CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-20
CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-26

CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-26l x Ward is scheduled to visit the corporate headquarters of Eva ns In dustries. Ward expects to use the inf ormatio n he obtai ns there to complete his research report on Eva ns stock. Ward lear ns that Eva ns plans to pay all of Ward's expe rises for the trip, including costs of meals, hotel room, and air transportation. Which of the following actions would be the best course for Ward to take under the Code and Standards?【单选题】A.Accept the expense・paid trip and write an objective report.B.Pay for all travel experises, including costs of meals and incidental items.C.Accept the expense・paid trip but disclose the value of the services accepted in the report.正确答案:B答案解析:The correct answer is B. The best course of action under Standard 1(B)—Independence and Objectivity is to avoid a conflict ofinterest whenever possible. Therefore, for Ward to pay for all hisexpenses is the correct answer. Answer C details a course of action in which the conflict would be disclosed, but the solution is not as appropriate as avoiding the conflict of interest. Answer A would not be the best course because it would not remove the appearance of a conflict of interest; even though the report would not be affected bythe reimbursement of expenses, it could appear to be.2、Are the three complianee procedures reviewed by Campanelli consistent with both the required and recommended standards of the CFA Institute Asset Manager Code of Professional Conduct?【单选题】A.No, the procedures regardi ng record rete ntion are incon siste nt.B.No, the procedures regardi ng portfolio review are incon siste nt.C.No, the procedures regarding investigation of complaints are incon siste nt・正确答案:c答案解析:C is correct. According to the recommendations of Section D(2) of the Asset Manager Code, where possible, the CCO should be independent from the investment and operations personnel and should report directly to the CEO or the board of directors.3、The strategy that is most likely to ben efit from the environment described by Monts in Statement 3 is to:【单选题】A.rotate from consumer non-cyclical to consumer cyclical sectors.B.increase exposure to the crossover sector.C.shift the portfolio's positions to shorter duration corporate bon ds.正确答案:c答案解析:Curve・adjustment trades take place when the portfolio manager expects credit spreads will widen (either overall or in a particular sector). The specific strategy is to shift the portfolio's exposure to shorten spread duration by selling Ion ger maturity corporate bonds and buying shorter maturity bon ds, which lowers the con tributi on to spread durati on.4、Sigma can most likely reduce credit risk in its OTC derivatives positions by changing which of the following practices?【单选题】tingB.Frequency of marking to marketC.Limiting counterparty exposure正确答案:B答案解析:Sigma typically enters two-year contracts and does not mark to market until expiratio n of the con tract. In creasi ng thefrequency of the marking to market will decrease credit risk. When a con tract is marked to market, the party for whom the con tract has a positive value receives payme nt from the counterparty, thus eliminoting credit risk. Consequently, more frequent marking to market decreases credit risk.5、Based on Exhibit 1, Kiest's liabilities would be classified as: 【单选题】A.Type I.B.Type II.C.Type III.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. Type I liabilities have cash outlays with known amounts and timing. The dates and amounts of Kiest's liabilities are known; therefore, they would be classified as Type I liabilities.6、If Motelli's current investment account of €250,000 is in vested in an asset which is expected to ear n annual in terest of 6.5 percent and no capital gains, what is his expected after tax accumulation in 15 years?【单选题】A.€578,664.B.€586,547.C.€642,960.正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. The after tax wealth accumulation for annually taxable income isFVIFi = [1 + r(l 一ti)]nFV = €250,000 x FVIFi = €250,000 x [1 + 0.065(1 一0.10))15= €586,5477、Based on Exhibit 1, which of the portfolios will best immunize SD&R's single liability?【单选题】A.Portfolio 1B.Portfolio 2C.Portfolio 3正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct・ In the case of a single liability, immunization is achieved by matchi ng the bond portfolio's Macaulay duration with the horizon date. DFC has a single liability of $500 million due in nine years. Portfolio 2 has a Macaulay duration of 8.9, which is closer to 9 than that of either Portfolio 1 or 3. Therefore, Portfolio 2 will best immunize the portfolio against the liability.8、N g's response to Kepler's question about the most efficient portfolio management strategy should be:【单选题】A.full replication.B.active management.C.an enhanced indexing strategy.正确答案:c答案解析:C is correct. Under an enhaneed indexing strategy, the index is replicated with fewer than the full set of index constituents but still matches the original index's primary risk factors. This strategy replicates the index performanee under different market seenarios more efficiently than the full replication of a pure indexing approach.9、Considering Zubov's statements to the investment committee regarding Hoven University's endowment, he is least likely correct with respect to:【单选题】A.liquidity need.B.total return objective.C.risk tolera nee.正确答案:C答案解析:The endowment〃s risk toleranee is low to moderate, not high, because the endowment's contribution represents 25% of the university's opera廿ng budget. Thus, a modest drop in the endowment〃s value may have a sign讦icant impact on university operations. Another factor supporting a lower risk toleranee is the use of a simple spending rule. The absenee of a smoothing rulemeans the endowment has less toleranee for short-term portfoliorisk. Although a return objective of 7%-7.5% may ostensibly be used to support a higher risk toleranee, the risk of a short-term drawdown poses a much larger risk and thus, on balanee, a low tomoderate risk toleranee is more appropriate for the endowment. 10、Are PearsonWWWW's statements regarding thedisadvantages of the historical method for estimating VaR most likely correct?【单选题】A.No, the second statement is not a disadvantage.B.No, the first statement is not a disadvantage.C.Yes.正确答案:B答案解析:The non parametric feature of the historical method is an advantage, not a disadvantage. The historical method requires minimal probability-distributi on assumptions compared with other methods.。
法律职业资格考试历年真题精选及详细解析1017-25

法律职业资格考试历年真题精选及详细解析1017-251.经乙国同意,甲国派特别使团与乙国进行特定外交任务谈判,甲国国民贝登和丙国国民奥马均为使团成员,下列哪些选项是正确的?A.甲国对奥马的任命需征得乙国同意,乙国一经同意则不可撤销此项同意B.甲国特别使团下榻的房舍遇到火灾而无法获得使团团长明确答复时,乙国可以推定获得同意进入房舍救火C.贝登在公务之外开车肇事被诉诸乙国法院,因贝登有豁免权乙国法院无权管辖D.特别使团也适用对使馆人员的“不受欢迎的人”的制度【答案】BD【解析】本题考查特别使团。
A项:特别使团在派遣之前应得到接受国的同意,对具有接受国或第三国国籍的特别使团代表,接受国可以随时撤销,此项错误。
B项:特别使团的房舍在遇到火灾或其他严重的灾难,同时无法获得使团团长明确答复的情况下,接受国可推定获得同意而进入,此项正确。
C项:使团人员在执行公务外使用车辆造成交通肇事而引起的诉讼是不享有豁免权的,接受国可以管辖,此项错误。
D项:特别使团同样适用接受国对使馆人员的“不受欢迎的人”和“不能接受”制度,此项正确。
2.甲国人彼得拟申请赴中国旅游。
依我国相关法律规定,下列哪些选项是正确的?A.甲国人彼得应向中国公安部门提出入境申请B.受理彼得入境申请的中国有关机关没有义务必须批准入境C.如彼得获准入境后发现适合他的工作,可以留在中国工作D.如彼得获准入境后前往不对外国人开放的地区旅行,必须向当地公安机关申请旅行证件【答案】BD【解析】本题考查出境、入境。
A项:根据《出境入境管理法》第15条规定:“外国人入境,应当向驻外签证机关申请办理签证,但是本法另有规定的除外。
”此项错误。
B项:第25条规定:“外国人有下列情形之一的,不准入境:(一)未持有效出境入境证件或者拒绝、逃避接受边防检查的;(二)具有本法第二十一条第一款第一项至第四项规定情形的;(三)入境后可能从事与签证种类不符的活动的;(四)法律、行政法规规定不准入境的其他情形。
CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-3

CFA考试《CFA二级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-41、In replying to Hextall’s recollection of the financial crisis, Klink most likely considered which risk measure?【单选题】A.VaRB.Scenario analysisC.Sensitivity analysis正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. Scenario analysis is used for estimating how a portfolio might perform under conditions of market stress. Scenario risk measures estimate the portfolio returns that would result from a hypothetical change in markets. Stress tests and reverse stress tests are closely related to scenario risk measures. In addressing the possibility of direct exposure to extreme, negative events, Klink is describing a reverse stress test in which specific exposures of the portfolio (10 in this example) are identified. A hypothetical stress test (“reverse stress test”) is designed to measure its effect on each of these exposures.A is incorrect. VaR is used to measure the probabilityof a large loss. One limitation of VaR is its failure to take into account illiquidity.C is incorrect. Sensitivity analysis is used to estimate how gains and losses in the portfolio change with changes in the underlying risk factors. For a short-term investment portfolio consisting entirely of short-duration, high-credit-quality fixed-income securities, there is likely little or no exposure to market sensitivity risk measures, such as beta, duration, convexity, delta, and gamma.2、Stephenson’s return objective and risk tolerance are most appropriately described as:【单选题】A.Return Objective: Below average; Risk Tolerance: Above average.B.Return Objective: Above average; Risk Tolerance: Below average.C.Return Objective: Above average; Risk Tolerance: Above average.正确答案:C答案解析:C is correct.Risk: Stephenson has an above-average risk tolerance based on both his ability and willingness to assume risk. His large asset base, long time horizon, ample income to cover expenses, and lack of need for liquidity or cash flow indicate an above-average ability to assume risk. Hisconcentration in US small-capitalization stocks and his desire for high returns indicate substantial willingness to assume risk.Return: Stephenson’s financial circumstances (long time horizon, sizable asset base, ample income, and low liquidity needs) and his risk tolerance warrant an above-average total return objective. His expressed desire for a continued return of 20 percent, however, is unrealistic. Coppa should counsel Stephenson on what level of returns to reasonably expect from the financial markets over long periods of time and to define an achievable return objective.3、Stephenson’s time horizon is best characterized as:【单选题】A.short-term and single-stage.B.long-term and single-stage.C.long-term and multistage.正确答案:C答案解析:C is correct. Stephenson’s time horizon is long—he is currently only 55 years old. The time horizon consists of two stages: the first stage extends to his retirement in 15 years; the second stage may last for 20 years or more and extends from retirement until his death.4、Is Quek’s response to Yusuf most likely correct?【单选题】A.Yes.B.No, she is incorrect regarding the number of factors.C.No, she is incorrect regarding the identity of the factors.正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. Quek is incorrect in stating that APT specifies the number of factors in a multifactor model but is correct in stating that APT does not specify the identity of factors in a multifactor model. APT does not indicate the number of factors or their identity.A is incorrect. Quek is incorrect in stating that APT specifies the number of factors in a multifactor model but correct in stating that APT does not specify the identity of factors in a multifactor model. APT does not indicate the number of factors or their identity.C is incorrect. Quek is correct in stating that APT does not specify the identity of factors in a multifactor model. APT does not indicate the number of factors or their identity.5、Is Hextall’s statement regarding the private wealth division likely correct?【单选题】A.Yes.B.No, it is incorrect about forward-looking beta.C.No, it is incorrect about ex ante tracking error.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. Hextall’s statement is correct. Riskmeasures for banks are typically focused on liquidity, solvency, and capital sufficiency, whereas risk measures for traditional asset managers are typically focused on investment performance. Ex ante tracking error correctly compares the current portfolio with its benchmark in attempting to measure future potential performance. Forward-looking beta is a current risk measure of a current portfolio and measures an equity portfolio’s sensitivity to the broad equity market.B is incorrect. Hextall’s statement about forward-looking beta is correct.C is incorrect. Hextall’s statement about ex ante tracking error is correct.。
CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及答案1122-51

CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及答案1122-511、Jose DiCenzo has some securities worth €50,000 that have a cost basis of €75,000. If he sells those securities and can use the realized losses to offset other realized gains, how much can DiCenzo reduce his taxes in the current tax year assuming capital gains are taxed at 30 percent?【单选题】A.€7,500.B.€15,000.C.€17,500.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. DiCenzo has a €75,000 -€50,000 = €25,000 unrealized loss. Assuming that realizing this loss will decrease his taxable gains by the same amount, his tax bill in the current year will be reduced by 0.30 × €25,000 = €7,500. 2、Which of the statements made about meeting Gladys\\\\\\\\\\' stated goal is most accurate? The statement regarding:【单选题】A.fixed annuity productsB.revised asset allocationC.variable annuity products正确答案:C答案解析:A jointly owned variable payout lifetime annuity product would provide cash flows until the end of the surviving spouse\\\\\\\\\\'s lifetime. Therefore, the Jones family will not outlive the assets. It is true there is less certainty regarding the cash flows because they are linked to the performance of the underlying investments.3、The best answer to Reyder\\\\\\\\\\'s question about validated questionnaires relates to the investor\\\\\\\\\\'s:【单选题】A.behavioral links to risk taking.B.wealth and stage of life.C.rational risk–return choices.正确答案:A答案解析:A questionnaire is used to assess risk based on behavioral factors. A predictive link must exist from the questionnaire responses to the resulting personality typing that is derived, as well as to the subsequent investment behavior that occurs.4、How much after-tax wealth would Motelli accumulate assuming the same facts as in Question 4 except that 50。
CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细解析1107-53

CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细解析1107-531、For periods beginning on or after 1 January 2011, firms must not value portfolios:【单选题】A.when objective, observable market prices are unavailable.B.more frequently than required by the composite-specific valuation policy.C.as of the last business day of the month unless it is the calendar month-end.正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. Provision 1.1.A.3.c states that portfolios must be valued “no more frequently than required by the valuation policy.”The definition of fair value includes the statement, “In the absence of an objective, observable, unadjusted quoted market price for an identical investment inan active market on the measurement date, the valuation must represent the firm’s best estimate of the market value.” Provision 1.1.A.4 states, “For periods beginning on or after 1 January 2010, firms must value portfolios as of the calendar month end or the last business day of the month.”2、To carry out the proposed adjustment to the KPM Inc. pension portfolio, the number of S&P 400 MidCap futures Bing would need to sell and the number of Barclays US Aggregate Bond Index futures she would need to buy, respectively, are closest to:【单选题】A.76 S&P 400 MidCap Futures and 265 Barclays US Bond FuturesB.99 S&P 400 MidCap Futures and 287 Barclays US Bond FuturesC.128 S&P 400 MidCap Futures and 312 Barclays US Bond Futures正确答案:C。
CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-26

CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-261、Ward is scheduled to visit the corporate headquarters of Evans Industries. Ward expects to use the information he obtains there to complete his research report on Evans stock. Ward learns that Evans plans to pay all of Ward’s expenses for the trip, including costs of meals, hotel room, and air transportation. Which of the following actions would be the best course for Ward to take under the Code and Standards?【单选题】A.Accept the expense-paid trip and write an objective report.B.Pay for all travel expenses, including costs of meals and incidental items.C.Accept the expense-paid trip but disclose the value of the services accepted in the report.正确答案:B答案解析:The correct answer is B. The best course of action under Standard I(B)—Independence and Objectivity is to avoid a conflict of interest whenever possible. Therefore, for Ward topay for all his expenses is the correct answer. Answer C details a course of action in which the conflict would be disclosed, but the solution is not as appropriate as avoiding the conflict of interest. Answer A would not be the best course because it would not remove the appearance of a conflict of interest; even though the report would not be affected by the reimbursement of expenses, it could appear to be.2、Are the three compliance procedures reviewed by Campanelli consistent with both the required and recommended standards of the CFA Institute Asset Manager Code of Professional Conduct?【单选题】A.No, the procedures regarding record retention are inconsistent.B.No, the procedures regarding portfolio review are inconsistent.C.No, the procedures regarding investigation of complaints are inconsistent.正确答案:C答案解析:C is correct. According to the recommendations of Section D(2) of the Asset Manager Code,where possible, the CCO should be independent from the investment and operations personnel and should report directly to the CEO orthe board of directors.3、The strategy that is most likely to benefit from the environment described by Monts in Statement 3 is to:【单选题】A.rotate from consumer non-cyclical to consumer cyclical sectors.B.increase exposure to the crossover sector.C.shift the portfolio’s positions to shorter duration corporate bonds.正确答案:C答案解析:Curve-adjustment trades take place when the portfolio manager expects credit spreads will widen (either overall or in a particular sector). The specific strategy is to shift the portfolio’s exposure to shorten spread duration by selling longer maturity corporate bonds and buying shorter maturity bonds, which lowers the contribution to spread duration.4、Sigma can most likely reduce credit risk in its OTC derivatives positions by changing which of the following practices?【单选题】tingB.Frequency of marking to marketC.Limiting counterparty exposure正确答案:B答案解析:Sigma typically enters two-year contracts and doesnot mark to market until expiration of the contract. Increasing the frequency of the marking to market will decrease credit risk. When a contract is marked to market, the party for whom the contract has a positive value receives payment from the counterparty, thus eliminating credit risk. Consequently, more frequent marking to market decreases credit risk.5、Based on Exhibit 1, Kiest’s liabilities would be classified as:【单选题】A.Type I.B.Type II.C.Type III.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. Type I liabilities have cash outlays with known amounts and timing. The dates and amounts of Kiest’s liabilities are known; therefore, they would be classified as TypeI liabilities.6、If Motelli’s current investment account of €250,000 is invested in an asset which is expected to earn annual interest of 6.5 percent and no capital gains, what is his expected after tax accumulation in 15 years?【单选题】A.€578,664.B.€586,547.C.€642,960.正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. The after tax wealth accumulation for annually taxable income isFVIFi = [1 + r(1 – ti)]nFV = €250,000 × FVIFi = €250,000 × [1 + 0.065(1 – 0.10)]15= €586,5477、Based on Exhibit 1, which of the portfolios will best immunize SD&R’s single liability?【单选题】A.Portfolio 1B.Portfolio 2C.Portfolio 3正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. In the case of a single liability, immunization is achieved by matching the bond portfolio’s Macaulay duration with the horizon date. DFC has a single liability of $500 million due in nine years.Portfolio 2 has a Macaulay duration of 8.9, which is closer to 9 than that of either Portfolio 1 or 3.Therefore, Portfolio 2 will best immunize the portfolio against the liability.8、Ng’s response to Kepler’s question about the most efficient portfolio management strategy should be:【单选题】A.full replication.B.active management.C.an enhanced indexing strategy.正确答案:C答案解析:C is correct. Under an enhanced indexing strategy, the index is replicated with fewer than the full set of index constituents but still matches the original index’s primary risk factors. This strategy replicates the index performance under different market scenarios more efficiently than the full replication of a pure indexing approach.9、Considering Zubov’s statements to the investment committee regarding Hoven University’s endowment, he is least likely correct with respect to:【单选题】A.liquidity need.B.total return objective.C.risk tolerance.正确答案:C答案解析:The endowment’s risk tolerance is low to moderate, not high, because the endowment’s contribution represents 25% of the university’s operating budget. Thus, a modest drop in the endowment’s value may have a significant impact on university operations. Another factor supporting a lower risk tolerance is the use of a simple spending rule. The absence of a smoothing rule means the endowment has less tolerance for short-termportfolio risk. Although a return objective of 7%–7.5% may ostensibly be used to support a higher risk tolerance, the risk of a short-term drawdown poses a much larger risk and thus, on balance, a low to moderate risk tolerance is more appropriate for the endowment.10、Are Pearson\\\\\\\\'s statements regarding the disadvantages of the historical method for estimating VaR most likely correct?【单选题】A.No, the second statement is not a disadvantage.B.No, the first statement is not a disadvantage.C.Yes.正确答案:B答案解析:The nonparametric feature of the historical method is an advantage, not a disadvantage. The historical method requires minimal probability-distribution assumptions compared with other methods.。
CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-21

CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-211、W hich of the limitations of VaR analysis given by Reinfeldt is most likely correct?【单选题】A.Limitation 1B.Limitation 3C.Limitation 2正确答案:C答案解析:VaR fails to incorporate positive results into its risk profile and, therefore, may provide an in complete picture of overall exposures2、T he current amount of potential credit risk in the forward contract position is closest to:【单选题】A・$0・B.$1.53.C.$12.28.正确答案:A答案解析:The value of the long position is $207 一$200/(1.055)=$12.28・ This result means that the short (the bank) owes thelong, so the bank would suffer no loss if the long went ban krupt.3、Hackett\\\'s description of Beta\\\'s current approach to VaR estimation would most likely mention that it:【单选题】A.produces a wide range of randomly generated potential outcomes.B.often assumes a daily portfolio expected return of zero.C.is a non parametric method of estimati ng VaR.正确答案:c答案解析:The historical simulation approach to VaR measurement calculates what the change in the current portfolio\\\'s value would have been had it been held in the past, without making any assumptions about the distribution of asset returns.4、Which of the following is closest to the monthly VaR Fluelien will calculate for the large cap growth portfolio?【单选题】A.$4 million.B.$7 million.C.$17 million.正确答案:B答案解析:5、An advantage of the bank\\\'s method for estimating VaR isthe:[单选题]A.simplicity of the method.B.assumption that returns are normally distributed.C.ability to in corporate opti on ality into the an alysis.正确答案:A答案解析:The analytical model uses readily available data and simple calculat:ions.。
CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细解析1107-59

CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细解析1107-591、Ward is scheduled to visit the corporate headquarters of Evans Industries. Ward expects to use the information he obtains there to complete his research report on Evans stock. Ward learns that Evans plans to pay all of Ward’s expenses for the trip, including costs of meals, hotel room, and air transportation. Which of the following actions would be the best course for Ward to take under the Code and Standards?【单选题】A.Accept the expense-paid trip and write an objective report.B.Pay for all travel expenses, including costs of meals and incidental items.C.Accept the expense-paid trip but disclose the value of the services accepted in the report.正确答案:B答案解析:The correct answer is B. The best course of action under Standard I(B)—Independence and Objectivity is to avoid a conflict of interest whenever possible. Therefore, for Ward to pay for all his expenses is the correct answer. Answer C details a course of action in which the conflict would be disclosed, but the solution is not as appropriate as avoiding the conflict of interest. Answer A would not be the best course because it would not remove the appearance of a conflict of interest; even though the report would not be affected by the reimbursement of expenses, it could appear to be.2、Are the three compliance procedures reviewed by Campanelli consistent with both the required and recommended standards of the CFA Institute Asset Manager Code of Professional Conduct?【单选题】A.No, the procedures regarding record retention are inconsistent.B.No, the procedures regarding portfolio review are inconsistent.。
- 1、下载文档前请自行甄别文档内容的完整性,平台不提供额外的编辑、内容补充、找答案等附加服务。
- 2、"仅部分预览"的文档,不可在线预览部分如存在完整性等问题,可反馈申请退款(可完整预览的文档不适用该条件!)。
- 3、如文档侵犯您的权益,请联系客服反馈,我们会尽快为您处理(人工客服工作时间:9:00-18:30)。
CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细
解析1007-20
1.[单选题]
A.exhibit characteristics of multiple investor types.
B.retain the same emotional biases as they become older.
C.exhibit primarily emotional or cognitive biases, but not both. 正确答案:A
答案解析:A is correct. A limitation of behavioral models is that in dividual investors do freque ntly
2、Which of Schumacher\'s three outcomes is most likely consistent with the ALM approach?【单选题】
A.Outcome 1
B.Outcome 3
C.Outcome 2
正确答案:A
答案解析:Outcome 1 is consistent with the ALM approach. The ALM approach to strategic asset allocation, which involves explicitly modeling liabilities and adopting the optimal asset
allocation in relation to funding liabilities, characteristically results
in a higher allocation to fixed-income instruments than an asset-only (AO) approach. Compared with AO, an ALM approach affords much more precision in controlling risk related to the funding of liabilities. The global market equilibrium portfolio is the default
strategic asset allocation for the Black-Litterman AO approach.
3、Are Wilson z s closing remarks consistent with recommended practices and procedures designed to prevent violations of the Asset Manager Code of Professional Conduct?【单选题】
A.Yes
B.No, with regard to disclosure of the firm's risk management process
C.No, with regard to the business continuity plan
正确答案:c
答案解析:At a minimum, Section D, Risk Management, Complianee, and Support, of the Asset Manager Code recomme nds that a busi ness contin uity plan in elude plans for contacting and communicating with clients during a period of exte nded disruption. Wils on's conti nuity plan in eludes no such strategy. Wilson's recommendation for disclosing the firm's risk management process to both dients and regulators goes beyond the code recommendation, which is to disclose the risk management process
only to dients.
4、Schumacher\'s con cer n about in ter natio nal investme nts that Roth might find advantageous most likely pertains to:【单选题】
A.conditional correlation.
B.the efficient frontier.
C.market integration.
正确答案:c
答案解析:The lack of market integration (or the absenee of free cross-border capital flows) can be an advantage if it increases market segmentation and helps prevent correlations with other markets from rising. In creased integratio n of markets can decrease diversificatio n ben efits, whereas retur ns in segme nted markets will be in flue need mostly by a specific country's own macroeconomy and will be less subject to changes in correlations when volatility increases. Global correlations tend to increase in times of in creased volatility and eve n appear to be condi廿onal on global volatility. The efficient frontier and traditi onal mea n-varia nee an alysis using un conditi onal correlations would not apply because correlations remain low when returns are high but become high when returns are negative.
5、Assuming Silva\'s advice is followed and Libor rates are 5%
and 6% on 15 October 2013 and 15 December 2013, respectively, the effective annual interest rate on Short Hills Corporation\'s loan is closest to:【单选题】
A.3.50% ・
B.5.42% ・
C.4.64% ・
正确答案:B
答案解析:The effective annual rate is calculated as follows:。