投资学精要(博迪)(第五版)习题答案英文版chapter7
投资学精要（博迪）（第五版）习题答案英文版chapter5综述
Essentials of Investments (BKM 5th Ed.Answers to Selected Problems – Lecture 60 –300Purchase of three shares at $100 each. 1 –208Purchase of two shares at $110 less dividend income on three shares held. 2 110 Dividends on five shares plus sale of one share at price of $90 each. 3 396Dividends on four shares plus sale of four shares at price of $95 each. 396|||110 |Date: 1/1/96 1/1/97 1/1/98 1/1/99| || || || 208300The Dollar-weighted return can be determined by doing an internal rate of return (IRRcalculation. In other words, set the present value of the outflows equal to the presentvalue of the inflows (or the net present value to zero: %1661. 0001661. 01(396 1(110 1(208300321−=−=+++=++R R R3. b.5. We need to distinguish between timing and selection abilities. The intercept of the scatterdiagram is a measure of stock selection ability. If the manager tends to have a positive excess return even when the market’s performance is merely ‘neutral’ (i.e., has zero excess return, then we conclude that the manager has on average made good stock picks – stock selection must be the source of the positive excess returns.Timing ability is indicated by curvature in the plotted line. Lines that become steeper as you move to the right of the graph show good timing ability. An upward curvedrelationship indicates that the portfolio was more sensitive to market moves when the market was doing well and less sensitive to market moves when the market was doingpoorly -- this indicates good market timing skill. A downward curvature would indicate poor market timing skill.We can therefore classify performance ability for the four managers as follows:a. Bad Goodb. Good Goodc. Good Badd. Bad Bad9. The manager’s alpha is:10 - [6 + 0.5(14-6] = 010. a α(A = 24 - [12 + 1.0(21-12] = 3.0%α(B = 30 - [12 + 1.5(21-12] = 4.5%T(A = (24 - 12/1 = 12T(B = (30-12/1.5 = 12As an addition to a passive diversified portfolio, both A and B are candidates because they both have positive alphas.b (i The funds may have been trying to time the market. In that case, the SCL of the funds may be non-linear (curved.(ii One year’s worth of data is too small a sample to make clear conclusions.(iii The funds may have significantly different levels of diversification. If both have the same risk-adjusted return, the fund with the less diversified portfolio has a higher exposure to risk because of its higher firm-specific risk. Since the above measure adjusts only for systematic risk, it does not tell the entire story.11. a Indeed, the one year results were terrible, but one year is a short time period from whichto make clear conclusions. Also, the Board instructed the manager to give priority to long-term results.b The sample pension funds had a much larger share in equities compared to Alpine’s. Equities performed much better than bonds. Also, Alpine was told to hold down risk investing at most 25% in equities. Alpine should not be held responsible for an asset allocation policy dictated by the client.c Alpine’s alpha measures its risk-adjusted performance compared to the market’s:α = 13.3 - [7.5 + 0.9(13.8 - 7.5] = 0.13%, which is actually above zero!d Note that the last five years, especially the last one, have been bad for bonds – and Alpine was encouraged to hold bonds. Within this asset class, Alpine did much better than the index funds. Alpine’s performance within each asset class has been superior on a risk-adjusted basis. Its disappointing performance overall was due to a heavy asset allocation weighting toward bonds, which was the Board’s –not Alpine’s – choice.e A trustee may not care about the time-weighted return, but that return is moreindicative of the manager’s performance. After all, the manager has no control over the cash inflow of the fund.。
投资学精要(博迪)(第五版)习题答案英文版chapter9&10
Essentials of Investments (BKM 5th Ed.)Answers to Suggested Problems – Lecture 7Bond Pricing Examples for Exam 3:Problem 9(a) in Chapter 9 provides an example of a bond price calculation (answer shown below). As additional examples, page 69 in your course packet provides several bond pricing problems for bonds with various maturity, yield, and coupon characteristics. The bond prices for these examples are as follows (note all bonds pay coupons semi-annually):8% coupon, 8% market yield, 10 years to maturity: B = $1,000.008% coupon, 10% market yield, 10 years to maturity: B = $875.388% coupon, 6% market yield, 10 years to maturity: B = $1,148.778% coupon, 8% market yield, 20 years to maturity: B = $1,000.008% coupon, 10% market yield, 20 years to maturity: B = $828.418% coupon, 6% market yield, 20 years to maturity: B = $1,231.156% coupon, 8% market yield, 10 years to maturity: B = $864.106% coupon, 10% market yield, 10 years to maturity: B = $750.766% coupon, 6% market yield, 10 years to maturity: B = $1000.00Chapter 9:4. Lower. Interest rates have fallen since the bond was issued. Thus, the bond is selling at apremium and the price will decrease (toward par value) as the bond approaches maturity.5. True. Under the Expectations Hypothesis, there are no risk premia built into bond prices.The only reason for an upward sloping yield curve is the expectation of increased short-term rates in the future.7. Uncertain. Liquidity premium will increase long-term yields, but lower inflationexpectations will reduce long-term yields compared to short-term rates. The net effect is uncertain.8. If the yield curve is upward sloping, you cannot conclude that investors expect short-terminterest rates to rise because the rising slope could either be due to expectations of future increases in rates or due to a liquidity premium.9. a) The bond pays $50 every 6 monthsCurrent price = $1052.42Assuming that market interest rates remain at 4% per half year:the price 6 months from now = $1044.52b) Rate of return = [1044.52 - 1052.42 + 50]/1052.42 = .04 or 4% per 6 months14. Zero 8% coupon 10% coupona) Current prices $463.19 $1,000 $1,134.20b) Price in 1 year $500.25 $1,000 $1,124.94change $37.06 $0.00 $-9.26PriceCouponincome $0.00 $80.00 $100.00$37.06 $80.00 $90.74incomeTotalRate of return 8.00% 8.00% 8.00%33. a) The forward rate, f, is the rate that makes rolling over one-year bonds equally attractiveas investing in the two-year maturity bond and holding until maturity:(1.08)(1 + f) = (1.09)2 which implies that f = 0.1001 or 10.01%b) According to the expectations hypothesis, the forward rate equals the expected shortrate next year, so the best guess would be 10.01%.c) According to the liquidity preference (liquidity premium) hypothesis, the forward rateexceeds the expected short-term rate for next year (by the amount of the liquiditypremium), so the best guess would be less than 10.01%.35. a. We obtain forward rates from the following table:Maturity(years)YTM Forward rate Price (for part c)($1000/1.10)1 10.0% $909.09[(1.112/1.10) – 1] $811.62 ($1000/1.112)12.01%2 11.0%[(1.123/1.112) – 1] $711.78 ($1000/1.123)14.03%3 12.0%b. We obtain next year’s prices and yields by discounting each zero’s face value at theforward rates derived in part (a):Maturity(years)Price YTM1 $892.78 [ = 1000/1.1201] 12.01%2 $782.93 [ = 1000/(1.1201 x 1.1403)] 13.02%Note that this year’s upward sloping yield curve implies, according to theexpectations hypothesis, a shift upward in next year’s curve.c.Next year, the two-year zero will be a one-year zero, and it will therefore sell at: ($1000/1.1201) = $892.78Similarly, the current three-year zero will be a two-year zero, and it will sell for $782.93. Expected total rate of return:two-year bond: %00.101000.0162.811$78.892$==− three-year bond: %00.101000.0178.711$93.782$==−37. d) 2e) 3f) 2g) 4Chapter 10:1. ∆∆B B D y y =−⋅+1 -7.194 * (.005/1.10) = -.03272.If YTM=6%, Duration=2.833 years If YTM=10%, Duration=2.824 years6.a) Bond B has a higher yield since it is selling at a discount. Thus, the duration of bond B is lower (it is less sensitive to interest rate changes).b) Bond B has a lower yield and is callable before maturity. Thus, the duration of bond B is lower (it is less sensitive to interest rate changes).9.a) PV = 10,000/(1.08) + 10,000/((1.08)2) = $17,832.65Duration = (9259.26/17832.65)*1 + (8573.39/17832.65)*2 = 1.4808 yearsb) A zero-coupon bond with 1.4808 years to maturity (duration=1.4808) would immunize the obligation against interest rate risk.c) We need a bond position with a present value of $17,832.65. Thus, the face value of thebond position must be:$17,832.65*(1.08)1.4808 = $19,985.26If interest rates increase to 9%, the value of the bond would be:$19,985.26/((1.09)1.4808) = $17,590.92The tuition obligation would be:10,000/1.09 + 10,000/((1.09)2) = $17,591.11or a net position change of only $0.19.If interest rates decrease to 7%, the value of the bond would be:$19,985.26/((1.07)1.4808) = $18,079.99The tuition obligation would be:10,000/(1.07) + 10,000((1.07)2) = $18,080.18or a net position change of $0.19.**The slight differences result from the fact that duration is only a linear approximationof the true convex relationship between fixed-income values and interest rates.11. a) The duration of the perpetuity is 1.05/.05 = 21 years. Let w be the weight of the zero-coupon bond. Then we find w by solving:w × 5 + (1 – w) × 21 = 1021 – 16w = 10w = 11/16 or .6875Therefore, your portfolio would be 11/16 invested in the zero and 5/16 in theperpetuity.b) The zero-coupon bond now will have a duration of 4 years while the perpetuity willstill have a 21-year duration. To get a portfolio duration of 9 years, which is now theduration of the obligation, we again solve for w:w × 4 + (1 – w) × 21 = 921 – 17w = 9w = 12/17 or .7059So the proportion invested in the zero has to increase to 12/17 and the proportion in theperpetuity has to fall to 5/17.12. a) The duration of the perpetuity is 1.1/.1 = 11 years. The present value of the payments is$1 million/.10 = $10 million. Let w be the weight of the 5-year zero-coupon bond andtherefore (1 – w) will be the weight of the 20-year zero-coupon bond. Then we find wby solving:w × 5 + (1 – w) × 20 = 1120 – 15w = 11w = 9/15 = .60Therefore, 60% of the portfolio will be invested in the 5-year zero-coupon bond and 40%in the 20-year zero-coupon bond.Therefore, the market value of the 5-year zero must be×.60 = $6 million.$10millionSimilarly, the market value of the 20-year zero must be$10× .40 = $4 millionmillionb) Face value of the 5-year zero-coupon bond will be× (1.10)5 = $9.66 million.$6millionFace value of the 20-year zero-coupon bond will be$4 million × (1.10)20 = $26.91 million.18. a) 4b) 4c)42d)21. Note that we did not discuss swaps in detail. For that reason, I would not expect you to beable to answer this type of question on the exam. The question is meant to provide youwith a brief summary of some potential motivations for swaps.a) a. This swap would have been made if the investor anticipated a decline in long-terminterest rates and an increase in long-term bond prices. The deeper discount, lowercoupon 6 3/8% bond would provide more opportunity for capital gains, greater callprotection, and greater protection against declining reinvestment rates at a cost of only amodest drop in yield.b. This swap was probably done by an investor who believed the 24 basis point yield spreadbetween the two bonds was too narrow. The investor anticipated that, if the spreadwidened to a more normal level, either a capital gain would be experienced on theTreasury note or a capital loss would be avoided on the Phone bond, or both. Also, thisswap might have been done by an investor who anticipated a decline in interest rates, andwho also wanted to maintain high current coupon income and have the better callprotection of the Treasury note. The Treasury note would have unlimited potential forprice appreciation, in contrast to the Phone bond which would be restricted by its callprice. Furthermore, if intermediate-term interest rates were to rise, the price decline ofthe higher quality, higher coupon Treasury note would likely be “cushioned” and thereinvestment return from the higher coupons would likely be greater.c. This swap would have been made if the investor were bearish on the bond market. Thezero coupon note would be extremely vulnerable to an increase in interest rates since theyield to maturity, determined by the discount at the time of purchase, is locked in. This isin contrast to the floating rate note, for which interest is adjusted periodically to reflectcurrent returns on debt instruments. The funds received in interest income on the floatingrate notes could be used at a later time to purchase long-term bonds at more attractiveyields.d. These two bonds are similar in most respects other than quality and yield. An investorwho believed the yield spread between Government and Al bonds was too narrow wouldhave made the swap either to take a capital gain on the Government bond or to avoid acapital loss on the Al bond. The increase in call protection after the swap would not be afactor except under the most bullish interest rate scenarios. The swap does, however,extend maturity another 8 years and yield to maturity sacrifice is 169 basis points.e. The principal differences between these two bonds are the convertible feature of the Zmart bond and the yield and coupon advantage, and the longer maturity of the LuckyDucks debentures. The swap would have been made if the investor believed somecombination of the following: First, that the appreciation potential of the Z martconvertible, based primarily on the intrinsic value of Z mart common stock, was nolonger as attractive as it had been. Second, that the yields on long-term bonds were at acyclical high, causing bond portfolio managers who could take A2-risk bonds to reach forhigh yields and long maturities either to lock them in or take a capital gain when ratessubsequently declined. Third, while waiting for rates to decline, the investor will enjoyan increase in coupon income. Basically, the investor is swapping an equity-equivalentfor a long- term corporate bond.23. Choose the longer-duration bond to benefit from a rate decrease.a) The Aaa-rated bond will have the lower yield to maturity and the longer duration.b) The lower-coupon bond will have the longer duration and more de facto call protection.c) Choose the lower coupon bond for its longer duration.30. The price of the 7% bond in 5 years is:PVA(C=$70, N=25, r=8%) + PV($1000, N=25, r=8%) = $893.25You also get five $70 coupon payments four of which can be reinvested at 6% for a total of $394.59 in coupon income.HPR = ($893.25 - 867.42 + 394.59)/867.42 = 48.47%The price of the 6.5% bond in 5 years is:PVA(C=$65, N=15, r=7.5%) + PV($1000, N=15, r=7.5%) = $911.73You also get five $65 coupon payments four of which can be reinvested at 6% for a total of $366.41 in coupon income.HPR = ($911.73 - 879.50 + 366.41)/879.50 = 45.33%**The 7% bond has a higher 5-year holding period return.。
投资学(博迪)答案
(ii)价格不变，净价值不变。
收益百分比= 0。
(iii)净价值下跌至7 2美元×2 5 0-5 000美元=13 000美元。
收益百分比=2 000美元/15 000美元=-0.133 3=-1 3 . 3 3%
股票价格的百分比变化和投资者收益百分比关系由下式给定：
第五章利率史与风险溢价
1.根据表5-1，分析以下情况对真实利率的影响？
a.企业对其产品的未来需求日趋悲观，并决定减少其资本支出。
b.居民因为其未来社会福利保险的不确定性增加而倾向于更多地储蓄。
c.联邦储蓄委员会从公开市场上购买美国国债以增加货币供给。
a.如果企业降低资本支出，它们就很可能会减少对资金的需求。这将使得图5 - 1中的需求曲线向左上方移动，从而降低均衡实际利率。
a. Lanni公司向银行贷款。它共获得50000美元的现金，并且签发了一张票据保证3年内还款。
b. Lanni公司使用这笔现金和它自有的20000美元为其一新的财务计划软件开发提供融资。
c. Lanni公司将此软件产品卖给微软公司（Microsoft）,微软以它的品牌供应给公众，Lanni公司获得微软的股票1500股作为报酬。
10.67%; -2.67%; -16%
e.假设一年后，Intel股票价格降至多少时，投资者将受到追缴保证金的通知？p=28.8
购买成本是8 0美元×250=20 000美元。你从经纪人处借得5 000美元，并从自有资金中取出
15 000美元进行投资。你的保证金账户初始净价值为15 000美元。
a. (i)净价值增加了2 000美元，从15 000美元增加到：8 8美元×2 5 0-5 000美元=17 000美元。
公司理财英文版练习题答案第七章 Pangaea Corpor
公司理财英文版练习题答案第七章Pangaea Corpor1、______ pocket money did you get when you were a child? （）[单选题] *A. WhatB. HowC. How manyD. How much(正确答案)2、Nuclear science should be developed to benefit the people_____harm them. [单选题] *A.more thanB.other thanC.rather than(正确答案)D.better than3、The huntsman caught only a（）of the deer before it ran into the woods. [单选题] *A. gazeB. glareC. glimpse(正确答案)D. stare4、35．___________ good music the teacher is playing! [单选题] *A．What(正确答案)B．HowC．What aD．What the5、——Have you（）your friend Bill recently? ———No, he doesnt often write to me. [单选题] *A. heard aboutB. heard ofC. heard from (正确答案)D. received from6、Just use this room for the time being ,and we’ll offer you a larger one _______it becomes available [单选题] *A. as soon as(正确答案)B unless .C as far asD until7、?I am good at schoolwork. I often help my classmates _______ English. [单选题] *B. toC. inD. with(正确答案)8、—What were you doing when the rainstorm came?—I ______ in the library with Jane. （）[单选题] *A. readB. am readingC. will readD. was reading(正确答案)9、I _______ Zhang Hua in the bookstore last Sunday. [单选题] *A. meetB. meetingC. meetedD. met(正确答案)10、I often _______ music from the Internet. [单选题] *A. download(正确答案)B. spendD. read11、I think ______ time with my friends is fun for me.（）[单选题] *A. spendB. spendC. spending(正确答案)D. spent12、Ladies and gentlemen, please fasten your seat belts. The plane _______. [单选题] *A. takes offB. is taking off(正确答案)C. has taken offD. took off13、You wouldn' t have caught such ____ bad cold if you hadn' t been caught in ____?rain. [单选题] *A. a, /B. a, aC. a,the(正确答案)D. /, /14、We _______ swim every day in summer when we were young. [单选题] *A. use toB. are used toC. were used toD. used to(正确答案)15、This year our school is _____ than it was last year. [单选题] *A. much more beautiful(正确答案)B. much beautifulC. the most beautifulD. beautiful16、Sichuan used to have more people than ______ province in China. [单选题] *A. otherB. any other(正确答案)C. anotherD. any others17、32．There are about __________ women doctors in this hospital. [单选题] *A．two hundred ofB．two hundreds ofC．two hundredsD．two hundred (正确答案)18、Jim will _______ New York at 12 o’clock. [单选题] *A. get onB. get outC. get offD. get to(正确答案)19、Jeanne's necklace was _____ 500 francs at most. [单选题] *A. worthyB. costC. worth(正确答案)D. valuable20、It was _____ that the policy of reform and opening up came into being in China. [单选题] *A. in the 1970s(正确答案)B. in 1970sC. in the 1970s'D. in 1970's21、—______?—He can do kung fu.（）[单选题] *A. What does Eric likeB. Can Eric do kung fuC. What can Eric do(正确答案)D. Does Eric like kung fu22、I passed the test, I _____ it without your help. [单选题] *A.would not passB. wouldn't have passed(正确答案)C. didn't passD.had not passed23、Having stayed in the United States for more than ten years, he got an American（）[单选题] *A. speechB. accent(正确答案)C. voiceD. sound24、28．The question is very difficult. ______ can answer it. [单选题] * A．EveryoneB．No one(正确答案)C．SomeoneD．Anyone25、Is there ____ for one more in the car? [单选题] *A. seatB. situationC. positionD. room(正确答案)26、He does ______ in math.（）[单选题] *A. goodB. betterC. well(正确答案)D. best27、The travelers arrived _______ Xi’an _______ a rainy day. [单选题] *A. at; inB. at; onC. in; inD. in; on(正确答案)28、Tom’s sister is a nurse. I met _______ in the street yesterday . [单选题] *A. sheB. hersC. himD. her(正确答案)29、17．—When ________ they leave here?—Tomorrow morning. [单选题] * A．doB．will(正确答案)C．doesD．are30、I saw the boy _______?the classroom. [单选题] *A. enter intoB. enter(正确答案)C. to enter intoD. to enter。
博迪投资学答案chap005-7thed
博迪投资学答案chap005-7thedCHAPTER 5: LEARNING ABOUT RETURN AND RISKFROM THE HISTORICAL RECORD1. a. The “Inflation-Plus” CD is the safer investment because it guarantees thepurchasing power of the investment. Using the approximation that the realrate equals the nominal rate minus the inflation rate, the CD provides a realrate of 3.5% regardless of the inflation rate.b. The expected return depends on the expected rate of inflation over the nextyear. If the expected rate of inflation is less than 3.5% then the conventionalCD offers a higher real return than the Inflation-Plus CD; if the expected rateof inflation is greater than 3.5%, then the opposite is true.c. If you expect the rate of inflation to be 3% over the next year, then theconventional CD offers you an expected real rate of return of 4%, which is0.5% higher than the real rate on the inflation-protected CD. But unless youknow that inflation will be 3% with certainty, the conventional CD is alsoriskier. The question of which is the better investment then depends on yourattitude towards risk versus return. You might choose to diversify and investpart of your funds in each.d. No. We cannot assume that the entire difference between the risk-freenominal rate (on conventional CDs) of 7% and the real risk-free rate (oninflation-protected CDs) of 3.5% is the expected rate of inflation. Part of thedifference is probably a risk premium associated with the uncertaintysurrounding the real rate of return on the conventional CDs. This implies thatthe expected rate of inflation is less than 3.5% per year.2.From Table 5.3, the average risk premium for large-capitalization U.S. stocks forthe period 1926-2005 was: (12.15% - 3.75%) = 8.40% per yearAdding 8.40% to the 6% risk-free interest rate, the expected annual HPR for theS&P 500 stock portfolio is: 6.00% + 8.40% = 14.40%3. Probability distribution of price and one-year holding period return for a 30-yearGerman Government bond (which will have 29 years to maturity at year’s end):Economy Probability YTM Price CapitalGainCouponInterestHPRBoom 0.20 11.0% $ 74.05 -$25.95 $8.00 -17.95% Normal Growth 0.50 8.0% $100.00 $ 0.00 $8.00 8.00% Recession 0.30 7.0%$112.28 $12.28 $8.00 20.28%5-14. E(r) = [0.35 ? 44.5%] + [0.30 ? 14.0%] + [0.35 ? (–16.5%)] = 14%σ2 = [0.35 ? (44.5 – 14)2] + [0.30 ? (14 – 14)2] + [0.35 ? (–16.5 –14)2] = 651.175 σ = 25.52%The mean is unchanged, but the standard deviation has increased, as theprobabilities of the high and low returns have increased.5. For the money market fund, your holding period return for the next year depends onthe level of 30-day interest rates each month when the fund rolls over maturingsecurities. The one-year savings deposit offers a 7.5% holding period return for the year. If you forecast that the rate on money market instruments will increasesignificantly above the current 6% yield, then the money market fund might result ina higher HPR than the savings deposit. The 20-year U.K Government bond offers ayield to maturity of 9% per year, which is 150 basis points higher than the rate on the one-year savings deposit; however, you could earn a one-year HPR much less than 7.5% on the bond if long-term interest rates increase during the year. If U.K Government bond yields rise above 9%, then the price of the bond will fall, and the resulting capital loss will wipe out some or all of the 9% return you would haveearned if bond yields had remained unchanged over the course of the year.6. a. If businesses reduce their capital spending, then they arelikely to decreasetheir demand for funds. This will shift the demand curve in Figure 5.1 tothe left and reduce the equilibrium real rate of interest.b. Increased household saving will shift the supply of funds curve to the rightand cause real interest rates to fall.c. Open market purchases of U.S. Treasury securities by the Federal ReserveBoard is equivalent to an increase in the supply of funds (a shift of thesupply curve to the right). The equilibrium real rate of interest will fall.5-25-37.The average rates of return and standard deviations are quite different in the sub periods: STOCKS Mean Deviation Skewness Kurtosis1926 –2005 12.15% 20.26% -0.3605 -0.0673 1976 –2005 13.85% 15.68% -0.4575 -0.6489 1926 –1941 6.39% 30.33% -0.0022 -1.0716BONDSMean DeviationSkewness Kurtosis1926 – 2005 5.68% 8.09% 0.9903 1.6314 1976 – 2005 9.57% 10.32% 0.3772 -0.0329 1926 – 19414.42%4.32% -0.5036 0.5034The most relevant statistics to use for projecting into thefuture would seem to be the statistics estimated over the period 1976-2005, because this later period seems to have been a different economic regime. After 1955, the U.S. economy entered the Keynesian era, when the Federal government actively attempted to stabilize the economy and to prevent extremes in boom and bust cycles. Note that the standard deviation of stock returns has decreased substantially in the later period while the standard deviation of bond returns has increased.8. Real interest rates are expected to rise. The investment activity will shift the demand for funds curve (in Figure 5.1) to the right. Therefore the equilibrium real interest rate will increase.9. a %88.50588.070.170.080.0i 1i R 1i 1R 1r ==-=+-=-++=b.r ≈ R - i = 80% - 70% = 10%Clearly, the approximation gives a real HPR that is too high.10. From Table 5.2, the average real rate on T-bills has been:0.72% a. T-bills: 0.72% real rate + 3% inflation = 3.72%b.Expected return on large stocks:3.72% T-bill rate + 8.40% historical risk premium = 12.12%c.The risk premium on stocks remains unchanged. A premium, the difference between two rates, is a real value, unaffected by inflation.11. E(r) = (0.1 × 15%) + (0.6 × 13%) + (0.3 × 7%) = 11.4%12. The expected dollar return on the investment in equities is $18,000 compared to the$5,000 expected return for T-bills. Therefore, the expectedrisk premium is $13,000.13. E(r X) = [0.2 × (?20%)] + [0.5 × 18%] + [0.3 × 50%] =20%E(r Y)= [0.2 × (?15%)] + [0.5 × 20%] + [0.3 × 10%] =10%14. σX 2 = [0.2 ? (– 20 – 20)2] + [0.5 ? (18 – 20)2] + [0.3 ? (50 – 20)2] = 592σX = 24.33%σY 2 = [0.2 ? (– 15 – 10)2] + [0.5 ? (20 – 10)2] + [0.3 ? (10 –10)2] = 175σX = 13.23%15. E(r) = (0.9 × 20%) + (0.1 × 10%) =19%16. E(r) = [0.2 × (?25%)] + [0.3 × 10%] + [0.5 × 24%] =10%17. The probability that the economy will be neutral is 0.50, or 50%. Given a neutraleconomy, the stock will experience poor performance 30% of the time. Theprobability of both poor stock performance and a neutral economy is therefore:0.30 ? 0.50 = 0.15 = 15%18. a. Probability Distribution of the HPR on the Stock Market and Put:STOCK PUTState of the Economy ProbabilityEnding Price +DividendHPR Ending Value HPRBoom 0.30 $134 34% $ 0.00 -100% Normal Growth 0.50 $114 14% $ 0.00 -100% Recession 0.20 $ 84 -16% $ 29.50 146% Remember that the cost of the index fund is $100 per share, and the cost of the put option is $12.5-4b. The cost of one share of the index fund plus a put option is $112. Theprobability distribution of the HPR on the portfolio is:State of the Economy ProbabilityEnding Price +Put +DividendHPR= (134 - 112)/112Normal Growth 0.50 $114.00 1.8% = (114 - 112)/112 Recession 0.20 $113.50 1.3% = (113.50 - 112)/112c. Buying the put option guarantees the investor a minimum HPR of 1.3%regardless of what happens to the stock's price. Thus, it offers insuranceagainst a price decline.19. The probability distribution of the dollar return on CD plus call option is:State of the Economy ProbabilityEnding Valueof CDEnding Valueof CallCombinedValueBoom 0.30 $114.00 $19.50 $133.50 Normal Growth 0.50 $114.00 $ 0.00 $114.00 Recession 0.20 $114.00 $ 0.00 $114.00 5-5。
投资学精要（博迪）（第五版）习题答案英文版chapter7
投资学精要（博迪）（第五版）习题答案英文版chapter7Essentials of Investments (BKM 5th Ed.)Answers to Selected Problems – Lecture 4Note: The solutions to Example 6.4 and the concept checks are provided in the text.Chapter 6:23. In the regression of the excess return of Stock ABC on the market, the square of thecorrelation coefficient is 0.296, which indicates that 29.6% of the variance of the excesss return of ABC is explained by the market (systematic risk).Chapter 7:3. E(R p) = R f + βp[E(R M) - R f]0.20 = 0.05 + β(0.15 - 0.05)β = 0.15/0.10 = 1.5β=0 implies E(R)=R f, not zero.6. a) False:b) False: Investors of a diversified portfolio require a risk premium for systematic risk. Only thesystematic portion of total risk is compensated.c) False: 75% of the portfolio should be in the market and 25% in T-bills.βp=(0.75 * 1) + (0.25 * 0) = 0.758. Not possible. Portfolio A has a higher beta than B, but a lower expected return.9. Possible. If the CAPM is valid, the expected rate of return compensates only for market risk (beta),rather than for nonsystematic risk. Part of A’s risk may be nonsystematic.10. Not possible. If the CAPM is valid, the market portfolio is the most efficient and a higher reward-to-variability ratio than any other security. In other words, the CML must be better than the CAL for any other security. Here, the slope of the CAL for A is 0.5 while the slope of the CML is 0.33.11. Not possible. Portfolio A clearly dominates the market portfolio with a lower standard deviationand a higher expected return. The CML must be better than the CAL for security A.12. Not possible. Security A has an expected return of 22% based on CAPM and an actual return of16%. Security A is below the SML and is therefore overpriced. It is also clear that security A has a higher beta than the market, but a lower return which is not consistent with CAPM.13. Not possible. Security A has an expected return of 17.2% and an actual return of 16%. Security A isbelow the SML and is therefore overpriced.14. Possible. Portfolio A has a lower expected return and lower standard deviation than the market andthus plots below the CML.17. Using the SML: 6 = 8 + β(18 – 8)β = –2/10 = –.221. The expected return of portfolio F equals the risk-free rate since its beta equals 0. Portfolio A’sratio of risk premium to beta is: (10-4)/1 = 6.0%. You can think of this as the slope of the pricing line for Security A. Portfolio E’s ratio of risk premium to beta is: (9-4)/(2/3) = 7.5%, suggesting that Portfolio E is not on the same pricing line as security A. In other words, there is an arbitrage opportunity here.For example, if you created a new portfolio by investing 1/3in the risk-free security and 2/3 insecurity A, you would have a portfolio with a beta of 2/3 and an expected return equal to (1/3)*4% + (2/3)*10% = 8%. Since this new portfolio has the same beta as security E (2/3) but a lowerexpected return (8% vs. 9%) there is clearly an arbitrage opportunity.26. The APT factors must correlate with major sources of uncertainty in the economy. These factorswould correlate with unexpected changes in consumption and investment opportunities. DNP, the rate of inflation, and interest rates are candidates for factors that can be expected to determine risk premia. Industrial production varies with the business cycle, and thus is a candidate for a factor that is correlated with uncertainties related to investment opportunities in the economy.27. A revised estimate of the rate of return on this stock would be the old estimate plus the sum of the expected changes in the factors multiplied by the sensitivity coefficients to each factor:revised R i = 14% + 1.0(1%) + 0.4(1%) = 15.4%28. E(R P) = r f + βP1[E(R1) - R f] + βP2[E(R2) - R f]Use each security’s sensitivity to the factors to solve for the risk premia on the factors:Portfolio A: 40% = 7% + 1.8γ1 + 2.1γ2Portfolio B: 10% = 7% + 2.0γ1 + (-0.5)γ2Solving these two equations simultaneously gives γ1 = 4.47 and γ2 = 11.88.This gives the following expected return beta relationship for the economy:E(R P) = 0.07 + 4.47βP1 + 11.88βP230. d. From the CAPM, the fair expected return = 8% + 1.25 (15% - 8%) = 16.75%Actually expected return = 17%α = 17% - 16.75% = 0.25%31. d. The risk-free rate34. d. You need to know the risk-free rate. For example, if we assume a risk-free rate of 4%, then the alphaof security R is 2.0% and it lies above the SML. If we assume a risk-free rate of 8%, then the alpha ofsecurity R is zero and it lies on the SML.40. d.。
投资学精要(博迪)(第五版)习题答案英文版chapter3
Essentials of Investments (BKM 5th Ed.)Answers to Selected Problems – Lecture 2Chapter 3:1. a) In addition to the explicit fees of $70,000, FBN appears to have paid an implicit pricein underpricing of the IPO. The underpricing is $3/share or $300,000 total, implyingtotal costs of $370,000.b) No. The underwriters do not capture the part of the costs corresponding to theunderpricing. The underpricing may be a rational marketing strategy. Without it, theunderwriters would need to spend more resources to place the issue with the public.They would then need to charge higher explicit fees to the issuing firm. The issuingfirm may be just as well off paying the implicit issuance cost represented by theunderpricing.2. Potential losses are unlimited due to the fact that, theoretically, there is no limit on the priceincrease of a stock.The stop-buy order limits the losses from the short position. If the stop-buy order can be filled at $128, the maximum possible loss is $8 per share. One should keep in mind, however, that while the stop-buy order is triggered when the stock price hits $128, the order may not be filled at exactly $128.6. a) The market buy order is filled at $50.25 (the best limit-sell order) due to pricepriority.b) The next market buy order would be filled at $51.50 since this is the next best price.c) You should increase your position. There is considerable buying pressure just below $50,meaning that downside risk is limited. In contrast, limit sell orders are sparse,meaning that a moderate buy order could result in a substantial price increase.7. a) Buy 200 shares of Telecom at $50/share = $10,000.Sell 200 shares of Telecom at $50*(1.1) = $11,000.Pay interest of $5,000 * .08 = $400.Your Holding Period Return (HPR) = ($11,000 - 10,000 - 400)/$5,000 = 12%b) Ignoring the interest payment,Margin = (Value of Securities - Loan)/Value of Securities0.30 = (200*P - $5,000)/200*P or P = $35.719. Cost of purchase is $40 x 500 = $20,000. You borrow $5000 from your broker, and invest $15,000of your own funds. Your margin account starts out with a net worth of $15,000.a. (i) Net worth rises by $2,000 from $15,000 to $44 × 500 – $5,000 = $17,000.Percentage gain = $2,000/$15,000 = .133 = 13.3%(ii) With unchanged price, net worth remains unchanged.Percentage gain = zero(iii) Net worth falls to $36 × 500 – $5,000 = $13,000.Percentage gain = –$2,000/$15,000 = –.133 = –13.3%The relationship between the percentage change in the price of the stock and the investor’s percentage gain is given by:% gain = % change in price × Total investment investor's initial equity = % change in price × 1.33For example, when the stock price rises from 40 to 44, the percentage change in price is 10%, while the percentage gain for the investor is 1.33 times as large, 13.3%:% gain = 10% × $20,000$15,000 = 13.3%b. The value of the 500 shares is 500P. Equity is 500P – 5000. You will receive a margin call when500P-5000500P = .25 or when P = $13.33.c. The value of the 500 shares is 500P. But now you have borrowed $10,000 instead of $5,000. Therefore, equity is only 500P – $10,000. You will receive a margin call when500P-10,000500P = .25 or when P = $26.67.With less equity in the account, you are far more vulnerable to a margin call.d. The margin loan with accumulated interest after one year is $5,000 x 1.08 = $5,400. Therefore, equity in your account is 500P – $5,400. Initial equity was $15,000. Therefore, your rate of return after one year is as follows:(i) (500 × $44 – $5400) – $15,00015,000= .1067, or 10.67%.(ii) (500 × $40 – $5400) – $15,00015,000= –.0267, or –2.67%.(iii) (500 × $36 – $5400) – $15,00015,000= –.160, or –16.0%.The relationship between the percentage change in the price of Intel and investor’s percentage return is given by:% gain = % change in price x Total investment investor's initial equity – 8% x Funds borrowed Initial net worthFor example, when the stock price rises from 40 to 44, the percentage change in price is 10%, while the percentage gain for the investor is10% × 20,00015,000 – 8% × 500015,000 = 10.67%e. The value of the 500 shares is 500P. Equity is 500P – 5,400. You will receive a margin call when500P – 5400500P= .25 or when P = $14.4010. a)The gain or loss on the short position is –500 x ∆P. Invested funds are $15,000.Therefore the rate of return = (-500 x ∆P)/15,000. The returns in each of the threescenarios are:(i) (-500 x 4)/15000 = -13.3%(ii) (-500 x 0)/15000 = 0%(iii) (-500 x (–4))/15000 = 13.3%b)Total assets in the margin account are $20,000 (from the sale of stock) plus $15,000(the initial margin) = $35,000. Liabilities are 500P (the price of buying back theshares). A margin call will be issued when:(20,000 + 15,000 – 500P)/500P = 0.25 or P=$56c)With a $1 dividend, the short position must also pay $1 per share or $500 ($1 x 500)on the borrowed shares. The rate of return will be (-500 x ∆P – 500)/15,000.(i) [(-500 x 4) – 500]/15000 = -16.7%(ii) [(-500 x 0) – 500]/15000 = -3.33%(iii) [(-500 x (–4)) – 500]/15000 = 10.0%Liabilities are now (500P + 500). A margin call will be issued when:(20,000 + 15,000 – 500P - 500)/500P = 0.25 or P=$55.2013. a)55 ½ b)55 ¼ c)The trade will not be executed since the price on the limit sell order is higher than the quotedbid price (and the quoted ask price). d) In a purely dealer market, the trade will not be executed since the price on the limit buy orderis lower than the quoted ask price and all buy orders must be executed against the dealer’s ask quote.However, even on the Nasdaq market, customer limit orders now get priority over dealerquotes when they offer a better price than the quotes. In addition, the order could besubmitted to an ECN where it would set the inside quote. As a result, the Nasdaq dealermarket is looking more and more like an exchange market (see 14(b) below). Since this limitbuy order is offering to pay a higher price than the dealer (whose bid quote is 55¼), the limitorder would be executed against the next incoming market sell order.14. a) There can be price improvement for the two market orders. Brokers for each of themarket orders (i.e., the buy and the sell orders) can agree to do a trade inside thequoted spread. For example, they can trade at $55 3/8, thus improving the price forboth customers by $1/8 relative to the quoted bid and ask prices. The buyer gets thestock for $1/8 less than the quoted ask price and the seller receives $1/8 more for thestock than the quoted bid price.b) Whereas the limit buy order at $55 3/8 would not be executed in a purely dealer market(since the ask price is $55 ½), it could be executed in an exchange market. A brokerfor another customer with an order to sell at the market price would view the limitbuy order as the best bid price. The two brokers could agree to the trade and bring itto the specialist who would then execute the trade.19. d) Your order will be triggered at a price of $55. However, when the stock price dropsbelow your stop-loss price of $55, your stop-loss order immediately becomes amarket order and is executed at the prevailing market price. Thus, you could get $55per share, but you could also get a little bit more or a little bit less.。
博迪投资学课后答案
CHAPTER 1: THE INVESTMENT ENVIRONMENT PROBLEM SETS1. Ultimately, it is true that real assets determine the material well being of an economy.Nevertheless, individuals can benefit when financial engineering creates new products that allow them to manage their portfolios of financial assets more efficiently. Becausebundling and unbundling creates financial products with new properties and sensitivities to various sources of risk, it allows investors to hedge particular sources of risk moreefficiently.2.Securitization requires access to a large number of potential investors. To attract theseinvestors, the capital market needs:(1) a safe system of business laws and low probability of confiscatorytaxation/regulation;(2) a well-developed investment banking industry;(3) a well-developed system of brokerage and financial transactions, and;(4)well-developed media, particularly financial reporting.These characteristics are found in (indeed make for) a well-developed financial market. 3. Securitization leads to disintermediation; that is, securitization provides a means formarket participants to bypass intermediaries. For example, mortgage-backed securities channel funds to the housing market without requiring that banks or thrift institutionsmake loans from their own portfolios. As securitization progresses, financialintermediaries must increase other activities such as providing short-term liquidity toconsumers and small business, and financial services.4. Financial assets make it easy for large firms to raise the capital needed to finance theirinvestments in real assets. If General Motors, for example, could not issue stocks orbonds to the general public, it would have a far more difficult time raising capital.Contraction of the supply of financial assets would make financing more difficult,thereby increasing the cost of capital. A higher cost of capital results in less investment and lower real growth.5. Even if the firm does not need to issue stock in any particular year, the stock market is stillimportant to the financial manager. The stock price provides important information about how the market values the firm's investment projects. For example, if the stock price rises considerably, managers might conclude that the market believes the firm's future prospects are bright. This might be a useful signal to the firm to proceed with an investment such as an expansion of the firm's business.In addition, the fact that shares can be traded in the secondary market makes the sharesmore attractive to investors since investors know that, when they wish to, they will be able to sell their shares. This in turn makes investors more willing to buy shares in a primary offering, and thus improves the terms on which firms can raise money in the equity market.6. a. Cash is a financial asset because it is the liability of the federal government.b. No. The cash does not directly add to the productive capacity of the economy.c. Yes.d. Society as a whole is worse off, since taxpayers, as a group will make up for theliability.7. a. The bank loan is a financial liability for Lanni. (Lanni's IOU is the bank's financialasset.) The cash Lanni receives is a financial asset. The new financial asset createdis Lanni's promissory note (that is, Lanni’s IOU to the bank).b. Lanni transfers financial assets (cash) to the software developers. In return, Lannigets a real asset, the completed software. No financial assets are created ordestroyed; cash is simply transferred from one party to another.c. Lanni gives the real asset (the software) to Microsoft in exchange for a financialasset, 1,500 shares of Microsoft stock. If Microsoft issues new shares in order to payLanni, then this would represent the creation of new financial assets.d. Lanni exchanges one financial asset (1,500 shares of stock) for another ($120,000).Lanni gives a financial asset ($50,000 cash) to the bank and gets back anotherfinancial asset (its IOU). The loan is "destroyed" in the transaction, since it is retiredwhen paid off and no longer exists.8. a.AssetsLiabilities &Shareholders’ equityCash $ 70,000 Bank loan $ 50,000 Computers 30,000 Shareholders’ equity Total 50,000$100,000 Total $100,000Ratio of real assets to total assets = $30,000/$100,000 = 0.30b.AssetsLiabilities & Shareholders’ equity Software product*$ 70,000 Bank loan $ 50,000 Computers30,000 Shareholders’ equity Total 50,000 $100,000 Total $100,000 *Valued at costRatio of real assets to total assets = $100,000/$100,000 = 1.0c.AssetsLiabilities & Shareholders’ equity Microsoft shares$120,000 Bank loan $ 50,000 Computers30,000 Shareholders’ equity Total 100,000 $150,000 Total $150,000 Ratio of real assets to total assets = $30,000/$150,000 = 0.20Conclusion: when the firm starts up and raises working capital, it is characterized bya low ratio of real assets to total assets. When it is in full production, it has a highratio of real assets to total assets. When the project "shuts down" and the firm sells itoff for cash, financial assets once again replace real assets.9. For commercial banks, the ratio is: $107.5/$10,410.9 = 0.010For non-financial firms, the ratio is: $13,295/$25,164 = 0.528The difference should be expected primarily because the bulk of the business offinancial institutions is to make loans; which are financial assets for financialinstitutions.10. a. Primary-market transactionb. Derivative assetsc.Investors who wish to hold gold without the complication and cost of physicalstorage.11. a. A fixed salary means that compensation is (at least in the short run) independent ofthe firm's success. This salary structure does not tie the manager’s immediatecompensation to the success of the firm. However, the manager might view this asthe safest compensation structure and therefore value it more highly.b. A salary that is paid in the form of stock in the firm means that the manager earns themost when the shareholders’ wealth is maximized. This structure is therefore mostlikely to align the interests of managers and shareholders. If stock compensation isoverdone, however, the manager might view it as overly risky since the manager’scareer is already linked to the firm, and this undiversified exposure would beexacerbated with a large stock position in the firm.c. Call options on shares of the firm create great incentives for managers to contribute tothe firm’s success. In some cases, however, stock options can lead to other agencyproblems. For example, a manager with numerous call options might be tempted totake on a very risky investment project, reasoning that if the project succeeds thepayoff will be huge, while if it fails, the losses are limited to the lost value of theoptions. Shareholders, in contrast, bear the losses as well as the gains on the project,and might be less willing to assume that risk.12. Even if an individual shareholder could monitor and improve managers’ performance, andthereby increase the value of the firm, the payoff would be small, since the ownership share in a large corporation would be very small. For example, if you own $10,000 of GM stock and can increase the value of the firm by 5%, a very ambitious goal, you benefit by only:0.05 × $10,000 = $500In contrast, a bank that has a multimillion-dollar loan outstanding to the firm has a big stake in making sure that the firm can repay the loan. It is clearly worthwhile for the bank tospend considerable resources to monitor the firm.13. Mutual funds accept funds from small investors and invest, on behalf of these investors,in the national and international securities markets.Pension funds accept funds and then invest, on behalf of current and future retirees, thereby channeling funds from one sector of the economy to another.Venture capital firms pool the funds of private investors and invest in start-up firms.Banks accept deposits from customers and loan those funds to businesses, or use the funds to buy securities of large corporations.14. Treasury bills serve a purpose for investors who prefer a low-risk investment. Thelower average rate of return compared to stocks is the price investors pay forpredictability of investment performance and portfolio value.15. With a “top-down” investing style, you focus on asset allocation or the broad compositionof the entire portfolio, which is the major determinant of overall performance. Moreover,top-down management is the natural way to establish a portfolio with a level of riskconsistent with your risk tolerance. The disadvantage of an exclusive emphasis on top-down issues is that you may forfeit the potential high returns that could result fromidentifying and concentrating in undervalued securities or sectors of the market.With a “bottom-up” investing style, you try to benefit from identifying undervalued securities.The disadvantage is that you tend to overlook the overall composition of your portfolio,which may result in a non-diversified portfolio or a portfolio with a risk level inconsistentwith your level of risk tolerance. In addition, this technique tends to require more activemanagement, thus generating more transaction costs. Finally, your analysis may be incorrect, in which case you will have fruitlessly expended effort and money attempting to beat asimple buy-and-hold strategy.16. You should be skeptical. If the author actually knows how to achieve such returns, one mustquestion why the author would then be so ready to sell the secret to others. Financial markets are very competitive; one of the implications of this fact is that riches do not come easily.High expected returns require bearing some risk, and obvious bargains are few and farbetween. Odds are that the only one getting rich from the book is its author.17. a. The SEC website defines the difference between saving and investing in terms ofthe investment alternatives or the financial assets the individual chooses to acquire.According to the SEC website, saving is the process of acquiring a “safe” financialasset and investing is the process of acquiring “risky” financial assets.b. The economist’s definition of savings is the difference between income andconsumption. Investing is the process of allocating one’s savings among availableassets, both real assets and financial assets. The SEC definitions actually represent(according the economist’s definition) two kinds of investment alternatives.18. As is the case for the SEC definitions (see Problem 17), the SIA defines saving andinvesting as acquisition of alternative kinds of financial assets. According to the SIA,saving is the process of acquiring safe assets, generally from a bank, while investing isthe acquisition of other financial assets, such as stocks and bonds. On the other hand,the definitions in the chapter indicate that saving means spending less than one’s income.Investing is the process of allocating one’s savings among financial assets, includingsavings account deposits and money market accounts (“saving” according to the SIA),other financial assets such as stocks and bonds (“investing” according to the SIA), aswell as real assets.CHAPTER 2: ASSET CLASSES ANDFINANCIAL INSTRUMENTSPROBLEM SETS1. Preferred stock is like long-term debt in that it typically promises a fixed payment eachyear. In this way, it is a perpetuity. Preferred stock is also like long-term debt in that itdoes not give the holder voting rights in the firm.Preferred stock is like equity in that the firm is under no contractual obligation to make the preferred stock dividend payments. Failure to make payments does not set off corporate bankruptcy. With respect to the priority of claims to the assets of the firm in the event of corporate bankruptcy, preferred stock has a higher priority than common equity but a lower priority than bonds.2. Money market securities are called “cash equivalents” because of their great liquidity.The prices of money market securities are very stable, and they can be converted tocash (i.e., sold) on very short notice and with very low transaction costs.3. The spread will widen. Deterioration of the economy increases credit risk, that is, thelikelihood of default. Investors will demand a greater premium on debt securitiessubject to default risk.4. On the day we tried this experiment, 36 of the 50 stocks met this criterion, leading us toconclude that returns on stock investments can be quite volatile.5. a. You would have to pay the asked price of:118:31 = 118.96875% of par = $1,189.6875b. The coupon rate is 11.750% implying coupon payments of $117.50 annually or, moreprecisely, $58.75 semiannually.c.Current yield = Annual coupon income/price= $117.50/$1,189.6875 = 0.0988 = 9.88%6. P = $10,000/1.02 = $9,803.927. The total before-tax income is $4. After the 70% exclusion for preferred stock dividends, thetaxable income is: 0.30 × $4 = $1.20Therefore, taxes are: 0.30 × $1.20 = $0.36After-tax income is: $4.00 – $0.36 = $3.64Rate of return is: $3.64/$40.00 = 9.10%8. a. General Dynamics closed today at $74.59, which was $0.17 higher than yesterday’sprice. Yesterday’s closing price was: $74.42b. You could buy: $5,000/$74.59 = 67.03 sharesc. Your annual dividend income would be: 67.03 × $0.92 = $61.67d. The price-to-earnings ratio is 16 and the price is $74.59. Therefore:$74.59/Earnings per share = 16 Earnings per share = $4.669. a. At t = 0, the value of the index is: (90 + 50 + 100)/3 = 80At t = 1, the value of the index is: (95 + 45 + 110)/3 = 83.333The rate of return is: (83.333/80) − 1 = 4.17%b.In the absence of a split, Stock C would sell for 110, so the value of the indexwould be: 250/3 = 83.333After the split, Stock C sells for 55. Therefore, we need to find the divisor (d)such that:83.333 = (95 + 45 + 55)/d ⇒ d = 2.340c. The return is zero. The index remains unchanged because the return for each stockseparately equals zero.10. a. Total market value at t = 0 is: ($9,000 + $10,000 + $20,000) = $39,000T otal market value at t = 1 is: ($9,500 + $9,000 + $22,000) = $40,500R ate of return = ($40,500/$39,000) – 1 = 3.85%b.The return on each stock is as follows:r A r = (95/90) – 1 = 0.0556B r = (45/50) – 1 = –0.10CThe equally-weighted average is:= (110/100) – 1 = 0.10[0.0556 + (-0.10) + 0.10]/3 = 0.0185 = 1.85%11. The after-tax yield on the corporate bonds is: 0.09 × (1 – 0.30) = 0.0630 = 6.30%Therefore, municipals must offer at least 6.30% yields.12. Equation (2.2) shows that the equivalent taxable yield is: r = r m/(1 – t)a. 4.00%b. 4.44%c. 5.00%d. 5.71%13. a. The higher coupon bond.b. The call with the lower exercise price.c. The put on the lower priced stock.14. a. You bought the contract when the futures price was 1427.50 (see Figure 2.12). Thecontract closes at a price of 1300, which is 127.50 less than the original futures price. Thecontract multiplier is $250. Therefore, the loss will be:127.50 × $250 = $31,875b. Open interest is 601,655 contracts.15. a. Since the stock price exceeds the exercise price, you will exercise the call.The payoff on the option will be: $42 − $40 = $2The option originally cost $2.14, so the profit is: $2.00 − $2.14 = −$0.14Rate of return = −$0.14/$2.14 = −0.0654 = −6.54%b. If the call has an exercise price of $42.50, you would not exercise for any stock price of$42.50 or less. The loss on the call would be the initial cost: $0.72c. Since the stock price is less than the exercise price, you will exercise the put.The payoff on the option will be: $42.50 − $42.00 = $0.50The option originally cost $1.83 so the profit is: $0.50 − $1.83 = −$1.33Rate of return = −$1.33/$1.83 = −0.7268 = −72.68%16. There is always a possibility that the option will be in-the-money at some time prior toexpiration. Investors will pay something for this possibility of a positive payoff.17.Value of call at expiration Initial Cost Profita. 0 4 -4b. 0 4 -4c. 0 4 -4d. 5 4 1e. 10 4 6Value of put at expiration Initial Cost Profita. 10 6 4b. 5 6 -1c. 0 6 -6d. 0 6 -6e. 0 6 -618. A put option conveys the right to sell the underlying asset at the exercise price. A shortposition in a futures contract carries an obligation to sell the underlying asset at thefutures price.19. A call option conveys the right to buy the underlying asset at the exercise price. A longposition in a futures contract carries an obligation to buy the underlying asset at thefutures price.CFA PROBLEMS1.(d)2. The equivalent taxable yield is: 6.75%/(1 − 0.34) = 10.23%3. (a) Writing a call entails unlimited potential losses as the stock price rises.4. a. The taxable bond. With a zero tax bracket, the after-tax yield for the taxable bond isthe same as the before-tax yield (5%), which is greater than the yield on the municipalbond.b.The taxable bond. The after-tax yield for the taxable bond is:0.05 × (1 – 0.10) = 4.5%c.You are indifferent. The after-tax yield for the taxable bond is:0.05 × (1 – 0.20) = 4.0%The after-tax yield is the same as that of the municipal bond.d. The municipal bond offers the higher after-tax yield for investors in tax brackets above20%.5.If the after-tax yields are equal, then: 0.056 = 0.08 × (1 – t)This implies that t = 0.30 =30%.CHAPTER 2: ASSET CLASSES ANDFINANCIAL INSTRUMENTSPROBLEM SETS1. Preferred stock is like long-term debt in that it typically promises a fixed payment eachyear. In this way, it is a perpetuity. Preferred stock is also like long-term debt in that itdoes not give the holder voting rights in the firm.Preferred stock is like equity in that the firm is under no contractual obligation to make the preferred stock dividend payments. Failure to make payments does not set off corporate bankruptcy. With respect to the priority of claims to the assets of the firm in the event of corporate bankruptcy, preferred stock has a higher priority than common equity but a lower priority than bonds.2. Money market securities are called “cash equivalents” because of their great liquidity.The prices of money market securities are very stable, and they can be converted tocash (i.e., sold) on very short notice and with very low transaction costs.3. The spread will widen. Deterioration of the economy increases credit risk, that is, thelikelihood of default. Investors will demand a greater premium on debt securitiessubject to default risk.4. On the day we tried this experiment, 36 of the 50 stocks met this criterion, leading us toconclude that returns on stock investments can be quite volatile.5. a. You would have to pay the asked price of:118:31 = 118.96875% of par = $1,189.6875b. The coupon rate is 11.750% implying coupon payments of $117.50 annually or, moreprecisely, $58.75 semiannually.c.Current yield = Annual coupon income/price= $117.50/$1,189.6875 = 0.0988 = 9.88%6. P = $10,000/1.02 = $9,803.927. The total before-tax income is $4. After the 70% exclusion for preferred stock dividends, thetaxable income is: 0.30 × $4 = $1.20Therefore, taxes are: 0.30 × $1.20 = $0.36After-tax income is: $4.00 – $0.36 = $3.64Rate of return is: $3.64/$40.00 = 9.10%8. a. General Dynamics closed today at $74.59, which was $0.17 higher than yesterday’sprice. Yesterday’s closing price was: $74.42b. You could buy: $5,000/$74.59 = 67.03 sharesc. Your annual dividend income would be: 67.03 × $0.92 = $61.67d. The price-to-earnings ratio is 16 and the price is $74.59. Therefore:$74.59/Earnings per share = 16 Earnings per share = $4.669. a. At t = 0, the value of the index is: (90 + 50 + 100)/3 = 80At t = 1, the value of the index is: (95 + 45 + 110)/3 = 83.333The rate of return is: (83.333/80) − 1 = 4.17%b.In the absence of a split, Stock C would sell for 110, so the value of the indexwould be: 250/3 = 83.333After the split, Stock C sells for 55. Therefore, we need to find the divisor (d)such that:83.333 = (95 + 45 + 55)/d ⇒ d = 2.340c. The return is zero. The index remains unchanged because the return for each stockseparately equals zero.10. a. Total market value at t = 0 is: ($9,000 + $10,000 + $20,000) = $39,000T otal market value at t = 1 is: ($9,500 + $9,000 + $22,000) = $40,500R ate of return = ($40,500/$39,000) – 1 = 3.85%b.The return on each stock is as follows:r A r = (95/90) – 1 = 0.0556B r = (45/50) – 1 = –0.10CThe equally-weighted average is:= (110/100) – 1 = 0.10[0.0556 + (-0.10) + 0.10]/3 = 0.0185 = 1.85%11. The after-tax yield on the corporate bonds is: 0.09 × (1 – 0.30) = 0.0630 = 6.30%Therefore, municipals must offer at least 6.30% yields.12. Equation (2.2) shows that the equivalent taxable yield is: r = r m/(1 – t)a. 4.00%b. 4.44%c. 5.00%d. 5.71%13. a. The higher coupon bond.b. The call with the lower exercise price.c. The put on the lower priced stock.14. a. You bought the contract when the futures price was 1427.50 (see Figure 2.12). Thecontract closes at a price of 1300, which is 127.50 less than the original futures price. Thecontract multiplier is $250. Therefore, the loss will be:127.50 × $250 = $31,875b. Open interest is 601,655 contracts.15. a. Since the stock price exceeds the exercise price, you will exercise the call.The payoff on the option will be: $42 − $40 = $2The option originally cost $2.14, so the profit is: $2.00 − $2.14 = −$0.14Rate of return = −$0.14/$2.14 = −0.0654 = −6.54%b. If the call has an exercise price of $42.50, you would not exercise for any stock price of$42.50 or less. The loss on the call would be the initial cost: $0.72c. Since the stock price is less than the exercise price, you will exercise the put.The payoff on the option will be: $42.50 − $42.00 = $0.50The option originally cost $1.83 so the profit is: $0.50 − $1.83 = −$1.33Rate of return = −$1.33/$1.83 = −0.7268 = −72.68%16. There is always a possibility that the option will be in-the-money at some time prior toexpiration. Investors will pay something for this possibility of a positive payoff.17.Value of call at expiration Initial Cost Profita. 0 4 -4b. 0 4 -4c. 0 4 -4d. 5 4 1e. 10 4 6Value of put at expiration Initial Cost Profita. 10 6 4b. 5 6 -1c. 0 6 -6d. 0 6 -6e. 0 6 -618. A put option conveys the right to sell the underlying asset at the exercise price. A shortposition in a futures contract carries an obligation to sell the underlying asset at thefutures price.19. A call option conveys the right to buy the underlying asset at the exercise price. A longposition in a futures contract carries an obligation to buy the underlying asset at thefutures price.CFA PROBLEMS1.(d)2. The equivalent taxable yield is: 6.75%/(1 − 0.34) = 10.23%3. (a) Writing a call entails unlimited potential losses as the stock price rises.4. a. The taxable bond. With a zero tax bracket, the after-tax yield for the taxable bond isthe same as the before-tax yield (5%), which is greater than the yield on the municipalbond.b.The taxable bond. The after-tax yield for the taxable bond is:0.05 × (1 – 0.10) = 4.5%c.You are indifferent. The after-tax yield for the taxable bond is:0.05 × (1 – 0.20) = 4.0%The after-tax yield is the same as that of the municipal bond.d. The municipal bond offers the higher after-tax yield for investors in tax brackets above20%.5.If the after-tax yields are equal, then: 0.056 = 0.08 × (1 – t)This implies that t = 0.30 =30%.CHAPTER 3: HOW SECURITIES ARE TRADEDPROBLEM SETS1.Answers to this problem will vary.2. The SuperDot system expedites the flow of orders from exchange members to thespecialists. It allows members to send computerized orders directly to the floor of theexchange, which allows the nearly simultaneous sale of each stock in a large portfolio.This capability is necessary for program trading.3. The dealer sets the bid and asked price. Spreads should be higher on inactively traded stocksand lower on actively traded stocks.4. a. In principle, potential losses are unbounded, growing directly with increases in theprice of IBM.b. If the stop-buy order can be filled at $128, the maximum possible loss per share is$8. If the price of IBM shares goes above $128, then the stop-buy order would beexecuted, limiting the losses from the short sale.5. a. The stock is purchased for: 300 × $40 = $12,000The amount borrowed is $4,000. Therefore, the investor put up equity, or margin,of $8,000.b.If the share price falls to $30, then the value of the stock falls to $9,000. By theend of the year, the amount of the loan owed to the broker grows to:$4,000 × 1.08 = $4,320Therefore, the remaining margin in the investor’s account is:$9,000 − $4,320 = $4,680The percentage margin is now: $4,680/$9,000 = 0.52 = 52%Therefore, the investor will not receive a margin call.c.The rate of return on the investment over the year is:(Ending equity in the account − Initial equity)/Initial equity= ($4,680 − $8,000)/$8,000 = −0.415 = −41.5%6. a. The initial margin was: 0.50 × 1,000 × $40 = $20,000As a result of the increase in the stock price Old Economy Traders loses:$10 × 1,000 = $10,000Therefore, margin decreases by $10,000. Moreover, Old Economy Traders mustpay the dividend of $2 per share to the lender of the shares, so that the margin inthe account decreases by an additional $2,000. Therefore, the remaining margin is:$20,000 – $10,000 – $2,000 = $8,000b.The percentage margin is: $8,000/$50,000 = 0.16 = 16% So there will be a margin call.c.The equity in the account decreased from $20,000 to $8,000 in one year, for a rate of return of: (−$12,000/$20,000) = −0.60 = −60%7. Much of what the specialist does (e.g., crossing orders and maintaining the limit order book)can be accomplished by a computerized system. In fact, some exchanges use an automated system for night trading. A more difficult issue to resolve is whether the more discretionary activities of specialists involving trading for their own accounts (e.g., maintaining an orderly market) can be replicated by a computer system.8. a.The buy order will be filled at the best limit-sell order price: $50.25 b. The next market buy order will be filled at the next-best limit-sell orderprice: $51.50c. You would want to increase your inventory. There is considerable buying demand atprices just below $50, indicating that downside risk is limited. In contrast, limit sellorders are sparse, indicating that a moderate buy order could result in a substantialprice increase.9. a.You buy 200 shares of Telecom for $10,000. These shares increase in value by 10%,or $1,000. You pay interest of: 0.08 × $5,000 = $400 The rate of return will be:000,5$400$000,1$−= 0.12 = 12%。
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Essentials of Investments (BKM 5th Ed.)Answers to Selected Problems – Lecture 4Note: The solutions to Example 6.4 and the concept checks are provided in the text.Chapter 6:23. In the regression of the excess return of Stock ABC on the market, the square of thecorrelation coefficient is 0.296, which indicates that 29.6% of the variance of the excesss return of ABC is explained by the market (systematic risk).Chapter 7:3. E(R p) = R f + βp[E(R M) - R f]0.20 = 0.05 + β(0.15 - 0.05)β = 0.15/0.10 = 1.5β=0 implies E(R)=R f, not zero.6. a) False:b) False: Investors of a diversified portfolio require a risk premium for systematic risk. Only thesystematic portion of total risk is compensated.c) False: 75% of the portfolio should be in the market and 25% in T-bills.βp=(0.75 * 1) + (0.25 * 0) = 0.758. Not possible. Portfolio A has a higher beta than B, but a lower expected return.9. Possible. If the CAPM is valid, the expected rate of return compensates only for market risk (beta),rather than for nonsystematic risk. Part of A’s risk may be nonsystematic.10. Not possible. If the CAPM is valid, the market portfolio is the most efficient and a higher reward-to-variability ratio than any other security. In other words, the CML must be better than the CAL for any other security. Here, the slope of the CAL for A is 0.5 while the slope of the CML is 0.33.11. Not possible. Portfolio A clearly dominates the market portfolio with a lower standard deviationand a higher expected return. The CML must be better than the CAL for security A.12. Not possible. Security A has an expected return of 22% based on CAPM and an actual return of16%. Security A is below the SML and is therefore overpriced. It is also clear that security A has a higher beta than the market, but a lower return which is not consistent with CAPM.13. Not possible. Security A has an expected return of 17.2% and an actual return of 16%. Security A isbelow the SML and is therefore overpriced.14. Possible. Portfolio A has a lower expected return and lower standard deviation than the market andthus plots below the CML.17. Using the SML: 6 = 8 + β(18 – 8)β = –2/10 = –.221. The expected return of portfolio F equals the risk-free rate since its beta equals 0. Portfolio A’sratio of risk premium to beta is: (10-4)/1 = 6.0%. You can think of this as the slope of the pricing line for Security A. Portfolio E’s ratio of risk premium to beta is: (9-4)/(2/3) = 7.5%, suggesting that Portfolio E is not on the same pricing line as security A. In other words, there is an arbitrage opportunity here.For example, if you created a new portfolio by investing 1/3 in the risk-free security and 2/3 insecurity A, you would have a portfolio with a beta of 2/3 and an expected return equal to (1/3)*4% + (2/3)*10% = 8%. Since this new portfolio has the same beta as security E (2/3) but a lowerexpected return (8% vs. 9%) there is clearly an arbitrage opportunity.26. The APT factors must correlate with major sources of uncertainty in the economy. These factorswould correlate with unexpected changes in consumption and investment opportunities. DNP, the rate of inflation, and interest rates are candidates for factors that can be expected to determine risk premia. Industrial production varies with the business cycle, and thus is a candidate for a factor that is correlated with uncertainties related to investment opportunities in the economy.27. A revised estimate of the rate of return on this stock would be the old estimate plus the sum of the expectedchanges in the factors multiplied by the sensitivity coefficients to each factor:revised R i = 14% + 1.0(1%) + 0.4(1%) = 15.4%28. E(R P) = r f + βP1[E(R1) - R f] + βP2[E(R2) - R f]Use each security’s sensitivity to the factors to solve for the risk premia on the factors:Portfolio A: 40% = 7% + 1.8γ1 + 2.1γ2Portfolio B: 10% = 7% + 2.0γ1 + (-0.5)γ2Solving these two equations simultaneously gives γ1 = 4.47 and γ2 = 11.88.This gives the following expected return beta relationship for the economy:E(R P) = 0.07 + 4.47βP1 + 11.88βP230. d. From the CAPM, the fair expected return = 8% + 1.25 (15% - 8%) = 16.75%Actually expected return = 17%α = 17% - 16.75% = 0.25%31. d. The risk-free rate34. d. You need to know the risk-free rate. For example, if we assume a risk-free rate of 4%, then the alphaof security R is 2.0% and it lies above the SML. If we assume a risk-free rate of 8%, then the alpha ofsecurity R is zero and it lies on the SML.40. d.。