueE)none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: Moderate52.Sehun (1986) finds that the practice of monitoring insider trade disclosures, andtrading on that information, would be ________.A)extremely profitable for long-term tradersB)extremely profitable for short-term tradersC)marginally profitable for long-term tradersD)marginally profitable for short-term tradersE)not sufficiently profitable to cover trading costsAnswer: E53.If you believe in the reversal effect, you shouldA)sell bonds in this period if you held stocks in the last period.B)sell stocks in this period if you held bonds in the last period.C)sell stocks this period that performed well last period.D)go long.E) C and DAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: The reversal effect states that stocks that do well in one period tendto perform poorly in the subsequent period, and vice versa.。
投资学第7版TestBank答案09word精品

Multiple Choice Questions1. In the context of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) the relevant measure of riskisA) unique risk.B) beta.C) standard deviation of returns.D) variance of returns.E) none of the above.Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: Once, a portfolio is diversified, the only risk remaining is systematic risk,which is measured by beta.2. According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) a well diversified portfolio's rateof return is a function ofA) market riskB) unsystematic riskC) unique risk.D) reinvestment risk.E) none of the above.Answer: A Difficulty: Easy Rationale: With a diversified portfolio, the only riskremaining is market, or systematic, risk. This is the only risk that influences returnaccording to the CAPM.3. The market portfolio has a beta ofA) 0.B) 1.C) -1.D) 0.5.E) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: Easy Rationale: By definition, the beta of the market portfolio is 1.4. The risk-free rate and the expected market rate of return are 0.06 and 0.12, respectively.According to the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), the expected rate of return on security X with a beta of 1.2 is equal toA) 0.06.B) 0.144C) 0.12.D) 0.132E) 0.18Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: E(R) = 6% + 1.2(12 - 6) = 13.2%.5. The risk-free rate and the expected market rate of return are 0.056 and 0.125,respectively. According to the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), the expected rate of return on a security with a beta of 1.25 is equal toA) 0.1225B) 0.144.C) 0.153.D) 0.134E) 0.117Answer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: E(R) = 5.6% + 1.25(12.5 - 5.6) = 14.225%.6. Which statement is not true regarding the market portfolio?A) It includes all publicly traded financial assets.B) It lies on the efficient frontier.C) All securities in the market portfolio are held in proportion to their market values.D) It is the tangency point between the capital market line and the indifference curve.E) All of the above are true.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The tangency point between the capital market line and the indifference curve is the optimal portfolio for a particular investor.7. Which statement is not true regarding the Capital Market Line (CML)?A) The CML is the line from the risk-free rate through the market portfolio.B) The CML is the best attainable capital allocation line.C) The CML is also called the security market line.D) The CML always has a positive slope.E) The risk measure for the CML is standard deviation.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Both the Capital Market Line and the Security Market Line depict risk/return relationships. However, the risk measure for the CML is standard deviation and the risk measure for the SML is beta (thus C is not true; the other statements are true).8. The market risk, beta, of a security is equal toA) the covariance between the security's return and the market return divided by thevariance of the market's returns.B) the covariance between the security and market returns divided by the standarddeviation of the market's returns.C) the variance of the security's returns divided by the covariance between the securityand market returns.D) the variance of the security's returns divided by the variance of the market's returns.E) none of the above.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Beta is a measure of how a security's return covaries with the market returns, normalized by the market variance.9. According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), the expected rate of return on anysecurity is equal toA) Rf + B [E(M)]・B) R f + B[E(R M) - R f].C) B[E(R M) - R f].D) E(R M) + R f.E) none of the above.Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The expected rate of return on any security is equal to the risk free rate plus the systematic risk of the security (beta) times the market risk premium, E(R M - R f).10. The Security Market Line (SML) isA) the line that describes the expected return-beta relationship for well-diversifiedportfolios only.B) also called the Capital Allocation Line.C) the line that is tangent to the efficient frontier of all risky assets.D) the line that represents the expected return-beta relationship.E) the line that represents the relationship between an individual security's return and themarket's return.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The SML is a measure of expected return per unit of risk, where risk is defined as beta (systematic risk).11. According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), fairly priced securitiesA) have positive betas.B) have zero alphas.C) have negative betas.D) have positive alphas.E) none of the above.Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: A zero alpha results when the security is in equilibrium (fairly priced for thelevel of risk).12. According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), under priced securitiesA) have positive betas.B) have zero alphas.C) have negative betas.D) have positive alphas.E) none of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: Moderate13. According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), over priced securitiesA) have positive betas.B) have zero alphas.C) have negative betas.D) have positive alphas.E) none of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: A zero alpha results when the security is in equilibrium (fairly priced for thelevel of risk).14. According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM),A) a security with a positive alpha is considered overpriced.B) a security with a zero alpha is considered to be a good buy.C) a security with a negative alpha is considered to be a good buy.D) a security with a positive alpha is considered to be underpriced.E) none of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: A security with a positive alpha is one that is expected to yield an abnormal positive rate of return, based on the perceived risk of the security, and thus isunderpriced.15. According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), which one of the followingstatements is false?A) The expected rate of return on a security decreases in direct proportion to a decreasein the risk-free rate.B) The expected rate of return on a security increases as its beta increases.C) A fairly priced security has an alpha of zero.D) In equilibrium, all securities lie on the security market line.E) All of the above statements are true.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Statements B, C, and D are true, but statement A is false.16. In a well diversified portfolioA) market risk is negligible.B) systematic risk is negligible.C) unsystematic risk is negligible.D) nondiversifiable risk is negligible.E) none of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Market, or systematic, or nondiversifiable, risk is present in a diversifiedportfolio; the unsystematic risk has been eliminated.17. Empirical results regarding betas estimated from historical data indicate thatA) betas are constant over time.B) betas of all securities are always greater than one.C) betas are always near zero.D) betas appear to regress toward one over time.E) betas are always positive.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Betas vary over time, betas may be negative or less than one, betas are not always near zero; however, betas do appear to regress toward one over time.18. Your personal opinion is that a security has an expected rate of return of 0.11. It has abeta of 1.5. The risk-free rate is 0.05 and the market expected rate of return is 0.09.According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model, this security isA) underpriced.B) overpriced.C) fairly priced.D) cannot be determined from data provided.E) none of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: 11% = 5% + 1.5(9% - 5%) = 11.0%; therefore, the security is fairly priced.19. The risk-free rate is 7 percent. The expected market rate of return is 15 percent. If youexpect a stock with a beta of 1.3 to offer a rate of return of 12 percent, you shouldA) buy the stock because it is overpriced.B) sell short the stock because it is overpriced.C) sell the stock short because it is underpriced.D) buy the stock because it is underpriced.E) none of the above, as the stock is fairly priced.Answer: B Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: 12% < 7% + 1.3(15% - 7%) = 17.40%;therefore, stock is overpriced and should be shorted.20. You invest $600 in a security with a beta of 1.2 and $400 in another security with a betaof 0.90. The beta of the resulting portfolio isA) 1.40B) 1.00C) 0.36D) 1.08E) 0.80Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 0.6(1.2) + 0.4(0.90) = 1.08.21. A security has an expected rate of return of 0.10 and a beta of 1.1. The market expectedrate of return is 0.08 and the risk-free rate is 0.05. The alpha of the stock isA) 1.7%.B) -1.7%.C) 8.3%.D) 5.5%.E) none of the above.Answer: A Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: 10% - [5% +1.1(8% - 5%)] = 1.7%.22. Your opinion is that CSCO has an expected rate of return of 0.13. It has a beta of 1.3.The risk-free rate is 0.04 and the market expected rate of return is 0.115. According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model, this security isA) underpriced.B) overpriced.C) fairly priced.D) cannot be determined from data provided.E) none of the above.Answer: B Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: 11.5% - 4% + 1.3(11.5% - 4%) = -2.25%;therefore, the security is overpriced.23. Your opinion is that CSCO has an expected rate of return of 0.1375. It has a beta of 1.3.The risk-free rate is 0.04 and the market expected rate of return is 0.115. According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model, this security isA) underpriced.B) overpriced.C) fairly priced.D) cannot be determined from data provided.E) none of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 13.75% - 4% + 1.3(11.5% - 4%) = 0.0%; therefore, the security is fairly priced.24. Your opinion is that CSCO has an expected rate of return of 0.15. It has a beta of 1.3.The risk-free rate is 0.04 and the market expected rate of return is 0.115. According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model, this security isA) underpriced.B) overpriced.C) fairly priced.D) cannot be determined from data provided.E) none of the above.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 15% - 4% + 1.3(11.5% - 4%) = 1.25%; therefore, the security is under priced.25. Your opinion is that Boeing has an expected rate of return of 0.112. It has a beta of 0.92.The risk-free rate is 0.04 and the market expected rate of return is 0.10. According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model, this security isA) underpriced.B) overpriced.C) fairly priced.D) cannot be determined from data provided.E) none of the above.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 11.2% - 4% + 0.92(10% - 4%) = 1.68%; therefore, the security is under priced.26. Your opinion is that Boeing has an expected rate of return of 0.0952. It has a beta of0.92. The risk-free rate is 0.04 and the market expected rate of return is 0.10. Accordingto the Capital Asset Pricing Model, this security isA) underpriced.B) overpriced.C) fairly priced.D) cannot be determined from data provided.E) none of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 9.52% - 4% + 0.92(10% - 4%) = 0.0%; therefore, the security is fairly priced.27. Your opinion is that Boeing has an expected rate of return of 0.08. It has a beta of 0.92.The risk-free rate is 0.04 and the market expected rate of return is 0.10. According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model, this security isA) underpriced.B) overpriced.C) fairly priced.D) cannot be determined from data provided.E) none of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 8.0% - 4% + 0.92(10% - 4%) = -1.52%; therefore, the security is overpriced. 28. The risk-free rate is 4 percent. The expected market rate of return is 11 percent. If youexpect CAT with a beta of 1.0 to offer a rate of return of 10 percent, you shouldA) buy stock X because it is overpriced.B) sell short stock X because it is overpriced.C) sell stock short X because it is underpriced.D) buy stock X because it is underpriced.E) none of the above, as the stock is fairly priced.Answer: B Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: 10% < 4% + 1.0(11% - 4%) = 11.0%; therefore, stock is overpriced and should be shorted.29. The risk-free rate is 4 percent. The expected market rate of return is 11 percent. If youexpect CAT with a beta of 1.0 to offer a rate of return of 11 percent, you shouldA) buy stock X because it is overpriced.B) sell short stock X because it is overpriced.C) sell stock short X because it is underpriced.D) buy stock X because it is underpriced.E) none of the above, as the stock is fairly priced.Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 11% = 4% + 1.0(11% - 4%) = 11.0%; therefore, stock is fairly priced.30. The risk-free rate is 4 percent. The expected market rate of return is 11 percent. If youexpect CAT with a beta of 1.0 to offer a rate of return of 13 percent, you shouldA) buy stock X because it is overpriced.B) sell short stock X because it is overpriced.C) sell stock short X because it is underpriced.D) buy stock X because it is underpriced.E) none of the above, as the stock is fairly priced.Answer: D Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: 13% > 4% + 1.0(11% - 4%) = 11.0%; therefore, stock is under priced.31. You invest 55% of your money in security A with a beta of 1.4 and the rest of your moneyin security B with a beta of 0.9. The beta of the resulting portfolio isA) 1.466B) 1.157C) 0.968D) 1.082E) 1.175Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 0.55(1.4) + 0.45(0.90) = 1.175.32. Given the following two stocks A and B活亡cunty E 甜吐ctEdratE of 冗tum A -0 12 B0.14If the expected market rate of retur n is 0.09 and the risk-free rate is 0.05, which security would be con sidered the better buy and why? A) A because it offers an expected excess r eturn of 1.2%. B) B because it offers an expected excess r eturn of 1.8%. C) A because it offers an expected excess r eturn of 2.2%. D) B because it offers an expected return of 14%. E) B because it has a higher beta.An swer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: A's excess return is expected to be 12% - [5% + 1.2(9% - 5%)] = 2.2%. B's excess return is expected to be 14% - [5% + 1.8(9% - 5%)] = 1.8%.33. Capital Asset Pricing Theory asserts that portfolio returns are best explained by:A) economic factors. B) specific risk. C) systematic risk. D) diversification. E) none of the above.An swer: C Difficulty: EasyRati on ale: The risk remai ning in diversified portfolios is systematic risk; thus, portfolio returns are comme nsurate with systematic risk.34. According to the CAPM, the risk premium an investor expects to receive on any stock orportfolio in creases: A) directly with alpha. B) inversely with alpha. C) directly with beta. D) inversely with beta.E) in proportion to its standard deviation.An swer: C Difficulty: EasyRati on ale: The market rewards systematic risk, which is measured by beta, and thus, the risk premium on a stock or portfolio varies directly with beta.B 亡烧 L2- 1.835. What is the expected return of a zero-beta security?A) The market rate of return.B) Zero rate of return.C) A negative rate of return.D) The risk-free rate.E) None of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: E(R S) = r f + 0(R M - r f) = r f.36. Standard deviation and beta both measure risk, but they are different in thatA) beta measures both systematic and unsystematic risk.B) beta measures only systematic risk while standard deviation is a measure of totalrisk.C) beta measures only unsystematic risk while standard deviation is a measure of totalrisk.D) beta measures both systematic and unsystematic risk while standard deviationmeasures only systematic risk.E) beta measures total risk while standard deviation measures only nonsystematic risk.Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: B is the only true statement.37. The expected return-beta relationshipA) is the most familiar expression of the CAPM to practitioners.B) refers to the way in which the covariance between the returns on a stock and returnson the market measures the contribution of the stock to the variance of the marketportfolio, which is beta.C) assumes that investors hold well-diversified portfolios.D) all of the above are true.E) none of the above is true.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Statements A, B and C all describe the expected return-beta relationship.38. The security market line (SML)A) can be portrayed graphically as the expected return-beta relationship.B) can be portrayed graphically as the expected return-standard deviation of marketreturns relationship.C) provides a benchmark for evaluation of investment performance.D) A and C.E) B and C.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The SML is a measure of expected return-beta (the CML is a measure of expected return-standard deviation of market returns). The SML provides the expected return-beta relationship for "fairly priced" securities; thus if a portfolio manager selects securities that are underpriced and produces a portfolio with a positive alpha, thisportfolio manager would receive a positive evaluation.39. Research by Jeremy Stein of MIT resolves the dispute over whether beta is a sufficientpricing factor by suggesting that managers should use beta to estimateA) long-term returns but not short-term returns.B) short-term returns but not long-term returns.C) both long- and short-term returns.D) book-to-market ratios.E) None of the above was suggested by Stein.Answer: A Difficulty: Difficult40. Studies of liquidity spreads in security markets have shown thatA) liquid stocks earn higher returns than illiquid stocks.B) illiquid stocks earn higher returns than liquid stocks.C) both liquid and illiquid stocks earn the same returns.D) illiquid stocks are good investments for frequent, short-term traders.E) None of the above is true.Answer: B Difficulty: Difficult41. An underpriced security will plotA) on the Security Market Line.B) below the Security Market Line.C) above the Security Market Line.D) either above or below the Security Market Line depending on its covariance with themarket.E) either above or below the Security Market Line depending on its standard deviation.Answer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: An underpriced security will have a higher expected return than the SMLwould predict; therefore it will plot above the SML.42. The risk premium on the market portfolio will be proportional toA) the average degree of risk aversion of the investor population.B) the risk of the market portfolio as measured by its variance.C) the risk of the market portfolio as measured by its beta.D) both A and B are true.E) both A and C are true.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The risk premium on the market portfolio is proportional to the averagedegree of risk aversion of the investor population and the risk of the market portfolio measured by its variance.43. In equilibrium, the marginal price of risk for a risky security must beA) equal to the marginal price of risk for the market portfolio.B) greater than the marginal price of risk for the market portfolio.C) less than the marginal price of risk for the market portfolio.D) adjusted by its degree of nonsystematic risk.E) none of the above is true.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: In equilibrium, the marginal price of risk for a risky security must be equal to the marginal price of risk for the market. If not, investors will buy or sell the security until they are equal.44. The capital asset pricing model assumesA) all investors are price takers.B) all investors have the same holding period.C) investors pay taxes on capital gains.D) both A and B are true.E) A, B and C are all true.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: The CAPM assumes that investors are price-takers with the same single holding period and that there are no taxes or transaction costs.45. If investors do not know their investment horizons for certainA) the CAPM is no longer valid.B) the CAPM underlying assumptions are not violated.C) the implications of the CAPM are not violated as long as investors' liquidity needsare not priced.D) the implications of the CAPM are no longer useful.E) none of the above is true.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: This is discussed in the chapter's section about extensions to the CAPM. It examines what the consequences are when the assumptions are removed.46. The value of the market portfolio equalsA) the sum of the values of all equity securities.B) the sum of the values of all equity and fixed income securities.C) the sum the values of all equity, fixed income, and derivative securities.D) the sum of the values of all equity, fixed income, and derivative securities plus thevalue of all mutual funds.E) the entire wealth of the economy.Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The market portfolio includes all assets in existence.47. The amount that an investor allocates to the market portfolio is negatively related toI) the expected return on the market portfolio.II) the investor's risk aversion coefficient.III) the risk-free rate of return.IV) the variance of the market portfolioA) I and IIB) II and IIIC) II and IVD) II, III, and IVE) I, III, and IVAnswer: D Difficulty: ModerateRati on ale: The optimal proporti on is give n by y = (E(R M)-r f)/(.01xA M). This amount will decrease as r, A, and M (decrease.48. One of the assumptions of the CAPM is that investors exhibit myopic behavior. Whatdoes this mean?A) They plan for one identical holding period.B) They are price-takers who can't affect market prices through their trades.C) They are mean-variance optimizers.D) They have the same economic view of the world.E) They pay no taxes or transactions costs.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Myopic behavior is shortsighted, with no concern for medium-term or long-term implications.49. The CAPM applies toA) portfolios of securities only.B) individual securities only.C) efficient portfolios of securities only.D) efficient portfolios and efficient individual securities only.E) all portfolios and individual securities.Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The CAPM is an equilibrium model for all assets. Each asset's risk premium is a function of its beta coefficient and the risk premium on the market portfolio.50. Which of the following statements about the mutual fund theorem is true?I) It is similar to the separation property.II) It implies that a passive investment strategy can be efficient.III) It implies that efficient portfolios can be formed only through active strategies.IV) It means that professional managers have superior security selection strategies.A) I and IVB) I, II, and IVC) I and IID) III and IVE) II and IVAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The mutual fund theorem is similar to the separation property. The technical task of creating mutual funds can be delegated to professional managers; thenindividuals combine the mutual funds with risk-free assets according to theirpreferences. The passive strategy of investing in a market index fund is efficient.51. The expected return -- beta relationship of the CAPM is graphically represented byA) the security market line.B) the capital market line.C) the capital allocation line.D) the efficient frontier with a risk-free asset.E) the efficient frontier without a risk-free asset.Answer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: The security market line shows expected return on the vertical axis and beta on the horizontal axis. It has an intercept of f rand a slope of E(R M) - r f.52. A “ fairly priced ” asset liesA) above the security market line.B) on the security market line.C) on the capital market line.D) above the capital market line.E) below the security market line.Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: Securities that lie on the SML earn exactly the expected return generated by the CAPM. Their prices are proportional to their beta coefficients and they have alphas equal to zero.53. For the CAPM that examines illiquidity premiums, if there is correlation among assetsdue to common systematic risk factors, the illiquidity premium on asset i is a function ofA) the market's volatility.B) asset i's volatility.C) the trading costs of security i.D) the risk-free rate.E) the money supply.Answer: C Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: The formula for this extension to the CAPM relaxes the assumption that trading is costless.54. Your opinion is that security A has an expected rate of return of 0.145. It has a beta of1.5. The risk-free rate is 0.04 and the market expected rate of return is 0.11. Accordingto the Capital Asset Pricing Model, this security isA) underpriced.B) overpriced.C) fairly priced.D) cannot be determined from data provided.E) none of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: 14.5% = 4% + 1.5(11% - 4%) = 14.5%;therefore, the security is fairly priced.55. Your opinion is that security C has an expected rate of return of 0.106. It has a beta of1.1. The risk-free rate is 0.04 and the market expected rate of return is 0.10. Accordingto the Capital Asset Pricing Model, this security isA) underpriced.B) overpriced.C) fairly priced.D) cannot be determined from data provided.E) none of the above.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 4% + 1.1(10% - 4%) = 10.6%; therefore, the security is fairly priced.56. The risk-free rate is 4 percent. The expected market rate of return is 12 percent. If youexpect stock X with a beta of 1.0 to offer a rate of return of 10 percent, you shouldA) buy stock X because it is overpriced.B) sell short stock X because it is overpriced.C) sell stock short X because it is underpriced.D) buy stock X because it is underpriced.E) none of the above, as the stock is fairly priced.Answer: B Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: 10% < 4% + 1.0(12% - 4%) = 12.0%;therefore, stock is overpriced and should be shorted.57. The risk-free rate is 5 percent. The expected market rate of return is 11 percent. If youexpect stock X with a beta of 2.1 to offer a rate of return of 15 percent, you shouldA) buy stock X because it is overpriced.B) sell short stock X because it is overpriced.C) sell stock short X because it is underpriced.D) buy stock X because it is underpriced.E) none of the above, as the stock is fairly priced.Answer: B Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: 15% < 5% + 2.1(11% - 5%) = 17.6%; therefore, stock is overpriced and should be shorted.58. You invest 50% of your money in security A with a beta of 1.6 and the rest of yourmoney in security B with a beta of 0.7. The beta of the resulting portfolio isA) 1.40B) 1.15C) 0.36D) 1.08E) 0.80Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 0.5(1.6) + 0.5(0.70) = 1.15.。
投资学第7版testbank答案.pdf

7. Initial margin requirements are determined by A) the Securities and Exchange Commission. B) the Federal Reserve System. C) the New York Stock Exchange. D) B and C. E) A and B
Answer: C Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: With a stop-buy order, the stock would be purchased if the price increased to a specified level, thus limiting your loss. Noneof the other orders are applicable to this situation.
Answer: D Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: The role of the investment banker is to assist the firm in issuing new securities, both in advisory and marketing capacities. The investment banker does not have a role comparable to a commercial bank, as indicated in C.
Answer: B Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System determines initial margin requirements. The New York Stock Exchange determines maintenance margin requirements on NYSE-listed stocks; however, brokers usually set maintenance margin requirements above those established by the NYSE.
投资学第7版Test Bank答案 01

Multiple Choice Questions1. In 2005, ____________ was the most significant real asset of U. S. nonfinancialbusinesses in terms of total value.A) equipment and softwareB) inventoryC) real estateD) trade creditE) marketable securitiesAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: See Table 1.4.2. In 2005, ____________ was the least significant real asset of U. S. nonfinancialbusinesses in terms of total value.A) equipment and softwareB) inventoryC) real estateD) trade creditE) marketable securitiesAnswer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: See Table 1.4.3. In 2005, ____________ was the least significant liability of U. S. nonfinancialbusinesses in terms of total value.A) bonds and mortgatgesB) bank loansC) inventoriesD) trade debtE) marketable securitiesAnswer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: See Table 1.4.4. In 2005, ____________ was the most significant financial asset of U. S. nonfinancialbusinesses in terms of total value.A) cashB) trade creditC) trade debtD) inventoryE) marketable securitiesAnswer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: See Table 1.4.5. The material wealth of a society is equal to the sum of _________.A) all financial assetsB) all real assetsC) all financial and real assetsD) all physical assetsE) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: Financial assets do not directly contribute the productive capacity of the economy.6. ____________ of an investment bank.A) Citigroup is an exampleB) Merrill Lynch is an exampleC) Goldman is an exampleD) B and C are each examplesE) Each of the above is an exampleAnswer: E Difficulty: Easy7. _______ are financial assets.A) BondsB) MachinesC) StocksD) A and CE) A, B and CAnswer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: Machines are real assets; stocks and bonds are financial assets.8. An example of a derivative security is ______.A) a common share of General MotorsB) a call option on Mobil stockC) a commodity futures contractD) B and CE) A and BAnswer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: The values of B and C are derived from that of an underlying financial asset;the value of A is based on the value of the firm only.9. _______ was the first to introduce mortgage pass-through securities.A) Chase ManhattanB) CiticorpC) FNMAD) GNMAE) None of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: Easy10. A bond issue is broken up so that some investors will receive only interest paymentswhile others will receive only principal payments, which is an example of ________.A) bundlingB) credit enhancementC) unbundlingD) financial engineeringE) C and DAnswer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: Unbundling is one of many examples of financial engineering that offer more alternatives to the investor.11. An example of a primitive security is __________.A) a common share of General MotorsB) a call option on Mobil stockC) a call option on a stock of a firm based in a Third World countryD) a U. S. government bondE) A and DAnswer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: A primitive security's return is based only upon the earning power of the issuing agency, such as stock in General Motors and the U. S. government.12. The ____________ refers to the potential conflict between management andshareholders due to management's control of pecuniary rewards as well as thepossibility of incompetent performance by managers.A) agency problemB) diversification problemC) liquidity problemD) solvency problemE) regulatory problemAnswer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: The agency problem describes potential conflict between management and shareholders. The other problems are those of firm management only.13. _________ financial asset(s).A) Buildings areB) Land is aC) Derivatives areD) U. S. Agency bonds areE) C and DAnswer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: A and B are real assets.14. The value of a derivative security _______.A) depends on the value of the related primitive securityB) can only cause increased risk.C) is unrelated to the value of the related primitive securityD) has been enhanced due the recent misuse and negative publicity regarding theseinstrumentsE) is worthless todayAnswer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: Of the factors cited above, only A affects the value of the derivative and/or isa true statement.15. In terms of total value, the most significant liability of U. S. nonfinancial businesses in2005 was _______.A) bank loansB) bonds and mortgagesC) trade debtD) other loansE) marketable securities.Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: See Table 1.4.16. Money market funds were a financial innovation partly inspired to circumvent _______.A) Regulation B, which is still in existenceB) Regulation DC) DIDMCAD) Regulation ME) Regulation Q, which is no longer in existenceAnswer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: Regulation Q limited the amount of interest that banks could pay todepositors; money market funds were not covered by Regulation Q and thus could pay a higher rate of interest. Although Regulation Q no longer exists, money market funds continue to be popular. See page 18.17. __________ are a way U. S. investor can invest in foreign companies.A) ADRsB) IRAsC) SDRsD) GNMAsE) KrugerrandsAnswer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: Only ADRs represent an indirect investment in a foreign company.18. _______ are examples of financial intermediaries.A) Commercial banksB) Insurance companiesC) Investment companiesD) Credit unionsE) All of the aboveAnswer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: All are institutions that bring borrowers and lenders together.19. Financial intermediaries exist because small investors cannot efficiently ________.A) diversify their portfoliosB) gather all relevant informationC) assess credit risk of borrowersD) advertise for needed investmentsE) all of the above.Answer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: The individual investor cannot efficiently and effectively perform any of the tasks above without more time and knowledge than that available to most individual investors.20. Firms that specialize in helping companies raise capital by selling securities are called________.A) commercial banksB) investment banksC) savings banksD) credit unionsE) all of the above.Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: An important role of investment banks is to act as middlemen in helping firms place new issues in the market.21. Financial assets ______.A) directly contribute to the country's productive capacityB) indirectly contribute to the country's productive capacityC) contribute to the country's productive capacity both directly and indirectlyD) do not contribute to the country's productive capacity either directly or indirectlyE) are of no value to anyoneAnswer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: Financial assets indirectly contribute to the country's productive capacity because these assets permit individuals to invest in firms and governments. This in turn allows firms and governments to increase productive capacity.22. The sale of a mortgage portfolio by setting up mortgage pass-through securities is anexample of ________.A) credit enhancementB) securitizationC) unbundlingD) derivativesE) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: The financial asset is secured by the mortgages backing the instrument.23. Corporate shareholders are best protected from incompetent management decisions byA) the ability to engage in proxy fights.B) management's control of pecuniary rewards.C) the ability to call shareholder meetings.D) the threat of takeover by other firms.E) one-share / one-vote election rules.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Proxy fights are expensive and seldom successful, and management may often control the board or own significant shares. It is the threat of takeover ofunderperforming firms that has the strongest ability to keep management on their toes.24. The national net worth of the U. S. in 2005 was _________.A) $15.411 trillionB) $26.431 trillionC) $42.669 trillionD) $55.651 trillionE) $70.983 trillionAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: See Table 1.2.25. In 2005, _______ of the assets of U. S. households were financial assets as opposed totangible assets.A) 20.4%B) 34.2%C) 60.7%D) 71.7%E) 82.5%Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: See Table 1.1.26. Investment bankers perform the following role(s) ___________.A) market new stock and bond issues for firmsB) provide advice to the firms as to market conditions, price, etcC) design securities with desirable propertiesD) all of the aboveE) none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: Investment bankers perform all of the roles described above for their clients.27. Theoretically, takeovers should result in ___________.A) improved managementB) increased stock priceC) increased benefits to existing management of taken over firmD) A and BE) A, B, and CAnswer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: Theoretically, when firms are taken over, better managers come in and thus increase the price of the stock; existing management often must either leave the firm, be demoted, or suffer a loss of existing benefits.28. Important trends changing the contemporary investment environment areA) globalization.B) securitization.C) information and computer networks.D) financial engineering.E) all of the aboveAnswer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: All of these are examples of important trends in the contemporary investment environment.29. The means by which individuals hold their claims on real assets in a well-developedeconomy areA) investment assets.B) depository assets.C) derivative assetsD) financial assets.E) exchange-driven assetsAnswer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: Financial assets allocate the wealth of the economy. Book example: it is easier for an individual to own shares of an auto company than to own an auto company directly.30. Which of the following financial assets makes up the greatest proportion of the financialassets held by U.S. households?A) pension reservesB) life insurance reservesC) mutual fund sharesD) debt securitiesE) personal trustsAnswer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: See Table 1.1.31. Which of the following are mechanisms that have evolved to mitigate potential agencyproblems?I)compensation in the form of the firm's stock optionsII)hiring bickering family members as corporate spiesIII)underperforming management teams being forced out by boards of directorsIV)security analysts monitoring the firm closelyV)takeover threatsA) II and VB) I, III, and IVC) I, III, IV, and VD) III, IV, and VE) I, III, and VAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: All but the second option have been used to try to limit agency problems.32. Commercial banks differ from other businesses in that both their assets and theirliabilities are mostlyA) illiquid.B) financial.C) real.D) owned by the government.E) regulated.Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: See Table 1.3.33. Which of the following is true about GNMA pass-throughs?I)They aggregate individual home mortgages into heterogeneous pools.II)The purchaser of a GNMA receives monthly interest and principal payments received from payments made on the pool.III)The banks that originated the mortgages maintain ownership of them.IV)The banks that originated the mortgages continue to service them.A) II, III, and IVB) I, II, and IVC) II and IVD) I, III, and IVE) I, II, III, and IVAnswer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: III is not correct because the bank no longer owns the mortgage investments.34. Although derivatives can be used as speculative instruments, businesses most often usethem toA) attract customers.B) appease stockholders.C) offset debt.D) hedge.E) enhance their balance sheets.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: Firms may use forward contracts and futures to protect against currency fluctuations or changes in commodity prices. Interest-rate options help companiescontrol financing costs.35. A WEBS securityA) limits the diversification potential of investors who hold it.B) may be traded only in the primary market.C) is linked directly to the value of a composite index of futures contracts.D) must be earned as a performance bonus within a corporation rather than purchased.E) tracks the performance of an index of share returns for a particular country.Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: WEBS (World Equity Benchmark Shares) allow investors to trade portfolios of foreign stocks in a selected country. They can be traded by investors in secondary markets (Amex) and allow U.S. investors to diversify their portfolios of foreign stocks.36. During the period between 2000 and 2002, a large number of scandals were uncovered.Most of these scandals were related toI)Manipulation of financial data to misrepresent the actual condition of the firm.II)Misleading and overly optimistic research reports produced by analysts.III)Allocating IPOs to executives as a quid pro quo for personal favors.IV)Greenmail.A) II, III, and IVB) I, II, and IVC) II and IVD) I, III, and IVE) I, II, and IIIAnswer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: I, II, and III are all mentioned as causes of recent scandals.37. A disadvantage of using stock options to compensate managers is thatA) it encourages mangers to undertake projects that will increase stock price.B) it encourages managers to engage in empire building.C) it can create an incentive for mangers to manipulate information to prop up a stockprice temporarily, giving them a chance to cash out before the price returns to alevel reflective of the firms true prospects.D) all of the above.E) none of the above.Answer: CRationale: A is a desired characteristic. B is not necessarily a good or bad thing in and of itself. C creates an agency problem.38. In 2005, ____________ was the most significant real asset of U. S. households in termsof total value.A) consumer durablesB) automobilesC) real estateD) mutual fund sharesE) bank loansAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: See Table 1.1.39. The largest component of domestic net worth in 2005 was ____________.A) non-residential real estateB) residential real estateC) inventoriesD) consumer durablesE) equipment and softwareAnswer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: See Table 1.2.40. A fixed-income security pays ____________.A) a fixed level of income for the life of the ownerB) a fixed level of income for the life of the securityC) a variable level of income for owners on a fixed incomeD) a fixed or variable income stream at the option of the ownerE) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: Only answer B is correct.41. Money market securities ____________.A) are short termB) pay a fixed incomeC) are highly marketableD) generally very low riskE) all of the aboveAnswer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: All answers are correct.42. Financial assets permit all of the following except ____________.A) consumption timingB) allocation of riskC) separation of ownership and controlD) elimination of riskE) all of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Financial assets do not allow risk to be eliminated. However, they do permit allocation of risk, consumption timing, and separation of ownership and control.43. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act ____________.A) requires corporations to have more independent directorsB) requires the firm's CFO to personally vouch for the firm's accounting statementsC) prohibits auditing firms from providing other services to clientsD) A and B are correct.E) A, B, and C are correct.Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The Sarbanes-Oxley Act does all of the above.44. Asset allocation refers to ____________.A) choosing which securities to hold based on their valuationB) investing only in “safe” securitiesC) the allocation of assets into broad asset classesD) bottom-up analysisE) all of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Asset allocation refers to the allocation of assets into broad asset classes.45. Which of the following portfolio construction methods starts with security analysis?A) Top-downB) Bottom-upC) Middle-outD) Buy and holdE) Asset allocationAnswer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Bottom-up refers to using security analysis to find securities that areattractively priced. Top-down refers to using asset allocation as a starting point.46. Which of the following portfolio construction methods starts with asset allocation?A) Top-downB) Bottom-upC) Middle-outD) Buy and holdE) Asset allocationAnswer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Bottom-up refers to using security analysis to find securities that areattractively priced.Essay Questions47. Discuss the agency problem in detail.Difficulty: ModerateAnswer:Managers are the agents of the shareholders, and should act on their behalf to maximize shareholder wealth (the value of the stock). A conflict (the agency conflict) arises when managers take self-interested actions to the detriment of shareholders. The roles of the board of directors selected by the shareholders are to oversee management and tominimize agency problems. However, often these boards are figureheads, andindividual shareholders do not own large enough blocks of the shares to overridemanagement actions. One potential resolution of an agency problem occurs wheninefficient management actions cause the price of the stock to be depressed. The firm may then become a takeover target. If the acquisition is successful, managers may be replaced and potentially, stockholders benefit.The question is designed to ascertain that the student understands the corporaterelationship between shareholders, management, and the board of directors. In addition, this problem has been addressed extensively in recent years, both in the popularfinancial press during the mergers and acquisitions mania of the 1980s, and in theacademic literature as agency theory.48. Discuss the similarities and differences between real and financial assets.Difficulty: ModerateAnswer:Real assets represent the productive capacity of the firm, and appear as assets on the firm's balance sheet. Financial assets are claims against the firm, and thus appear as liabilities on the firm's balance sheet. On the other hand, financial assets are listed on the asset side of the balance sheet of the individuals who own them. Thus, whenfinancial statements are aggregated across the economy, the financial assets cancel out, leaving only the real assets, which directly contribute to the productive capacity of the economy. Financial assets contribute indirectly only.The purpose of this question is to ascertain if the student understands the difference between real and financial assets, both in the aggregate balance sheet context and the relative contribution of the two types of assets to the productive capacity of theeconomy.49. Discuss the euro in relation to its impact on globalization. How is it currently used andwhat are the plans for its future use?Difficulty: ModerateAnswer:The euro was introduced in 1999 as a new currency and has replaced the currencies of twelve participating countries so there will be one common European currency in the participating countries. A common currency is expected to facilitate global trade and encourage the integration of markets across national boundaries.50. Discuss the following ongoing trends as they relate to the field of investments:globalization, financial engineering, securitization, and computer networksDifficulty: ModerateAnswer:Globalization offers a wider array of investment choices than what would be available to investors who could only choose domestic securities. As efficient communication technology has become available, globalization of markets has been significantlyenhanced. There are many mechanisms by which one country's investors can holdforeign companies' securities. Some examples are ADRs, WEBS, and direct purchase of foreign securities.Securitization refers to aggregating underlying financial assets, such as mortgages, into pools and then offering a security that represents a claim on these underlying assets.Examples are GNMAs. Securitization allows investors to hold partial ownership in financial assets that would otherwise be beyond their reach (e.g., mortgages).Financial engineering involves bundling or unbundling. Bundling involves combining separate securities together into one composite security. Examples are combiningprimitive and derivative securities, and combining three primitive securities such as common stock, preferred stock, and bonds. Unbundling is the opposite - two or more security classes are created by separating a composite security into parts.Computer networks have permitted online trading, online information dissemination and automated trade crossing. Each of these major breakthroughs has significantimplications for investments.。
投资学第7版Test Bank答案完整可编辑版

Multiple Choice Questions1. ________ is equal to the total market value of the firm's common stock divided by (thereplacement cost of the firm's assets less liabilities).A) Book value per shareB) Liquidation value per shareC) Market value per shareD) Tobin's QE) None of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: Book value per share is assets minus liabilities divided by number of shares.Liquidation value per share is the amount a shareholder would receive in the event ofbankruptcy. Market value per share is the market price of the stock.2. High P/E ratios tend to indicate that a company will _______, ceteris paribus.A) grow quicklyB) grow at the same speed as the average companyC) grow slowlyD) not growE) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: Investors pay for growth; hence the high P/E ratio for growth firms; however, the investor should be sure that he or she is paying for expected, not historic, growth.3. _________ is equal to (common shareholders' equity/common shares outstanding).A) Book value per shareB) Liquidation value per shareC) Market value per shareD) Tobin's QE) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: See rationale for test bank question 18.14. ________ are analysts who use information concerning current and prospectiveprofitability of a firms to assess the firm's fair market value.A) Credit analystsB) Fundamental analystsC) Systems analystsD) Technical analystsE) SpecialistsAnswer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: Fundamentalists use all public information in an attempt to value stock (while hoping to identify undervalued securities).5. The _______ is defined as the present value of all cash proceeds to the investor in thestock.A) dividend payout ratioB) intrinsic valueC) market capitalization rateD) plowback ratioE) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: The cash flows from the stock discounted at the appropriate rate, based on the perceived riskiness of the stock, the market risk premium and the risk free rate, determine the intrinsic value of the stock.6. _______ is the amount of money per common share that could be realized by breakingup the firm, selling the assets, repaying the debt, and distributing the remainder to shareholders.A) Book value per shareB) Liquidation value per shareC) Market value per shareD) Tobin's QE) None of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: See explanation for test bank question 18.1.7. Since 1955, Treasury bond yields and earnings yields on stocks were_______.A) identicalB) negatively correlatedC) positively correlatedD) uncorrelatedAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: The earnings yield on stocks equals the expected real rate of return on the stock market, which should be equal to the yield to maturity on Treasury bonds plus a risk premium, which may change slowly over time. The yields are plotted in Figure18.8.8. Historically, P/E ratios have tended to be _________.A) higher when inflation has been highB) lower when inflation has been highC) uncorrelated with inflation rates but correlated with other macroeconomic variablesD) uncorrelated with any macroeconomic variables including inflation ratesE) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: P/E ratios have tended to be lower when inflation has been high, reflecting the market's assessment that earnings in these periods are of "lower quality", i.e.,artificially distorted by inflation, and warranting lower P/E ratios.9. The ______ is a common term for the market consensus value of the required return ona stock.A) dividend payout ratioB) intrinsic valueC) market capitalization rateD) plowback rateE) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: The market capitalization rate, which consists of the risk-free rate, thesystematic risk of the stock and the market risk premium, is the rate at which a stock's cash flows are discounted in order to determine intrinsic value.10. The _________ is the fraction of earnings reinvested in the firm.A) dividend payout ratioB) retention rateC) plowback ratioD) A and CE) B and CAnswer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: Retention rate, or plowback ratio, represents the earnings reinvested in the firm. The retention rate, or (1 - plowback) = dividend payout.11. The Gordon modelA) is a generalization of the perpetuity formula to cover the case of a growingperpetuity.B) is valid only when g is less than k.C) is valid only when k is less than g.D) A and B.E) A and C.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: The Gordon model assumes constant growth indefinitely. Mathematically, g must be less than k; otherwise, the intrinsic value is undefined.12. You wish to earn a return of 13% on each of two stocks, X and Y. Stock X is expectedto pay a dividend of $3 in the upcoming year while Stock Y is expected to pay adividend of $4 in the upcoming year. The expected growth rate of dividends for both stocks is 7%. The intrinsic value of stock X ______.A) cannot be calculated without knowing the market rate of returnB) will be greater than the intrinsic value of stock YC) will be the same as the intrinsic value of stock YD) will be less than the intrinsic value of stock YE) none of the above is a correct answer.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: PV0 = D1/(k-g); given k and g are equal, the stock with the larger dividend will have the higher value.13. You wish to earn a return of 11% on each of two stocks, C and D. Stock C is expected topay a dividend of $3 in the upcoming year while Stock D is expected to pay a dividend of $4 in the upcoming year. The expected growth rate of dividends for both stocks is 7%. The intrinsic value of stock C ______.A) will be greater than the intrinsic value of stock DB) will be the same as the intrinsic value of stock DC) will be less than the intrinsic value of stock DD) cannot be calculated without knowing the market rate of returnE) none of the above is a correct answer.Answer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: PV0 = D1/(k-g); given k and g are equal, the stock with the larger dividend will have the higher value.14. You wish to earn a return of 12% on each of two stocks, A and B. Each of the stocks isexpected to pay a dividend of $2 in the upcoming year. The expected growth rate of dividends is 9% for stock A and 10% for stock B. The intrinsic value of stock A _____.A) will be greater than the intrinsic value of stock BB) will be the same as the intrinsic value of stock BC) will be less than the intrinsic value of stock BD) cannot be calculated without knowing the rate of return on the market portfolio.E) none of the above is a correct statement.Answer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: PV0 = D1/(k-g); given that dividends are equal, the stock with the higher growth rate will have the higher value.15. You wish to earn a return of 10% on each of two stocks, C and D. Each of the stocks isexpected to pay a dividend of $2 in the upcoming year. The expected growth rate of dividends is 9% for stock C and 10% for stock D. The intrinsic value of stock C _____.A) will be greater than the intrinsic value of stock DB) will be the same as the intrinsic value of stock DC) will be less than the intrinsic value of stock DD) cannot be calculated without knowing the rate of return on the market portfolio.E) none of the above is a correct statement.Answer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: PV0 = D1/(k-g); given that dividends are equal, the stock with the higher growth rate will have the higher value.16. Each of two stocks, A and B, are expected to pay a dividend of $5 in the upcoming year.The expected growth rate of dividends is 10% for both stocks. You require a rate of return of 11% on stock A and a return of 20% on stock B. The intrinsic value of stock A _____.A) will be greater than the intrinsic value of stock BB) will be the same as the intrinsic value of stock BC) will be less than the intrinsic value of stock BD) cannot be calculated without knowing the market rate of return.E) none of the above is true.Answer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: PV0 = D1/(k-g); given that dividends are equal, the stock with the larger required return will have the lower value.17. Each of two stocks, C and D, are expected to pay a dividend of $3 in the upcoming year.The expected growth rate of dividends is 9% for both stocks. You require a rate ofreturn of 10% on stock C and a return of 13% on stock D. The intrinsic value of stock C _____.A) will be greater than the intrinsic value of stock DB) will be the same as the intrinsic value of stock DC) will be less than the intrinsic value of stock DD) cannot be calculated without knowing the market rate of return.E) none of the above is true.Answer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: PV0 = D1/(k-g); given that dividends are equal, the stock with the larger required return will have the lower value.18. If the expected ROE on reinvested earnings is equal to k, the multistage DDM reducestoA) V0 = (Expected Dividend Per Share in Year 1)/kB) V0 = (Expected EPS in Year 1)/kC) V0 = (Treasury Bond Yield in Year 1)/kD) V0 = (Market return in Year 1)/kE) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: If ROE = k, no growth is occurring; b = 0; EPS = DPS19. Low Tech Company has an expected ROE of 10%. The dividend growth rate will be________ if the firm follows a policy of paying 40% of earnings in the form ofdividends.A) 6.0%B) 4.8%C) 7.2%D) 3.0%E) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: 10% X 0.60 = 6.0%.20. Music Doctors Company has an expected ROE of 14%. The dividend growth rate willbe ________ if the firm follows a policy of paying 60% of earnings in the form ofdividends.A) 4.8%B) 5.6%C) 7.2%D) 6.0%E) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: 14% X 0.40 = 5.6%.21. Medtronic Company has an expected ROE of 16%. The dividend growth rate will be________ if the firm follows a policy of paying 70% of earnings in the form ofdividends.A) 3.0%B) 6.0%C) 7.2%D) 4.8%E) none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: 16% X 0.30 = 4.8%.22. High Speed Company has an expected ROE of 15%. The dividend growth rate will be________ if the firm follows a policy of paying 50% of earnings in the form ofdividends.A) 3.0%B) 4.8%C) 7.5%D) 6.0%E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: 15% X 0.50 = 7.5%.23. Light Construction Machinery Company has an expected ROE of 11%. The dividendgrowth rate will be _______ if the firm follows a policy of paying 25% of earnings in the form of dividends.A) 3.0%B) 4.8%C) 8.25%D) 9.0%E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: 11% X 0.75 = 8.25%.24. Xlink Company has an expected ROE of 15%. The dividend growth rate will be_______ if the firm follows a policy of plowing back 75% of earnings.A) 3.75%B) 11.25%C) 8.25%D) 15.0%E) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: 15% X 0.75 = 11.25%.25. Think Tank Company has an expected ROE of 26%. The dividend growth rate will be_______ if the firm follows a policy of plowing back 90% of earnings.A) 2.6%B) 10%C) 23.4%D) 90%E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: 26% X 0.90 = 23.4%.26. Bubba Gumm Company has an expected ROE of 9%. The dividend growth rate will be_______ if the firm follows a policy of plowing back 10% of earnings.A) 90%B) 10%C) 9%D) 0.9%E) none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: 9% X 0.10 = 0.9%.27. A preferred stock will pay a dividend of $2.75 in the upcoming year, and every yearthereafter, i.e., dividends are not expected to grow. You require a return of 10% on this stock. Use the constant growth DDM to calculate the intrinsic value of this preferred stock.A) $0.275B) $27.50C) $31.82D) $56.25E) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 2.75 / .10 = 27.5028. A preferred stock will pay a dividend of $3.00in the upcoming year, and every yearthereafter, i.e., dividends are not expected to grow. You require a return of 9% on this stock. Use the constant growth DDM to calculate the intrinsic value of this preferred stock.A) $33.33B) $0..27C) $31.82D) $56.25E) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 3.00 / .09 = 33.3329. A preferred stock will pay a dividend of $1.25 in the upcoming year, and every yearthereafter, i.e., dividends are not expected to grow. You require a return of 12% on this stock. Use the constant growth DDM to calculate the intrinsic value of this preferred stock.A) $11.56B) $9.65C) $11.82D) $10.42E) none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 1.25 / .12 = 10.4230. A preferred stock will pay a dividend of $3.50 in the upcoming year, and every yearthereafter, i.e., dividends are not expected to grow. You require a return of 11% on this stock. Use the constant growth DDM to calculate the intrinsic value of this preferred stock.A) $0.39B) $0.56C) $31.82D) $56.25E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 3.50 / .11 = 31.8231. A preferred stock will pay a dividend of $7.50 in the upcoming year, and every yearthereafter, i.e., dividends are not expected to grow. You require a return of 10% on this stock. Use the constant growth DDM to calculate the intrinsic value of this preferred stock.A) $0.75B) $7.50C) $64.12D) $56.25E) none of the aboveAnswer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 7.50 / .10 = 75.0032. A preferred stock will pay a dividend of $6.00 in the upcoming year, and every yearthereafter, i.e., dividends are not expected to grow. You require a return of 10% on this stock. Use the constant growth DDM to calculate the intrinsic value of this preferred stock.A) $0.60B) $6.00C) $600D) $5.40E) none of the aboveAnswer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 6.00 / .10 = 60.0033. You are considering acquiring a common stock that you would like to hold for one year.You expect to receive both $1.25 in dividends and $32 from the sale of the stock at the end of the year. The maximum price you would pay for the stock today is _____ if you wanted to earn a 10% return.A) $30.23B) $24.11C) $26.52D) $27.50E) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: .10 = (32 - P + 1.25) / P; .10P = 32 - P + 1.25; 1.10P = 33.25; P = 30.23.34. You are considering acquiring a common stock that you would like to hold for one year.You expect to receive both $0.75 in dividends and $16 from the sale of the stock at the end of the year. The maximum price you would pay for the stock today is _____ if you wanted to earn a 12% return.A) $23.91B) $14.96C) $26.52D) $27.50E) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: .12 = (16 - P + 0.75) / P; .12P = 16 - P + 0.75; 1.12P = 16.75; P = 14.96. 35. You are considering acquiring a common stock that you would like to hold for one year.You expect to receive both $2.50 in dividends and $28 from the sale of the stock at the end of the year. The maximum price you would pay for the stock today is _____ if you wanted to earn a 15% return.A) $23.91B) $24.11C) $26.52D) $27.50E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: .15 = (28 - P + 2.50) / P; .15P = 28 - P + 2.50; 1.15P = 30.50; P = 26.52. 36. You are considering acquiring a common stock that you would like to hold for one year.You expect to receive both $3.50 in dividends and $42 from the sale of the stock at the end of the year. The maximum price you would pay for the stock today is _____ if you wanted to earn a 10% return.A) $23.91B) $24.11C) $26.52D) $27.50E) none of the aboveAnswer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: .10 = (42 - P + 3.50) / P; .10P = 42 - P + 3.50; 1.1P = 45.50; P = 41.36.Use the following to answer questions 37-40:Paper Express Company has a balance sheet which lists $85 million in assets, $40 million in liabilities and $45 million in common shareholders' equity. It has 1,400,000 common shares outstanding. The replacement cost of the assets is $115 million. The market share price is $90.37. What is Paper Express's book value per share?A) $1.68B) $2.60C) $32.14D) $60.71E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: $45M/1.4M = $32.14.38. What is Paper Express's market value per share?A) $1.68B) $2.60C) $32.14D) $60.71E) none of the aboveAnswer: E Difficulty: Easy39. What is Paper Express's replacement cost per share?A) $1.68B) $2.60C) $53.57D) $60.71E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: $115M - 40M/1.4M = $53.57.40. What is Paper Express's Tobin's q?A) 1.68B) 2.60C) 53.57D) 60.71E) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: $90/ 53.57 = 1.6841. One of the problems with attempting to forecast stock market values is thatA) there are no variables that seem to predict market return.B) the earnings multiplier approach can only be used at the firm level.C) the level of uncertainty surrounding the forecast will always be quite high.D) dividend payout ratios are highly variable.E) none of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: Although some variables such as market dividend yield appear to be strongly related to market return, the market has great variability and so the level of uncertainty in any forecast will be high.42. The most popular approach to forecasting the overall stock market is to useA) the dividend multiplier.B) the aggregate return on assets.C) the historical ratio of book value to market value.D) the aggregate earnings multiplier.E) Tobin's Q.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: The earnings multiplier approach is the most popular approach to forecasting the overall stock market.Use the following to answer questions 43-44:Sure Tool Company is expected to pay a dividend of $2 in the upcoming year. The risk-free rate of return is 4% and the expected return on the market portfolio is 14%. Analysts expect the price of Sure Tool Company shares to be $22 a year from now. The beta of Sure Tool Company's stock is 1.25.43. The market's required rate of return on Sure's stock is _____.A) 14.0%B) 17.5%C) 16.5%D) 15.25%E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 4% + 1.25(14% - 4%) = 16.5%.44. What is the intrinsic value of Sure's stock today?A) $20.60B) $20.00C) $12.12D) $22.00E) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: DifficultRationale: k = .04 + 1.25 (.14 - .04); k = .165; .165 = (22 - P + 2) / P; .165P = 24 - P;1.165P = 24 ; P = 20.60.45. If Sure's intrinsic value is $21.00 today, what must be its growth rate?A) 0.0%B) 10%C) 4%D) 6%E) 7%Answer: E Difficulty: DifficultRationale: k = .04 + 1.25 (.14 - .04); k = .165; .165 = 2/21 + g; g = .07Use the following to answer questions 46-47:Torque Corporation is expected to pay a dividend of $1.00 in the upcoming year. Dividends are expected to grow at the rate of 6% per year. The risk-free rate of return is 5% and the expected return on the market portfolio is 13%. The stock of Torque Corporation has a beta of 1.2.46. What is the return you should require on Torque's stock?A) 12.0%B) 14.6%C) 15.6%D) 20%E) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 5% + 1.2(13% - 5%) = 14.6%.47. What is the intrinsic value of Torque's stock?A) $14.29B) $14.60C) $12.33D) $11.62E) none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: DifficultRationale: k = 5% + 1.2(13% - 5%) = 14.6%; P = 1 / (.146 - .06) = $11.62.48. Midwest Airline is expected to pay a dividend of $7 in the coming year. Dividends areexpected to grow at the rate of 15% per year. The risk-free rate of return is 6% and the expected return on the market portfolio is 14%. The stock of Midwest Airline has a beta of 3.00. The return you should require on the stock is ________.A) 10%B) 18%C) 30%D) 42%E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 6% + 3(14% - 6%) = 30%.49. Fools Gold Mining Company is expected to pay a dividend of $8 in the upcoming year.Dividends are expected to decline at the rate of 2% per year. The risk-free rate of return is 6% and the expected return on the market portfolio is 14%. The stock of Fools Gold Mining Company has a beta of -0.25. The return you should require on the stock is ________.A) 2%B) 4%C) 6%D) 8%E) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 6% + [-0.25(14% - 6%)] = 4%.50. High Tech Chip Company is expected to have EPS in the coming year of $2.50. Theexpected ROE is 12.5%. An appropriate required return on the stock is 11%. If the firm has a plowback ratio of 70%, the growth rate of dividends should beA) 5.00%B) 6.25%C) 6.60%D) 7.50%E) 8.75%Answer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: 12.5% X 0.7 = 8.75%.51. A company paid a dividend last year of $1.75. The expected ROE for next year is14.5%. An appropriate required return on the stock is 10%. If the firm has a plowbackratio of 75%, the dividend in the coming year should beA) $1.80B) $2.12C) $1.77D) $1.94E) none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: g = .155 X .75 = 10.875%; $1.75(1.10875) = $1.9452. High Tech Chip Company paid a dividend last year of $2.50. The expected ROE fornext year is 12.5%. An appropriate required return on the stock is 11%. If the firm hasa plowback ratio of 60%, the dividend in the coming year should beA) $1.00B) $2.50C) $2.69D) $2.81E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: g = .125 X .6 = 7.5%; $2.50(1.075) = $2.6953. Suppose that the average P/E multiple in the oil industry is 20. Dominion Oil isexpected to have an EPS of $3.00 in the coming year. The intrinsic value of Dominion Oil stock should be _____.A) $28.12B) $35.55C) $60.00D) $72.00E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: 20 X $3.00 = $60.00.54. Suppose that the average P/E multiple in the oil industry is 22. Exxon Oil is expected tohave an EPS of $1.50 in the coming year. The intrinsic value of Exxon Oil stock should be _____.A) $33.00B) $35.55C) $63.00D) $72.00E) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: 22 X $1.50 = $33.00.55. Suppose that the average P/E multiple in the oil industry is 16. Mobil Oil is expected tohave an EPS of $4.50 in the coming year. The intrinsic value of Mobil Oil stock should be _____.A) $28.12B) $35.55C) $63.00D) $72.00E) none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: 16 X $4.50 = $72.00.56. Suppose that the average P/E multiple in the gas industry is 17. KMP is expected tohave an EPS of $5.50 in the coming year. The intrinsic value of KMP stock should be _____.A) $28.12B) $93.50C) $63.00D) $72.00E) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: 17 X $5.50 = $93.50.57. An analyst has determined that the intrinsic value of HPQ stock is $20 per share usingthe capitalized earnings model. If the typical P/E ratio in the computer industry is 25, then it would be reasonable to assume the expected EPS of HPQ in the coming year is ______.A) $3.63B) $4.44C) $0.80D) $22.50E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: $20(1/25) = $0.80.58. An analyst has determined that the intrinsic value of Dell stock is $34 per share usingthe capitalized earnings model. If the typical P/E ratio in the computer industry is 27, then it would be reasonable to assume the expected EPS of Dell in the coming year is ______.A) $3.63B) $4.44C) $14.40D) $1.26E) none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: $34(1/27) = $1.26.59. An analyst has determined that the intrinsic value of IBM stock is $80 per share usingthe capitalized earnings model. If the typical P/E ratio in the computer industry is 22, then it would be reasonable to assume the expected EPS of IBM in the coming year is ______.A) $3.64B) $4.44C) $14.40D) $22.50E) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: $80(1/22) = $3.64.60. Old Quartz Gold Mining Company is expected to pay a dividend of $8 in the comingyear. Dividends are expected to decline at the rate of 2% per year. The risk-free rate of return is 6% and the expected return on the market portfolio is 14%. The stock of Old Quartz Gold Mining Company has a beta of -0.25. The intrinsic value of the stock is ______.A) $80.00B) 133.33C) $200.00D) $400.00E) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: DifficultRationale: k = 6% + [-0.25(14% - 6%)] = 4%; P = 8 / [.04 - (-.02)] = $133.33.61. Low Fly Airline is expected to pay a dividend of $7 in the coming year. Dividends areexpected to grow at the rate of 15% per year. The risk-free rate of return is 6% and the expected return on the market portfolio is 14%. The stock of low Fly Airline has a beta of 3.00. The intrinsic value of the stock is ______.A) $46.67B) $50.00C) $56.00D) $62.50E) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 6% + 3(14% - 6%) = 30%; P = 7 / (.30 - .15) = $46.67.62. Sunshine Corporation is expected to pay a dividend of $1.50 in the upcoming year.Dividends are expected to grow at the rate of 6% per year. The risk-free rate of return is 6% and the expected return on the market portfolio is 14%. The stock of Sunshine Corporation has a beta of 0.75. The intrinsic value of the stock is _______.A) $10.71B) $15.00C) $17.75D) $25.00E) none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 6% + 0.75(14% - 6%) = 12%; P = 1.50 / (.12 - .06) = $25.63. Low Tech Chip Company is expected to have EPS in the coming year of $2.50. Theexpected ROE is 14%. An appropriate required return on the stock is 11%. If the firm has a dividend payout ratio of 40%, the intrinsic value of the stock should beA) $22.73B) $27.50C) $28.57D) $38.46E) none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: DifficultRationale: g = 14% X 0.6 = 8.4%; Expected DPS = $2.50(0.4) = $1.00; P = 1 / (.11 - .084) = $38.46.Use the following to answer questions 64-65:Risk Metrics Company is expected to pay a dividend of $3.50 in the coming year. Dividends are expected to grow at a rate of 10% per year. The risk-free rate of return is 5% and the expected return on the market portfolio is 13%. The stock is trading in the market today at a price of $90.00.64. What is the market capitalization rate for Risk Metrics?A) 13.6%B) 13.9%C) 15.6%D) 16.9%E) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: k = 3.50 / 90 + .10; k = 13.9%65. What is the approximate beta of Risk Metrics's stock?A) 0.8B) 1.0C) 1.1D) 1.4E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: DifficultRationale: k = 13.9% from 18.64; 13.9 = 5% + b(13% - 5%) = 1.11.66. The market capitalization rate on the stock of Flexsteel Company is 12%. The expectedROE is 13% and the expected EPS are $3.60. If the firm's plowback ratio is 50%, the P/E ratio will be _________.A) 7.69B) 8.33C) 9.09D) 11.11E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: DifficultRationale: g = 13% X 0.5 = 6.5%; .5/(.12-.065) = 9.09。
投资学第7版Test-Bank答案-04

Multiple Choice Questions1. Which one of the following statements regarding open-end mutual funds isfalse?A) The funds redeem shares at net asset value.B) The funds offer investors professional management.C) The funds offer investors a guaranteed rate of return.D) B and C.E) A and B.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: No investment offers a guaranteed rate of return.2. Which one of the following statements regarding closed-end mutual fundsis false?A) The funds always trade at a discount from NAV.B) The funds redeem shares at their net asset value.C) The funds offer investors professional management.D) A and B.E) None of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Closed-end funds are sold at the prevailing market price.3. Which of the following functions do mutual fund companies perform for theirinvestors?A) Record keeping and administrationB) Diversification and divisibilityC) Professional managementD) Lower transaction costsE) All of the above.Answer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: Mutual funds are attractive to investors because they offer all of the listed services.4. Multiple Mutual Funds had year-end assets of $457,000,000 and liabilitiesof $17,000,000. There were 24,300,000 shares in the fund at year-end.What was Multiple Mutual's Net Asset Value?A) $18.11B) $18.81C) $69.96D) $7.00E) $181.07Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: (457,000,000 - 17,000,000) / 24,300,000 = $18.115. Growth Fund had year-end assets of $862,000,000 and liabilities of$12,000,000. There were 32,675,254 shares in the fund at year-end. What was Growth Fund's Net Asset Value?A) $28.17B) $25.24C) $19.62D) $26.01E) $21.56Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: (862,000,000 - 12,000,000) / 32,675,254 = $26.016. Diversified Portfolios had year-end assets of $279,000,000 andliabilities of $43,000,000. If Diversified's NAV was $42.13, how many shares must have been held in the fund?A) 43,000,000B) 6,488,372C) 5,601,709D) 1,182,203E) None of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: ($279,000,000 - 43,000,000) / $42.13 = 5,601,708.996.7. Pinnacle Fund had year-end assets of $825,000,000 and liabilities of$25,000,000. If Pinnacle's NAV was $32.18, how many shares must have been held in the fund?A) 21,619,346,92B) 22,930,546.28C) 24,860,161.59D) 25,693,645.25E) None of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: ($825,000,000 - 25,000,000) / $32.18 = 24,860,161.59.8. Most actively managed mutual funds, when compared to a market index suchas the Wilshire 5000,A) beat the market return in all years.B) beat the market return in most years.C) exceed the return on index funds.D) do not outperform the marketE) None of the above is a correct statement.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: Most actively managed mutual funds fail to equal the return earned by index funds, possibly due to higher transactions costs.9. Pools of money invested in a portfolio that is fixed for the life of thefund are calledA) closed-end funds.B) open-end funds.C) unit investment trusts.D) REITS.E) redeemable trust certificates.Answer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: Unit investment trusts are funds that invest in a portfolio, often fixed-income securities, and hold it to maturity.10. Investors in closed-end funds who wish to liquidate their positions mustA) sell their shares through a broker.B) sell their shares to the issuer at a discount to Net Asset Value.C) sell their shares to the issuer at a premium to Net Asset Value.D) sell their shares to the issuer for Net Asset Value.E) hold their shares to maturity.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Closed-end fund shares are sold on organized exchanges through a broker.11. Closed end funds are frequently issued at a ______ to NAV and subsequentlytrade at a __________ to NAV.A) discount, discountB) discount, premiumC) premium, premiumD) premium, discountE) No consistent relationship has been observed.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Closed-end funds are typically issued at a premium to Net Asset Value and subsequently trade at a discount.12. At issue, offering prices of open-end funds will often beA) less than NAV due to loads and commissions.B) greater than NAV due to loads and commissions.C) less than NAV due to limited demand.D) greater than NAV due to excess demand.E) less than or greater than NAV with no apparent pattern.Answer: B Difficulty: DifficultRationale: Open-end funds are redeemable on demand at NAV so they should never sell for less than NAV. However, loads and commissions can increase the price above NAV.13. Which of the following statements about Real Estate Investment Trusts istrue?A) REITS invest in real estate or loans secured by real estate.B) REITS raise capital by borrowing from banks and issuing mortgages.C) REITS are similar to open-end funds, with shares redeemable at NAV.D) All of the above are true.E) Both A and B are true.Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Real Estate Investment Trusts invest in real estate orreal-estate-secured loans. They may raise capital from banks and by issuing mortgages. They are similar to closed-end funds and shares are typically exchange traded.14. In 2004 the proportion of mutual funds specializing in common stocks wasA) 21.7%B) 28.0%C) 54.1%D) 73.4%E) 63.5%Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: See Table 4.1.15. In 2004 the proportion of mutual funds specializing in bonds wasA) 15.9%B) 28.0%C) 54.1%D) 73.4%E) 63.5%Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: See Table 4.1.16. In 2004 the proportion of mutual funds specializing in money marketsecurities wasA) 21.7%B) 28.0%C) 54.1%D) 73.4%E) 23.6%Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: See Table 4.1.17. Management fees and other expenses of mutual funds may includeA) front-end loads.B) back-end loads.C) 12b-1 charges.D) A and B only.E) A, B and C.Answer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: All of the listed expenses may be included in the cost of owning a mutual fund.18. The Profitability Fund had NAV per share of $17.50 on January 1, 2005.On December 31 of the same year the fund's NAV was $19.47. Incomedistributions were $0.75 and the fund had capital gain distributions of $1.00. Without considering taxes and transactions costs, what rate of return did an investor receive on the Profitability fund last year?A) 11.26%B) 15.54%C) 16.97%D) 21.26%E) 9.83%Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: R = ($19.47 - 17.50 + .75 + 1.00) / $17.50 = 21.26%19. The Yachtsman Fund had NAV per share of $36.12 on January 1, 2005. OnDecember 31 of the same year the fund's NAV was $39.71. Incomedistributions were $0.64 and the fund had capital gain distributions of $1.13. Without considering taxes and transactions costs, what rate of return did an investor receive on the Yachtsman Fund last year?A) 22.92%B) 17.68%C) 14.39%D) 18.52%E) 14.84%Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: R = ($39.71 - 36.12 + .64 + 1.13) / $36.12 = 14.84%20. Investors' Choice Fund had NAV per share of $37.25 on January 1, 2005.On December 31 of the same year the fund's rate of return for the year was 17.3%. Income distributions were $1.14 and the fund had capital gain distributions of $1.35. Without considering taxes and transactions costs, what ending NAV would you calculate for Investors' Choice?A) $41.20B) $33.88C) $43.69D) $42.03E) $46.62Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: .173 = (P - $37.25 + 1.14 + 1.35) / $37.25; P = $41.2021. Which of the following is not an advantage of mutual funds?A) They offer a variety of investment styles.B) They offer small investors the benefits of diversification.C) They treat income as "passed through" to the investor for tax purposes.D) A, B and C are all advantages of mutual funds.E) Neither A nor B nor C are advantages of mutual funds.Answer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: A disadvantage of mutual funds is that investment income is passed through for tax purposes and investors may therefore lose the ability to engage in tax management.22. Which of the following would increase the net asset value of a mutual fundshare, assuming all other things remain unchanged?A) an increase in the number of fund shares outstandingB) an increase in the fund's accounts payableC) a change in the fund's managementD) an increase in the value of one of the fund's stocksE) a decrease in the fund's 12b-1 feeAnswer: D Difficulty: Easy23. Which of the following characteristics apply to unit investment trusts?I)Most are invested in fixed-income portfolios.II)They are actively managed portfolios.III)The sponsor pools securities, then sells public shares in the trust.IV)The portfolio is fixed for the life of the fund.A) I and IVB) I and IIC) I, III, and IVD) I, II, and IIIE) I, II, III, and IVAnswer: C Difficulty: Moderate24. Jargon Rapid Growth is a mutual fund that has traditionally accepted fundsfrom new investors and issued new shares at net asset value. Jeremy Jargon manages the fund himself and has become concerned that its level of assets has become too high for his management abilities. He issues a statement that Jargon will no longer accept funds from new investors, but will continue to accept additional investments from current shareholders.Which of the following is true about Jargon Rapid Growth fund?A) Jargon used to be an open-end fund but has now become a closed-end fund.B) Jargon has always been an open-end fund and will remain an open-endfund.C) Jargon has always been a closed-end fund and will remain a closed-endfund.D) Jargon is an open-end fund but would change to a closed-end fund ifit wouldn't accept additional funds from current investors.E) Jargon is violating SEC policy by refusing to accept new investors.Answer: B Difficulty: Moderate25. As of December 31, 2004, which class of mutual funds had the largest amountof assets invested?A) stock fundsB) bond fundsC) mixed asset classes such as asset allocation fundsD) money market fundsE) global fundsAnswer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: See Table 4.1.26. Commingled funds areA) amounts invested in equity and fixed-income mutual funds.B) funds that may be purchased at intervals of 3, 6, or 12 month intervalsat the discretion of management.C) amounts invested in domestic and global equities.D) closed-end funds that may be repurchased only once every two years atthe discretion of mutual fund management.E) partnerships of investors that pool their funds, which are then managedfor a fee.Answer: E Difficulty: Easy27. Which of the following is true regarding equity mutual funds?I)They invest primarily in stock.II)They may hold fixed-income securities as well as stock.III)Most hold money market securities as well as stock.IV)Two types of equity funds are income funds and growth funds.A) I and IVB) I, III, and IVC) I, II, and IVD) I, II, and IIIE) I, II, III, and IVAnswer: E Difficulty: Moderate28. The fee that mutual funds use to help pay for advertising and promotionalliterature is called aA) front-end load fee.B) back-end load fee.C) operating expense fee.D) 12b-1 fee.E) structured fee.Answer: D Difficulty: Easy29. Patty O'Furniture purchased 100 shares of Green Isle mutual fund at a netasset value of $42 per share. During the year Patty received dividend income distributions of $2.00 per share and capital gains distributions of $4.30 per share. At the end of the year the shares had a net asset value of $40 per share. What was Patty's rate of return on this investment?A) 5.43%B) 10.24%C) 7.19%D) 12.44%E) 9.18%Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: R = ($40-42+2+4.3)/$42 = 10.238%30. Assume that you purchased 200 shares of Super Performing mutual fund ata net asset value of $21 per share. During the year you received dividendincome distributions of $1.50 per share and capital gains distributions of $2.85 per share. At the end of the year the shares had a net asset value of $23 per share. What was your rate of return on this investment?A) 30.24%B) 25.37%C) 27.19%D) 22.44%E) 29.18%Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: R = ($23-21+1.5+2.85)/$21 = 30.238%31. Assume that you purchased shares of High Flying mutual fund at a net assetvalue of $12.50 per share. During the year you received dividend income distributions of $0.78 per share and capital gains distributions of $1.67 per share. At the end of the year the shares had a net asset value of $13.87 per share. What was your rate of return on this investment?A) 29.43%B) 30.56%C) 31.19%D) 32.44%E) 29.18%Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: R = ($13.87-12.50+0.78+1.67)/$12.50 = 30.56%32. Assume that you purchased shares of a mutual fund at a net asset valueof $14.50 per share. During the year you received dividend incomedistributions of $0.27 per share and capital gains distributions of $0.65 per share. At the end of the year the shares had a net asset value of $13.74 per share. What was your rate of return on this investment?A) 2.91%B) 3.07%C) 1.10%D) 1.78%E) -1.18%Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: R = ($13.74-14.50+0.27+0.65)/$14.50 = 1.103%33. Assume that you purchased shares of a mutual fund at a net asset valueof $10.00 per share. During the year you received dividend incomedistributions of $0.05 per share and capital gains distributions of $0.06 per share. At the end of the year the shares had a net asset value of $8.16 per share. What was your rate of return on this investment?A) -18.24%B) -16.1%C) 16.10%D) -17.3%E) 17.3%Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: R = ($8.16-10.00+0.05+0.06)/$10.00 = -17.3%34. A mutual fund had year-end assets of $560,000,000 and liabilities of$26,000,000. There were 23,850,000 shares in the fund at year end. What was the mutual fund's Net Asset Value?A) $22.87B) $22.39C) $22.24D) $17.61E) $19.25Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: (560,000,000 - 26,000,000) / 23,850,000 = $22.38935. A mutual fund had year-end assets of $250,000,000 and liabilities of$4,000,000. There were 3,750,000 shares in the fund at year-end. What was the mutual fund's Net Asset Value?A) $92.53B) $67.39C) $63.24D) $65.60E) $17.46Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: (250,000,000 - 4,000,000) / 3,750,000 = $65.6036. A mutual fund had year-end assets of $700,000,000 and liabilities of$7,000,000. There were 40,150,000 shares in the fund at year-end. What was the mutual fund's Net Asset Value?A) $9.63B) $57.71C) $16.42D) $17.87E) $17.26Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: (700,000,000 - 7,000,000) / 40,150,000 = $17.2637. A mutual fund had year-end assets of $465,000,000 and liabilities of$37,000,000. If the fund NAV was $56.12, how many shares must have been held in the fund?A) 4,300,000B) 6,488,372C) 8,601,709D) 7,626,515E) None of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: ($465,000,000 - 37,000,000) / $56.12 = 7,626,515.38. A mutual fund had year-end assets of $521,000,000 and liabilities of$63,000,000. If the fund NAV was $26.12, how many shares must have been held in the fund?A) 17,534,456B) 16,488,372C) 18,601,742D) 17,542,515E) None of the above.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: ($521,000,000 - 63,000,000) / $26.12 = 17,534,456.39. A mutual fund had year-end assets of $327,000,000 and liabilities of$46,000,000. If the fund NAV was $30.48, how many shares must have been held in the fund?A) 11,354,751B) 8,412,642C) 10,165,476D) 9,165,414E) 9,219,160Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: ($327,000,000 - 46,000,000) / $30.48 = 9,219,160.40. A mutual fund had NAV per share of $19.00 on January 1, 2005. On December31 of the same year the fund's NAV was $19.14. Income distributions were$0.57 and the fund had capital gain distributions of $1.12. Without considering taxes and transactions costs, what rate of return did an investor receive on the fund last year?A) 11.26%B) 10.54%C) 7.97%D) 8.26%E) 9.63%Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: R = ($19.14 - 19.00 + .57 + 1.12) / $19.00 = 9.63%41. A mutual fund had NAV per share of $26.25 on January 1, 2005. On December31 of the same year the fund's rate of return for the year was 16.4%. Incomedistributions were $1.27 and the fund had capital gain distributions of $1.85. Without considering taxes and transactions costs, what ending NAV would you calculate?A) $27.44B) $33.88C) $24.69D) $42.03E) $16.62Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: .164 = (P - $26.25 + 1.27 + 1.85) / $26.25; P = $27.43542. A mutual fund had NAV per share of $16.75 on January 1, 2005. On December31 of the same year the fund's rate of return for the year was 26.6%. Incomedistributions were $1.79 and the fund had capital gain distributions of $2.80. Without considering taxes and transactions costs, what ending NAV would you calculate?A) $17.44B) $13.28C) $14.96D) $17.25E) $16.62Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: .266 = (P - $16.75 + 1.79 + 2.80) / $16.75; P = $16.61543. A mutual fund had NAV per share of $36.15 on January 1, 2005. On December31 of the same year the fund's rate of return for the year was 14.0%. Incomedistributions were $1.16 and the fund had capital gain distributions of $2.12. Without considering taxes and transactions costs, what ending NAV would you calculate?A) $37.93B) $34.52C) $44.69D) $47.25E) $36.28Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: .14 = (P - $36.15 + 1.16 + 2.12) / $36.15; P = $37.93144. Differences between hedge funds and mutual funds are thatA) hedge funds are only subject to minimal SEC regulation.B) hedge funds are typically open only to wealthy or institutionalinvestors.C) hedge funds managers can pursue strategies not available to mutualfunds such as short selling, heavy use of derivatives, and leverage.D) hedge funds attempt to exploit temporary misalignments in securityvaluations.E) all of the aboveAnswer: E Difficulty: Moderate45. Of the following types of mutual funds, an investor that wishes to investin a diversified portfolio of stocks worldwide (including the U.S.) should chooseA) international funds.B) global funds.C) regional funds.D) emerging market funds.E) none of the above.Answer: B Difficulty: Moderate46. Of the following types of mutual funds, an investor that wishes to investin a diversified portfolio of foreign stocks (excluding the U.S.) should chooseA) International fundsB) Global fundsC) Regional fundsD) Emerging market fundsE) None of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: Moderate47. Of the following types of EFTs, an investor that wishes to invest in adiversified portfolio that tracks the S&P 500 should chooseA) SPY.B) DIA.C) QQQ.D) IWM.E) VTI.Answer: A Difficulty: Moderate48. Of the following types of EFTs, an investor that wishes to invest in adiversified portfolio that tracks the Dow Jones Industrials should chooseA) SPY.B) DIA.C) QQQ.D) IWM.E) VTI.Answer: B Difficulty: Moderate49. Of the following types of EFTs, an investor that wishes to invest in adiversified portfolio that tracks the Nasdaq 100 should chooseA) SPY.B) DIA.C) QQQ.D) IWM.E) VTI.Answer: C Difficulty: Moderate50. Of the following types of EFTs, an investor that wishes to invest in adiversified portfolio that tracks the Russell 2000 should chooseA) SPY.B) DIA.C) QQQ.D) IWM.E) VTI.Answer: D Difficulty: Moderate51. Of the following types of EFTs, an investor that wishes to invest in adiversified portfolio that tracks the Wilshire 5000 should chooseA) SPY.B) DIA.C) QQQ.D) IWM.E) VTI.Answer: E Difficulty: Moderate52. A mutual funds had average daily assets of $3.0 billion in 2005. The fundsold $600 million worth of stock and purchased $700 million worth of stock during the year. The funds turnover ratio is ___.A) 27.5%B) 12%C) 15%D) 25%E) 20%Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 600,000,000 / 3,000,000,000 = 20%53. A mutual funds had average daily assets of $2.0 billion on 2005. The fundsold $500 million worth of stock and purchased $600 million worth of stock during the year. The funds turnover ratio is ___.A) 27.5%B) 12%C) 15%D) 25%E) 20%Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 500,000,000 / 2,000,000,000 = 25%54. A mutual funds had average daily assets of $4.0 billion on 2005. The fundsold $1.5 billion worth of stock and purchased $1.6 billion worth of stock during the year. The funds turnover ratio is ____________.A) 37.5%B) 22%C) 15%D) 45%E) 20%Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 1,500,000,000 / 4,000,000,000 = 37.5%55. You purchased shares of a mutual fund at a price of $20 per share at thebeginning of the year and paid a front-end load of 5.75%. If the securities in which the find invested increased in value by 11% during the year, and the funds expense ratio was 1.25%, your return if you sold the fund at the end of the year would be ____________.A) 4.33B) 3.44C) 2.45D) 6.87E) None of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: DifficultRationale: {[$20 * .9425*(1.11-.0125)]-$20} / $20 = 3.44%56. You purchased shares of a mutual fund at a price of $12 per share at thebeginning of the year and paid a front-end load of 4.75%. If the securities in which the fund invested increased in value by 9% during the year, and the funds expense ratio was 1.5%, your return if you sold the fund at the end of the year would be ____________.A) 4.75B) 3.54C) 2.65D) 2.39E) None of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: DifficultRationale: {[$12 * .9525*(1.09-.015)]-$12} / $12 = 2.39%57. You purchased shares of a mutual fund at a price of $17 per share at thebeginning of the year and paid a front-end load of 5.0%. If the securities in which the find invested increased in value by 12% during the year, and the funds expense ratio was 1.0%, your return if you sold the fund at the end of the year would be ____________.A) 4.75B) 5.45C) 5.65D) 4.39E) None of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: DifficultRationale: {[$17 * .95*(1.12-.01)]-$17} / $17 = 5.45%Essay Questions58. List and describe the more important types of mutual funds according totheir investment policy and use.Difficulty: ModerateAnswer:Some of the more important fund types, classified by investment policy, are:Money Market Funds - These funds invest in money market securities. They usually offer check-writing features and NAV is fixed at $1 per share, so that there are no tax implications associated with redemption of shares.They provide low risk, relatively low return and high liquidity.Equity Funds - These funds invest primarily in stock, although they may hold other types of securities at the manager's discretion. They may also hold some money market securities to provide liquidity for shareredemption. Typical objectives are capital gain, growth, growth andincome, income, and income and security.Bond Funds - These funds specialize in fixed-income securities such as corporate bonds, Treasury bonds, mortgage-backed securities or municipal bonds. These funds may specialize by maturity or credit risk as well.Balanced Funds - These funds may substitute for an investor's entireportfolio. They hold a mix of fixed-income and equity securities. Income funds try to maintain safety of principal but achieve liberal current income, while balanced funds seek to minimize risk.Asset Allocation Funds- These funds also hold both stocks and bonds, but vary the proportions in accord with the portfolio manager's forecast of the relative performance of each sector. These funds are engaged in market timing and are therefore higher risk.Index Funds - These funds try to match the performance of a broad market index. They buy shares in securities included in a particular index in proportion to the security's representation in that index. Index funds are a low-cost way for small investors to pursue a passive investment strategy.Specialized Sector Funds - These funds concentrate on a particularindustry or industries. Held alone, they are not well diversified and may be higher risk.The question is designed to test the student's knowledge of the various types of funds available and their suitability for different needs.59. Discuss the taxation of mutual fund income.Difficulty: DifficultAnswer:Investment returns of mutual funds are granted "pass-through status" under the U.S. tax code, meaning that taxes are paid only by the investor in the mutual fund, not by the fund itself. The income is treated as passed through to the investor as long as all income is distributed toshareholders.Investors will pay taxes at the appropriate rate depending on the type of income. One drawback is that investors cannot time the sale ofsecurities for maximum tax advantage, unless the funds are held intax-deferred retirement accounts.The purpose of the question is to determine whether students understand the tax differences of owning mutual funds as compared to individualinvestments.60. What is an Exchange-traded fund? Give two examples of specific ETFs. Whatare some advantages they have over ordinary open-end mutual funds? What are some disadvantages?Difficulty: DifficultAnswer:ETFs allow investors to trade index portfolios. Some examples are spiders (SPDR), which track the S&P500 index, diamonds (DIA), which track the Dow Jones Industrial Average, and qubes (QQQ), which track the NASDAQ 100 index.Other examples are listed in Table 4-3. (It is anticipated that there may soon be ETFs that track actively managed funds as well ad the current ones that track indexes.)Advantages -1.ETFs may be bought and sold during the trading day at prices that reflectthe current value of the underlying index. This is different fromordinary open-end mutual funds, which are bought or sold only at theend of the day NAV.2.ETFs can be sold short.3.ETFs can be purchased on margin.4.ETFs may have tax advantages. Managers are not forced to sellsecurities from a portfolio to meet redemption demands, as they would be with open-end funds. Small investors simply sell their ETF shares to other traders without affecting the composition of the underlying portfolio. Institutional investors who want to sell their shares receive shares of stock in the underlying portfolio.5.ETFs may be cheaper to buy than mutual funds because they are purchasedfrom brokers. The fund doesn't have to incur the costs of marketing itself, so the investor incurs lower management fees.。
投资学第7版Test Bank答案03

Multiple Choice Questions1. A purchase of a new issue of stock takes placeA) in the secondary market.B) in the primary market.C) usually with the assistance of an investment banker.D) A and B.E) B and C.Answer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: Funds from the sale of new issues flow to the issuing corporation,making this a primary market transaction. Investment bankers usually assist by pricing the issue and finding buyers.2. The following statements regarding the specialist are true:A) Specialists maintain a book listing outstanding unexecuted limit orders.B) Specialists earn income from commissions and spreads in stock prices.C) Specialists stand ready to trade at quoted bid and ask prices.D) Specialists cannot trade in their own accounts.E) A, B, and C are all true.Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The specialists' functions are all of the items listed in A, B, andC. In addition, specialists trade in their own accounts.3. Investment bankersA) act as intermediaries between issuers of stocks and investors.B) act as advisors to companies in helping them analyze their financialneeds and find buyers for newly issued securities.C) accept deposits from savers and lend them out to companies.D) A and B.E) A, B, and C.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The role of the investment banker is to assist the firm in issuing new securities, both in advisory and marketing capacities. Theinvestment banker does not have a role comparable to a commercial bank, as indicated in C.4. In a "firm commitment"A) the investment banker buys the stock from the company and resellsthe issue to the public.B) the investment banker agrees to help the firm sell the stock at afavorable price.C) the investment banker finds the best marketing arrangement for theinvestment banking firm.D) B and C.E) A and B.Answer: A Difficulty: Moderate5. The secondary market consists ofA) transactions on the AMEX.B) transactions in the OTC market.C) transactions through the investment banker.D) A and B.E) A, B, and C.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The secondary market consists of transactions on theorganized exchanges and in the OTC market. The investment banker isinvolved in the placement of new issues in the primary market.6. The use of the Internet to trade and underwrite securitiesA) is illegal under SEC regulations.B) is regulated by the New York Stock Exchange.C) decreases underwriting costs for a new security issue.D) increases underwriting costs for a new security issue.E) is regulated by the National Association of Securities Dealers.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The SEC permits trading and underwriting of securities over the Internet, but has required firms participating in this activity to take steps to safeguard investment funds. This form of underwriting isexpected to grow quickly due to its lower cost.7. Initial margin requirements are determined byA) the Securities and Exchange Commission.B) the Federal Reserve System.C) the New York Stock Exchange.D) B and C.E) A and BAnswer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve Systemdetermines initial margin requirements. The New York Stock Exchange determines maintenance margin requirements on NYSE-listed stocks;however, brokers usually set maintenance margin requirements above those established by the NYSE.8. You purchased XYZ stock at $50 per share. The stock is currently sellingat $65. Your gains may be protected by placing a __________A) stop-buy orderB) limit-buy orderC) market orderD) limit-sell orderE) none of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: With a limit-sell order, your stock will be sold only at aspecified price, or better. Thus, such an order would protect your gains.None of the other orders are applicable to this situation.9. You sold ABC stock short at $80 per share. Your losses could beminimized by placing a __________:A) limit-sell orderB) limit-buy orderC) stop-buy orderD) day-orderE) none of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: With a stop-buy order, the stock would be purchased if the price increased to a specified level, thus limiting your loss. None of the other orders are applicable to this situation.10. Which one of the following statements regarding orders is false?A) A market order is simply an order to buy or sell a stock immediately atthe prevailing market price.B) A limit sell order is where investors specify prices at which they arewilling to sell a security.C) If stock ABC is selling at $50, a limit-buy order may instruct the brokerto buy the stock if and when the share price falls below $45.D) A day order expires at the close of the trading day.E) None of the above.Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: All of the order descriptions above are correct.11. Restrictions on trading involving insider information apply to thefollowing exceptA) corporate officers and directors.B) relatives of corporate directors and officers.C) major stockholders.D) All of the above are subject to insider trading restrictions.E) None of the above is subject to insider trading restrictions.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: A, B, and C are corporate insiders and are subject torestrictions on trading on inside information. Further, the Supreme Court held that traders may not trade on nonpublic information even if they are not insiders.12. The cost of buying and selling a stock consists of __________.A) broker's commissionsB) dealer's bid-asked spreadC) a price concession an investor may be forced to make.D) A and B.E) A, B, and C.Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: All of the above are possible costs of buying and selling a stock.13. Assume you purchased 200 shares of XYZ common stock on margin at$70 per share from your broker. If the initial margin is 55%, how much did you borrow from the broker?A) $6,000B) $4,000C) $7,700D) $7,000E) $6,300Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 200 shares * $70/share * = $14,000 * = $6,300.14. You sold short 200 shares of common stock at $60 per share. The initialmargin is 60%. Your initial investment wasA) $4,800.B) $12,000.C) $5,600.D) $7,200.E) none of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 200 shares * $60/share * = $12,000 * = $7,20015. You purchased 100 shares of ABC common stock on margin at $70 pershare. Assume the initial margin is 50% and the maintenance margin is 30%. Below what stock price level would you get a margin call? Assume the stock pays no dividend; ignore interest on margin.A) $21B) $50C) $49D) $80E) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: DifficultRationale: 100 shares * $70 * .5 = $7,000 * = $3,500 (loan amount); = (100P - $3,500)/100P; 30P = 100P - $3,500; -70P = -$3,500; P = $50.16. You purchased 100 shares of common stock on margin at $45 per share.Assume the initial margin is 50% and the stock pays no dividend. What would the maintenance margin be if a margin call is made at a stock price of $30? Ignore interest on margin.A)B)C)D)E)Answer: E Difficulty: DifficultRationale: 100 shares * $45/share * = $4,500 * = $2,250 (loan amount); X = [100($30) - $2,250]/100($30); X = .17. You purchased 300 shares of common stock on margin for $60 per share.The initial margin is 60% and the stock pays no dividend. What would your rate of return be if you sell the stock at $45 per share? Ignoreinterest on margin.A) 25%B) -33%C) 44%D) -42%E) –54%Answer: D Difficulty: DifficultRationale: 300($60) = $10,800 investment; 300($60) = $18,000 X =$7,200 loan; Proceeds after selling stock and repaying loan: $13,500 -$7,200 = $6,300; Return = ($6,300 - $10,800)/$10,800 = - %.18. Assume you sell short 100 shares of common stock at $45 per share, withinitial margin at 50%. What would be your rate of return if yourepurchase the stock at $40/share? The stock paid no dividends during the period, and you did not remove any money from the account before making the offsetting transaction.A) 20%B) 25%C) 22%D) 77%E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Profit on stock = ($45 - $40) * 100 = $500, $500/$2,250 (initial investment) = %.19. You sold short 300 shares of common stock at $55 per share. The initialmargin is 60%. At what stock price would you receive a margin call if the maintenance margin is 35%?A) $51B) $65C) $35D) $40E) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: DifficultRationale: Equity = 300($55) * = $26,400; = ($26,400 - 300P)/300P; 105P = 26,400 - 300P; 405P = 26,400; P = $20. Assume you sold short 100 shares of common stock at $50 per share.The initial margin is 60%. What would be the maintenance margin if a margin call is made at a stock price of $60?A) 40%B) 33%C) 35%D) 25%E) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: DifficultRationale: $5,000 X = $8,000; [$8,000 - 100($60)]/100($60) = 33%.21. Specialists on stock exchanges perform the following functionsA) Act as dealers in their own accounts.B) Analyze the securities in which they specialize.C) Provide liquidity to the market.D) A and B.E) A and C.Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Specialists are both brokers and dealers and provide liquidity to the market; they are not analysts.22. Shares for short transactionsA) are usually borrowed from other brokers.B) are typically shares held by the short seller's broker in street name.C) are borrowed from commercial banks.D) B and C.E) none of the above.Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Typically, the only source of shares for short transactions is those held by the short seller's broker in street name; often these aremargined shares.23. Which of the following orders is most useful to short sellers who want tolimit their potential losses?A) Limit orderB) Discretionary orderC) Limit-loss orderD) Stop-buy orderE) None of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: By issuing a stop-buy order, the short seller can limit potentiallosses by assuring that the stock will be purchased (and the short position closed) if the price increases to a certain level.24. Shelf registrationA) is a way of placing issues in the primary market.B) allows firms to register securities for sale over a two-year period.C) increases transaction costs to the issuing firm.D) A and B.E) A and C.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: Shelf registration lowers transactions costs to the firm as the firm may register issues for a longer period than in the past, and thusrequires the services of the investment banker less frequently.25. NASDAQ subscriber levelsA) permit those with the highest level, 3, to "make a market" in thesecurity.B) permit those with a level 2 subscription to receive all bid and askquotes, but not to enter their own quotes.C) permit level 1 subscribers to receive general information about prices.D) include all OTC stocks.E) A, B, and C.Answer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: NASDAQ links dealers in a loosely organized network withdifferent levels of access to meet different needs.26. You want to buy 100 shares of Hotstock Inc. at the best possible price asquickly as possible. You would most likely place aA) stop-loss orderB) stop-buy orderC) market orderD) limit-sell orderE) limit-buy orderAnswer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: A market order is for immediate execution at the best possible price.27. You want to purchase XYZ stock at $60 from your broker using as little ofyour own money as possible. If initial margin is 50% and you have $3000 to invest, how many shares can you buy?A) 100 sharesB) 200 sharesC) 50 sharesD) 500 sharesE) 25 sharesAnswer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: .5 = [(Q * $60)-$3,000] / (Q * $60); $30Q = $60Q-$3,000; $30Q = $3,000; Q=100.28. A sale by IBM of new stock to the public would be a(n)A) short sale.B) seasoned new issue offering.C) private placement.D) secondary market transaction.E) initial public offering.Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: When a firm whose stock already trades in the secondarymarket issues new shares to the public this is referred to as a seasoned new issue.29. The finalized registration statement for new securities approved by theSEC is calledA) a red herringB) the preliminary statementC) the prospectusD) a best-efforts agreementE) a firm commitmentAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The prospectus is the finalized registration statementapproved by the SEC.30. The minimum market value required for an initial listing on the New YorkStock Exchange isA) $2,000,000B) $2,500,000C) $1,100,000D) $60,000,000E) 100,000,000Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: See Table .31. In 2005, the price of a seat on the NYSE reached a high ofA) $1,000,000B) $4,000,000C) $1,750,000D) $2,225,000E) $3,000,000Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: See Table .32. The floor broker is best described asA) an independent member of the exchange who owns a seat andhandles overload work for commission brokers.B) someone who makes a market in one or more securities.C) a representative of a brokerage firm who is on the floor of theexchange to execute trade.D) a frequent trader who performs no public function but executestrades for himself.E) any counter party to a trade executed on the floor of the exchange.Answer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: The floor broker is an independent member of the exchange who handles work for commission brokers when they have too manyorders to handle.33. You sell short 100 shares of Loser Co. at a market price of $45 per share.Your maximum possible loss isA) $4500B) unlimitedC) zeroD) $9000E) cannot tell from the information givenAnswer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: A short seller loses money when the stock price rises. Since there is no upper limit on the stock price, the maximum theoretical loss is unlimited.34. You buy 300 shares of Qualitycorp for $30 per share and deposit initialmargin of 50%. The next day Qualitycorp's price drops to $25 per share.What is your actual margin?A) 50%B) 40%C) 33%D) 60%E) 25%Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: AM = [300 ($25) - .5 (300) ($30) ] / [300 ($25)] = .4035. When a firm markets new securities, a preliminary registration statementmust be filed withA) the exchange on which the security will be listed.B) the Securities and Exchange Commission.C) the Federal Reserve.D) all other companies in the same line of business.E) the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.Answer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: The SEC requires the registration statement and must approve it before the issue can take place.36. In a typical underwriting arrangement the investment banking firmI)sells shares to the public via an underwriting syndicate.II)purchases the securities from the issuing company.III)assumes the full risk that the shares may not be sold at the offering price.IV)agrees to help the firm sell the issue to the public but does not actually purchase the securities.A) I, II, and IIIB) I, III, and IVC) I and IVD) II and IIIE) I and IIAnswer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: A typical underwriting arrangement is made on a firmcommitment basis.37. Which of the following is true regarding private placements of primarysecurity offerings?A) Extensive and costly registration statements are required by the SEC.B) For very large issues, they are better suited than public offerings.C) They trade in secondary markets.D) The shares are sold directly to a small group of institutional or wealthyinvestors.E) They have greater liquidity than public offerings.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Firms can save on registration costs, but the result is that the securities cannot trade in the secondary markets and therefore are less liquid. Public offerings are better suited for very large issues.38. A specialist on the AMEX Stock Exchange is offering to buy a security for$. A broker in Oklahoma City wants to sell the security for his client. The Intermarket Trading System shows a bid price of $ on the NYSE. What should the broker do?A) Route the order to the AMEX Stock Exchange.B) Route the order to the NYSE.C) Call the client to see if she has a preference.D) Route half of the order to AMEX and the other half to the NYSE.E) It doesn't matter - he should flip a coin and go with it.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: The broker should try to obtain the best price for his client.Since the client wants to sell shares and the bid price is higher on theAMEX, he should route the order there.39. You sold short 100 shares of common stock at $45 per share. The initialmargin is 50%. Your initial investment wasA) $4,800.B) $12,000.C) $2,250.D) $7,200.E) none of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 100 shares * $45/share * = $4,500 * = $2,25040. You sold short 150 shares of common stock at $27 per share. The initialmargin is 45%. Your initial investment wasA) $4,.B) $12,.C) $2,.D) $1,.E) none of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 150 shares * $27/share * = $4,050 * = $1,41. You purchased 100 shares of XON common stock on margin at $60 pershare. Assume the initial margin is 50% and the maintenance margin is 30%. Below what stock price level would you get a margin call? Assume the stock pays no dividend; ignore interest on margin.A) $B) $C) $D) $E) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: DifficultRationale: 100 shares * $60 * .5 = $6,000 * = $3,000 (loan amount); = (100P - $3,000)/100P; 30P = 100P - $3,000; -70P = -$3,000; P = $42. You purchased 1000 shares of CSCO common stock on margin at $19 pershare. Assume the initial margin is 50% and the maintenance margin is 30%. Below what stock price level would you get a margin call? Assume the stock pays no dividend; ignore interest on marginA) $B) $C) $D) $E) none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: DifficultRationale: 1000 shares * $19 * .5 = $19,000 * = $9,500 (loan amount); = (1000P - $9,500)/1000P; 300P = 1000P - $9,500; -700P = -$9,500; P = $ 43. You purchased 100 shares of common stock on margin at $40 per share.Assume the initial margin is 50% and the stock pays no dividend. What would the maintenance margin be if a margin call is made at a stock price of $25? Ignore interest on margin.A)B)C)D)E)Answer: C Difficulty: DifficultRationale: 100 shares * $40/share * = $4,000 * = $2,000 (loan amount); X = [100($25) - $2,000]/100($25); X = .44. You purchased 1000 shares of common stock on margin at $30 per share.Assume the initial margin is 50% and the stock pays no dividend. What would the maintenance margin be if a margin call is made at a stock price of $24? Ignore interest on margin.A)B)C)D)E)Answer: B Difficulty: DifficultRationale: 1000 shares * $30/share * = $30,000 * = $15,000 (loanamount); X = [1000($24) - $15,000]/1000($24); X = .45. You purchased 100 shares of common stock on margin for $50 per share.The initial margin is 50% and the stock pays no dividend. What would your rate of return be if you sell the stock at $56 per share? Ignoreinterest on margin.A) 28%B) 33%C) 14%D) 42%E) 24%Answer: E Difficulty: DifficultRationale: 100($50) = $2,500 investment; gain on stock sale =(56-50)(100) = $600; Return = ($600/$2,500) = 24%.46. You purchased 100 shares of common stock on margin for $35 per share.The initial margin is 50% and the stock pays no dividend. What would your rate of return be if you sell the stock at $42 per share? Ignoreinterest on margin.A) 28%B) 33%C) 14%D) 40%E) 24%Answer: D Difficulty: DifficultRationale: 100($35) = $1,750 investment; gain on stock sale =(42-35)(100) = $700; Return = ($700/$1,750) = 40%.47. Assume you sell short 1000 shares of common stock at $35 per share,with initial margin at 50%. What would be your rate of return if yourepurchase the stock at $25/share? The stock paid no dividends during the period, and you did not remove any money from the account before making the offsetting transaction.A) %B) %C) %D) %E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Profit on stock = ($35 - $25)(1,000) = $10,000; initialinvestment = ($35)(1,000)(.5) = $17,500; return =$10,000/$17,500 = %.48. Assume you sell short 100 shares of common stock at $30 per share, withinitial margin at 50%. What would be your rate of return if yourepurchase the stock at $35/share? The stock paid no dividends during the period, and you did not remove any money from the account before making the offsetting transaction.A) %B) %C) %D) %E) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Profit on stock = ($30 - $35)(100) = -500; initial investment = ($30)(100)(.5) = $1,500; return =$-500/$1,500 = %.49. You want to purchase GM stock at $40 from your broker using as little ofyour own money as possible. If initial margin is 50% and you have $4000 to invest, how many shares can you buy?A) 100 sharesB) 200 sharesC) 50 sharesD) 500 sharesE) 25 sharesAnswer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: you can buy ($4000/$40) = 100 shares outright and you can borrow $4,000 to buy another 100 shares.50. You want to purchase IBM stock at $80 from your broker using as little ofyour own money as possible. If initial margin is 50% and you have $2000 to invest, how many shares can you buy?A) 100 sharesB) 200 sharesC) 50 sharesD) 500 sharesE) 25 sharesAnswer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: You can buy ($2000/$80) = 25 shares outright and you canborrow $2,000 to buy another 25 shares.51. Assume you sold short 100 shares of common stock at $40 per share.The initial margin is 50%. What would be the maintenance margin if a margin call is made at a stock price of $50?A) 40%B) 20%C) 35%D) 25%E) none of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: DifficultRationale: $4,000 X = $6,000; [$6,000 - 100($50)]/100($50) = 20%. 52. Assume you sold short 100 shares of common stock at $70 per share.The initial margin is 50%. What would be the maintenance margin if a margin call is made at a stock price of $85?A) %B) %C) %D) %E) none of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: DifficultRationale: $7,000 X = $10,500; [$10,500 - 100($85)]/100($85) = %.53. You sold short 100 shares of common stock at $45 per share. The initialmargin is 50%. At what stock price would you receive a margin call if the maintenance margin is 35%?A) $50B) $65C) $35D) $40E) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: DifficultRationale: Equity = 100($45) * = $6,750; = ($6,750 - 100P)/100P; 35P = 6,750 - 100P; 135P = 6,750; P = $54. You sold short 100 shares of common stock at $75 per share. The initialmargin is 50%. At what stock price would you receive a margin call if the maintenance margin is 30%?A) $B) $C) $D) $E) none of the aboveAnswer: C Difficulty: DifficultRationale: Equity = 100($75) * = $11,250; = ($11,250 - 100P)/100P; 30P = 11,250 - 100P; 130P = 11,250; P = $55. IPO average first-day returns are largest in ____________.A) The United StatesB) DenmarkC) JapanD) ChinaE) FranceAnswer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: See Figure .56. Despite large first-day IPO returns, average first-year returns in the USare approximately ____________ percent.A)B)C)D)E)Answer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: See Figure .57. Average second-year IPO returns in the US are approximately ____________percent.A)B)C)D)E)Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: See Figure .58. Average third-year IPO returns in the US are approximately ____________percent.A)B)C)D)E)Answer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: See Figure .59. The advertisement by the underwriting syndicate to announce an newsecurity issue is referred to as the ____________.A) red herringB) preliminary prospectusC) prospectusD) tombstoneE) headstoneAnswer: D Difficulty: Easy60. The preliminary prospectus is referred to as a ____________.A) red herringB) indentureC) green mailD) tombstoneE) headstoneAnswer: A Difficulty: Easy61. The minimum revenue required for an initial listing on the New YorkStock Exchange isA) $2,000,000B) $25,000,000C) $50,000,000D) $75,000,000E) 100,000,000Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: See Table .62. The annual dollar volume of trading on the NYSE in 2004 wasapproximately ____________ dollars.A) 12 trillionB) 4 trillionC) 12 billionD) 4 billionE) none of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: See Figure .63. The ____________ had the largest trading volume of securities in 2004.A) NASDAQB) NYSEC) LondonD) TokyoE) Hong KongAnswer: B Difficulty: EasyRationale: See Figure .64. The securities act of 1933 ____________.I)requires full disclosure of relevant information relating to the issueof new securitiesII)requires registration of new securitiesIII)requires issuance of a prospectus detailing financial prospects of the firmIV)established the SECV)requires periodic disclosure of relevant financial informationVI)empowers SEC to regulate exchanges, OTC trading, brokers, and dealersA) I, II and IIIB) I, II, III, IV, V, and VIC) I, II and VD) I, II and IVE) IV onlyAnswer: A Difficulty: Easy65. The securities act of 1934 ____________.I)requires full disclosure of relevant information relating to the issueofnew securitiesII)requires registration of new securitiesIII)requires issuance of a prospectus detailing financial prospects of the firmIV)established the SECV)requires periodic disclosure of relevant financial informationVI)empowers SEC to regulate exchanges, OTC trading, brokers, and dealersA) I, II and IIIB) I, II, III, IV, V, and VIC) I, II and VD) I, II and IVE) IV, V, and VIAnswer: E Difficulty: Easy66. Which of the following is not required under the CFA Institute standardsof professional conduct?A) knowledge of all applicable laws, rules and regulationsB) disclosure of all personal investments whether or not they mayconflict with a client's investmentsC) disclosure of all conflicts to clients and prospectsD) reasonable inquiry into a client's financial situationE) All of the above are required under the CFA Institute standards.Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: See text box page 87. Personal investments need not bedisclosed unless they are in potential or actual conflict.67. According to the CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct, CFAInstitute members have responsibilities to all of the following except:A) the governmentB) the professionC) the publicD) the employerE) clients and prospective clientsAnswer: A Difficulty: Moderate。
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Multiple Choice Questions1. Which one of the following statements regarding open-end mutual funds isfalse?A) The funds redeem shares at net asset value.B) The funds offer investors professional management.C) The funds offer investors a guaranteed rate of return.D) B and C.E) A and B.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: No investment offers a guaranteed rate of return.2. Which one of the following statements regarding closed-end mutual fundsis false?A) The funds always trade at a discount from NAV.B) The funds redeem shares at their net asset value.C) The funds offer investors professional management.D) A and B.E) None of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Closed-end funds are sold at the prevailing market price.3. Which of the following functions do mutual fund companies perform for theirinvestors?A) Record keeping and administrationB) Diversification and divisibilityC) Professional managementD) Lower transaction costsE) All of the above.Answer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: Mutual funds are attractive to investors because they offer all of the listed services.4. Multiple Mutual Funds had year-end assets of $457,000,000 and liabilitiesof $17,000,000. There were 24,300,000 shares in the fund at year-end.What was Multiple Mutual's Net Asset Value?A) $18.11B) $18.81C) $69.96D) $7.00E) $181.07Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: (457,000,000 - 17,000,000) / 24,300,000 = $18.115. Growth Fund had year-end assets of $862,000,000 and liabilities of$12,000,000. There were 32,675,254 shares in the fund at year-end. What was Growth Fund's Net Asset Value?A) $28.17B) $25.24C) $19.62D) $26.01E) $21.56Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: (862,000,000 - 12,000,000) / 32,675,254 = $26.016. Diversified Portfolios had year-end assets of $279,000,000 andliabilities of $43,000,000. If Diversified's NAV was $42.13, how many shares must have been held in the fund?A) 43,000,000B) 6,488,372C) 5,601,709D) 1,182,203E) None of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: ($279,000,000 - 43,000,000) / $42.13 = 5,601,708.996.7. Pinnacle Fund had year-end assets of $825,000,000 and liabilities of$25,000,000. If Pinnacle's NAV was $32.18, how many shares must have been held in the fund?A) 21,619,346,92B) 22,930,546.28C) 24,860,161.59D) 25,693,645.25E) None of the above.Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: ($825,000,000 - 25,000,000) / $32.18 = 24,860,161.59.8. Most actively managed mutual funds, when compared to a market index suchas the Wilshire 5000,A) beat the market return in all years.B) beat the market return in most years.C) exceed the return on index funds.D) do not outperform the marketE) None of the above is a correct statement.Answer: D Difficulty: EasyRationale: Most actively managed mutual funds fail to equal the return earned by index funds, possibly due to higher transactions costs.9. Pools of money invested in a portfolio that is fixed for the life of thefund are calledA) closed-end funds.B) open-end funds.C) unit investment trusts.D) REITS.E) redeemable trust certificates.Answer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: Unit investment trusts are funds that invest in a portfolio, often fixed-income securities, and hold it to maturity.10. Investors in closed-end funds who wish to liquidate their positions mustA) sell their shares through a broker.B) sell their shares to the issuer at a discount to Net Asset Value.C) sell their shares to the issuer at a premium to Net Asset Value.D) sell their shares to the issuer for Net Asset Value.E) hold their shares to maturity.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Closed-end fund shares are sold on organized exchanges through a broker.11. Closed end funds are frequently issued at a ______ to NAV and subsequentlytrade at a __________ to NAV.A) discount, discountB) discount, premiumC) premium, premiumD) premium, discountE) No consistent relationship has been observed.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Closed-end funds are typically issued at a premium to Net Asset Value and subsequently trade at a discount.12. At issue, offering prices of open-end funds will often beA) less than NAV due to loads and commissions.B) greater than NAV due to loads and commissions.C) less than NAV due to limited demand.D) greater than NAV due to excess demand.E) less than or greater than NAV with no apparent pattern.Answer: B Difficulty: DifficultRationale: Open-end funds are redeemable on demand at NAV so they should never sell for less than NAV. However, loads and commissions can increase the price above NAV.13. Which of the following statements about Real Estate Investment Trusts istrue?A) REITS invest in real estate or loans secured by real estate.B) REITS raise capital by borrowing from banks and issuing mortgages.C) REITS are similar to open-end funds, with shares redeemable at NAV.D) All of the above are true.E) Both A and B are true.Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: Real Estate Investment Trusts invest in real estate orreal-estate-secured loans. They may raise capital from banks and by issuing mortgages. They are similar to closed-end funds and shares are typically exchange traded.14. In 2004 the proportion of mutual funds specializing in common stocks wasA) 21.7%B) 28.0%C) 54.1%D) 73.4%E) 63.5%Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: See Table 4.1.15. In 2004 the proportion of mutual funds specializing in bonds wasA) 15.9%B) 28.0%C) 54.1%D) 73.4%E) 63.5%Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: See Table 4.1.16. In 2004 the proportion of mutual funds specializing in money marketsecurities wasA) 21.7%B) 28.0%C) 54.1%D) 73.4%E) 23.6%Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: See Table 4.1.17. Management fees and other expenses of mutual funds may includeA) front-end loads.B) back-end loads.C) 12b-1 charges.D) A and B only.E) A, B and C.Answer: E Difficulty: EasyRationale: All of the listed expenses may be included in the cost of owning a mutual fund.18. The Profitability Fund had NAV per share of $17.50 on January 1, 2005.On December 31 of the same year the fund's NAV was $19.47. Incomedistributions were $0.75 and the fund had capital gain distributions of $1.00. Without considering taxes and transactions costs, what rate of return did an investor receive on the Profitability fund last year?A) 11.26%B) 15.54%C) 16.97%D) 21.26%E) 9.83%Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: R = ($19.47 - 17.50 + .75 + 1.00) / $17.50 = 21.26%19. The Yachtsman Fund had NAV per share of $36.12 on January 1, 2005. OnDecember 31 of the same year the fund's NAV was $39.71. Incomedistributions were $0.64 and the fund had capital gain distributions of $1.13. Without considering taxes and transactions costs, what rate of return did an investor receive on the Yachtsman Fund last year?A) 22.92%B) 17.68%C) 14.39%D) 18.52%E) 14.84%Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: R = ($39.71 - 36.12 + .64 + 1.13) / $36.12 = 14.84%20. Investors' Choice Fund had NAV per share of $37.25 on January 1, 2005.On December 31 of the same year the fund's rate of return for the year was 17.3%. Income distributions were $1.14 and the fund had capital gain distributions of $1.35. Without considering taxes and transactions costs, what ending NAV would you calculate for Investors' Choice?A) $41.20B) $33.88C) $43.69D) $42.03E) $46.62Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: .173 = (P - $37.25 + 1.14 + 1.35) / $37.25; P = $41.2021. Which of the following is not an advantage of mutual funds?A) They offer a variety of investment styles.B) They offer small investors the benefits of diversification.C) They treat income as "passed through" to the investor for tax purposes.D) A, B and C are all advantages of mutual funds.E) Neither A nor B nor C are advantages of mutual funds.Answer: C Difficulty: EasyRationale: A disadvantage of mutual funds is that investment income is passed through for tax purposes and investors may therefore lose the ability to engage in tax management.22. Which of the following would increase the net asset value of a mutual fundshare, assuming all other things remain unchanged?A) an increase in the number of fund shares outstandingB) an increase in the fund's accounts payableC) a change in the fund's managementD) an increase in the value of one of the fund's stocksE) a decrease in the fund's 12b-1 feeAnswer: D Difficulty: Easy23. Which of the following characteristics apply to unit investment trusts?I)Most are invested in fixed-income portfolios.II)They are actively managed portfolios.III)The sponsor pools securities, then sells public shares in the trust.IV)The portfolio is fixed for the life of the fund.A) I and IVB) I and IIC) I, III, and IVD) I, II, and IIIE) I, II, III, and IVAnswer: C Difficulty: Moderate24. Jargon Rapid Growth is a mutual fund that has traditionally accepted fundsfrom new investors and issued new shares at net asset value. Jeremy Jargon manages the fund himself and has become concerned that its level of assets has become too high for his management abilities. He issues a statement that Jargon will no longer accept funds from new investors, but will continue to accept additional investments from current shareholders.Which of the following is true about Jargon Rapid Growth fund?A) Jargon used to be an open-end fund but has now become a closed-end fund.B) Jargon has always been an open-end fund and will remain an open-endfund.C) Jargon has always been a closed-end fund and will remain a closed-endfund.D) Jargon is an open-end fund but would change to a closed-end fund ifit wouldn't accept additional funds from current investors.E) Jargon is violating SEC policy by refusing to accept new investors.Answer: B Difficulty: Moderate25. As of December 31, 2004, which class of mutual funds had the largest amountof assets invested?A) stock fundsB) bond fundsC) mixed asset classes such as asset allocation fundsD) money market fundsE) global fundsAnswer: A Difficulty: EasyRationale: See Table 4.1.26. Commingled funds areA) amounts invested in equity and fixed-income mutual funds.B) funds that may be purchased at intervals of 3, 6, or 12 month intervalsat the discretion of management.C) amounts invested in domestic and global equities.D) closed-end funds that may be repurchased only once every two years atthe discretion of mutual fund management.E) partnerships of investors that pool their funds, which are then managedfor a fee.Answer: E Difficulty: Easy27. Which of the following is true regarding equity mutual funds?I)They invest primarily in stock.II)They may hold fixed-income securities as well as stock.III)Most hold money market securities as well as stock.IV)Two types of equity funds are income funds and growth funds.A) I and IVB) I, III, and IVC) I, II, and IVD) I, II, and IIIE) I, II, III, and IVAnswer: E Difficulty: Moderate28. The fee that mutual funds use to help pay for advertising and promotionalliterature is called aA) front-end load fee.B) back-end load fee.C) operating expense fee.D) 12b-1 fee.E) structured fee.Answer: D Difficulty: Easy29. Patty O'Furniture purchased 100 shares of Green Isle mutual fund at a netasset value of $42 per share. During the year Patty received dividend income distributions of $2.00 per share and capital gains distributions of $4.30 per share. At the end of the year the shares had a net asset value of $40 per share. What was Patty's rate of return on this investment?A) 5.43%B) 10.24%C) 7.19%D) 12.44%E) 9.18%Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: R = ($40-42+2+4.3)/$42 = 10.238%30. Assume that you purchased 200 shares of Super Performing mutual fund ata net asset value of $21 per share. During the year you received dividendincome distributions of $1.50 per share and capital gains distributions of $2.85 per share. At the end of the year the shares had a net asset value of $23 per share. What was your rate of return on this investment?A) 30.24%B) 25.37%C) 27.19%D) 22.44%E) 29.18%Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: R = ($23-21+1.5+2.85)/$21 = 30.238%31. Assume that you purchased shares of High Flying mutual fund at a net assetvalue of $12.50 per share. During the year you received dividend income distributions of $0.78 per share and capital gains distributions of $1.67 per share. At the end of the year the shares had a net asset value of $13.87 per share. What was your rate of return on this investment?A) 29.43%B) 30.56%C) 31.19%D) 32.44%E) 29.18%Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: R = ($13.87-12.50+0.78+1.67)/$12.50 = 30.56%32. Assume that you purchased shares of a mutual fund at a net asset valueof $14.50 per share. During the year you received dividend incomedistributions of $0.27 per share and capital gains distributions of $0.65 per share. At the end of the year the shares had a net asset value of $13.74 per share. What was your rate of return on this investment?A) 2.91%B) 3.07%C) 1.10%D) 1.78%E) -1.18%Answer: C Difficulty: ModerateRationale: R = ($13.74-14.50+0.27+0.65)/$14.50 = 1.103%33. Assume that you purchased shares of a mutual fund at a net asset valueof $10.00 per share. During the year you received dividend incomedistributions of $0.05 per share and capital gains distributions of $0.06 per share. At the end of the year the shares had a net asset value of $8.16 per share. What was your rate of return on this investment?A) -18.24%B) -16.1%C) 16.10%D) -17.3%E) 17.3%Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: R = ($8.16-10.00+0.05+0.06)/$10.00 = -17.3%34. A mutual fund had year-end assets of $560,000,000 and liabilities of$26,000,000. There were 23,850,000 shares in the fund at year end. What was the mutual fund's Net Asset Value?A) $22.87B) $22.39C) $22.24D) $17.61E) $19.25Answer: B Difficulty: ModerateRationale: (560,000,000 - 26,000,000) / 23,850,000 = $22.38935. A mutual fund had year-end assets of $250,000,000 and liabilities of$4,000,000. There were 3,750,000 shares in the fund at year-end. What was the mutual fund's Net Asset Value?A) $92.53B) $67.39C) $63.24D) $65.60E) $17.46Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: (250,000,000 - 4,000,000) / 3,750,000 = $65.6036. A mutual fund had year-end assets of $700,000,000 and liabilities of$7,000,000. There were 40,150,000 shares in the fund at year-end. What was the mutual fund's Net Asset Value?A) $9.63B) $57.71C) $16.42D) $17.87E) $17.26Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: (700,000,000 - 7,000,000) / 40,150,000 = $17.2637. A mutual fund had year-end assets of $465,000,000 and liabilities of$37,000,000. If the fund NAV was $56.12, how many shares must have been held in the fund?A) 4,300,000B) 6,488,372C) 8,601,709D) 7,626,515E) None of the above.Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: ($465,000,000 - 37,000,000) / $56.12 = 7,626,515.38. A mutual fund had year-end assets of $521,000,000 and liabilities of$63,000,000. If the fund NAV was $26.12, how many shares must have been held in the fund?A) 17,534,456B) 16,488,372C) 18,601,742D) 17,542,515E) None of the above.Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: ($521,000,000 - 63,000,000) / $26.12 = 17,534,456.39. A mutual fund had year-end assets of $327,000,000 and liabilities of$46,000,000. If the fund NAV was $30.48, how many shares must have been held in the fund?A) 11,354,751B) 8,412,642C) 10,165,476D) 9,165,414E) 9,219,160Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: ($327,000,000 - 46,000,000) / $30.48 = 9,219,160.40. A mutual fund had NAV per share of $19.00 on January 1, 2005. On December31 of the same year the fund's NAV was $19.14. Income distributions were$0.57 and the fund had capital gain distributions of $1.12. Without considering taxes and transactions costs, what rate of return did an investor receive on the fund last year?A) 11.26%B) 10.54%C) 7.97%D) 8.26%E) 9.63%Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: R = ($19.14 - 19.00 + .57 + 1.12) / $19.00 = 9.63%41. A mutual fund had NAV per share of $26.25 on January 1, 2005. On December31 of the same year the fund's rate of return for the year was 16.4%. Incomedistributions were $1.27 and the fund had capital gain distributions of $1.85. Without considering taxes and transactions costs, what ending NAV would you calculate?A) $27.44B) $33.88C) $24.69D) $42.03E) $16.62Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: .164 = (P - $26.25 + 1.27 + 1.85) / $26.25; P = $27.43542. A mutual fund had NAV per share of $16.75 on January 1, 2005. On December31 of the same year the fund's rate of return for the year was 26.6%. Incomedistributions were $1.79 and the fund had capital gain distributions of $2.80. Without considering taxes and transactions costs, what ending NAV would you calculate?A) $17.44B) $13.28C) $14.96D) $17.25E) $16.62Answer: E Difficulty: ModerateRationale: .266 = (P - $16.75 + 1.79 + 2.80) / $16.75; P = $16.61543. A mutual fund had NAV per share of $36.15 on January 1, 2005. On December31 of the same year the fund's rate of return for the year was 14.0%. Incomedistributions were $1.16 and the fund had capital gain distributions of $2.12. Without considering taxes and transactions costs, what ending NAV would you calculate?A) $37.93B) $34.52C) $44.69D) $47.25E) $36.28Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: .14 = (P - $36.15 + 1.16 + 2.12) / $36.15; P = $37.93144. Differences between hedge funds and mutual funds are thatA) hedge funds are only subject to minimal SEC regulation.B) hedge funds are typically open only to wealthy or institutionalinvestors.C) hedge funds managers can pursue strategies not available to mutualfunds such as short selling, heavy use of derivatives, and leverage.D) hedge funds attempt to exploit temporary misalignments in securityvaluations.E) all of the aboveAnswer: E Difficulty: Moderate45. Of the following types of mutual funds, an investor that wishes to investin a diversified portfolio of stocks worldwide (including the U.S.) should chooseA) international funds.B) global funds.C) regional funds.D) emerging market funds.E) none of the above.Answer: B Difficulty: Moderate46. Of the following types of mutual funds, an investor that wishes to investin a diversified portfolio of foreign stocks (excluding the U.S.) should chooseA) International fundsB) Global fundsC) Regional fundsD) Emerging market fundsE) None of the aboveAnswer: A Difficulty: Moderate47. Of the following types of EFTs, an investor that wishes to invest in adiversified portfolio that tracks the S&P 500 should chooseA) SPY.B) DIA.C) QQQ.D) IWM.E) VTI.Answer: A Difficulty: Moderate48. Of the following types of EFTs, an investor that wishes to invest in adiversified portfolio that tracks the Dow Jones Industrials should chooseA) SPY.B) DIA.C) QQQ.D) IWM.E) VTI.Answer: B Difficulty: Moderate49. Of the following types of EFTs, an investor that wishes to invest in adiversified portfolio that tracks the Nasdaq 100 should chooseA) SPY.B) DIA.C) QQQ.D) IWM.E) VTI.Answer: C Difficulty: Moderate50. Of the following types of EFTs, an investor that wishes to invest in adiversified portfolio that tracks the Russell 2000 should chooseA) SPY.B) DIA.C) QQQ.D) IWM.E) VTI.Answer: D Difficulty: Moderate51. Of the following types of EFTs, an investor that wishes to invest in adiversified portfolio that tracks the Wilshire 5000 should chooseA) SPY.B) DIA.C) QQQ.D) IWM.E) VTI.Answer: E Difficulty: Moderate52. A mutual funds had average daily assets of $3.0 billion in 2005. The fundsold $600 million worth of stock and purchased $700 million worth of stock during the year. The funds turnover ratio is ___.A) 27.5%B) 12%C) 15%D) 25%E) 20%Answer: E Difficulty: Moderate Rationale: 600,000,000 / 3,000,000,000 = 20%53. A mutual funds had average daily assets of $2.0 billion on 2005. The fundsold $500 million worth of stock and purchased $600 million worth of stock during the year. The funds turnover ratio is ___.A) 27.5%B) 12%C) 15%D) 25%E) 20%Answer: D Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 500,000,000 / 2,000,000,000 = 25%54. A mutual funds had average daily assets of $4.0 billion on 2005. The fundsold $1.5 billion worth of stock and purchased $1.6 billion worth of stock during the year. The funds turnover ratio is ____________.A) 37.5%B) 22%C) 15%D) 45%E) 20%Answer: A Difficulty: ModerateRationale: 1,500,000,000 / 4,000,000,000 = 37.5%55. You purchased shares of a mutual fund at a price of $20 per share at thebeginning of the year and paid a front-end load of 5.75%. If the securities in which the find invested increased in value by 11% during the year, and the funds expense ratio was 1.25%, your return if you sold the fund at the end of the year would be ____________.A) 4.33B) 3.44C) 2.45D) 6.87E) None of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: DifficultRationale: {[$20 * .9425*(1.11-.0125)]-$20} / $20 = 3.44%56. You purchased shares of a mutual fund at a price of $12 per share at thebeginning of the year and paid a front-end load of 4.75%. If the securities in which the fund invested increased in value by 9% during the year, and the funds expense ratio was 1.5%, your return if you sold the fund at the end of the year would be ____________.A) 4.75B) 3.54C) 2.65D) 2.39E) None of the aboveAnswer: D Difficulty: DifficultRationale: {[$12 * .9525*(1.09-.015)]-$12} / $12 = 2.39%57. You purchased shares of a mutual fund at a price of $17 per share at thebeginning of the year and paid a front-end load of 5.0%. If the securities in which the find invested increased in value by 12% during the year, and the funds expense ratio was 1.0%, your return if you sold the fund at the end of the year would be ____________.A) 4.75B) 5.45C) 5.65D) 4.39E) None of the aboveAnswer: B Difficulty: DifficultRationale: {[$17 * .95*(1.12-.01)]-$17} / $17 = 5.45%Essay Questions58. List and describe the more important types of mutual funds according totheir investment policy and use.Difficulty: ModerateAnswer:Some of the more important fund types, classified by investment policy, are:Money Market Funds - These funds invest in money market securities. They usually offer check-writing features and NAV is fixed at $1 per share, so that there are no tax implications associated with redemption of shares.They provide low risk, relatively low return and high liquidity.Equity Funds - These funds invest primarily in stock, although they may hold other types of securities at the manager's discretion. They may also hold some money market securities to provide liquidity for shareredemption. Typical objectives are capital gain, growth, growth andincome, income, and income and security.Bond Funds - These funds specialize in fixed-income securities such as corporate bonds, Treasury bonds, mortgage-backed securities or municipal bonds. These funds may specialize by maturity or credit risk as well.Balanced Funds - These funds may substitute for an investor's entireportfolio. They hold a mix of fixed-income and equity securities. Income funds try to maintain safety of principal but achieve liberal current income, while balanced funds seek to minimize risk.Asset Allocation Funds- These funds also hold both stocks and bonds, but vary the proportions in accord with the portfolio manager's forecast of the relative performance of each sector. These funds are engaged in market timing and are therefore higher risk.Index Funds - These funds try to match the performance of a broad market index. They buy shares in securities included in a particular index in proportion to the security's representation in that index. Index funds are a low-cost way for small investors to pursue a passive investment strategy.Specialized Sector Funds - These funds concentrate on a particularindustry or industries. Held alone, they are not well diversified and may be higher risk.The question is designed to test the student's knowledge of the various types of funds available and their suitability for different needs.59. Discuss the taxation of mutual fund income.Difficulty: DifficultAnswer:Investment returns of mutual funds are granted "pass-through status" under the U.S. tax code, meaning that taxes are paid only by the investor in the mutual fund, not by the fund itself. The income is treated as passed through to the investor as long as all income is distributed toshareholders.Investors will pay taxes at the appropriate rate depending on the type of income. One drawback is that investors cannot time the sale ofsecurities for maximum tax advantage, unless the funds are held intax-deferred retirement accounts.The purpose of the question is to determine whether students understand the tax differences of owning mutual funds as compared to individualinvestments.60. What is an Exchange-traded fund? Give two examples of specific ETFs. Whatare some advantages they have over ordinary open-end mutual funds? What are some disadvantages?Difficulty: DifficultAnswer:ETFs allow investors to trade index portfolios. Some examples are spiders (SPDR), which track the S&P500 index, diamonds (DIA), which track the Dow Jones Industrial Average, and qubes (QQQ), which track the NASDAQ 100 index.Other examples are listed in Table 4-3. (It is anticipated that there may soon be ETFs that track actively managed funds as well ad the current ones that track indexes.)Advantages -1.ETFs may be bought and sold during the trading day at prices that reflectthe current value of the underlying index. This is different fromordinary open-end mutual funds, which are bought or sold only at theend of the day NAV.2.ETFs can be sold short.3.ETFs can be purchased on margin.4.ETFs may have tax advantages. Managers are not forced to sellsecurities from a portfolio to meet redemption demands, as they would be with open-end funds. Small investors simply sell their ETF shares to other traders without affecting the composition of the underlying portfolio. Institutional investors who want to sell their shares receive shares of stock in the underlying portfolio.5.ETFs may be cheaper to buy than mutual funds because they are purchasedfrom brokers. The fund doesn't have to incur the costs of marketing itself, so the investor incurs lower management fees.。