CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-20
CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-25

CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-251、Based on Exhibit 1, and meeting the Barksdales’ target equity allocation for【单选题】A.35.0%.B.54.5%.C.56.1%.正确答案:C答案解析:C is correct. The equity allocation of the Barksdale’s financial capital is calculated as2、Using the planning framework that Richards suggests, which person\\'s estimate for the after-tax primary capital is most accurate?【单选题】A.BosheB.AdamsC.Richards正确答案:B答案解析:Primary capital is the sum of assets that fall into the personal and market risk buckets. It includes the residence,municipal bond portfolio, global equity fund and cash equivalents. It excludes the values of MTL and the concentrated positions in CTAS public stock and the warehouse (investment real estate) – those are considered aspirational.3、Which of Perrin’s statements regarding his pension is/are correct?【单选题】A.Statement 1 onlyB.Statement 2 onlyC.Both Statement 1 and Statement 2正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. Unvested pension benefits are typically contingent on future work and are4、The most appropriate response to Gregory’s balance sheet question is:【单选题】A.the economic balance sheet only.B.the traditional balance sheet only.C.both the economic and the traditional balance sheets.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. The present value of expected future earnings is reflected on an economic5、Using the information in Exhibit 1 and Adams\\'s real estate proposals, which offer will provide the largest immediateaddition of funds to Richards\\'s stock and bond portfolios?【单选题】A.Offer 1B.Offer 2C.Offer 3正确答案:A答案解析:Immediate cash inflows available would include proceeds and the possible first rental payment in Offer 2; all cash flows are net of taxes. As shown in the table below Offer 1, selling the warehouse outright, produces the highest immediate cash flow net of taxes:。
CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-18

CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-181、Based on Delta's expectations regarding currencies, and assuming that interest rate parity holds, should Delta most likely recommend using forward contracts to hedge the portfolio\\'s British pound exposure?【单选题】A.No, because the euro is expected to depreciate by more than0.35%B.YesC.No, because the euro is expected to appreciate by more than0.35%正确答案:B答案解析:Using interest rate parity, the euro is expected to depreciate by 3.25% – 2.50% = 0.75%. Delta\\'s strategists believe that the euro will depreciate by only 0.35%. Based on expected returns alone, Delta should hedge the currency risk using a forward contract and lock in a 0.75% gain in British pounds.2、Is Markov correct regarding the necessary conditions toimmunize the GIC portfolio for his client?【单选题】A.No, he is incorrect regarding durationB.YesC.No, he is incorrect regarding the bond portfolio characteristics 正确答案:C答案解析:To immunize a portfolio\\'s target value or target yield against a change in the market yield, a manager must invest in a bond or a bond portfolio whose (1) duration is equal to the investment horizon and (2) initial present value of all cash flows equals the present value of the future liability. Thus, investing in a bond portfolio with a yield to maturity equal to the target yield and a maturity equal to the investment horizon does not assure that the target value will be achieved because of reinvestment risk.3、Which of Dreschler\\'s points comparing top-down analysis and bottom-up analysis is the most accurate? His point regarding:【单选题】A.estimates coming out of a recession.B.consistency of the results.C.detecting cyclical turns.正确答案:C答案解析:Most top-down models are of the econometric typeand rely on historical relationships to be the basis for assumptions about the future. Thus, they can be slow in detecting cyclical turns.4、Which of the following statements most likely indicates a belief that technical<span style="font-style: " microsoft="" yahei",="" 微软雅黑;"="">anomalies exist in the capital markets?【单选题】A.Statement 2.B.Statement 4.C.Statement 6.正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. Statement 4 indicates the belief 2. that buy/sell signals can be used to earn excess returns.5、By participating in OAM\\'s annual competition, Rayne employees least likely violate which of the following CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct?【单选题】A.Additional Compensation ArrangementsB.MisrepresentationC.Independence and Objectivity正确答案:A答案解析:Standard IV(B)–Additional Compensation Arrangements states that members and candidates must notaccept gifts, benefits, compensation, or consideration that competes with or might reasonably be expected to create a conflict of interest with their employer\\'s interests. In this case, holding a competition to encourage sales is unlikely to cause a conflict of interest with the employer\\'s interests. But by not disclosing the competition details, the sales agents are likely to misrepresent why they are making the recommendation to a client to buy high-fee, front-end-load financial products, so the sales agents would be in violation of Standard I(C)–Misrepresentation. In addition, by selling only high-fee, front-end-load products in the hopes of winning a competition without consideration of the client\\'s needs compromises the agents\\' independence and objectivity, thus violating Standard I(B)–Independence and Objectivity。
CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-26

CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-26l x Ward is scheduled to visit the corporate headquarters of Eva ns In dustries. Ward expects to use the inf ormatio n he obtai ns there to complete his research report on Eva ns stock. Ward lear ns that Eva ns plans to pay all of Ward's expe rises for the trip, including costs of meals, hotel room, and air transportation. Which of the following actions would be the best course for Ward to take under the Code and Standards?【单选题】A.Accept the expense・paid trip and write an objective report.B.Pay for all travel experises, including costs of meals and incidental items.C.Accept the expense・paid trip but disclose the value of the services accepted in the report.正确答案:B答案解析:The correct answer is B. The best course of action under Standard 1(B)—Independence and Objectivity is to avoid a conflict ofinterest whenever possible. Therefore, for Ward to pay for all hisexpenses is the correct answer. Answer C details a course of action in which the conflict would be disclosed, but the solution is not as appropriate as avoiding the conflict of interest. Answer A would not be the best course because it would not remove the appearance of a conflict of interest; even though the report would not be affected bythe reimbursement of expenses, it could appear to be.2、Are the three complianee procedures reviewed by Campanelli consistent with both the required and recommended standards of the CFA Institute Asset Manager Code of Professional Conduct?【单选题】A.No, the procedures regardi ng record rete ntion are incon siste nt.B.No, the procedures regardi ng portfolio review are incon siste nt.C.No, the procedures regarding investigation of complaints are incon siste nt・正确答案:c答案解析:C is correct. According to the recommendations of Section D(2) of the Asset Manager Code, where possible, the CCO should be independent from the investment and operations personnel and should report directly to the CEO or the board of directors.3、The strategy that is most likely to ben efit from the environment described by Monts in Statement 3 is to:【单选题】A.rotate from consumer non-cyclical to consumer cyclical sectors.B.increase exposure to the crossover sector.C.shift the portfolio's positions to shorter duration corporate bon ds.正确答案:c答案解析:Curve・adjustment trades take place when the portfolio manager expects credit spreads will widen (either overall or in a particular sector). The specific strategy is to shift the portfolio's exposure to shorten spread duration by selling Ion ger maturity corporate bonds and buying shorter maturity bon ds, which lowers the con tributi on to spread durati on.4、Sigma can most likely reduce credit risk in its OTC derivatives positions by changing which of the following practices?【单选题】tingB.Frequency of marking to marketC.Limiting counterparty exposure正确答案:B答案解析:Sigma typically enters two-year contracts and does not mark to market until expiratio n of the con tract. In creasi ng thefrequency of the marking to market will decrease credit risk. When a con tract is marked to market, the party for whom the con tract has a positive value receives payme nt from the counterparty, thus eliminoting credit risk. Consequently, more frequent marking to market decreases credit risk.5、Based on Exhibit 1, Kiest's liabilities would be classified as: 【单选题】A.Type I.B.Type II.C.Type III.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. Type I liabilities have cash outlays with known amounts and timing. The dates and amounts of Kiest's liabilities are known; therefore, they would be classified as Type I liabilities.6、If Motelli's current investment account of €250,000 is in vested in an asset which is expected to ear n annual in terest of 6.5 percent and no capital gains, what is his expected after tax accumulation in 15 years?【单选题】A.€578,664.B.€586,547.C.€642,960.正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. The after tax wealth accumulation for annually taxable income isFVIFi = [1 + r(l 一ti)]nFV = €250,000 x FVIFi = €250,000 x [1 + 0.065(1 一0.10))15= €586,5477、Based on Exhibit 1, which of the portfolios will best immunize SD&R's single liability?【单选题】A.Portfolio 1B.Portfolio 2C.Portfolio 3正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct・ In the case of a single liability, immunization is achieved by matchi ng the bond portfolio's Macaulay duration with the horizon date. DFC has a single liability of $500 million due in nine years. Portfolio 2 has a Macaulay duration of 8.9, which is closer to 9 than that of either Portfolio 1 or 3. Therefore, Portfolio 2 will best immunize the portfolio against the liability.8、N g's response to Kepler's question about the most efficient portfolio management strategy should be:【单选题】A.full replication.B.active management.C.an enhanced indexing strategy.正确答案:c答案解析:C is correct. Under an enhaneed indexing strategy, the index is replicated with fewer than the full set of index constituents but still matches the original index's primary risk factors. This strategy replicates the index performanee under different market seenarios more efficiently than the full replication of a pure indexing approach.9、Considering Zubov's statements to the investment committee regarding Hoven University's endowment, he is least likely correct with respect to:【单选题】A.liquidity need.B.total return objective.C.risk tolera nee.正确答案:C答案解析:The endowment〃s risk toleranee is low to moderate, not high, because the endowment's contribution represents 25% of the university's opera廿ng budget. Thus, a modest drop in the endowment〃s value may have a sign讦icant impact on university operations. Another factor supporting a lower risk toleranee is the use of a simple spending rule. The absenee of a smoothing rulemeans the endowment has less toleranee for short-term portfoliorisk. Although a return objective of 7%-7.5% may ostensibly be used to support a higher risk toleranee, the risk of a short-term drawdown poses a much larger risk and thus, on balanee, a low tomoderate risk toleranee is more appropriate for the endowment. 10、Are PearsonWWWW's statements regarding thedisadvantages of the historical method for estimating VaR most likely correct?【单选题】A.No, the second statement is not a disadvantage.B.No, the first statement is not a disadvantage.C.Yes.正确答案:B答案解析:The non parametric feature of the historical method is an advantage, not a disadvantage. The historical method requires minimal probability-distributi on assumptions compared with other methods.。
历年CFA考试真题及答案解析

历年CFA考试真题及答案解析1、The nominal (quoted) annual interest rate on an automobile loan is 10%. The effective annual rate of the loan is 10.47%. The frequency of compounding periods per year for the loan is closest to:【单选题】A.weekly.B.monthly.C.quarterly.正确答案:B答案解析:“The Time Value of Money,” Richard A. DeFusco, CFA, Dennis W. McLeavey, CFA, Jerald E. Pinto, CFA, and David E. Runkle, CFA2013 Modular Level I, Vol. 1, Reading 5, Section 3.3Study Session 2–5–c, dCalculate and interpret the effective annual rate, given the stated annual interest rate and the frequency of compounding. Solve time value of money problems for different frequencies of compounding:B is correct. Use the formula for effective annual rate:Iteratively substitute the possible frequency of compounding until the EAR is 10.47%.Thus, the correct answer is monthly compounding.2、Which of the following is a constraint as defined in the International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) Framework for the Preparation and Presentation of Financial Statements?【单选题】A.NeutralityB.TimelinessC.Going concern正确答案:B答案解析:“Financial Reporting Standards,” Thomas R. Robinson, CFA, Jan Hendrik van Greuning, CFA, Karen O’Connor Rubsam, CFA, R. Elaine Henry, CFA, and Michael A. Broihahn, CFATimeliness is a constraint in the IFRS Framework. Neutrality is a factor that contributes to reliability and going concern is an assumption of the Framework.3、Which method of calculating the firm’s cost of equity is most likely to incorporate the long-run return relationship between the firm's stock and the market portfolio?【单选题】A.Dividend discount modelB.Capital asset pricing modelC.Bond-yield-plus risk-premium正确答案:B答案解析:“Cost of Capital” Yves Courtois, CFA, Gene C. Lai, and Pamela Peterson Drake, CFAThe capital asset pricing model uses the firm’s equity beta, which is computed from a market model regression of the company's stock returns against market returns.4、For a 90-day U.S. Treasury bill selling at a discount, which of the following methods most likely results in the highest yield?【单选题】A.Money market yieldB.Discount-basis yieldC.Bond equivalent yield正确答案:C答案解析:“Working Capital Management,” Edgar Norton, Jr., Kenneth L. Parkinson, and Pamela Peterson Drake5、An investor gathers the following data.To estimate the stock's justified forward P/E, the investor prefers to use the compounded annual earnings growth and the average of the payout ratios over the relevant period (i.e., 2008–2011). If the investor uses 11.5% as her required rate of return, the stock's justified forward P/E is closest to:【单选题】A.10.B.12.C.21.正确答案:C答案解析:“Equity Valuation: Concepts and Basic Tools,” John J. Nagorniak and Stephen E.Wilcox6、A bond portfolio manager is considering three Bonds – A, B, and C – for his portfolio. Bond A allows the issuer to call the bond before stated maturity, Bond B allows the investor to put the bond back to the issuer before stated maturity, and Bond C contains no embedded options. The bonds are otherwise identical. The manager tells his assistant, “Bond A and Bond B should have larger nominal yield spreads to a U.S. Treasury than Bond C to compensate for their embedded options.”Is the manager most likely correct?【单选题】A.Yes.B.No, Bond A’s nominal yield spread should be less than Bond C’s.C.No, Bond B’s nominal yield spread should be less than Bond C’s.正确答案:C答案解析:“Understanding Yield Spreads,” Frank J. Fabozzi, CFAC is correct because Bond B’s embedded put option benefits the investor and the yield spread willtherefore be less than the yield spread of Bond C, which does not contain this benefit.7、Which of the following characteristics is best described that the information in financialstatements can influence user's economic decisions or affect user's evaluationof past events or forecasts of future events in accordance with the IFRSframework's definitions and recognition criteria?【单选题】A.Relevance.parability.C.Faithful representation.正确答案:A答案解析:根据IFRS的条款,财务报表的两个基本特性使得这些财务信息有用,这两个特性包括相关性(relevance)和公允陈述(faithful representation)。
CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-26

CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-261、Ward is scheduled to visit the corporate headquarters of Evans Industries. Ward expects to use the information he obtains there to complete his research report on Evans stock. Ward learns that Evans plans to pay all of Ward’s expenses for the trip, including costs of meals, hotel room, and air transportation. Which of the following actions would be the best course for Ward to take under the Code and Standards?【单选题】A.Accept the expense-paid trip and write an objective report.B.Pay for all travel expenses, including costs of meals and incidental items.C.Accept the expense-paid trip but disclose the value of the services accepted in the report.正确答案:B答案解析:The correct answer is B. The best course of action under Standard I(B)—Independence and Objectivity is to avoid a conflict of interest whenever possible. Therefore, for Ward topay for all his expenses is the correct answer. Answer C details a course of action in which the conflict would be disclosed, but the solution is not as appropriate as avoiding the conflict of interest. Answer A would not be the best course because it would not remove the appearance of a conflict of interest; even though the report would not be affected by the reimbursement of expenses, it could appear to be.2、Are the three compliance procedures reviewed by Campanelli consistent with both the required and recommended standards of the CFA Institute Asset Manager Code of Professional Conduct?【单选题】A.No, the procedures regarding record retention are inconsistent.B.No, the procedures regarding portfolio review are inconsistent.C.No, the procedures regarding investigation of complaints are inconsistent.正确答案:C答案解析:C is correct. According to the recommendations of Section D(2) of the Asset Manager Code,where possible, the CCO should be independent from the investment and operations personnel and should report directly to the CEO orthe board of directors.3、The strategy that is most likely to benefit from the environment described by Monts in Statement 3 is to:【单选题】A.rotate from consumer non-cyclical to consumer cyclical sectors.B.increase exposure to the crossover sector.C.shift the portfolio’s positions to shorter duration corporate bonds.正确答案:C答案解析:Curve-adjustment trades take place when the portfolio manager expects credit spreads will widen (either overall or in a particular sector). The specific strategy is to shift the portfolio’s exposure to shorten spread duration by selling longer maturity corporate bonds and buying shorter maturity bonds, which lowers the contribution to spread duration.4、Sigma can most likely reduce credit risk in its OTC derivatives positions by changing which of the following practices?【单选题】tingB.Frequency of marking to marketC.Limiting counterparty exposure正确答案:B答案解析:Sigma typically enters two-year contracts and doesnot mark to market until expiration of the contract. Increasing the frequency of the marking to market will decrease credit risk. When a contract is marked to market, the party for whom the contract has a positive value receives payment from the counterparty, thus eliminating credit risk. Consequently, more frequent marking to market decreases credit risk.5、Based on Exhibit 1, Kiest’s liabilities would be classified as:【单选题】A.Type I.B.Type II.C.Type III.正确答案:A答案解析:A is correct. Type I liabilities have cash outlays with known amounts and timing. The dates and amounts of Kiest’s liabilities are known; therefore, they would be classified as TypeI liabilities.6、If Motelli’s current investment account of €250,000 is invested in an asset which is expected to earn annual interest of 6.5 percent and no capital gains, what is his expected after tax accumulation in 15 years?【单选题】A.€578,664.B.€586,547.C.€642,960.正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. The after tax wealth accumulation for annually taxable income isFVIFi = [1 + r(1 – ti)]nFV = €250,000 × FVIFi = €250,000 × [1 + 0.065(1 – 0.10)]15= €586,5477、Based on Exhibit 1, which of the portfolios will best immunize SD&R’s single liability?【单选题】A.Portfolio 1B.Portfolio 2C.Portfolio 3正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. In the case of a single liability, immunization is achieved by matching the bond portfolio’s Macaulay duration with the horizon date. DFC has a single liability of $500 million due in nine years.Portfolio 2 has a Macaulay duration of 8.9, which is closer to 9 than that of either Portfolio 1 or 3.Therefore, Portfolio 2 will best immunize the portfolio against the liability.8、Ng’s response to Kepler’s question about the most efficient portfolio management strategy should be:【单选题】A.full replication.B.active management.C.an enhanced indexing strategy.正确答案:C答案解析:C is correct. Under an enhanced indexing strategy, the index is replicated with fewer than the full set of index constituents but still matches the original index’s primary risk factors. This strategy replicates the index performance under different market scenarios more efficiently than the full replication of a pure indexing approach.9、Considering Zubov’s statements to the investment committee regarding Hoven University’s endowment, he is least likely correct with respect to:【单选题】A.liquidity need.B.total return objective.C.risk tolerance.正确答案:C答案解析:The endowment’s risk tolerance is low to moderate, not high, because the endowment’s contribution represents 25% of the university’s operating budget. Thus, a modest drop in the endowment’s value may have a significant impact on university operations. Another factor supporting a lower risk tolerance is the use of a simple spending rule. The absence of a smoothing rule means the endowment has less tolerance for short-termportfolio risk. Although a return objective of 7%–7.5% may ostensibly be used to support a higher risk tolerance, the risk of a short-term drawdown poses a much larger risk and thus, on balance, a low to moderate risk tolerance is more appropriate for the endowment.10、Are Pearson\\\\\\\\'s statements regarding the disadvantages of the historical method for estimating VaR most likely correct?【单选题】A.No, the second statement is not a disadvantage.B.No, the first statement is not a disadvantage.C.Yes.正确答案:B答案解析:The nonparametric feature of the historical method is an advantage, not a disadvantage. The historical method requires minimal probability-distribution assumptions compared with other methods.。
CFA考试历年真题精选3(附详解)

CFA考试历年真题精选3(附详解)CFA考试历年真题精选3(附详解)1、A company that wants to determine its cost of equity gathers the following information:【单选题】A.13.1%.B.12.6%.C.7.5%.正确答案:A答案解析:CAPM: Cost of equity = Risk free rate + Beta × Market risk premium = 3.5% + 1.6 × (6.0%) = 13.1%.Section 3.3.12、A trader determines that a stock price formed a pattern with a horizontal trendline that connects the high prices and a trendline with positive slope that connects the low prices. Given the pattern formed by the stock price, the trader will most likely:【单选题】A.purchase the stock because the pattern indicates a bullish signal.B.avoid trading the stock because the pattern indicates a sideways trend.C.sell the stock because the pattern indicates a bearish signal.正确答案:A答案解析:2014 CFA Level I“Technical Analysis,” by Barry M. Sine and Robert A. StrongSection 3.3.2.13、A company, which prepares its financial statements according to IFRS, owns several investment properties on which it earns rental income. It values the properties using the fair value model based on prevailing rental markets. After two years of increases the market softened in 2012 and values decreased. A summary of the properties’ valuations is as fo llows:Which of thefollowing best describes the impact of the revaluation on the 2012 financial statements?【单选题】A.€6.5 million charge to net incomeB.€6.5 million charge to revaluation surplusC.€4.5 million charge to revaluation surplus and €2.0 million charge to net income正确答案:A答案解析:"Long-Lived Assets,” Elaine Henry, CFA and Elizabeth A. GordonA is correct. For investment properties, when using the fair value model of revaluing assets, all increases and decreases affect net income.4、Under IFRS, the costs incurred in the issuance of bonds are most likely:【单选题】A.expensed when incurred.B.included in the measurement of the bond liability.C.deferred as an asset and amortized on a straight-line basis.正确答案:B答案解析:Under IFRS, debt issuance costs are included in the measurement of the bond liability.Section 2.1 5、Prices of a futures contract for five consecutive trading-days are provided in the table below. The initial margin requirement is set at $6.00 per contract and the maintenance margin is $3.60 per contract.On day 0, a trader enters into a short position for 15 contracts. The ending balance for the margin account on day 5 is closest to:【单选题】A.$15.B.$60.C.$210.正确答案:B答案解析:“Futures Markets and Contracts”, Don M. Chance,CFAOn day 0, the trader must deposit an initial margin of $90 (= $6 × 15). Subsequent gains and losses on the short position are reflected in the ending margin balance for the day. The ending balance on day 4 is $45, which is below the maintenance margin of $54 (= $3.60 × 15). On any day in which the amount of money in the margin account at the end of the day falls below the maintenance margin requirement, the trader must deposit sufficient funds to bring the balance back up to the initial margin requirement. Therefore, the trader must deposit $45 on day 5 to bring the margin balance up to $90. After reflecting a loss of $30, the ending balance on day 5 is $60.6、David Donnigan enrolled to take the Level II CFA examination in the current year, but he did not takethe exam. Donnigan advised his employer that he passed Level II. Subsequently, he registered totake the Level II exam the next year. Which CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct didDonnigan least likely violate? The standard related to:【单选题】A.referencing candidacy in the CFA Program.B.duty to employer.C.professional misconduct.正确答案:A答案解析:Because he registered to take the exam in the next year, Donnigan still qualifies to state he is acandidate in the CFA Program. He would not, however, be authorized to reference that he is a LevelIII candidate and, if asked, would need to specifiy that he is a Level II candidate.Standard I(D), Standard IV(A)7、An investor purchases a bond for $989.00.After 180 days the investor receives aninterest payment of $25.10 and sells the bond for $1036.40.The investor's effectiveannual yield is closestto:【单选题】A.14.66%B.15.20%C.15.42%正确答案:C答案解析:由题意可知,- 1 = 15.42%。
cfa三级原版书课后题讲解

cfa三级原版书课后题讲解(实用版)目录1.CFA 三级原版书概述2.CFA 三级原版书课后题的重要性3.如何高效利用课后题4.原版书课后题讲解的资源推荐正文CFA(Chartered Financial Analyst)是全球金融领域最具权威的专业资格认证,分为三个级别。
CFA 三级原版书是 CFA 三级考试的重要参考资料,其课后题对于考生掌握知识点、巩固理论体系和提高解题能力具有重要意义。
本文将介绍 CFA 三级原版书课后题的重要性,并提供一些建议和资源,帮助考生高效利用课后题。
首先,CFA 三级原版书课后题是对所学知识的巩固和拓展。
通过解答课后题,考生可以加深对知识点的理解,提高自己的分析能力和解决问题的能力。
同时,课后题涵盖了各个科目的重点内容,有助于考生梳理知识体系,发现自己的薄弱环节,进行有针对性的复习。
其次,CFA 三级原版书课后题可以提高考生的解题速度和准确率。
在实际考试中,时间有限,考生需要在规定时间内完成大量的题目。
课后题的练习可以让考生熟悉题型,掌握解题技巧,从而在考试中迅速找到解题思路,提高解题效率。
那么,如何高效利用课后题呢?1.结合教材和课堂笔记解答课后题。
在解答课后题时,考生可以回顾相关知识点,巩固课堂所学。
如果遇到不理解的地方,可以查阅教材或向老师请教。
2.制定学习计划,合理安排时间。
考生可以根据自己的学习进度,制定学习计划,每天解答一定数量的课后题。
这样既可以保证学习效果,又可以避免因为题目过多而产生挫败感。
3.分析错误,总结经验。
在解答课后题的过程中,考生可能会犯错误。
这时候,考生需要认真分析错误原因,总结经验教训,避免重复犯错。
4.参加学习小组或讨论组。
考生可以和其他考生一起讨论课后题,分享解题方法和经验,相互学习,共同进步。
最后,原版书课后题讲解的资源推荐如下:1.CFA 官方网站提供课后题答案解析,考生可以登录官方网站查看。
2.在线课程和培训机构也会提供课后题讲解,考生可以根据自己的需求选择合适的资源。
CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-22

CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细解析1007-221、Based on DFC’s bond holdings and Exhibit 2, Compton should recommend:【单选题】A.Benchmark 1.B.Benchmark 2.C.Benchmark 3.正确答案:B答案解析:B is correct. DFC has two types of assets, short term and intermediate term. For the short-term assets, a2、Priorat is most likely correct with regard to which structural trade?【单选题】A.PutablesB.BulletsC.Callables正确答案:B答案解析:Front-end bullets (i.e., bullet structures with one-year to five-year maturities) have great appeal for investors who pursue a barbell strategy in which both the short and longend of the barbell are US Treasury securities. There are “barbellers” who use credit securities at the front or short end of the curve and Treasuries at the long end of the yield curve.3、【单选题】A.Portfolio 1B.Portfolio 3C.Portfolio 4正确答案:C答案解析:C is correct. Structural risk to immunization arises from twists and non-parallel shifts in the yield curve.4、Which of Olamide\\\\'s comments on the role of fixed-income securities in a portfolio context are correct?【单选题】A.All three.ment 1 only.ment 3 only.正确答案:B答案解析:Only Comment 1 is correct. The predictable cash flows can be used to meet recurring payout needs. It is true that5、In Priorat’s response to Rioja regarding the explanation of key measures of an index’s profile, he is most likely correctregarding:【单选题】A.key rate duration and incorrect regarding convexity adjustment.B.spread duration and incorrect regarding effective duration.C.convexity adjustment and incorrect regarding key rate duration.正确答案:A答案解析:Priorat’s explanation of key rate duration is accurate, whereas his explanation of convexity adjustment is incorrect. A convexity adjustment is used to improve the accuracy of the index’s estimated price change for large parallel changes in interest rates. A convexity adjustment is an estimate of the change in price that is not explained by duration.。
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CFA考试《CFA三级》历年真题精选及详细
解析1007-20
1、【单选题】
A.exhibit characteristics of multiple investor types.
B.retain the same emotional biases as they become older.
C.exhibit primarily emotional or cognitive biases, but not both.正确答案:A
答案解析:A is correct. A limitation of behavioral models is that individual investors do frequently
2、Which of Schumacher\'s three outcomes is most likely consistent with the ALM approach?【单选题】
A.Outcome 1
B.Outcome 3
C.Outcome 2
正确答案:A
答案解析:Outcome 1 is consistent with the ALM approach. The ALM approach to strategic asset allocation, which involves explicitly modeling liabilities and adopting the optimal asset allocation in relation to funding liabilities, characteristically
results in a higher allocation to fixed-income instruments than an asset-only (AO) approach. Compared with AO, an ALM approach affords much more precision in controlling risk related to the funding of liabilities. The global market equilibrium portfolio is the default strategic asset allocation for the Black–Litterman AO approach.
3、Are Wilson’s closing remarks consistent with recommended practices and procedures designed to prevent violations of the Asset Manager Code of Professional Conduct?【单选题】
A.Yes
B.No, with regard to disclosure of the firm’s risk management process
C.No, with regard to the business continuity plan
正确答案:C
答案解析:At a minimum, Section D, Risk Management, Compliance, and Support, of the Asset Manager Code recommends that a business continuity plan include plans for contacting and communicating with clients during a period of extended disruption. Wilson’s continuity plan includes no such strategy. Wilson’s recommendation for disclosing the firm’s risk management process to both clients and regulators goes beyond the code recommendation, which is to disclose the risk
management process only to clients.
4、Schumacher\'s concern about international investments that Roth might find advantageous most likely pertains to:【单选题】
A.conditional correlation.
B.the efficient frontier.
C.market integration.
正确答案:C
答案解析:The lack of market integration (or the absence of free cross-border capital flows) can be an advantage if it increases market segmentation and helps prevent correlations with other markets from rising. Increased integration of markets can decrease diversification benefits, whereas returns in segmented markets will be influenced mostly by a specific country’s own macroeconomy and will be less subject to changes in correlations when volatility increases. Global correlations tend to increase in times of increased volatility and even appear to be conditional on global volatility. The efficient frontier and traditional mean–variance analysis using unconditional correlations would not apply because correlations remain low when returns are high but become high when returns are negative.
5、Assuming Silva\'s advice is followed and Libor rates are 5%
and 6% on 15 October 2013 and 15 December 2013, respectively, the effective annual interest rate on Short Hills Corporation\'s loan is closest to:【单选题】
A.3.50%.
B.5.42%.
C.4.64%.
正确答案:B
答案解析:The effective annual rate is calculated as follows:。