killtest题库网000-373题库
Killtest 分享HD0-300 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. Exam: HD0-300Help Desk ManagerTitle:Version: DEMOThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.1.An upcoming production rollout could heavily impact normal off-shifts. You decideto move schedules to cover the upcoming increase in calls. After the staff expressestheir concerns about having to work the new shifts with little warning, you stilldecide to implement your off-schedule shift change.Which leadership trait does this show?A. the ability to encourage team participationB. the ability to discourage one-person dominationC. the ability to execute a plan despite adverse conditionsD. the ability to identify unpopular decisions as still necessaryAnswer: D2.Who is ultimately responsible for an employee's success or failure?A. the employeeB. the employee's mentorC. the employee's managerD. the employee's team leaderAnswer: A3.What are three benefits of mentoring programs? (Choose three)A. They help team members improveB. They help retain personnel with optimal skills.C. They allow team members potential growth opportunities.D. They help team members develop strategic vision statements.Answer: A,B,C4.Your support organization has 20 frontline analysts. The Call Management Systemproduces performance reports that show the amount of time each analyst is on thephone, performing wrap-up work, and not available. Reports also show the numberof calls taken and the average talk-time per agent.Based on these reports, what should the manager do to improve the supportorganization's performance?A. publish trend reports for the group as a wholeB. publish a list of agents ranked by who has the most talk time.C. Recognize and reward the individual who handles the most callsD. Recognize and reward the individual who has the least :not available" timeAnswer: A5.A customer could not get through to a support representative when calling the HelpDesk in the morning. He had to call back later.Which metric captures this situation?The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.A. Time in QueueB. Abandonment RateC. Average Speed of AnswerD. First Call Resolution RateAnswer: B6.What should be addressed in a support center's marketing plan?A. the support center's budget requirementsB. the support center's staffing requirementsC. the support center's implementation timelinesD. the support center's role in the corporate visionAnswer: Danizational development needs are determined by which three methods?(Choose three)A. project analysisB. position profilingC. skill gap analysisD. individual assessmentAnswer: B,C,D8.Which three technologies enable Help Desks to achieve their performance goals?(Choose three)A. Automatic Call DistributorB. Interactive Voice ResponseC. Intra-monthly Monitoring SystemD. Extra-diem Reporting ApplicationE. Customer Relationship ManagementAnswer: A,B,E9.Which statement about contract staffing is true?A. Contract employees can only be let go by their company.B. Contract employees receive more benefits than full-time employeesC. Contract employees may hinder teamwork if they do not work closely with full-timeemployeesD. Contract employees are allowed to work hours that are not specifically defined bytheir company.Answer: C10.What are three ways to maintain a balanced and positive outlook when adapting to new situations, priorities, or demands? (Choose three)A. concentrate on common goals during times of disagreementB. develop interests outside of work to provide a stress-free zoneC. identify trends in service, and then develop resources to meet those trendsD. create a personal network of advisors with whom you can share problems and concerns.Answer: A,B,D11.Your Help Desk is 24x7 and covers support for many areas throughout the country. An upcoming snow storm is expected to cause power outage.What helps you prepare for the upcoming days?A. call answer plansB. contingency plansC. UPS usage reportsD. Gap analysis reportsAnswer: B12.Which three metric calculations impact customer satisfaction? (Choose three)A. Average Talk TimeB. Abandonment RateC. First Call Resolution RateD. Averaged Speed of AnswerE. Average After Call Work TimeAnswer: B,C,D13.Which practice is important in improving the supportive atmosphere found in an open and positive work environment?A. use of visual status boardsB. empowerment from managementC. access to computer telephony technologiesD. specific statement of performance expectationsAnswer: B14.Which two service parameters are normally addressed in a Service Level Agreement? (Choose two)A. call flowsB. training materialC. products supportedD. days and hours of serviceAnswer: C,D15.Service Level Agreements document the level of service provided as well as the level at which that service is provided by which two parties?A. customerB. stake holderC. service providerD. Help Desk managerE. Service-level managersAnswer: A,C16.You want to be prepared for a potential decrease in workforce scheduling based ona decrease in customer service requests. What are the three most likely reasons for a reduction in call volume? (Choose three)A. Customers are better trainedB. Customers are more experiencedC. Business functions are outsourcedD. System are more stable and mature.E. Overall business/workforce is reduced.Answer: A,B,D17.What are three functions of an effective support organization in managing unresolved support issues? (Choose three)A. recording unresolved issuesB. resolving customer issuesC. escalating unresolved issuesD. monitoring unresolved issuesE. communicating the status of issuesAnswer: C,D,E18.You are supporting someone from a different culture. How can you improve your communication? (Choose three)A. speak slowly and loudlyB. pause to verify understandingC. encourage the person to ask for clarificationD. use proper/standard language expressions (eliminate slang)Answer: B,C,D19.Which traits should a Help Desk manager look for an analyst to determine if theanalyst can effectively multitask?A. handles stress and prioritizeB. takes the initiative and is creativeC. takes chances and switches topicsD. changes perspectives often and is self sufficientAnswer: A20.How can you pursue continuous learning to stay current with industry standards? (Choose two)A. create an individual development planB. conduct monthly performance reviewsC. volunteer for projects that require you to leam new informationD. communicate a need for change by providing a compelling business rationale Answer: A,C。
Killtest 分享A00-206 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : A00-206Title :Version : DEMOSAS warehouse technology exam1. In SAS Management Console, which components are required for promotion and replication?A. Foundation Repository, Custom Repository and Project RepositoryB. SAS Administration Server, SAS Source Server and SAS Target ServerC. SAS Replication Server, SAS Administration Server and SAS Workspace ServerD. SAS Workspace Server, SAS Stored Process Server and SAS/CONNECT ServerAnswer: B2. Which statement is true about the Quality Knowledge Base (QKB) in the SAS Data Quality Solution?A. The QKB is required by dfPower Studio applications, but not by the SAS Data Quality Server.B. The QKB facilitates the sharing of source data between dfPower Studio applications and SAS ETL Studio.C. The QKB is used to translate data as it is transferred between dfPower Studio applications and SAS ETL Studio.D. The QKB facilitates the sharing of data quality rules between dfPower Studio applications and the SAS Data Quality Server.Answer: D3. Which statement is true about defining target table columns using the Target Designer in SAS ETL Studio?A. Column metadata is imported from a data dictionary columns table.B. Column metadata is linked to columns in the table from which they are selected.C. Column metadata is independent of columns in the table from which they are selected.D. Column metadata is synchronized with columns in the table from which they are selected by the Impact Analysis Wizard.Answer: C4. In SAS ETL Studio, what does a Transformation Template contain?A. sources and/or targetsB. the process flow diagram for a jobC. a transformation object and the process flow diagram for a jobD. a transformation object and one or more drop zones for tables and/or transformationsAnswer: D5. If the SAS ETL Studio Metadata Import Wizard cannot be used, how can metadata be captured from legacy systems using the Open Metadata API?e the SAS XML Mapper e the SAS METADATA procedure e the SAS METAOPERATE procedure e a customized Java plug-in to SAS ETL StudioA. I and IIIB. I and IVC. II and IIID. II and IVAnswer: D6. Which repository tree can be defined in SAS Management Console?A. Two Project Repositories depend on a Custom Repository, which depends on the Foundation Repository.B. Two Custom Repositories depend on a Project Repository, which depends on the Foundation Repository.C. A Project Repository depends on two Custom Repositories, which depend on the Foundation Repository.D. A Custom Repository depends on two Project Repositories, which depend on the Foundation Repository.Answer:A7. In SAS ETL Studio, what is stored as a metadata identity?A. the location of the SAS Metadata ServerB. the libraries containing the data in the warehouseC. a user or a group of users of the metadata environmentD. a list of the warehouse server names and port numbersAnswer: C8. In SAS ETL Studio, when checking in objects from a project repository to a change-managed repository, which objects are checked in?A. all objectsB. the selected objects onlyC. grouped objects and their associated objectsD. the selected objects and all associated objectsAnswer:A9. In SAS ETL Studio, which alert actions can be selected from the Status Handling tab as a property of the job? I.Send email. II.Abort the process. III.Send the entry to a dataset. IV.Call a macro from a SAS Autocall Library.A. I and II onlyB. III and IV onlyC. I, II and III onlyD. I, II, III and IVAnswer: D10. In SAS ETL Studio, what can be used to register a metadata object in the Process Library? I.the Metadata Importer II.the Metadata Transformer III.the Transformation ImporterIV.the Transformation GeneratorA. II onlyB. IV onlyC. I and IID. III and IVAnswer: D。
Killtest 分享CISSP 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : CISSPTitle:Version : DemoCertified Information Systems SecurityProfessional (CISSP)1.All of the following are basic components of a security policy EXCEPT theA. definition of the issue and statement of relevant terms.B. statement of roles and responsibilitiesC. statement of applicability and compliance requirements.D. statement of performance of characteristics and requirements.Answer: D2.A security policy would include all of the following EXCEPTA. BackgroundB. Scope statementC. Audit requirementsD. EnforcementAnswer: B3.Which one of the following is an important characteristic of an information security policy?A. Identifies major functional areas of information.B. Quantifies the effect of the loss of the information.C. Requires the identification of information owners.D. Lists applications that support the business function.Answer: A4.Ensuring the integrity of business information is the PRIMARY concern ofA. Encryption SecurityB. Procedural Security.C. Logical SecurityD. On-line SecurityAnswer: B5.Which of the following would be the first step in establishing an information security program?A.) Adoption of a corporate information security policy statementB.) Development and implementation of an information security standards manualC.) Development of a security awareness-training programD.) Purchase of security access control softwareAnswer: A6.Which of the following department managers would be best suited to oversee the development of an information security policy?A.) Information SystemsB.) Human ResourcesC.) Business operationsD.) Security administrationAnswer: C7.What is the function of a corporate information security policy?A. Issue corporate standard to be used when addressing specific security problems.B. Issue guidelines in selecting equipment, configuration, design, and secure operations.C. Define the specific assets to be protected and identify the specific tasks which must be completed tosecure them.D. Define the main security objectives which must be achieved and the security framework to meet businessobjectives.Answer: D8.Why must senior management endorse a security policy?A. So that they will accept ownership for security within the organization.B. So that employees will follow the policy directives.C. So that external bodies will recognize the organizations commitment to security.D. So that they can be held legally accountable.Answer: A9.In which one of the following documents is the assignment of individual roles andresponsibilities MOST appropriately defined?A. Security policyB. Enforcement guidelinesC. Acceptable use policyD. Program manualAnswer: C10.Which of the following defines the intent of a system security policy?A. A definition of the particular settings that have been determined to provide optimum security.B. A brief, high-level statement defining what is and is not permitted during the operation of the system.C. A definition of those items that must be excluded on the system.D. A listing of tools and applications that will be used to protect the system.Answer: A11.When developing an information security policy, what is the FIRST step that should be taken?A. Obtain copies of mandatory regulations.B. Gain management approval.C. Seek acceptance from other departments.D. Ensure policy is compliant with current working practices.Answer: B12.Which one of the following should NOT be contained within a computer policy?A. Definition of management expectations.B. Responsibilities of individuals and groups for protected information.C. Statement of senior executive support.D. Definition of legal and regulatory controls.Answer: B13.Which one of the following is NOT a fundamental component of a Regulatory Security Policy?A. What is to be done.B. When it is to be done.C. Who is to do it.D. Why is it to be doneAnswer: C14.Which one of the following statements describes management controls that are instituted to implement a security policy?A. They prevent users from accessing any control function.B. They eliminate the need for most auditing functions.C. They may be administrative, procedural, or technical.D. They are generally inexpensive to implement.Answer: C15.Which must bear the primary responsibility for determining the level of protection neededfor information systems resources?A.) IS security specialistsB.) Senior ManagementC.) Seniors security analystsD.) system auditorsAnswer: B16.Which of the following choices is NOT part of a security policy?A.) definition of overall steps of information security and the importance of securityB.) statement of management intend, supporting the goals and principles of information securityC.) definition of general and specific responsibilities for information security managementD.) description of specific technologies used in the field of information securityAnswer: D17.In an organization, an Information Technology security function should:A.) Be a function within the information systems functions of an organizationB.) Report directly to a specialized business unit such as legal, corporate security or insuranceC.) Be lead by a Chief Security Officer and report directly to the CEOD.) Be independent but report to the Information Systems functionAnswer: C18.Which of the following embodies all the detailed actions that personnel are required tofollow?A.) StandardsB.) GuidelinesC.) ProceduresD.) BaselinesAnswer: C19.A significant action has a state that enables actions on an ADP system to be traced to individuals who may then be held responsible. The action does NOT include:A. Violations of security policy.B. Attempted violations of security policy.C. Non-violations of security policy.D. Attempted violations of allowed actions.Answer: Dwork Security is aA.) ProductB.) protocolsC.) ever evolving processD.) quick-fix solutionAnswer: C21.Security is a process that is:A. ContinuousB. IndicativeC. ExaminedD. AbnormalAnswer: A22.What are the three fundamental principles of security?A.) Accountability, confidentiality, and integrityB.) Confidentiality, integrity, and availabilityC.) Integrity, availability, and accountabilityD.) Availability, accountability, and confidentialityAnswer: B23.Which of the following prevents, detects, and corrects errors so that the integrity, availability, and confidentiality of transactions over networks may be maintained?A.) Communications security management and techniquesB.) Networks security management and techniquesC.) Clients security management and techniquesD.) Servers security management and techniquesAnswer: A24.Making sure that the data is accessible when and where it is needed is which of the following?A.) ConfidentialityB.) integrityC.) acceptabilityD.) availabilityAnswer: D25.Which of the following describes elements that create reliability and stability in networks and systems and which assures that connectivity is accessible when needed?A.) AvailabilityB.) AcceptabilityC.) ConfidentialityD.) IntegrityAnswer: A26.Most computer attacks result in violation of which of the following security properties?A. AvailabilityB. ConfidentialityC. Integrity and controlD. All of the choices.Answer: D27.Which of the following are objectives of an information systems security program?The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.A. Threats, vulnerabilities, and risksB. Security, information value, and threatsC. Integrity, confidentiality, and availability.D. Authenticity, vulnerabilities, and costs.Answer: C28.An area of the Telecommunications and Network Security domain that directly affects the Information Systems Security tenet of Availability can be defined as:A.) Netware availabilityB.) Network availabilityC.) Network acceptabilityD.) Network accountabilityAnswer: B29.The Structures, transmission methods, transport formats, and security measures that areused to provide integrity, availability, and authentication, and confidentiality fortransmissions over private and public communications networks and media includes:A.) The Telecommunications and Network Security domainB.) The Telecommunications and Netware Security domainC.) The Technical communications and Network Security domainD.) The Telnet and Security domainAnswer: A30.Which one of the following is the MOST crucial link in the computer security chain?A. Access controlsB. PeopleC. ManagementD. Awareness programsAnswer: C。
Killtest 分享000-M196 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 000-M196Title :Version : DENOSocial Software and Unified Communications SalesMastery Test v1The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.1.Which of the following is NOT true of the Files feature?A. Files can be shared with colleaguesB. Access to files can be monitoredC. Files have to be word processing documentsD. File users can leave comments about the fileAnswer: C2.What two features are common to all Same time offerings?A. Video and presence awarenessB. Basic chat and presence awarenessC. Basic telephony and basic chatD. Mobile capability and basic chatAnswer: Bing collaboration software like Lotus Connections helps organizations work smarter by:A. Improving information sharingB. Improving third-party software featuresC. Enhancing wikisD. Developing Lotus Connections servicesAnswer: A4.With whom has Lotus Connections partnered to provide capabilities in human resources management?A. SAPB. PeopleSoftC. D. IBM Global Services and SuccessFactorsAnswer: D5.Which social networking components can be added to a community?A. Any three Lotus Connections widgetsB. Only the profiles associated with the community membersC. Only the files required by the communityD. Any file, activity, blog, wiki, feed, forum, or person associated with the communityAnswer: D6.What is the new feature in Lotus Connections 2.5 that enables users to keep the network of people they are connected to up to date on their activities?A. ProfilesB. MicroblogsC. ActivitiesD. Social bookmarksAnswer: B7.Which new feature of the Profiles page shows status updates, enables people to go into a profile andThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.leave comments, and sends update notifications whenever something new is posted?A. The BoardB. TagsC. My LinksD. NetworkAnswer: A8.Which software-as-service initiative has a click-to-cloud feature that enables users to have activities on premises and in the cloud?A. Lotus SametimeB. Lotus QuickrC. LotusLiveD. Lotus NotesAnswer: C9.The Lotus Quickr task pane, which displays a hierarchical view of document libraries, is available in whichconnector?A. Lotus SametimeB. Lotus SymphonyC. Microsoft OfficeD. Microsoft OutlookAnswer: D10.The new Lotus Connections wiki feature has:A. A rich text editor that provides functions similar to a word processor¯s f unc ti onB. A subscription service for membersC. A drawing function with basic shapesD. A standard format that cannot be editedAnswer: A。
Killtest 分享HH0-330 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : HH0-330Title :Version : DEMOHDS Storage Manager-BusinessContinuity Enterprise1. Where do you find the "horcmstart.sh" command in a default CCI installation in a UNIX system?A./usr/bin/B./usr/sbinC./HORCM/D./HORCM/usr/bin/Answer: D2. A pairresync operation is performed on a ShadowImage pair in a PSUE state.What is the result of the pairresync operation?A.The pairresync completes immediately.B.All data on the P-Vol are copied to the S-Vol.C.The pairresync returns an error because of the PSUE state.D.The bitmaps are used and only changed tracks are copied from the P-Vol to the S-VolAnswer: B3. Which two statements describe the Command Device? (Choose two.)A.The Command Device is user selected.B.The Command Device is system selected.C.The Command Device is a dedicated logical volume on the system which controls the CCI software on the UNIX/PC host.D.The Command Device is a dedicated logical volume on the system which functions as the interface to the CCI software on the UNIX/PC host.Answer: AD4. Which two statements describe the Command Device on UNIX systems? (Choose two.)A.The volume designated as the Command Device is a raw device.B.The volume designated as the Command Device is a block device.C.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy software and ShadowImage software read and write commands that are executed by the CCI software.D.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy software and ShadowImage software read and write commands that are executed by the storage system.Answer: AD5. Which two statements describe the Command Device? (Choose two.)A.The Command Device is for CCI communications and can be fully utilized by other applications.B.The Command Device is dedicated to CCI communications and should not be used by any other applications.C.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy and ShadowImage software read and write commands thatare executed by the storage system.D.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy and ShadowImage software read and write commands that are executed by the CCI software.Answer: BC6. You are looking at the possibility of configuring the Raid Manager software.Which three devices could be used as a CCI Command Device? (Choose three.)A.3390-3 LUNB.LUSE LUNC.OPEN-V LUND.OPEN-3 LUNE.Virtual LVI/LUNAnswer: CDE7. The CCI instance has failed to start.What is the most likely cause?A.The Command Device is labeled.B.The environment variable HORCC_MRCF is set.C.The environment variable HORCMINST is not set.D.The IP address is not referenced in the HORCM file.Answer: D8. The CCI instance needs to communicate with the storage system using the Command Device. Which command should be executed to discover the name of the Command Device on a Windows server?A.raidscan -x findcmddev hdisk 0,20B.raidscan -find commanddev hdisk 0,20C.raidscan -x find commanddev hdisk 0,20D.raidscan -find commanddevice hdisk 0,20Answer: A9. On a Windows system, how do you make sure that the environment parameter is set correctly to use CCI for ShadowImage operations instead of TrueCopy operations?A.Verify that HORCC_MRCF is set to 1.B.Verify that HORCM_MRCF is not set.C.Verify that HORCC_MRCF is set to 0.D.Verify that HORCM_MRCF is set to 0.Answer: A10. On a Windows system, how do you verify that the environment parameter is correctly set to use CCI for TrueCopy operations instead of ShadowImage operations?A.Make sure that HORCM_MRCF is set to 1.B.Make sure that HORCC_MRCF is not set.C.Make sure that HORCC_MRCF is set to 0.D.Make sure that HORCM_MRCF is set to 0.Answer: B。
Killtest 分享EW0-200 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : EW0-200Title:Version : DEMOExtreme networks associate(ena)The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.1. Which CLI command would you use to create a default route with a metric of 5 and a gateway of10.0.0.1?A. CONFIG IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 10.0.0.1 5B. CONFIG IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 5 10.0.0.1C. CREATE IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 10.0.0.1 5D. CREATE IPROUTE ADD DEFAULT 5 10.0.0.1Answer:A2. An Extreme Switch is shipped with a pre-configured VLAN called DEFAULT that has all switch ports as tagged members.A. TRUEB. FALSEAnswer: B3. How would you stop a scheduled configuration download from happening? Use the CLI command:A. cancel configuration downloadB. download configuration cancelC. configuration download cancelD. delete configuration downloadAnswer: B4. Given the following information, select the option that would allow you to change the active ExtremeWare version to 6.1.9b11 upon reboot.The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.A. use image primaryB. download config primaryC. use config primaryD. download image primaryAnswer:A5. The default administrator login name for a new Extreme switch was entered as ADMIN (all caps). This will allow the administrator access to the CLI.A. TRUEB. FALSEAnswer: B6. ExtremeWare, pre-installed on every Extreme Networks ?chipset switch, combines industry standard protocols to ensure interoperability with legacy switches and routers, QoS for bandwidth management and traffic prioritization in today networks.A. TRUEB. FALSEAnswer:A7. Which step would you take to configure a VLAN to only allow IP-related traffic?A. config <vlan> protocol ipB. config protocol <vlan> ipC. config ip protocol <vlan>D. None of these.Answer:A8. Extreme Networks switches build their forwarding database from the incoming packet field information containing the:A. Source MAC address.B. Destination MAC address.C. Source IP address.D. Destination IP address.Answer:A9. The CLI console port utilizes a serial cable for physical switch to terminal connection.A. TRUEB. FALSEAnswer:A10. Which CLI command will you use to change the CLI prompt from the default display to Switch02?A. CONFIG SNMP SYSLOCATION Switch02B. CONFIG SNMP SYSNAME Switch02C. CONFIG CLI PROMPT Switch02D. CONFIG CLI DISPLAY Switch02Answer: B11. In spanning tree, the designated bridge is the bridge with the:A. least-cost path to the root bridgeB. highest bridge priorityC. lowest port cost on all portsD. None of theseAnswer:A12. In ExtremeWare, active VLANs that are configured with ports and an IP address and configured to forward IP and run a routing protocol will have their subnet advertised.A. TRUEB. FALSEAnswer:A13. A 802.1Q tag is a marker inserted between the source and destination MAC addresses fields of the Ethernet frame.A. TRUEB. FALSEAnswer: B14. Which of the following protocol filter/s is/are predefined in ExtremeWare?A. OSPFB. TCPC. NETBIOSD. All of theseAnswer: C15. What CLI command is used to disable learning of incoming RIP routes on an interface?A. disable rip learning <VLAN>B. configure rip rxmode none <VLAN>C. configure rip interface <VLAN> passiveD. None of theseAnswer: B16. Which statement is true? In a PC, the configured default gateway:A. Is always within the PC IP (sub) network.B. Is always outside the PC IP (sub) network.C. Is always behind a router.D. Can be anywhere.Answer:A17. This type of OSPF router has its router interfaces connected into multiple OSPF areas.A. ASBR.B. ABR.C. DR.D. BDR.Answer: B18. Which CLI command would you use to configure the switch to ignore STP for selected VLANs?A. enable ignore-stp vlan <stpd>B. enable ignore-bpdu stpd <stpd> vlan <vlan>C. enable ignore-bpdu stpd <stpd>D. enable ignore-stp vlan <vlan>Answer: D19. Which of the following CLI commands would you use to enable ECMP for RIP?A. enable rip route sharingB. enable route sharing ripC. enable iproute sharingD. None of these, ecmp is not supported by RIPAnswer: D20. If you wish to silently drop all traffic destined for IP network 100.219.10.0/24 with a gateway of10.219.10.1/24 and without receiving any ICMP messages that would otherwise be generated, which CLI command would you execute?A. configure iproute delete 100.219.10.0/24 gateway 10.219.10.1B. configure iproute default 100.219.10.0/24C. configure iproute add blackhole 100.219.10.0/24 gateway 10.219.10.1D. configure iproute add blackhole 100.219.10.0/24Answer: D。
Killtest 分享3X0-103 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams. Exam: 3X0-103Linux Networking (Level 1) Title:Version: DEMO1.You wish to communicate with hosts on your wide-area network. Which of the following is the exact sequence of commands used to manually configure an Ethernet interface, assuming driver modules are not loaded?A. lsmod, insmod, ifconfigB. insmod, ifconfig, routeC. lsmod, rmmod, insmod, ifconfigD. ifconfig, routeAnswer: B2.Which of the following are TRUE about buffer size? (Choose two.)A. A large buffer can lead to wasted system memory.B. A small buffer can lead to slower data transfer lines.C. Having a small buffer will free system memory, allocating fewer registers.D. The larger the buffer, the faster the transfer rate, reducing time arrival jitter.Answer: AB3.Which of the following is TRUE concerning the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)?A. It binds a physical address to a broadcast address.B. It binds a MAC (Media Access Control) address to a logical address.C. It binds a logical address to an IP address.D. It binds a MAC (Media Access Control) address to a physical address.Answer: B4.Which of the following can tunneling be used for?A. It can connect two IPX networks separated by some different network.B. It can connect two IPv4 networks separated by some different network.C. It can provide mobile IP support and amateur radio support.D. It can connect two IPv6 networks separated by some different network.E. All of the above.Answer: E5.Which of the following commands will allow you to view the ARP table when the configured name server is not functioning? (Choose the best answer.)A. arp -vB. arp -aC. arp -nD. arp -sAnswer: C6.Which of the following can you do with the "ping" command? (Choose two.)A. Determine if a remote host can be contacted.B. Create and modify (n)x-u NIS network maps.C. View the MAC address of a given host.D. Display the route along which an IP packet travels.Answer: AD7.A default policy of DENY and ACCEPT may be implemented for a system's ipchains. Which of the following options will change the default input policy to DENY?A. ipchains -a input DENYB. ipchains -a output DENYC. ipchains -P input DENYD. ipchains -all input DENYE. ipchains -input DENYAnswer: C8.inetd is responsible for waiting for new network requests and authenticating users based on the contents of the "inetd.conf" file.A. TRUEB. FALSEAnswer: B9.Telnet was developed as a continuation of what other communications program developed for ARPANET? (Select the best answer.)A. rpcB. teleC. loginD. ftpE. muttF. None of the aboveAnswer: D10.Which path accurately depicts a three-way handshake between Network X and Network Y for establishing a TCP connection? (Select the best answer.)A. X sends SYN to Y; Y sends SYN to X; X sends ACK to YB. X sends SYN to Y; Y sends two SYNs to X; X sends ACK to YC. X sends ACK to Y; Y sends SYN to X ; X sends ACK to YD. X sends SYN to Y; Y sends ACK to X ; X sends ACK to YE. X sends ACK to Y; Y sends SYN and ACK to X; X sends ACK to YAnswer: D11.Which of the following is FALSE concerning TCP, IP, and UDP? (Select the best answer.)A. Transport Control Protocol (TCP) supports unicast addressing.B. User Datagram Protocol (UDP) supports unicast addressing.C. TCP supports multicasting.D. UDP supports multicasting.E. Internet Protocol (IP) supports multicasting.Answer: C12.Typical implementations of ping use the _____ to send echo requests to other hosts.A. Internet Protocol (IP)B. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)C. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)D. Transport Control Protocol (TCP)Answer: B13.Because of flow control, UDP will generally lead to network congestion, while TCP helps prevent congestion.A. TrueB. FalseAnswer: A14.Assume that a software company has a subnet address 192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0. How many possible hosts can this subnet support, and what is the network address for the subnet?A. 64; 192.168.1.255B. 254; 192.168.1.0C. 255; 192.168.1.0D. 256; 192.168.1.255E. 128; 192.168.1.1Answer: B15.If a machine has an IP address of 192.168.1.61 and the netmask is 255.255.255.0, what is its subnet address?A. 192.0.0.0B. 192.168.0.0C. 192.168.1.0D. 0.0.0.61Answer: CThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.16.Which of the following subnet masks is usually associated with a Class A IP address?A. 255.255.0.0B. 255.255.255.0C. 255.0.0.0D. 255.255.255.255Answer: C17.Which of the following host IP addresses are on networks normally reserved for intranets? (Choose three.)A. 10.1.220.1B. 12.1.2.4C. 172.16.0.30D. 192.168.0.18E. 187.10.30.200Answer: ACD18.For a Class C network, which of the following denotes a valid host address on the 192.168.3.0 network?A. 192.168.3.255B. 192.168.3.1C. 192.168.3.0D. 192.168.3.256Answer: B19.Which of the following statements is TRUE about the subnet mask?A. Another name for the subnet mask is the subnet address.B. In the subnet mask, zeros represent the host ID and ones represent the network ID.C. In the subnet mask, ones represent the host ID and zeros represent the network ID.D. The subnet mask is used to aid in name resolution for root name servers.Answer: B20.Which Resource Record allows the redirecting of mail to another host, assuming the correct accounts exist?A. TXTB. PTRC. SOAD. MAILE. MXAnswer: EThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.。
Killtest 分享UM0-200 题库
NZZV ]]] QORRZKYZ IT▲ Ҳ ԟ ԇThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : UM0-200Title:Version : DEMOOmg-Certified uml professional intermediate exam1. To what does an internal structure of a class refer?A. the inheritance structure of that classB. the set of nested classifiers of that classC. the set of structural features of that classD. class and associations owned by that classE. the decomposition of that class in terms of interconnected partsAnswer: E2. What statements are true about a composite structure? (Choose two)A. Collaborations are structured classifiers.B. A structured classifier is also an encapsulated classifier.C. Structured classifiers cannot contain instances of structured classifiers.D. Destroying an instance of a structured classifier normally destroys instances of its parts.E. The behavior of a structured classifier must be completely defined through the collaboration of owned or referenced instances.Answer: AD3. An encapsulated classifier is characterized by which fact?A. has an encapsulation shellB. can own one or more portsC. hides information from other classifiersD. acts as a package and can own one or more classifiersAnswer: B4. What interface restrictions does a port have?A. multiple required interfaces or multiple provided interfacesB. multiple provided interfaces and multiple required interfacesC. equal numbers of provided interfaces and required interfacesD. exactly one provided interface or exactly one required interfaceE. exactly one required interface and exactly one provided interfaceAnswer: B5. What is an invocation action on a port used for?A. sending a message to that portB. receiving a message on that portC. creating a link and attach it to that portD. relaying the invocation via links connected to that portE. invoking the behavior of the classifier that owns the portAnswer: D6. What is NOT a purpose of a port owned by a classifier?A. serves as an end point for connectorsB. specifies an association to the classifierC. hides the internals of that classifier from other classifiersD. provides a distinct point of interaction between the classifier and its environmentAnswer: B7. Which is true of a provided interface associated with a port?A. represents an interface that must be defined within the classifier that owns the portB. identifies the services that the object owning the port expects of objects connected via that portC. identifies the services that the object owning the port can offer to other objects connected via that portD. represents an interface that must be defined in the same package in which the classifier owning the port is definedAnswer: C8. What does the composite structure notation in the exhibit mean?A. Class C has internal structure.B. Object c1 is a kind of component.C. Port p is connected to an object called F.D. Port p realizes the features defined by interface F.E. Port p requires the features defined by interfaceF.Answer: E9. Which list contains only connectable elements?A. port and connector endB. behavior, port and propertyC. connector end, port and partD. property, port, and parameterE. behavior, connector end, and portAnswer: D10. What is NOT true about a roles and role bindings?A. A role binding is an association.B. The same object may play roles in multiple collaborations.C. A role binding maps a connectable element to a role in a collaboration occurrence.D. The same connectable element may be bound to multiple roles in a single collaboration occurrence.E. A role typed by an interface specifies a set of features required by a participant in a collaboration. Answer: A11. What does the composite structure exhibit show?A. The diagram is not valid.B. The two F interfaces must come from different packages.C. Requests for behavioral features of interface F through ports p1 and p2 can be distinguished.D. Requests for behavioral features of interface F through ports p1 and p2 will always result in the same behavior.Answer: C12. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the fact that the Administration interface symbol extends downward rather than leftward?A. There is no significance.B. The interface cannot be provided via a port.C. The interface does not require a delegation connector.D. The interface is not publicly visible on the component.E. The interface is the primary interface for the component.F. The interface is the primary provided interface for the component.Answer: A13. Refer to the exhibit. How many interfaces does the CustomerService component make visible to itsclients?A. 0B. 1C. 2D. 3E. 4Answer: D14. What best describes the distinction between a delegation connector and an assembly connector?A. A delegation connector can be used to model the internals of a component, while an assembly connector cannot.B. Assembly connectors provide white box views of components, while delegation connectors provide black box views.C. An assembly connector connects two components while a delegation connector connects the internal contract of a component with its external parts.D. An assembly connector connects the required interface or required port of one component with the provided interface or provided port of another component, while a delegation connector connects the external contract of a component with its internal parts.Answer: D15. What best describes the semantics modeled by the exhibit?The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.A. This is an illegal diagram.B. The OrderEntity component is part of the internals of the Invoicer component.C. The Invoicer has a complex connector that connects the GenerateInvoice interface with the Order interface.D. The Invoicer has a complex port that provides the interface GenerateInvoice and requires the interface Order.Answer: D16. What most accurately describes the semantics modeled by the exhibit?A. HeaderGenerator and LineItemGenerator realize Invoicer.B. Invoicer realizes HeaderGenerator and LineItemGenerator.C. HeaderGenerator and LineItemGenerator are Invoicer ports.D. An Invoicer component is composed of a HeaderGenerator component and a LineItemGenerator component.Answer: A17. How can the internals of a component be presented?A. using a complex component connectorB. component provides port or a component requires portC. in a compartment of the component box or a component requires portThe safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.D. in a compartment of the component box or via boxes nested within the component boxAnswer: D18. Which must be true in order to use a delegation connector to connect two components?A. The components must have complex ports.B. One component must be a subtype of the other.C. The components must be related to each other via a dependency.D. One component must be part of the internal realization of the other component.Answer: D19. Assume component A provides an interface P and requires an interface R. In order for a componentB to be substituted for component A, what must be true?A. Components must be related to each other via a dependency.B. The interface that A requires must be type conformant with respect to the interface that B provides.C. The interface that B requires must be type conformant with respect to the interface that A provides.D. The interface that B requires must be type conformant with respect to the interface that A requires, and the interface that B provides must be type conformant with respect to the interface that A provides. Answer: D20. A component may legally participate in which relationship(s)?A. dependenciesB. associations and generalizationsC. dependencies and generalizationsD. dependencies, associations, and generalizationsAnswer: D。
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The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.Exam : 000-373Title : Version : D EMOIBM WebSphere BusinessMonitor V6.2, SolutionDevelopment1. The functional requirements need a set of KPIs to support business activity monitoring. Which of the following components can be used to define KPIs?A. Business SpaceB. WebSphere Process ServerC. WebSphere Business ModelerD. WebSphere Integration DeveloperE. WebSphere Monitor Development ToolkitF. WebSphere Service Registry and RepositoryAnswer: ACE2. Non-functional requirements need a topology that supports high performance and throughput. What is the recommended method for Monitor to fulfill the requirements?A. Queue BasedB. Queue BypassC. WS-EventingD. WS-NotificationAnswer: B3. A solution developer is testing a monitor model using the Unit Test Environment (UTE). While testing, the events are emitted synchronously from the event source. The events are accumulating in the system exception queue in the correct order and are not consumed by the monitor model.What is the possible cause of this problem There is a problem in:A. the Global Instance ID.B. the Event Sequence Path.C. evaluating the filter condition.D. in evaluating the correlation condition.Answer: A4. A business analyst created a process model with associated KPIs in WebSphere Business Modeler and exported it to the Monitor Development Toolkit. The solution developer created another monitor modelwith measures to support alerts based on instance measures for the same process.Assuming both of the monitor models are valid, what is the best way for the solution developer to put the KPIs and alerts definitions together in the same monitor model?A. Combine the models with the Combine Monitor Models menu option, and choose to create a new monitor model.B. Compare the models in a text editor, manually apply the changes from the business analyst and create a new monitor model by copying the XML.C. Compare the models with the Compare With >Each Other menu option, accept each of the highlighted changes, and create a new monitor model by clicking Save a Copy.D. Compare the models with the Compare With >Each Other menu option, accept each of the highlighted changes, and overwrite the previous monitor model by clicking Save as Right Contributor.Answer: A5. The solution developer installed Business Space within a deployment environment with a remote database, and has successfully completed the initial Business Space configuration from the WebSphere Application Server admin console. How would the solution developer proceed with the database configuration?A. Grant permissions on the existing tables for the Business Space application.B. Business Space does not require separate tables from the monitor database, so not additional setup is required.C. The tables must be created manually on the database server before using Business Space.D. The tables have already been created by checking Create tables checkbox during the Business Space configuration process.Answer: C6. Which of the following is a measure in the context of Business Activity Monitoring (BAM)?A. The minimal latency of the network.B. The average score of a credit check.C. The number of currently logged on users.D. The maximal response time of the database system.Answer: B7. What does Business Activity Monitoring encompass?A. Measuring business performance.B. Observing real-time and completed business processesC. Analyzing business plansD. Reporting on business operationsE. Planning business organizations.F. Funding business operations.Answer: ABD8. Which components are not scalable in a high availability clustered monitor topology?A. Action servicesB. CEI event serviceC. Data services schedulerD. Monitor model logic modulesE. Service integration bus message engine for WebSphere Business MonitorAnswer: CE9. A telecommunication company is introducing a business process monitoring solution. Since the scope of the application is well-defined by the business department, the IT department decides to build up a four cluster environment. This means that BPEL processes and Monitor models share the same cluster. Which order must be followed during profile creation?A. Installation order is not importantB. Create Monitor custom node first and then augment it with process serverC. Create process server custom node first and then augment it with the Monitor profileD. It is not possible to run WebSphere Business Monitor and WebSphere Process Server using the same profileAnswer: C10. The solution developer wants to build up a monitor environment as simple as possible. What are the only mandatory monitor components?A. Monitor serverB. Monitor server, Business SpaceC. Monitor server, Monitor databaseD. Monitor server, Monitor database, Dashboard, AlphabloxAnswer: C11. The solution developer has to setup a highly available and high volume Monitor network deployment environment.What is the optimal way to fulfill this business requirement?A. Create a cluster for each Monitor model EJB module.B. Create a cluster for each Monitor model EAR module.C. Deploy Monitor model EJB modules on different clusters and use core group policies to distribute the logic modules.D. Deploy Monitor model EJB modules on different clusters and use core group policies to distribute the moderator modules.Answer: D12. What are the possible interfaces that can be used to publish events to WebSphere Business Monitor?A. CEI APIs, EJB.B. CEI APIs, JMS and REST APIs.C. REST APIs, MDB and CBE.D. REST APIs, JMS, MQ and CBE.E. WS-Notification and MQ.F. WS-Notification, MQ and EJB.Answer: BE13. A financial institution must measure the number of times a customer accesses their online banking account and duration of each visit. The solution developer must design a solution that captures theseevents for measurement.In order for these measurements to be stored for later retrieval, the events must first be:A. persisted in the CEI runtime environment.B. defined in the event meta-data repository.C. delivered to subscribed consumers throughout the network.D. created via an event emitter from an event source request.Answer: D14. Which of the following event components are part of the CEI architecture ?A. Consumer, Producer, AccessB. Consumer, Definition, FactoryC. Distribution, Catalog, EmitterD. Distribution, Data Store, PublisherAnswer: C15. Which component in the CEI architecture is the entry point for asynchronous event delivery?A. CEI BusB. CEI Data storeC. CEI Event CatalogD. CEI Event ServiceAnswer: A16. A solution developer is designing a security configuration that consists of an ActiveDirectory for managing monitor environment and an existing LDAP for managing a portal environment.What is the correct method for implementing access to both environments in the infrastructure?A. Create a sub-group in the ActiveDirectory called wpsadmin and give administrator rights to the WebSphere Portal administrator.B. Create a Virtual Member Manager mapping of entries from both the ActiveDirectory and the LDAP directory.C. Create a portlet that performs a security lookup on both the ActiveDirectory and the LDAP directory.D. Create a Business Space administrator that has rights to both ActiveDirectory and LDAPAnswer: B17. A solution developer is establishing security configuration for monitoring data within the business dashboards.What is the proper sequence for configuring Monitor Data Security using the administrative console?A. Resource mapping, group, roleB. Resource group, role, user or groupC. LDAP group, role, widget securityD. LDAP directory, LDAP group, LDAP roleAnswer: B18. Which component is an optional part of the WebSphere Business Monitor runtime architecture?A. CEIB. RESTC. Monitor action servicesD. Data movement servicesAnswer: D19. Which of the following WebSphere products can host the Monitor server component?A. WebSphere Portal ServerB. WebSphere Process ServerC. WebSphere Message BrokerD. WebSphere Business EventsE. WebSphere Application ServerF. WebSphere Enterprise Service BusAnswer: BEF20. Which component of WebSphere Business Monitor is responsible for processing situation events for alerts?A. RESTB. Alerts widgetC. Action servicesD. Data movement services Answer: C。