国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter
国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案2
CHAPTER 1 GLOBALIZATION AND THE MULTINATIONAL FIRMSUGGESTED ANSWERS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONSQUESTIONS1. Why is it important to study international financial management？Answer：We are now living in a world where all the major economic functions，i.e., consumption, production，and investment，are highly globalized。
It is thus essential for financial managers to fully understand vital international dimensions of financial management。
This global shift is in marked contrast to a situation that existed when the authors of this book were learning finance some twenty years ago. At that time, most professors customarily （and safely, to some extent) ignored international aspects of finance。
This mode of operation has become untenable since then。
2. How is international financial management different from domestic financial management？Answer: There are three major dimensions that set apart international finance from domestic finance。
国际财务管理课后习题答案解析chapter
CHAPTER 7 FUTURES AND OPTIONS ON FOREIGN EXCHANGESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Explain the basic differences between the operation of a currency forward market and a futures market.Answer: The forward market is an OTC market where the forward contract for purchase or sale of foreign currency is tailor-made between the client and its international bank. No money changes hands until the maturity date of the contract when delivery and receipt are typically made. A futures contract is an exchange-traded instrument with standardized features specifying contract size and delivery date. Futures contracts are marked-to-market daily to reflect changes in the settlement price. Delivery is seldom made in a futures market. Rather a reversing trade is made to close out a long or short position.2. In order for a derivatives market to function most efficiently, two types of economic agents are needed: hedgers and speculators. Explain.Answer: Two types of market participants are necessary for the efficient operation of a derivatives market: speculators and hedgers. A speculator attempts to profit from a change in the futures price. To do this, the speculator will take a long or short position in a futures contract depending upon his expectations of future price movement. A hedger, on-the-other-hand, desires to avoid price variation by locking in a purchase price of the underlying asset through a long position in a futures contract or a sales price through a short position. In effect, the hedger passes off the risk of price variation to the speculator who is better able, or at least more willing, to bear this risk.3. Why are most futures positions closed out through a reversing trade rather than held to delivery?Answer: In forward markets, approximately 90 percent of all contracts that are initially established result in the short making delivery to the long of the asset underlying the contract. This is natural because the terms of forward contracts are tailor-made between the long and short. By contrast, only about one percent of currency futures contracts result in delivery. While futures contracts are useful for speculation and hedging, their standardized delivery dates make them unlikely to correspond to the actual future dates when foreign exchange transactions will occur. Thus, they are generally closed out in a reversing trade. In fact, the commission thatbuyers and sellers pay to transact in the futures market is a single amount that covers the round-trip transactions of initiating and closing out the position.4. How can the FX futures market be used for price discovery?Answer: To the extent that FX forward prices are an unbiased predictor of future spot exchange rates, the market anticipates whether one currency will appreciate or depreciate versus another. Because FX futures contracts trade in an expiration cycle, different contracts expire at different periodic dates into the future. The pattern of the prices of these cont racts provides information as to the market’s current belief about the relative future value of one currency versus another at the scheduled expiration dates of the contracts. One will generally see a steadily appreciating or depreciating pattern; however, it may be mixed at times. Thus, the futures market is useful for price discovery, i.e., obtaining the market’s forecast of the spot exchange rate at different future dates.5. What is the major difference in the obligation of one with a long position in a futures (or forward) contract in comparison to an options contract?Answer: A futures (or forward) contract is a vehicle for buying or selling a stated amount of foreign exchange at a stated price per unit at a specified time in the future. If the long holds the contract to the delivery date, he pays the effective contractual futures (or forward) price, regardless of whether it is an advantageous price in comparison to the spot price at the delivery date. By contrast, an option is a contract giving the long the right to buy or sell a given quantity of an asset at a specified price at some time in the future, but not enforcing any obligation on him if the spot price is more favorable than the exercise price. Because the option owner does not have to exercise the option if it is to his disadvantage, the option has a price, or premium, whereas no price is paid at inception to enter into a futures (or forward) contract.6. What is meant by the terminology that an option is in-, at-, or out-of-the-money?Answer: A call (put) option with S t > E (E > S t) is referred to as trading in-the-money. If S t E the option is trading at-the-money. If S t< E (E < S t) the call (put) option is trading out-of-the-money.7. List the arguments (variables) of which an FX call or put option model price is a function. How does the call and put premium change with respect to a change in the arguments?Answer: Both call and put options are functions of only six variables: S t, E, r i, r$, T andσ. When all else remains the same, the price of a European FX call (put) option will increase:1. the larger (smaller) is S,2. the smaller (larger) is E,3. the smaller (larger) is r i,4. the larger (smaller) is r$,5. the larger (smaller) r$ is relative to r i, and6. the greater is σ.When r$ and r i are not too much different in size, a European FX call and put will increase in price when the option term-to-maturity increases. However, when r$ is very much larger than r i, a European FX call will increase in price, but the put premium will decrease, when the option term-to-maturity increases. The opposite is true when r i is very much greater than r$. For American FX options the analysis is less complicated. Since a longer term American option can be exercised on any date that a shorter term option can be exercised, or a some later date, it follows that the all else remaining the same, the longer term American option will sell at a price at least as large as the shorter term option.PROBLEMS1. Assume today’s settlement price on a CME EUR futures contract is $1.3140/EUR. You have a short position in one contract. Your performance bond account currently has a balance of $1,700. The next three day s’ settlement prices are $1.3126, $1.3133, and $1.3049. Calculate the changes in the performance bond account from daily marking-to-market and the balance of the performance bond account after the third day.Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3140 - $1.3126) + ($1.3126 - $1.3133)+ ($1.3133 - $1.3049)] x EUR125,000 = $2,837.50,where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract.2. Do problem 1 again assuming you have a long position in the futures contract.Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3126 - $1.3140) + ($1.3133 - $1.3126) + ($1.3049 - $1.3133)] x EUR125,000 = $562.50,where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract.With only $562.50 in your performance bond account, you would experience a margin call requesting that additional funds be added to your performance bond account to bring the balance back up to the initial performance bond level.3. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, calculate the face value of the open interest in the June 2005 Swiss franc futures contract.Solution: 2,101 contracts x SF125,000 = SF262,625,000.where SF125,000 is the contractual size of one SF contract.4. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, note that the June 2005 Mexican peso futures contract has a price of $0.08845. You believe the spot price in June will be $0.09500. What speculative position would you enter into to attempt to profit from your beliefs? Calculate your anticipated profits, assuming you take a position in three contracts. What is the size of your profit (loss) if the futures price is indeed an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes?Solution: If you expect the Mexican peso to rise from $0.08845 to $0.09500, you would take a long position in futures since the futures price of $0.08845 is less than your expected spot price.Your anticipated profit from a long position in three contracts is: 3 x ($0.09500 - $0.08845) x MP500,000 = $9,825.00, where MP500,000 is the contractual size of one MP contract.If the futures price is an unbiased predictor of the expected spot price, the expected spot price is the futures price of $0.08845/MP. If this spot price materializes, you will not have any profits or losses from your short position in three futures contracts: 3 x ($0.08845 - $0.08845) x MP500,000 = 0.5. Do problem 4 again assuming you believe the June 2005 spot price will be $0.08500.Solution: If you expect the Mexican peso to depreciate from $0.08845 to $0.07500, you would take a short position in futures since the futures price of $0.08845 is greater than your expected spot price.Your anticipated profit from a short position in three contracts is: 3 x ($0.08845 - $0.07500) x MP500,000 = $20,175.00.If the futures price is an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes, you will not profit or lose from your long futures position.6. George Johnson is considering a possible six-month $100 million LIBOR-based, floating-rate bank loan to fund a project at terms shown in the table below. Johnson fears a possible rise in the LIBOR rate by December and wants to use the December Eurodollar futures contract to hedge this risk. The contract expires December 20, 1999, has a US$ 1 million contract size, and a discount yield of7.3 percent.Johnson will ignore the cash flow implications of marking to market, initial margin requirements, and any timing mismatch between exchange-traded futures contract cash flows and the interest payments due in March.Loan TermsSeptember 20, 1999 December 20, 1999 March 20, 2000 • Borrow $100 million at • Pay interest for first three • Pay back principal September 20 LIBOR + 200 months plus interestbasis points (bps) • Roll loan over at• September 20 LIBOR = 7% December 20 LIBOR +200 bpsLoan First loan payment (9%) Second paymentinitiated and futures contract expires and principal↓↓↓•••9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00a. Formulate Johnson’s September 20 floating-to-fixed-rate strategy using the Eurodollar future contracts discussed in the text above. Show that this strategy would result in a fixed-rate loan, assuming an increase in the LIBOR rate to 7.8 percent by December 20, which remains at 7.8 percent through March 20. Show all calculations.Johnson is considering a 12-month loan as an alternative. This approach will result in two additional uncertain cash flows, as follows:Loan First Second Third Fourth payment initiated payment (9%) payment payment and principal ↓↓↓↓↓•••••9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00 6/20/00 9/20/00 b. Describe the strip hedge that Johnson could use and explain how it hedges the 12-month loan (specify number of contracts). No calculations are needed.CFA Guideline Answera. The basis point value (BPV) of a Eurodollar futures contract can be found by substituting the contract specifications into the following money market relationship:BPV FUT = Change in Value = (face value) x (days to maturity / 360) x (change in yield)= ($1 million) x (90 / 360) x (.0001)= $25The number of contract, N, can be found by:N = (BPV spot) / (BPV futures)= ($2,500) / ($25)= 100ORN = (value of spot position) / (face value of each futures contract)= ($100 million) / ($1 million)= 100ORN = (value of spot position) / (value of futures position)= ($100,000,000) / ($981,750)where value of futures position = $1,000,000 x [1 – (0.073 / 4)]102 contractsTherefore on September 20, Johnson would sell 100 (or 102) December Eurodollar futures contracts at the 7.3 percent yield. The implied LIBOR rate in December is 7.3 percent as indicated by the December Eurofutures discount yield of 7.3 percent. Thus a borrowing rate of 9.3 percent (7.3 percent + 200 basis points) can be locked in if the hedge is correctly implemented.A rise in the rate to 7.8 percent represents a 50 basis point (bp) increase over the implied LIBOR rate. For a 50 basis point increase in LIBOR, the cash flow on the short futures position is:= ($25 per basis point per contract) x 50 bp x 100 contracts= $125,000.However, the cash flow on the floating rate liability is:= -0.098 x ($100,000,000 / 4)= - $2,450,000.Combining the cash flow from the hedge with the cash flow from the loan results in a net outflow of $2,325,000, which translates into an annual rate of 9.3 percent:= ($2,325,000 x 4) / $100,000,000 = 0.093This is precisely the implied borrowing rate that Johnson locked in on September 20. Regardless of the LIBOR rate on December 20, the net cash outflow will be $2,325,000, which translates into an annualized rate of 9.3 percent. Consequently, the floating rate liability has been converted to a fixed rate liability in the sense that the interest rate uncertainty associated with the March 20 payment (using the December 20 contract) has been removed as of September 20.b. In a strip hedge, Johnson would sell 100 December futures (for the March payment), 100 March futures (for the June payment), and 100 June futures (for the September payment). The objective is to hedge each interest rate payment separately using the appropriate number of contracts. The problem is the same as in Part A except here three cash flows are subject to rising rates and a strip of futures is used to hedge this interest rate risk. This problem is simplified somewhat because the cash flow mismatch between thefutures and the loan payment is ignored. Therefore, in order to hedge each cash flow, Johnson simply sells 100 contracts for each payment. The strip hedge transforms the floating rate loan into a strip of fixed rate payments. As was done in Part A, the fixed rates are found by adding 200 basis points to the implied forward LIBOR rate indicated by the discount yield of the three different Eurodollar futures contracts. The fixed payments will be equal when the LIBOR term structure is flat for the first year.7. Jacob Bower has a liability that:• has a principal balance of $100 million on June 30, 1998,• accrues interest quarterly starting on June 30, 1998,• pays interest quarterly,• has a one-year term to maturity, and• calculates interest due based on 90-day LIBOR (the London Interbank OfferedRate).Bower wishes to hedge his remaining interest payments against changes in interest rates.Bower has correctly calculated that he needs to sell (short) 300 Eurodollar futures contracts to accomplish the hedge. He is considering the alternative hedging strategies outlined in the following table.Initial Position (6/30/98) in90-Day LIBOR Eurodollar ContractsStrategy A Strategy BContract Month (contracts) (contracts)September 1998 300 100December 1998 0 100March 1999 0 100a. Explain why strategy B is a more effective hedge than strategy A when the yield curveundergoes an instantaneous nonparallel shift.b. Discuss an interest rate scenario in which strategy A would be superior to strategy B.CFA Guideline Answera. Strategy B’s SuperiorityStrategy B is a strip hedge that is constructed by selling (shorting) 100 futures contracts maturing in each of the next three quarters. With the strip hedge in place, each quarter of the coming year is hedged against shifts in interest rates for that quarter. The reason Strategy B will be a more effective hedge than Strategy A for Jacob Bower is that Strategy B is likely to work well whether a parallel shift or a nonparallel shift occurs over the one-year term of Bower’s liability. That is, regardless of what happens to the term structure, Strategy B structures the futures hedge so that the rates reflected by the Eurodollar futures cash price match the applicable rates for the underlying liability-the 90day LIBOR-based rate on Bower’s liability. The same is not true for Strategy A. Because Jacob Bower’s liability carries a floating interest rate that resets quarterly, he needs a strategy that provides a series of three-month hedges. Strategy A will need to be restructured when the three-month September contract expires. In particular, if the yield curve twists upward (futures yields rise more for distant expirations than for near expirations), Strategy A will produce inferior hedge results.b. Scenario in Which Strategy A is SuperiorStrategy A is a stack hedge strategy that initially involves selling (shorting) 300 September contracts. Strategy A is rarely better than Strategy B as a hedging or risk-reduction strategy. Only from the perspective of favorable cash flows is Strategy A better than Strategy B. Such cash flows occur only in certain interest rate scenarios. For example Strategy A will work as well as Strategy B for Bower’s liability if interest rates (instantaneously) change in parallel fashion. Another interest rate scenario where Strategy A outperforms Strategy B is one in which the yield curve rises but with a twist so that futures yields rise more for near expirations than for distant expirations. Upon expiration of the September contract, Bower will have to roll out his hedge by selling 200 December contracts to hedge the remaining interest payments. This action will have the effect that the cash flow from Strategy A will be larger than the cash flow from Strategy B because the appreciation on the 300 short September futures contracts will be larger than the cumulative appreciation in the 300 contracts shorted in Strategy B (i.e., 100 September, 100 December, and 100 March). Consequently, the cash flow from Strategy A will more than offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability, whereas the cash flow from Strategy B will exactly offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability.8. Use the quotations in Exhibit 7.7 to calculate the intrinsic value and the time value of the 97 September Japanese yen American call and put options.Solution: Premium - Intrinsic Value = Time Value97 Sep Call 2.08 - Max[95.80 – 97.00 = - 1.20, 0] = 2.08 cents per 100 yen97 Sep Put 2.47 - Max[97.00 – 95.80 = 1.20, 0] = 1.27 cents per 100 yen9. Assume spot Swiss franc is $0.7000 and the six-month forward rate is $0.6950. What is the minimum price that a six-month American call option with a striking price of $0.6800 should sell for in a rational market? Assume the annualized six-month Eurodollar rate is 3 ½ percent.Solution:Note to Instructor: A complete solution to this problem relies on the boundary expressions presented in footnote 3 of the text of Chapter 7.C a≥Max[(70 - 68), (69.50 - 68)/(1.0175), 0]≥Max[ 2, 1.47, 0] = 2 cents10. Do problem 9 again assuming an American put option instead of a call option.Solution: P a≥Max[(68 - 70), (68 - 69.50)/(1.0175), 0]≥Max[ -2, -1.47, 0] = 0 cents11. Use the European option-pricing models developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9 and the put of problem 10. Assume the annualized volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent. This problem can be solved using the FXOPM.xls spreadsheet.Solution:d1 = [ln(69.50/68) + .5(.142)2(.50)]/(.142)√.50 = .2675d2 = d1 - .142√.50 = .2765 - .1004 = .1671N(d1) = .6055N(d2) = .5664N(-d1) = .3945N(-d2) = .4336C e = [69.50(.6055) - 68(.5664)]e-(.035)(.50) = 3.51 centsP e = [68(.4336) - 69.50(.3945)]e-(.035)(.50) = 2.03 cents12. Use the binomial option-pricing model developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9.The volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent.Solution: The spot rate at T will be either 77.39¢ = 70.00¢(1.1056) or 63.32¢ = 70.00¢(.9045), where u = e.142 .50 = 1.1056 and d = 1/u = .9045. At the exercise price of E = 68, the option will only be exercised at time T if the Swiss franc appreciates; its exercise value would be C uT= 9.39¢ = 77.39¢ - 68. If the Swiss franc depreciates it would not be rational to exercise the option; its value would be C dT = 0.The hedge ratio is h = (9.39 – 0)/(77.39 – 63.32) = .6674.Thus, the call premium is:C0 = Max{[69.50(.6674) – 68((70/68)(.6674 – 1) +1)]/(1.0175), 70 – 68}= Max[1.64, 2] = 2 cents per SF.MINI CASE: THE OPTIONS SPECULATORA speculator is considering the purchase of five three-month Japanese yen call options with a striking price of 96 cents per 100 yen. The premium is 1.35 cents per 100 yen. The spot price is 95.28 cents per 100 yen and the 90-day forward rate is 95.71 cents. The speculator believes the yen will appreciate to $1.00 per 100 yen over the next three months. As the speculator’s assistant, you have been asked to prepare the following:1. Graph the call option cash flow schedule.2. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen appreciates to $1.00/100 yen.3. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen only appreciates to the forward rate.4. Determine the future spot price at which the speculator will only break even.Suggested Solution to the Options Speculator:1.-2. (5 x ¥6,250,000) x [(100 - 96) - 1.35]/10000 = $8,281.25.3. Since the option expires out-of-the-money, the speculator will let the option expire worthless. He will only lose the option premium.4. S T = E + C = 96 + 1.35 = 97.35 cents per 100 yen.。
国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter4
国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter4CHAPTER 4 CORPORATE GOVERNANCE AROUND THE WORLDSUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQuestions1.The majority of major corporations are franchised as public corporations. Discuss the key strengthand weakness of the ‘public corporation’. When do you think the public corporation as an organizational form is unsuitable?Answer: The key strength of the public corporation lies in that it allows for efficient risk sharing among investors. As a result, the public corporation may raise a large sum of capital at a relatively low cost. The main weakness of the public corporation stems from the conflicts of interest between managers and shareholders.2.The public corporation is owned by multitude of shareholders but managed by professional managers.Managers can take self-interested actions at the expense of shareholders. Discuss the conditions under which the so-called agency problem arises.Answer: The agency problem arises when managers have control rights but insignificant cash flow rights. This wedge between control and cash flow rights motivates managers to engage in self-dealings at the expense of shareholders.3.Following corporate scandals and failures in the U.S. and abroad, there is a growingdemand for corporate governance reform. What should be the key objectives ofcorporate governance reform? What kind of obstacles can there be thwarting reformefforts?Answer: The key objectives of corporate governance reform should be to strengthen shareholder rights and protect shareholders from expropriation by corporate insiders, whether managers or large shareholders. Controlling shareholders or managers do not wish to lose their control rights and thus resist reform efforts.4.Studies show that the legal protection of shareholder rights varies a great deal acrosscountries. Discuss the possible reasons why the English common law traditionprovides the strongest and the French civil law tradition the weakest protection ofinvestors.Answer: In civil law countries, the state historically has played an active role in regulating economic activities and has been less protective of property rights. In England, control of the court passed from the crown to the parliament and property owners in seventeenth century. English common law thus became more protective of property owners, and this protection was extended to investors over time.5.Explain ‘the wedge’ between the control and cash flow rights and discuss its implications forcorporate governance.Answer: When there is a separation of ownership and control, managers have control rights with insignificant cash flow rights,whereas shareholders have cash flow rights but no control rights. This wedge gives rise to the conflicts of interest between managers and shareholders. The wedge is the source of the agency problem.6.Discuss different ways that dominant investors use to establish and maintain the control of thecompany with relatively small investments.Answer: Dominant investors may use: (i) shares with superior voting rights, (ii) pyramidal ownership structure, and (iii) inter-firm cross-holdings.7.The Cadbury Code of the Best Practice adopted in the United Kingdom led to a successful reform ofcorporate governance in the country. Explain the key requirements of the Code and discuss how it may have contributed to the success of reform.Answer: The Code requires that chairman of the board and CEO be held by two different individuals, and that there should be at least three outside board members. The recommended board structure helped to strengthen the monitoring function of the board and reduce the agency problem.8.Many companies grant stocks or stock options to the managers. Discuss the benefitsand possible costs of using this kind of incentive compensation scheme.Answer: Stock options can be useful for aligning the interest of managers with that of shareholders and reduce the wedge between managerial control rights and cash flow rights. But at the same time, stock options may induce managers to distort investment decisions and manipulate financial statements so that they can maximize their benefits in the short run.9.It has been shown that foreign companies listed in the U.S. stock exchanges are valued more thanthose from the same countries that are not listed in the U.S. Explain the reasons why U.S.-listed foreign firms are valued more than those which are not. Also explain why not every foreign firm wants to list stocks in the United States.Answer: Foreign companies domiciled in countries with weak investor protection can bond themselves credibly to better investor protection by listing their stocks in U.S. exchanges that are known to provide a strong investor protection. Managers of some companies may not wish to list shares in U.S. exchanges, subjecting themselves to stringent disclosure and monitoring, for fear of losing their control rights and private benefits.。
国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案2
CHAPTER 1 GLOBALIZATION AND THE MULTINATIONAL FIRMSUGGESTED ANSWERS TO END-OF—CHAPTER QUESTIONS QUESTIONS1。
Why is it important to study international financial management?Answer: We are now living in a world where all the major economic functions，i。
e。
, consumption，production，and investment, are highly globalized。
It is thus essential for financial managers to fully understand vital international dimensions of financial management. This global shift is in marked contrast to a situation that existed when the authors of this book were learning finance some twenty years ago. At that time，most professors customarily (and safely，to some extent）ignored international aspects of finance。
This mode of operation has become untenable since then。
2. How is international financial management different from domestic financial management?Answer：There are three major dimensions that set apart international finance from domestic finance. They are:1。
国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter 9
CHAPTER 9 MANAGEMENT OF ECONOMIC EXPOSURESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. How would you define economic exposure to exchange risk?Answer: Economic exposure can be defined as the possibility that the firm’s cash flows and thus its market value may be affected by the unexpected exchange rate changes.2. Explain the following statement: “Exposure is the regression coefficient.”Answer: Exposure to currency risk can be appropriately measured by th e sensitivity of the firm’s future cash flows and the market value to random changes in exchange rates. Statistically, this sensitivity can be estimated by the regression coefficient. Thus, exposure can be said to be the regression coefficient.3. Suppose that your company has an equity position in a French firm. Discuss the condition under which the dollar/franc exchange rate uncertainty does not constitute exchange exposure for your company.Answer: Mere changes in exchange rates do not necessarily constitute currency exposure. If the French franc value of the equity moves in the opposite direction as much as the dollar value of the franc changes, then the dollar value of the equity position will be insensitive to exchange rate movements. As a result, your company will not be exposed to currency risk.4. Explain the competitive and conversion effects of exchange rate changes on the firm’s operating cash flow.Answer: The competitive effect: exchange rate changes may affect operating cash flows by altering the firm’s competitive position.The conversion effect: A given operating cash flows in terms of a foreign currency will be converted into higher or lower dollar (home currency)amounts as the exchange rate changes.5. Discuss the determinants of operating exposure.Answer: The main determinants of a firm’s operating exposure are (1) the structure of the markets in which the firm sources its inputs, such as labor and materials, and sells its products, and (2) the firm’s ability to mitigate the effect of exchange rate changes by adjusting its markets, product mix, and sourcing.6. Discuss the implications of purchasing power parity for operating exposure.Answer: If the exchange rate changes are matched by the inflation rate differential between countries, firms’ competitive positions will not be altered by exchange rate changes. Firms are not subject to operating exposure.7. General Motors exports cars to Spain but the strong dollar against the peseta hurts sales of GM cars in Spain. In the Spanish market, GM faces competition from the Italian and French car makers, such as Fiat and Renault, whose currencies remain stable relative to the peseta. What kind of measures would you recommend so that GM can maintain its market share in Spain.Answer: Possible measures that GM can take include: (1) diversify the market; try to market the cars not just in Spain and other European countries but also in, say, Asia; (2) locate production facilities in Spain and source inputs locally; (3) locate production facilities, say, in Mexico where production costs are low and export to Spain from Mexico.8. What are the advantages and disadvantages of financial hedging of the firm’s operating exposure vis-à-vis operational hedges (such as relocating manufacturing site)?Answer: Financial hedging can be implemented quickly with relatively low costs, but it is difficult to hedge against long-term, real exposure with financial contracts. On the other hand, operational hedges are costly, time-consuming, and not easily reversible.9. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of maintaining multiple manufacturing sites as a hedge against exchange rate exposure.Answer: To establish multiple manufacturing sites can be effective in managing exchange risk exposure, but it can be costly because the firm may not be able to take advantage of the economy of scale.10. Evaluate the following statement: “A firm can reduce its currency exposure by diversifying across different business lines.”Answer: Conglomerate expansion may be too costly as a means of hedging exchange risk exposure. Investment in a different line of business must be made based on its own merit.11. The exchange rate uncertainty may not necessarily mean that firms face exchange risk exposure. Explain why this may be the case.Answer: A firm can have a natural hedging position due to, for example, diversified markets, flexible sourcing capabilities, etc. In addition, to the extent that the PPP holds, nominal exchange rate changes do not influenc e firms’ competitive positions. Under these circumstances, firms do not need to worry about exchange risk exposure.PROBLEMS1. Suppose that you hold a piece of land in the City of London that you may want to sell in one year. As a U.S. resident, you are concerned with the dollar value of the land. Assume that, if the British economy booms in the future, the land will be worth £2,000 and one British pound will be worth $1.40. If the British economy slows down, on the other hand, the land will be worth less, i.e., £1,500, but the pound will be stronger, i.e., $1.50/£. You feel that the British economy will experience a boom with a 60% probability and a slow-down with a 40% probability.(a) Estimate your exposure b to the exchange risk.(b) Compute the variance of the dollar value of your property that is attributable to the exchange rate uncertainty.(c) Discuss how you can hedge your exchange risk exposure and also examine the consequences of hedging.Solution: (a) Let us compute the necessary parameter values:E(P) = (.6)($2800)+(.4)($2250) = $1680+$900 = $2,580E(S) = (.6)(1.40)+(.4)(1.5) = 0.84+0.60 = $1.44Var(S) = (.6)(1.40-1.44)2 + (.4)(1.50-1.44)2= .00096+.00144 = .0024.Cov(P,S) = (.6)(2800-2580)(1.4-1.44)+(.4)(2250-2580)(1.5-1.44)= -5.28-7.92 = -13.20b = Cov(P,S)/Var(S) = -13.20/.0024 = -£5,500.You have a negative exposure! As the pound gets stronger (weaker) against the dollar, the dollar value of your British holding goes down (up).(b) b2Var(S) = (-5500)2(.0024) =72,600($)2(c) Buy £5,500 forward. By doing so, you can eliminate the volatility of the dollar value of your British asset that is due to the exchange rate volatility.2. A U.S. firm holds an asset in France and faces the following scenario:In the above table, P* is the euro price of the asset held by the U.S. firm and P is the dollar price of the asset.(a) Compute the exchange exposure faced by the U.S. firm.(b) What is the variance of the dollar price of this asset if the U.S. firm remains unhedged against thisexposure?(c) If the U.S. firm hedges against this exposure using the forward contract, what is the variance of thedollar value of the hedged position?Solution: (a)E(S) = .25(1.20 +1.10+1.00+0.90) = $1.05/€E(P) = .25(1,800+1,540+1,300 +1,080) = $1,430Var(S) = .25[(1.20-1.05)2 +(1.10-1.05)2+(1.00-1.05)2+(0.90-1.05)2]= .0125Cov(P,S) = .25[(1,800-1,430)(1.20-1.05) + (1,540-1,430)(1.10-1.05)(1,300-1,430)(1.00-1.05) + (1,080-1,430)(0.90-1.05)]= 30b = Cov(P,S)/Var(S) = 30/0.0125 = €2,400.(b) Var(P) = .25[(1,800-1,430)2+(1,540-1,430)2+(1,300-1,430)2+(1,080-1,430)2]= 72,100($)2.(c) Var(P) - b2Var(S) = 72,100 - (2,400)2(0.0125) = 100($)2.This means that most of the volatility of the dollar value of the French asset can be removed by hedging exchange risk. The hedging can be achieved by selling €2,400 forward.MINI CASE: ECONOMIC EXPOSURE OF ALBION COMPUTERS PLCConsider Case 3 of Albion Computers PLC discussed in the chapter. Now, assume that the pound is expected to depreciate to $1.50 from the current level of $1.60 per pound. This implies that the pound cost of the imported part, i.e., Intel’s microprocessors, is £341 (=$512/$1.50). Other variables, such as the unit sales volume and the U.K. inflation rate, remain the same as in Case 3.(a) Compute the projected annual cash flow in dollars.(b) Compute the projected operating gains/losses over the four-year horizon as the discounted present value of change in cash flows, which is due to the pound depreciation, from the benchmark case presented in Exhibit 12.4.(c) What actions, if any, can Albion take to mitigate the projected operating losses due to the pound depreciation?Suggested Solution to Economic Exposure of Albion Computers PLCa) The projected annual cash flow can be computed as follows:______________________________________________________Sales (40,000 units at £1,080/unit) £43,200,000Variable costs (40,000 units at £697/unit) £27,880,000Fixed overhead costs 4,000,000Depreciation allowances 1,000,000Net profit before tax £15,315,000Income tax (50%) 7,657,500Profit after tax 7,657,500Add back depreciation 1,000,000Operating cash flow in pounds £8,657,500Operating cash flow in dollars $12,986,250______________________________________________________b) ______________________________________________________Benchmark CurrentVariables Case Case______________________________________________________Exchange rate ($/£) 1.60 1.50Unit variable cost (£) 650 697Unit sales price (£) 1,000 1,080Sales volume (units) 50,000 40,000Annual cash flow (£) 7,250,000 8,657,500Annual cash flow ($) 11,600,000 12,986,250Four-year present value ($) 33,118,000 37,076,946Operating gains/losses ($) 3,958,946______________________________________________________c) In this case, Albion actually can expect to realize exchange gains, rather than losses. This is mainly due to the fact that while the selling price appreciates by 8% in the U.K. market, the variable cost of imported input increased by about 6.25%. Albion may choose not to do anything.。
国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter 3
CHAPTER 3 BALANCE OF PAYMENTSSUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Define the balance of payments.Answer: The balance of payments (BOP) can be defined as the statistical record of a country’s international transactions over a certain period of time presented in the form of double-entry bookkeeping.2. Why would it be useful to examine a country’s balance of payments data?Answer: It would be useful to examine a country’s BOP for at least two reaso ns. First, BOP provides detailed information about the supply and demand of the country’s currency. Second, BOP data can be used to evaluate the performance of the country in international economic competition. For example, if a country is experiencing per ennial BOP deficits, it may signal that the country’s industries lack competitiveness.3. The United States has experienced continuous current account deficits since the early 1980s. What do you think are the main causes for the deficits? What would be the consequences of continuous U.S. current account deficits?Answer: The current account deficits of U.S. may have reflected a few reasons such as (I) a historically high real interest rate in the U.S., which is due to ballooning federal budget deficits, that kept the dollar strong, and (ii) weak competitiveness of the U.S. industries.4. In contrast to the U.S., Japan has realized continuous current account surpluses. What could be the main causes for these surpluses? Is it desirable to have continuous current account surpluses?Answer: Japan’s continuous current account surpluses may have reflected a weak yen and high competitiveness of Japanese industries. Massive capital exports by Japan prevented yen from appreciating more than it did. At the same time, foreigners’ exports to Japan were hampered by closed nature of Japanese markets. Continuous current account surpluses disrupt free trade by promoting protectionistsentiment in the deficit country. It is not desirable especially when it is brought about by the mercantilist policies.5. Comment on the following statement: “Since the U.S. imports more than it exports, it is necessary for the U.S. to import capital from foreign countries to finance its current account deficits.”Answer: The statement presupposes that the U.S. current account deficit causes its capital account surplus. In reality, the causality may be running in the opposite direction: U.S. capital account surplus may cause the country’s current account deficit. Suppose foreigners fin d the U.S. a great place to invest and send their capital to the U.S., resulting in U.S. capital account surplus. This capital inflow will strengthen the dollar, hurting the U.S. export and encouraging imports from foreign countries, causing current account deficits.6. Explain how a country can run an overall balance of payments deficit or surplus.Answer: A country can run an overall BOP deficit or surplus by engaging in the official reserve transactions. For example, an overall BOP deficit can be su pported by drawing down the central bank’s reserve holdings. Likewise, an overall BOP surplus can be absorbed by adding to the central bank’s reserve holdings.7. Explain official reserve assets and its major components.Answer: Official reserve assets are those financial assets that can be used as international means of payments. Currently, official reserve assets comprise: (I) gold, (ii) foreign exchanges, (iii) special drawing rights (SDRs), and (iv) reserve positions with the IMF. Foreign exchanges are by far the most important official reserves.8. Explain how to compute the overall balance and discuss its significance.Answer: The overall BOP is determined by computing the cumulative balance of payments including the current account, capital account, and the statistical discrepancies. The overall BOP is significant because it indicates a country’s international payment gap that must be financed by the government’s official reserve transactions.9. Since the early 1980s, foreign portfolio investors have purchased a significant portion of U.S. treasury bond issues. Discuss the short-term and long-term effects of foreigners’ portfolio investment on the U.S. balance of payments.Answer: As foreigners purchase U.S. Treasury bonds, U.S. BOP will improve in the short run. But in the long run, U.S. BOP may deteriorate because the U.S. should pay interests and principals to foreigners. If foreign funds are used productively and contributes to the competitiveness of U.S. industries, however, U.S. BOP may improve in the long run.10. Describe the balance of payments identity and discuss its implications under the fixed and flexible exchange rate regimes.Answer: The balance of payments identity holds that the combined balance on the current and capital accounts should be equal in size, but opposite in sign, to the change in the official reserves: BCA + BKA = -BRA. Under the pure flexible exchange rate regime, central banks do not engage in official reserve transactions. Thus, the overall balance must balance, i.e., BCA = -BKA. Under the fixed exchange rate regime, however, a country can have an overall BOP surplus or deficit as the central bank will accommodate it via official reserve transactions.11. Exhibit 3.3 indicates that in 1991, the U.S. had a current account deficit and at the same time a capital account deficit. Explain how this can happen?Answer: In 1991, the U.S. experienced an overall BOP deficit, which must have been accommodated by the Federal Reserve’s official reserve action, i.e., drawing down its reserve holdings.12. Explain how each of the following transactions will be classified and recorded in the debit and credit of the U.S. balance of payments:(1) A Japanese insurance company purchases U.S. Treasury bonds and pays out of its bank account kept in New York City.(2) A U.S. citizen consumes a meal at a restaurant in Paris and pays with her American Express card.(3) A Indian immigrant living in Los Angeles sends a check drawn on his L.A. bank account as a gift to his parents living in Bombay.(4) A U.S. computer programmer is hired by a British company for consulting and gets paid from the U.S. bank account maintained by the British company.Answer:_________________________________________________________________Transactions Credit Debit_________________________________________________________________Japanese purchase of U.S. T bonds √Japanese payment using NYC account √U.S. citizen having a meal in Paris √Paying the meal with American Express √Gift to parents in Bombay √Receipts of the check by parents (goodwill) √Export of programming service √British payment out its account in U.S. √_________________________________________________________________13. Construct the balance of payment table for Japan for the year of 1998 which is comparable in format to Exhibit 3.1, and interpret the numerical data. You may consult International Financial Statistics published by IMF or research for useful websites for the data yourself.Answer:A summary of the Japanese Balance of Payments for 1998 (in $ billion)Credits DebitsCurrent Account(1) Exports 646.03(1.1) Merchandise 374.04(1.2) Services 62.41(1.3) Factor income 209.58(2) Imports -516.50(2.1) Merchandise -251.66(2.2) Services -111.83(3.3) Factor income -153.01(3) Unilateral transfer 5.53 -14.37Balance on current account 120.69[(1) + (2) + (3)]Capital Account(4) Direct investment 3.27 -24.62(5) Portfolio investment 73.70 -113.73(5.1) Equity securities 16.11 -14.00(5.2) Debt securities 57.59 -99.73(6) Other investment 39.51 -109.35Balance on financial account -131.22[(4) + (5) + (6)](7) Statistical discrepancies 4.36Overall balance -6.17Official Reserve Account 6.17Source: IMF, International Financial Statistics Yearbook, 1999.Note: Capital account in the above table corresponds with the ‘Financial account’ in IMF’s balance of payment statistics. IMF’s Capital account’ is included in ‘Other investment’ in the above table.MINI CASE: MEXICO’S BALANCE OF PAYMENTS PROBLEMRecently, Mexico experienced large-scale trade deficits, depletion of foreign reserve holdings and a major currency devaluation in December 1994, followed by the decision to freely float the peso. These events also brought about a severe recession and higher unemployment in Mexico. Since the devaluation, however, the trade balance has improved.Investigate the Mexican experiences in detail and write a report on the subject. In the report, you may:(a) document the tr end in Mexico’s key economic indicators, such as the balance of payments, the exchange rate, and foreign reserve holdings, during the period 1994.1 through 1995.12.;(b) investigate the causes of Mexico’s balance of payments difficulties prior to the peso devaluation;(c) discuss what policy actions might have prevented or mitigated the balance of payments problem and the subsequent collapse of the peso; and(d) derive lessons from the Mexican experience that may be useful for other developing countries.In your report, you may identify and address any other relevant issues concerning Mexico’s balance of payment problem.Suggested Solution to Mexico’s Balance-of-Payments ProblemTo solve this case, it is useful to review Chapter 2, especially the section on the Mexican peso crisis. Despite the fact that Mexico had experienced continuous trade deficits until December 1994, the country’s currency was not allowed to depreciate for political reasons. The Mexican government did not want the peso devaluation before the Presidential election held in 1994. If the Mexican peso had been allowed to gradually depreciate against the major currencies, the peso crisis could have been prevented.The key lessons that can be derived from the peso crisis are: First, Mexico depended too much on short-term foreign portfolio capital (which is easily reversible) for its economic growth. The country perhaps should have saved more domestically and depended more on long-term foreign capital. This can be a valuable lesson for many developing countries. Second, the lack of reliable economic information was another contributing factor to the peso crisis. The Salinas administration was reluctant to fully disclose the true state of the Mexican economy. If investors had known that Mexico was experiencing serious trade deficits and rapid depletion of foreign exchange reserves, the peso might have been gradually depreciating, rather than suddenly collapsed as it did. The transparent disclosure of economic data can help prevent the peso-type crisis. Third, it is important to safeguard the world financial system from the peso-type crisis. To this end, a multinational safety net needs to be in place to contain the peso-type crisis in the early stage.。
国际财务学习管理课后练习习题答案chapter
CHAPTER 8 MANAGEMENT OF TRANSACTION EXPOSURESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONSAND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. How would you define transaction exposure?How is it different from economic exposure?Answer: Transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency valuesof the firm’s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpectedchanges in exchange rates. Unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term.2. Discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure money market instruments. When do the alternativeusinghedgingthe forwardapproachescontractproducevs.thesame result?Answer: Hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling orbuying foreign currency receivables or payables forward.On the other hand, money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables,thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions.If the interest rate parity is holding,the two hedging methods are equivalent.3.Discuss and compare the costs of hedging via the forward contract and the optionscontract.Answer: There is no up-front cost of hedging by forward contracts. In the case of optionshedging, however, hedgers should pay the premiums for the contracts up-front. The cost offorward hedging, however, may be realized ex post when the hedger regretshis/her hedging decision.4.What are the advantages of a currency options contract as a hedging tool comparedwith the forward contract?Answer: The main advantage of using options contracts for hedging is that the hedgercan decide whether to exercise options upon observing the realized future exchange rate. Options thus provide a hedge against ex post regret that forward hedger mighthave to suffer.Hedgers can only eliminate the downside risk while retaining the upside potential.5.Suppose your company has purchased a put option on the German mark to manage exchange exposure associated with an account receivable denominated in that currency.In this case, your company can be said to have an ‘insurance ’ policy on its receivable. Explain in what sense this is so.Answer: Your company in this case knows in advance that it will receive a certainminimum dollar amount no matter what might happen to the $/ ?exchange rate. Furthermore,if the German mark appreciates,your company will benefit from the rising euro.6.Recent surveys of corporate exchange risk management practices indicate that manyU.S. firms simply do not hedge. How would you explain this result?Answer: There can be many possible reasons for this. First, many firms may feel thatthey are not really exposed to exchange risk due to product diversification, diversified markets for their products,etc.Second,firms may be using self-insurance against exchange risk.Third,firms may feel that shareholders can diversify exchange risk themselves, rendering corporate risk management unnecessary.7. Should a firm hedge? Why or why not?Answer: In a perfect capital market, firms may not need to hedge exchange risk. Butfirms can add to their value by hedging if markets are imperfect. First, if management knows about the firm ’s exposure better than shareholders, the firm, notits shareholders, should hedge. Second, firms may be able to hedge at a lower cost.Third, if default costs are significant, corporate hedging can be justifiable because itreduces the probability of default. Fourth, if the firm faces progressive taxes, it canreduce tax obligations by hedging which stabilizes corporate earnings.8. Using an example,discuss the possible effect of hedging on a firm’s tax obligations.Answer: One can use an example similar to the one presented in the chapter.9.Explain contingent exposure and discuss the advantages of using currency optionsto manage this type of currency exposure.Answer: Companies may encounter a situation where they may or may not face currency exposure. In this situation, companies need options, not obligations, to buy or sella given amount of foreign exchange they may or may not receive or have to pay. If companies either hedge using forward contracts or do not hedge at all, they may face definite currency exposure.10. Explain cross-hedging and discuss the factors determining its effectiveness.Answer: Cross-hedging involves hedging a position in one asset by taking a positionin another asset. The effectiveness of cross-hedging would depend on the strengthand stability of the relationship between the two assets.PROBLEMS1.Cray Research sold a super computer to the Max Planck Institutecredit and invoiced?10 million payable in six months.Currently, forward exchange rate is $? and the foreign exchange advisor for predicts that the spot rate is likely to be $? in six months.(a)What is the expected gain/loss from the forward hedging?(b)If you were the financial manager of Cray Research, would you recommend hedging this euro receivable? Why or why not?(c)Suppose the foreign exchange advisor predicts that the future spot rate will bethe same as the forward exchange rate quoted today. Would you recommend hedging in this case? Why or why not?in Germany on the six -month Cray ResearchSolution: (a) Expected gain($) = 10,000,000–=10,000,000(.05)=$500,000.(b)I would recommend hedging because Cray Research can increase the expected dollarreceipt by $500,000 and also eliminate the exchange risk.(c) Since I eliminate risk without sacrificing dollar receipt,I still would recommend hedging.2. IBM purchased computer chips from NEC, a Japanese electronics concern, and was billed￥250 million payable in three months. Currently, the spot exchange rate is￥105/$ and the three- month forward rate is￥100/$. The three -month money market interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the U.S. and 7 percent per annum in Japan. The management of IBM decided to use the money market hedge to deal with this yen account payable.(a) Explain the process of a money market hedge and compute the dollar cost of meeting the yen obligation.(b) Conduct the cash flow analysis of the money market hedge.Solution: (a). Let’s first compute the PV of￥250 million, .,250m/ = ￥245,700,So if the above yen amount is invested today at the Japanese interest rate for threemonths, the maturity value will be exactly equal to￥25 million which is the amountof payable.To buy the above yen amount today, it will cost:$2,340, =￥250,000,000/105.The dollar cost of meeting this yen obligation is $2,340, as of today.(b)___________________________________________________________________Transaction CF0CF1____________________________________________________________________1.Buy yens spot-$2,340,with dollars￥245,700,2.Invest in Japan- ￥245,700,￥250,000,0003.Pay yens- ￥250,000,000Net cash flow- $2,340,____________________________________________________________________3. You plan to visit Geneva, Switzerland in three months to attend an internationalbusiness conference. You expect to incur the total cost of SF 5,000 for lodging, meals and transportation during your stay. As of today, the spot exchange rate is $SF and the three-month forward rate is $SF. You can buy the three-month call option onSF with the exercise rate of $SF for the premium of $ per SF. Assume that your expected future spot exchange rate is the same as the forward rate. The three-monthinterest rate is 6 percent per annum in the United States and 4 percent per annum inSwitzerland.(a)Calculate your expected dollar cost of buying SF5,000 if you choose to hedge viacall option on SF.(b)Calculate the future dollar cost of meeting this SF obligation if you decideto hedge using a forward contract.(c)At what future spot exchange rate will you be indifferent between the forward andoption market hedges?(d)Illustrate the future dollar costs of meeting the SF payable against thefuture spot exchange rate under both the options and forward market hedges.Solution:(a)Total option premium = (.05)(5000)=$250. In three months,$250is worth $= $250. At the expected future spot rate of$SF,which is less than the exercise price,you don’t expect to exercise options.Rather,you expect to buy Swiss franc at $SF. Since you are going to buy SF5,000, you expect to spend $3,150(=.63x5,000).Thus,the total expected cost of buying SF5,000 will be the sum of $3,150 and $, ., $3,.(b)$3,150 = (.63)(5,000).(c)$3,150 = 5,000x + , where x represents the break-even future spot rate.Solving for x, we obtain x = $SF. Note that at the break-even future spot rate,options will not be exercised.(d) If the Swiss franc appreciates beyond $SF, which is the exercise price of calloption, you will exercise the option and buy SF5,000 for $3,200. The total cost of buying SF5,000 willbe $3, = $3,200 + $.This is the maximum you will pay.$ Cost$3,Options hedge$3,150Forward hedge$$/SF(strikeprice)4. Boeing just signed a contract to sell a Boeing737aircraft to Air France.Air France will be billed?20million which is payable in one year.The curre nt spot exchange rate is $? and the one- year forward rate is $?. The annual interest rateis % in the U.S. and % in France. Boeing is concerned with the volatile exchange ratebetween the dollar and the euro and would like to hedge exchange exposure.(a)It is considering two hedging alternatives: sell the euro proceeds from the saleforward or borrow euros from the Credit Lyonnaise against the euro receivable.Which alternative would you recommend? Why?(b) O ther things being equal,at what forward exchange rate would Boeing be indifferent between the two hedging methods?Solution:(a) In the case of forward hedge, the future dollar proceeds (20,000,000) = $22,000,000. In the case of money market hedge (MMH), the firm has tofirst borrow the PV o f its euro receivable, ., 20,000,000/ =?19,047,619. Then thefirm should exchange this euro amount into dollars at the current spot receive:(?19,047,619)($?)= $20,000,000,which can be invested at the will berate to dollarinterest rate for one year to yield:$20,000,000 = $21,200,000.Clearly, the firm can receive $800,000more by using forward hedging.(b) According to IRP, F = S(1+i$)/(1+i F). Thus the“indifferent”forward rate willbe:F=/=$?.5.Suppose that Baltimore Machinery sold a drilling machine to a Swiss firm andgave the Swiss client a choice of paying either $10,000 or SF 15,000 in three months.(a) In the above example, Baltimore Machinery effectively gave the Swiss client a free option to buy up to $10,000 dollars u sing Swiss franc. What is the‘implied’exercise exchange rate?(b)If the spot exchange rate turns out to be $SF, which currency do you think theSwiss client will choose to use for payment? What is the value of this free optionfor the Swiss client?(c)What is the best way for Baltimore Machinery to deal with the exchange exposure?Solution: (a) The implied exercise (price) rate is: 10,000/15,000 = $SF.(b) If the Swiss client chooses to pay $10,000, it will cost SF16,129 (=10,000/.62). Since the Swiss client has an option to pay SF15,000, it will choose to do so. Thevalue of this option is obviously SF1,129 (=SF16,129-SF15,000).(c)Baltimore Machinery faces a contingent exposure in the sense that it may or maynot receive SF15,000 in the future. The firm thus can hedge this exposure by buyinga put option on SF15,000.6. Princess Cruise Company (PCC) purchased a ship from Mitsubishi PCC owesHeavy Industry. Mitsubishi Heavy Industry 500 million yen in one year. The current spot rate is 124 yenper dollar and the one-year forward rate is 110 yen per dollar. The annual interest rateis 5% in Japan and 8% in the . PCC can also buy a one-year call option on yen at thestrike price of $.0081 per yen for a premium of .014 cents per yen.(a)Compute the future dollar costs of meeting this obligation using the money markethedge and the forward hedges.(b)Assuming that the forward exchange rate is the best predictor of the future spotrate, compute the expected future dollar cost of meeting this obligation option hedge isused.when the (c)At what future spot rate do you think PCC may be indifferent between the optionand forward hedge?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the dollar cost will be 500,000,000/110 =$4,545,455.In the case of money market hedge, the future dollar cost will be: 500,000,000/(124)= $4,147,465.(b)The option premium is: (.014/100)(500,000,000) = $70,000. Its future valuewill be $70,000 = $75,600.At the expected future spot rate of $.0091(=1/110), which is higher than the exerciseof $.0081, PCC will exercise its call option and buy ￥500,000,000 for $4,050,000 (=500,000,.The total expected cost will thus be $4,125,600, which is the sum of $75,600 and $4,050,000.(c) When the option hedge is used, PCC will spend“at most”$4,125,000. On the other hand, when the forward hedging is used, PCC will have to spend $4,545,455 regardlessof the future spot rate. This means that the options hedge dominates the forward hedge.At no future spot rate, PCC will be indifferent between forward and options hedges.7. Airbus sold an aircraft, A400, to Delta Airlines, a U.S. company, and billed $30million payable in six months. Airbus is concerned with the euro proceeds international sales and would like to control exchange risk.The current exchange rate is $? and six- month forward exchange rate is $? at the moment. Airbuscan buy a six-month put option on . dollars with a strike price of ?$ for a premium from spotof ? per . dollar. Currently, six-month interest rate is % in the euro zone and % in the U.S.pute the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale if Airbus decidesto hedge using a forward contract.b. If Airbus decides to hedge using money market instruments,what actionAirbus need to take? What would be the guaranteed euro proceeds from the Americansale in this case?c. If Airbus decides to hedge using put options on .dollars,what woulddoes be the‘expected’ euro proceeds from the American sale? Assume that Airbus regards thecurrent forward exchange rate as an unbiased predictor of the futureexchange rate.spot d.At what future spot exchange rate do you think Airbus will be indifferentbetween the option and money market hedge?Solution:a. Airbus will sell $30 million forward for ?27,272,727 = ($30,000,000) / ($?).b. Airbus will borrow the present value of the dollar receivable, ., $29,126,214 =$30,000,000/, and then sell the dollar proceeds spot for euros: ?27,739,251. Thisis the euro amount that Airbus is going to keep.c. Since the expected future spot rate is less than the strike price of the put option, ., ?< ?, Airbus expects to exercise the option and receive ?28,500,000 =($30,000,000)(?$).This is gross proceeds.Airbus spent?600,000(=,000,000) upfront for the option and its future cost is equal to?615,000= ?600,000x . Thus the net euro proceeds from the American sale is?27,885,000,which is the difference between the gross proceeds and the option costs.d. At the indifferent future spot rate, the following will hold:?28,432,732 = S T (30,000,000) -?615,000.Solving for S T, we obtain the“indifference” future spot exchange rate, ., ?$,or$?.Note that ?28,432,732is the future value of the proceeds under money market hedging:?28,432,732 = (?27,739,251) .Suggested solution for Mini Case: Chase Options, Inc.[See Chapter 13 for the case text]Chase Options, Inc.Hedging Foreign Currency Exposure Through Currency OptionsHarvey A. PoniachekI. Case SummaryThis case reviews the foreign exchange options market and hedging. It presents various international transactions that require currency options hedging strategies by the corporations involved. Seven transactions under a variety of circumstances areintroduced that require hedging by currency options. The transactions involve hedgingof dividend remittances,portfolio investment exposure,and strategic economic competitiveness.Market quotations are provided for options (and options hedging ratios), forwards, and interest rates for various maturities.II. Case Objective.The case introduces the student to the principles of currency options market and hedging strategies.The transactions are of various types that often confront companies that are involved in extensive international business or multinational corporations. The case induces students to acquire hands-on experience in addressingspecific exposure and hedging concerns,including how to apply various market quotations, which hedging strategy is most suitable, and how to address exposure inforeign currency through cross hedging policies.III. Proposed Assignment Solution1.The company expects DM100 million in repatriated profits, and does not want theDM/$ exchange rate at which they convert those profits to rise above . They can hedgethis exposure using DM put options with a strike price of . If the spot rate risesabove , they can exercise the option,while if that rate fallsthey can enjoy additional profits from favorable exchange rate movements.To purchase the options would require an up-front premium of:DM 100,000,000 x = DM 1,640,000.With a strike price of DM/$, this would assure the U.S. company of receiving at least:DM 100,000,000–DM 1,640,000 x (1 + x 272/360)= DM 98,254,544/ DM/$ = $57,796,791by exercising the option if the DM depreciated. Note that the proceeds from the repatriated profits are reduced by the premium paid, which is further adjusted by the interest foregone on this amount.However, if the DM were to appreciate relative to the dollar, the company would allowthe option to expire, and enjoy greater dollar proceeds from this increase.Should forward contracts be used to hedge this exposure, the proceeds receivedwould be:DM100,000,000/ DM/$ = $59,790,732,regardless of the movement of the DM/$ exchange rate. While this amount is almost $2million more than that realized using option hedges above, there is no flexibility regarding the exercise date; if this date differs from that at which the repatriateprofits are available,the company may be exposed to additional further current exposure. Further, there is no opportunity to enjoy any appreciation in the DM.If the company were to buy DM puts as above, and sell an equivalent amount incalls with strike price , the premium paid would be exactly offset by the premiumreceived. This would assure that the exchange rate realized would fall between and .If the rate rises above , the company will exercise its put option, and if it fell below ,the other party would use its call; for any rate in between, both options would expire worthless. The proceeds realized would then fall between:DM 100,00,000/ DM/$ = $60,716,454andDM 100,000,000/ DM/$ = $58,823,529.This would allow the company some upside potential,while guaranteeing proceeds at least $1 million greater than the minimum for simply buying a put as above.Buy/Sell OptionsDM/$Spot Put Payoff“Put”ProfitsCallPayoff“CallProfits”Net Profit(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,4560,716,4544(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,4560,716,4544(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,4560,716,4544(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,4560,716,4544(1,742,846)01,742,84660,716,4560,716,4544(1,742,846)60,606,061,742,846060,606,061(1,742,846)60,240,961,742,846060,240,964 4(1,742,846)59,880,241,742,846059,880,240 0(1,742,846)59,523,811,742,846059,523,810 0(1,742,846)59,171,591,742,846059,171,598 8(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529 9(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529 9(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529 9(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529 9(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529 9(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529 9(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529 9(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529 9(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529 9(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529 9(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529 9(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529 9(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529 9(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529 9(1,742,846)58,823,521,742,846058,823,529 9Since the firm believes that there is a good chance that the pound sterling weaken, locking them into a forward contract would not be appropriate, because theywould lose the opportunity to profit from this weakening. Their hedge strategy shouldfollow for an upside potential to match their viewpoint.Therefore,theywill shouldpurchase sterling call options, paying a premium of:5,000,000 STG x = 88,000 STG.If the dollar strengthens against the pound, the firm allows the option to expire,and buys sterling in the spot market at a cheaper price than they would have paid fora forward contract; otherwise, the sterling calls protect against unfavorable depreciation of the dollar.Because the fund manager is uncertain when he will sell the bonds, he requires a hedge which will allow flexibility as to the exercise date.Thus,options are the best instrument for him to use. He can buy A$ puts to lock in a floor of A$/$. Sincehe is willing to forego any further currency appreciation, he can sell A$ calls witha strike price of A$/$ to defray the cost of his hedge(in fact he earns a net premium of A$ 100,000,000 x–= A$ 2,300), while knowing that he can’t receiveless than A$/$when redeeming his investment,and can benefit from a small appreciation of the A$.Example #3:Problem: Hedge principal denominated in A$ into US$. Forgo upsidefloor protection.potential to buyI.Hedge by writing calls and buying puts1)Write calls for $/A$ @Buy puts for $/A$ @#contracts needed = Principal in A$/Contract size100,000,000A$/100,000 A$ = 1002)Revenue from sale of calls = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,573 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007234 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360) 3)Total cost of puts = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,332 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007211 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360) 4)Put payoffIf spot falls below , fund manager will exercise putIf spot rises above , fund manager will let put expire5)Call payoffIf spot rises above .8025, call will be exercisedIf spot falls below .8025, call will expire6)Net payoffStrike“Put”Call“Call”Price Put Payoff Principal Payoff Principal Net Profit(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)72,000,0075,573072,000,241(75,332)73,000,0075,573073,000,241(75,332)74,000,0075,573074,000,241(75,332)75,000,0075,573075,000,241(75,332)76,000,0075,573076,000,241(75,332)77,000,0075,573077,000,241(75,332)78,000,0075,573078,000,241(75,332)79,000,0075,573079,000,241(75,332)80,000,0075,573080,000,241(75,332)075,57380,250,0080,250,241(75,332)075,57380,250,0080,250,241(75,332)075,57380,250,0080,250,241(75,332)075,57380,250,0080,250,241(75,332)075,57380,250,0080,250,2414. The German company is bidding on a contract which they cannot be certain of winning. Thus, the need to execute a currency transaction is similarly uncertain,and using a forward or futures as a hedge is inappropriate, because it would forcethem to perform even if they do not win the contract.Using a sterling put option as a hedge for this transaction makes the most sense.For a premium of:12 million STG x = 193,200 STG,they can assure themselves that adverse movements in the pound sterling exchange ratewill not diminish their bid), while theatprofitabilitythe same timeof theallowingproject(andthe potentialhence thefor gainsfeasibilityfrom sterlingofappreciation.5.Since AMC in concerned about the adverse effects that a strengthening of the dollar would have on its business,we need to create a situation in which it will profit from such an appreciation. Purchasing a yen put or a dollar call will achievethis objective. The data in Exhibit 1, row 7 represent a 10 percent appreciation ofthe dollar strike vs.forward rate)and can be used to hedge against a similar appreciation of the dollar.For every million yen of hedging, the cost would be:Yen 100,000,000 x = 127 Yen.To determine the breakeven point, we need to compute the value of this option if thedollar appreciated 10 percent (spot rose to , and subtract from it the premium we paid. This profit would be compared with the profit earned on five to 10 percent ofAMC’s sales (which would be lost as a result of the dollar appreciation). The numberof options to be purchased which would equalize these two quantities wouldrepresent the breakeven point.Example #5:Hedge the economic cost of the depreciating Yen to AMC.If we assume that AMC sales fall in direct proportion to depreciation in the yen ., a10 percent decline in yen and 10 percent decline in sales), then we can hedge the full value of AMC ’s sales. I have assumed $100 million in sales.1)Buy yen puts# contracts needed = Expected Sales *Current￥/$ Rate / Contract size9600 = ($100,000,000)(120￥/$) /￥1,250,0002)Total Cost = (# contracts)(contract size)(premium)$1,524,000 = (9600)(￥1,250,000)($￥)3)Floor rate = Exercise– Premium￥/$ =￥/$- $1,524,000/12,000,000,000￥4)The payoff changes depending on the level of the ￥/$ rate. The following tablesummarizes the payoffs. An equilibrium is reached when the spot rate equals thefloor rate.AMC ProfitabilityYen/$ Spot Put Payoff Sales Net Profit120(1,524,990)100,000,00098,475,010 121(1,524,990)99,173,66497,648,564 122(1,524,990)98,360,65696,835,666 123(1,524,990)97,560,97686,035,986 124(1,524,990)96,774,19495,249,204 125(1,524,990)96,000,00094,475,010 126(1,524,990)95,238,09593,713,105 127(847,829)94,488,18993,640,360 128(109,640)93,750,00093,640,360 129617,10493,023,25693,640,360 1301,332,66892,307,69293,640,360 1312,037,30791,603,05393,640,360 1322,731,26990,909,09193,640,360 1333,414,79690,225,66493,640,360 1344,088,12289,552,23993,640,360 1354,751,43188,888,88993,640,360 1365,405,06688,235,29493,640,360 1376,049,11887,591,24193,640,360 1386,683,83986,966,52293,640,360 1397,308,42586,330,93693,640,360 1407,926,07585,714,28693,640,360 1418,533,97785,106,38393,640,360 1429,133,31884,507,04293,640,360 1439,724,27683,916,08493,640,360 14410,307,02783,333,33393,640,360 14510,881,74082,758,62193,640,360 14611,448,57982,191,78193,640,36014712,007,70781,632,65393,640,360 14812,569,27981,081,08193,640,360 14913,103,44880,536,91393,640,360 15013,640,36080,000,00093,640,360 The parent has a DM payable, and Lira receivable. It has several ways to cover its exposure; forwards, options, or swaps.The forward would be acceptable for and maturity, but the Lira exposure the DM loan,would retainbecause itsome of itshas a known quantityuncertainty becausethese factors are not assured.The parent advantage of could buyfavorableDM callscurrencyand Lirafluctuations,puts.This would allow butwould requirethempayingtofortaketwopremiums.Finally, they could swap their Lira receivable into DM. This would leave a net DMexposure which would probably be smaller than the amount of the loan, which they could hedge using forwards or options, depending upon their risk outlook.The company has Lira receivables,and is concerned about possible depreciation versus the dollar. Because of the high costs of Lira options, they instead buy DMputs, making the assumption that movement in the DM and Lira exchange rates versusthe dollar correlate well.A hedge of lira using DM options will depend on the relationship between lira FX rates and DM options. This relationship could be determined using a regression ofhistorical data.The hedged risk as a percent of the open risk can be estimated as:Square Root (var(error)/(b2var(lira FX rate) ) * 100。
国际财务管理课后习题答案第六章
国际财务管理课后习题答案(第六章)CHAPTER 6 INTERNATIONAL PARITY RELATIONSHIPSSUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTERQUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. Give a full definition of arbitrage.Answer:Arbitrage can be defined as the act of simultaneously buying and selling the same or equivalent assets or commodities for the purpose of making certain, guaranteed profits.2. Discuss the implications of the interest rate parity for the exchange rate determination.Answer: Assuming that the forward exchange rate is roughly an unbiased predictor of the future spot rate, IRP can be written as:S = [(1 + I£)/(1 + I$)]E[S t+1 I t].The exchange rate is thus determined by the relative interest rates, and the expected future spot rate, conditional on all the available information, I t, as of the present time. One thus can say that expectation is self-fulfilling. Since the information set will be continuously updated as news hit the market, the exchange rate will exhibit a highly dynamic, random behavior.3. Explain the conditions under which the forward exchange rate will be an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate.Answer: The forward exchange rate will be an unbiased predictor of the future spot rate if (I) the risk premium is insignificant and (ii) foreign exchange markets are informationally efficient.4. Explain the purchasing power parity, both the absolute and relative versions. What causes the deviations from the purchasing power parity?Answer: The absolute version of purchasing power parity (PPP):S = P$/P£.The relative version is:e = π$ - π£.PPP can be violated if there are barriers to international trade or if people in different countries have different consumption taste. PPP is the law of one price applied to a standard consumption basket.8. Explain the random walk model for exchange rate forecasting. Can it be consistent with the technical analysis?Answer: The random walk model predicts that the current exchange rate will be the best predictor of the future exchange rate. An implication of the model is that past history of the exchange rate is of no value in predicting future exchange rate. The model thus is inconsistent with the technical analysis which tries to utilize past history in predicting the future exchange rate.*9. Derive and explain the monetary approach to exchange rate determination.Answer: The monetary approach is associated with the Chicago School of Economics. It is based on two tenets: purchasing power parity and the quantity theory of money. Combing these two theories allows for stating, say, the $/£ spot exchange rate as:S($/£) = (M$/M£)(V$/V£)(y£/y$),where M denotes the money supply, V the velocity of money, and y the national aggregate output. The theory holds that what matters in exchange rate determination are:1. The relative money supply,2. The relative velocities of monies, and3. The relative national outputs.10. CFA question: 1997, Level 3.A.Explain the following three concepts of purchasing power parity (PPP):a. The law of one price.b. Absolute PPP.c. Relative PPP.B.Evaluate the usefulness of relative PPP in predicting movements in foreign exchange rateson:a.Short-term basis (for example, three months)b.Long-term basis (for example, six years)Answer:A. a. The law of one price (LOP) refers to the international arbitrage condition for the standardconsumption basket. LOP requires that the consumption basket should be selling for the sameprice in a given currency across countries.A. b. Absolute PPP holds that the price level in a country is equal to the price level in anothercountrytimes the exchange rate between the two countries.A. c. Relative PPP holds that the rate of exchange rate change between a pair of countries isabout equalto the difference in inflation rates of the two countries.B. a. PPP is not useful for predicting exchange rates on the short-term basis mainly becauseinternational commodity arbitrage is a time-consuming process.B. b. PPP is useful for predicting exchange rates on the long-term basis.PROBLEMS1. Suppose that the treasurer of IBM has an extra cash reserve of $100,000,000 to invest for six months. The six-month interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the United States and 6 percent per annum in Germany. Currently, the spot exchange rate is €1.01per dollar and the six-month forward exchange rate is €0.99 per dollar. The treasurer of IBM does not wish to bear any exchange risk. Where should he/she invest to maximize the return?The market conditions are summarized as follows:I$ = 4%; i€= 3.5%; S = €1.01/$; F = €0.99/$.If $100,000,000 is invested in the U.S., the maturity value in six months will be$104,000,000 = $100,000,000 (1 + .04).Alternatively, $100,000,000 can be converted into euros and invested at the German interest rate, with the euro maturity value sold forward. In this case the dollar maturity value will be $105,590,909 = ($100,000,000 x 1.01)(1 + .035)(1/0.99)Clearly, it is better to invest $100,000,000 in Germany with exchange risk hedging.2. While you were visiting London, you purchased a Jaguar for £35,000, payable in three months. You have enough cash at your bank in New York City, which pays 0.35% interest per month, compounding monthly, to pay for the car. Currently, the spot exchange rate is $1.45/£and the three-month forward exchange rate is $1.40/£. In London, the money market interest rate is 2.0% for a three-month investment. There are two alternative ways of paying for your Jaguar.(a) Keep the funds at your bank in the U.S. and buy £35,000 forward.(b) Buy a certain pound amount spot today and invest the amount in the U.K. for three months so that the maturity value becomes equal to £35,000.Evaluate each payment method. Which method would you prefer? Why?Solution: The problem situation is summarized as follows:A/P = £35,000 payable in three monthsi NY = 0.35%/month, compounding monthlyi LD = 2.0% for three monthsS = $1.45/£; F = $1.40/£.Option a:When you buy £35,000 forward, you will need $49,000 in three months to fulfill the forward contract. The present value of $49,000 is computed as follows:$49,000/(1.0035)3 = $48,489.Thus, the cost of Jaguar as of today is $48,489.Option b:The present value of £35,000 is £34,314 = £35,000/(1.02). To buy £34,314 today, it will cost $49,755 = 34,314x1.45. Thus the cost of Jaguar as of today is $49,755.You should definitely choose to use “option a”, and save $1,266, which is the difference between $49,755 and $48489.3. Currently, the spot exchange rate is $1.50/£and the three-month forward exchange rate is $1.52/£. The three-month interest rate is 8.0% per annum in the U.S. and 5.8% per annum in the U.K. Assume that you can borrow as much as $1,500,000 or £1,000,000.a. Determine whether the interest rate parity is currently holding.b. If the IRP is not holding, how would you carry out covered interest arbitrage? Show all the steps and determine the arbitrage profit.c. Explain how the IRP will be restored as a result of covered arbitrage activities.Solution: Let’s summarize the given data first:S = $1.5/£; F = $1.52/£; I$ = 2.0%; I£ = 1.45%Credit = $1,500,000 or £1,000,000.a. (1+I$) = 1.02(1+I£)(F/S) = (1.0145)(1.52/1.50) = 1.0280Thus, IRP is not holding exactly.b. (1) Borrow $1,500,000; repayment will be $1,530,000.(2) Buy £1,000,000 spot using $1,500,000.(3) Invest £1,000,000 at the pound interest rate of 1.45%;maturity value will be £1,014,500.(4) Sell £1,014,500 forward for $1,542,040Arbitrage profit will be $12,040c. Following the arbitrage transactions described above,The dollar interest rate will rise;The pound interest rate will fall;The spot exchange rate will rise;The forward exchange rate will fall.These adjustments will continue until IRP holds.4. Suppose that the current spot exchange rate is €0.80/$ and the three-month forward exchange rate is €0.7813/$. The three-month interest rate is5.6 percent per annum in the United States and5.40 percent per annum in France. Assume that you can borrow up to $1,000,000 or €800,000.a. Show how to realize a certain profit via covered interest arbitrage, assuming that you want to realize profit in terms of U.S. dollars. Also determine the size of your arbitrage profit.b. Assume that you want to realize profit in terms of euros. Show the covered arbitrage process and determine the arbitrage profit in euros.Solution:a.(1+ i $) = 1.014 < (F/S) (1+ i € ) = 1.053. Thus, one has to borrow dollars and invest in euros tomake arbitrage profit.1.Borrow $1,000,000 and repay $1,014,000 in three months.2.Sell $1,000,000 spot for €1,060,000.3.Invest €1,060,000 at the euro interest rate of 1.35 %for three months and receive €1,074,310at maturity.4.Sell €1,074,310 forward for $1,053,245.Arbitrage profit = $1,053,245 - $1,014,000 = $39,245.b.Follow the first three steps above. But the last step, involving exchange risk hedging, will bedifferent.5.Buy $1,014,000 forward for €1,034,280.Arbitrage profit = €1,074,310 - €1,034,280 = €40,0305. In the issue of October 23, 1999, the Economist reports that the interest rate per annum is 5.93% in the United States and 70.0% in Turkey. Why do you think the interest rate is so high in Turkey?Based on the reported interest rates, how would you predict the change of the exchange ratebetween the U.S. dollar and the Turkish lira?Solution: A high Turkish interest rate must reflect a high expected inflation in Turkey. According to international Fisher effect (IFE), we haveE(e) = i$ - i Lira= 5.93% - 70.0% = -64.07%The Turkish lira thus is expected to depreciate against the U.S. dollar by about 64%.6. As of November 1, 1999, the exchange rate between the Brazilian real and U.S. dollar is R$1.95/$. The consensus forecast for the U.S. and Brazil inflation rates for the next 1-year period is 2.6% and 20.0%, respectively. How would you forecast the exchange rate to be at around November 1, 2000?Solution: Since the inflation rate is quite high in Brazil, we may use the purchasing power parity to forecast the exchange rate.E(e) = E(π$) - E(πR$)= 2.6% - 20.0%= -17.4%E(S T) = S o(1 + E(e))= (R$1.95/$) (1 + 0.174)= R$2.29/$7. (CFA question) Omni Advisors, an international pension fund manager, uses the concepts of purchasing power parity (PPP) and the International Fisher Effect (IFE) to forecast spot exchange rates. Omni gathers the financial information as follows:Base price level 100Current U.S. price level 105Current South African price level 111Base rand spot exchange rate $0.175Current rand spot exchange rate $0.158Expected annual U.S. inflation 7%Expected annual South African inflation 5%Expected U.S. one-year interest rate 10%Expected South African one-year interest rate 8%Calculate the following exchange rates (ZAR and USD refer to the South African and U.S. dollar, respectively).a. The current ZAR spot rate in USD that would have been forecast by PPP.b. Using the IFE, the expected ZAR spot rate in USD one year from now.c. Using PPP, the expected ZAR spot rate in USD four years from now.Solution:a. ZAR spot rate under PPP = [1.05/1.11](0.175) = $0.1655/rand.b. Expected ZAR spot rate = [1.10/1.08] (0.158) = $0.1609/rand.c. Expected ZAR under PPP = [(1.07)4/(1.05)4] (0.158) = $0.1704/rand.8. Suppose that the current spot exchange rate is €1.50/₤ and the one-year forward exchange rate is €1.60/₤. The one-year interest rate is 5.4% in euros and 5.2% in pounds. You can borrow at most €1,000,000 or the equivalent pound amount, i.e., ₤666,667, at the current spot exchange rate.a.Show how you can realize a guaranteed profit from covered interest arbitrage. Assume that youare a euro-based investor. Also determine the size of the arbitrage profit.b.Discuss how the interest rate parity may be restored as a result of the abovetransactions.c.Suppose you are a pound-based investor. Show the covered arbitrage process anddetermine the pound profit amount.Solution:a. First, note that (1+i €) = 1.054 is less than (F/S)(1+i €) = (1.60/1.50)(1.052) = 1.1221.You should thus borrow in euros and lend in pounds.1)Borrow €1,000,000 and promise to repay €1,054,000 in one year.2)Buy ₤666,667 spot for €1,000,000.3)Invest ₤666,667 at the pound interest rate of 5.2%; the maturity value will be ₤701,334.4)To hedge exchange risk, sell the maturity value ₤701,334 forward in exchange for €1,122,134.The arbitrage profit will be the difference between €1,122,134 and €1,054,000, i.e., €68,134.b. As a result of the above arbitrage transactions, the euro interest rate will rise, the pound interest rate will fall. In addition, the spot exchange rate (euros per pound) will rise and the forward rate will fall. These adjustments will continue until the interest rate parity is restored.c. The pound-based investor will carry out the same transactions 1), 2), and 3) in a. But to hedge, he/she will buy €1,054,000 forward in exchange for ₤658,750. The arbitrage profit will then be ₤42,584 = ₤701,334 - ₤658,750.9. Due to the integrated nature of their capital markets, investors in both the U.S. and U.K. require the same real interest rate, 2.5%, on their lending. There is a consensus in capital markets that the annual inflation rate is likely to be 3.5% in the U.S. and 1.5% in the U.K. for the next three years. The spot exchange rate is currently $1.50/£.pute the nominal interest rate per annum in both the U.S. and U.K., assuming that theFisher effect holds.b.What is your expected future spot dollar-pound exchange rate in three years from now?c.Can you infer the forward dollar-pound exchange rate for one-year maturity?Solution.a. Nominal rate in US = (1+ρ) (1+E(π$)) – 1 = (1.025)(1.035) – 1 = 0.0609 or 6.09%.Nominal rate in UK= (1+ρ) (1+E(π₤)) – 1 = (1.025)(1.015) – 1 = 0.0404 or 4.04%.b. E(S T) = [(1.0609)3/(1.0404)3] (1.50) = $1.5904/₤.c. F = [1.0609/1.0404](1.50) = $1.5296/₤.Mini Case: Turkish Lira and the Purchasing Power ParityVeritas Emerging Market Fund specializes in investing in emerging stock markets of the world. Mr. Henry Mobaus, an experienced hand in international investment and your boss, is currently interested in Turkish stock markets. He thinks that Turkey will eventually be invited to negotiate its membership in the European Union. If this happens, it will boost the stock prices in Turkey. But, at the same time, he is quite concerned with the volatile exchange rates of the Turkish currency. He would like to understand what drives the Turkish exchange rates. Since the inflation rate is much higher in Turkey than in the U.S., he thinks that the purchasing power parity may be holding at least to some extent. As a research assistant for him, you were assigned to check this out. In other words, you have to study and prepare a report on the following question: Does the purchasing power parity hold for the Turkish lira-U.S. dollar exchange rate? Among other things, Mr. Mobaus would like you to do the following:Plot the past exchange rate changes against the differential inflation rates betweenTurkey and the U.S. for the last four years.Regress the rate of exchange rate changes on the inflation rate differential to estimate the intercept and the slope coefficient, and interpret the regression results.Data source: You may download the consumer price index data for the U.S. and Turkey from the following website:Solution:a. In the current solution, we use the monthly data from January 1999 – December 2002.Turkey vs. U.S.-0.050.000.050.100.15-0.0500.050.10.15Inf_Turkey - Inf_USR a t e o f C h a n g e o f T L /$ (e )b. We regress exchange rate changes (e) on the inflation rate differential and estimate theintercept (α ) and slope coefficient (β):3.095) (t 1.472βˆ0.649)- (t 0.011αˆε Inf_US) -Inf_Turkey (βˆαˆ e tt ===-=++=The estimated intercept is insignificantly different from zero, whereas the slope coefficient is positive and significantly different from zero. In fact, the slope coefficient is insignificantly different from unity. [Note that t-statistics for β = 1 is 0.992 = (1.472 – 1)/0.476 where s.e. is 0.476] In other words, we cannot reject the hypothesis that the intercept is zero and the slope coefficient is one. The results are thus supportive of purchasing power parity.5. Discuss the implications of the deviations from the purchasing power parity for countries’ competitive positions in the world market.Answer: If exchange rate changes satisfy PPP, competitive positions of countries will remain unaffected following exchange rate changes. Otherwise, exchange rate changes will affect relative competitiveness of countries. If a country’s currency appreciates (depreciates) by more than is warranted by PPP, that will hurt (strengthen) the country’s competitive position in th e world1.47βˆ= 0.011αˆ-=market.6. Explain and derive the international Fisher effect.Answer: The international Fisher effect can be obtained by combining the Fisher effect and the relative version of PPP in its expectational form. Specifically, the Fisher effect holds that E(π$) = I$ - ρ$,E(π£) = I£ - ρ£.Assuming that the real interest rate is the same between the two countries, i.e., ρ$ = ρ£, and substituting the above results into the PPP, i.e., E(e) = E(π$)- E(π£), we obtain the international Fisher effect: E(e) = I$ - I£.7. Researchers found that it is very difficult to forecast the future exchange rates more accurately than the forward exchange rate or the current spot exchange rate. How would you interpret this finding?Answer: This implies that exchange markets are informationally efficient. Thus, unless one has private information that is not yet reflected in the current market rates, it would be difficult to beat the market.。
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C H A P T E R8M A N A G E M E N T O F T R A N S A C T I O N E X P O S U R ESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS AND PROBLEMS QUESTIONS1. How would you define transaction exposure? How is it different from economic exposure?Answer: Transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency values of the firm’s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpected changes in exchange rates. Unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term.2. Discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure using the forward contract vs. money market instruments. When do the alternative hedging approaches produce the same result?Answer: Hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling or buying foreign currency receivables or payables forward. On the other hand, money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables, thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions. If the interest rate parity is holding, the two hedging methods are equivalent.3. Discuss and compare the costs of hedging via the forward contract and the options contract.Answer: There is no up-front cost of hedging by forward contracts. In the case of options hedging, however, hedgers should pay the premiums for the contracts up-front. The cost of forward hedging, however, may be realized ex post when the hedger regrets his/her hedging decision.4. What are the advantages of a currency options contract as a hedging tool compared with the forward contract?Answer: The main advantage of using options contracts for hedging is that the hedger can decide whether to exercise options upon observing the realized future exchange rate. Options thus provide a hedge against ex post regret that forward hedger might have to suffer. Hedgers can only eliminate the downside risk while retaining the upside potential.5. Suppose your company has purchased a put option on the German mark to manage exchange exposure associated with an account receivable denominated in that currency. In this case, your company can be said to have an ‘insurance’ policy on its receivable. Explain in what sense this is so.Answer: Your company in this case knows in advance that it will receive a certain minimum dollar amount no matter what might happen to the $/€exchange rate. Furthermore, if the German mark appreciates, your company will benefit from the rising euro.6. Recent surveys of corporate exchange risk management practices indicate that many U.S. firms simply do not hedge. How would you explain this result?Answer: There can be many possible reasons for this. First, many firms may feel that they are not really exposed to exchange risk due to product diversification, diversified markets for their products, etc. Second, firms may be using self-insurance against exchange risk. Third, firms may feel that shareholders can diversify exchange risk themselves, rendering corporate risk management unnecessary.7. Should a firm hedge? Why or why not?Answer: In a perfect capital market, firms may not need to hedge exchange risk. But firms can add to their value by hedging if markets are imperfect. First, if management knows about the firm’s exposure better than shareholders, the firm, not its shareholders, should hedge. Second, firms may be able to hedge at a lower cost. Third, if default costs are significant, corporate hedging can be justifiable because it reduces the probability of default. Fourth, if the firm faces progressive taxes, it can reduce tax obligations by hedging which stabilizes corporate earnings.8. Using an example, discuss the possible effect of hedging on a firm’s tax obligations.Answer: One can use an example similar to the one presented in the chapter.9. Explain contingent exposure and discuss the advantages of using currency options to manage this type of currency exposure.Answer: Companies may encounter a situation where they may or may not face currency exposure. In this situation, companies need options, not obligations, to buy or sell a given amount of foreign exchange they may or may not receive or have to pay. If companies either hedge using forward contracts or do not hedge at all, they may face definite currency exposure.10. Explain cross-hedging and discuss the factors determining its effectiveness. Answer: Cross-hedging involves hedging a position in one asset by taking a position in another asset. The effectiveness of cross-hedging would depend on the strength and stability of the relationship between the two assets.PROBLEMS1. Cray Research sold a super computer to the Max Planck Institute in Germany on credit and invoiced €10 million payable in six months. Currently, the six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€and the foreign exchange advisor for Cray Research predicts that the spot rate is likely to be $1.05/€ in six months.(a) What is the expected gain/loss from the forward hedging?(b) If you were the financial manager of Cray Research, would you recommend hedging this euro receivable? Why or why not?(c) Suppose the foreign exchange advisor predicts that the future spot rate will be the same as the forward exchange rate quoted today. Would you recommend hedging in this case? Why or why not?Solution: (a) Expected gain($) = 10,000,000(1.10 – 1.05)= 10,000,000(.05)= $500,000.(b) I would recommend hedging because Cray Research can increase the expected dollar receipt by $500,000 and also eliminate the exchange risk.(c) Since I eliminate risk without sacrificing dollar receipt, I still would recommend hedging.2. IBM purchased computer chips from NEC, a Japanese electronics concern, and was billed ￥250 million payable in three months. Currently, the spot exchange rate is ￥105/$ and the three-month forward rate is ￥100/$. The three-month money market interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the U.S. and 7 percent per annum in Japan. The management of IBM decided to use the money market hedge to deal with this yen account payable.(a) Explain the process of a money market hedge and compute the dollar cost of meeting the yen obligation.(b) Conduct the cash flow analysis of the money market hedge.Solution: (a). Let’s first compute the PV of ￥250 million, i.e.,250m/1.0175 = ￥245,700,245.7So if the above yen amount is invested today at the Japanese interest rate for three months, the maturity value will be exactly equal to ￥25 million which is the amount of payable.To buy the above yen amount today, it will cost:$2,340,002.34 = ￥250,000,000/105.The dollar cost of meeting this yen obligation is $2,340,002.34 as of today.(b)___________________________________________________________________Transaction CF0 CF1____________________________________________________________________1. Buy yens spot -$2,340,002.34with dollars ￥245,700,245.702. Invest in Japan - ￥245,700,245.70 ￥250,000,0003. Pay yens - ￥250,000,000Net cash flow - $2,340,002.34____________________________________________________________________3. You plan to visit Geneva, Switzerland in three months to attend an international business conference. You expect to incur the total cost of SF 5,000 for lodging, meals and transportation during your stay. As of today, the spot exchange rate is $0.60/SF and the three-month forward rate is $0.63/SF. You can buy the three-month call option on SF with the exercise rate of $0.64/SF for the premium of $0.05 per SF. Assume that your expected future spot exchange rate is the same as the forward rate. The three-month interest rate is 6 percent per annum in the United States and 4 percent per annum in Switzerland.(a) Calculate your expected dollar cost of buying SF5,000 if you choose to hedge via call option on SF.(b) Calculate the future dollar cost of meeting this SF obligation if you decide to hedge using a forward contract.(c) At what future spot exchange rate will you be indifferent between the forward and option market hedges?(d) Illustrate the future dollar costs of meeting the SF payable against the future spot exchange rate under both the options and forward market hedges.Solution: (a) Total option premium = (.05)(5000) = $250. In three months, $250 is worth $253.75 = $250(1.015). At the expected future spot rate of $0.63/SF, which is less than the exercise price, you don’t e xpect to exercise options. Rather, you expect to buy Swiss franc at $0.63/SF. Since you are going to buy SF5,000, you expect to spend $3,150 (=.63x5,000). Thus, the total expected cost of buying SF5,000 will be the sum of $3,150 and $253.75, i.e., $3,403.75.(b) $3,150 = (.63)(5,000).(c) $3,150 = 5,000x + 253.75, where x represents the break-even future spot rate.Solving for x, we obtain x = $0.57925/SF. Note that at the break-even future spot rate, options will not be exercised.(d) If the Swiss franc appreciates beyond $0.64/SF, which is the exercise price of call option, you will exercise the option and buy SF5,000 for $3,200. The total cost of buying SF5,000 will be $3,453.75 = $3,200 + $253.75.This is the maximum you will pay.4. Boeing just signed a contract to sell a Boeing 737 aircraft to Air France. AirFrance will be billed €20 million which is payable in one year. The current spot exchange rate is $1.05/€ and the one -year forward rate is $1.10/€. The annualinterest rate is 6.0% in the U.S. and 5.0% in France. Boeing is concerned with thevolatile exchange rate between the dollar and the euro and would like to hedge exchange exposure. (a) It is considering two hedging alternatives: sell the euro proceeds from the sale forward or borrow euros from the Credit Lyonnaise against the euro receivable. Which alternative would you recommend? Why? (b) Other things being equal, at what forward exchange rate would Boeing be indifferent between the two hedging methods?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the future dollar proceeds will be (20,000,000)(1.10) = $22,000,000. In the case of money market hedge (MMH), the firm has to first borrow the PV of its euro receivable, i.e., 20,000,000/1.05 =€19,047,619. Then the firm should exchange this euro amount into dollars at the current spot rate to receive: (€19,047,619)($1.05/€) = $20,000,000, which can be invested at the dollar interest rate for one year to yield:$20,000,000(1.06) = $21,200,000.Clearly, the firm can receive $800,000 more by using forward hedging.(b) According to IRP, F = S(1+i $)/(1+i F ). T hus the “indifferent” forward rate will be:F = 1.05(1.06)/1.05 = $1.06/€.5. Suppose that Baltimore Machinery sold a drilling machine to a Swiss firm and gave the Swiss client a choice of paying either $10,000 or SF 15,000 in three months.(a) In the above example, Baltimore Machinery effectively gave the Swiss client a free option to buy up to $10,000 dollars using Swiss franc. What is the ‘implied’ exercise exchange rate?(b) If the spot exchange rate turns out to be $0.62/SF, which currency do you think the Swiss client will choose to use for payment? What is the value of this free $ Cost Options hedge Forward hedge $3,453.75$3,150 0 0.579 0.64(strikeprice)$/SF $253.75option for the Swiss client?(c) What is the best way for Baltimore Machinery to deal with the exchange exposure? Solution: (a) The implied exercise (price) rate is: 10,000/15,000 = $0.6667/SF.(b) If the Swiss client chooses to pay $10,000, it will cost SF16,129 (=10,000/.62). Since the Swiss client has an option to pay SF15,000, it will choose to do so. The value of this option is obviously SF1,129 (=SF16,129-SF15,000).(c) Baltimore Machinery faces a contingent exposure in the sense that it may or may not receive SF15,000 in the future. The firm thus can hedge this exposure by buying a put option on SF15,000.6. Princess Cruise Company (PCC) purchased a ship from Mitsubishi Heavy Industry. PCC owes Mitsubishi Heavy Industry 500 million yen in one year. The current spot rate is 124 yen per dollar and the one-year forward rate is 110 yen per dollar. The annual interest rate is 5% in Japan and 8% in the U.S. PCC can also buy a one-year call option on yen at the strike price of $.0081 per yen for a premium of .014 cents per yen.(a) Compute the future dollar costs of meeting this obligation using the money market hedge and the forward hedges.(b) Assuming that the forward exchange rate is the best predictor of the future spot rate, compute the expected future dollar cost of meeting this obligation when the option hedge is used.(c) At what future spot rate do you think PCC may be indifferent between the option and forward hedge?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the dollar cost will be 500,000,000/110 = $4,545,455. In the case of money market hedge, the future dollar cost will be: 500,000,000(1.08)/(1.05)(124)= $4,147,465.(b) The option premium is: (.014/100)(500,000,000) = $70,000. Its future value will be $70,000(1.08) = $75,600.At the expected future spot rate of $.0091(=1/110), which is higher than the exercise of $.0081, PCC will exercise its call option and buy ￥500,000,000 for $4,050,000 (=500,000,000x.0081).The total expected cost will thus be $4,125,600, which is the sum of $75,600 and $4,050,000.(c) When the option hedge is used, PCC will spend “at most” $4,125,000. On the other hand, when the forward hedging is used, PCC will have to spend $4,545,455 regardless of the future spot rate. This means that the options hedge dominates the forward hedge. At no future spot rate, PCC will be indifferent between forward and options hedges.7. Airbus sold an aircraft, A400, to Delta Airlines, a U.S. company, and billed $30 million payable in six months. Airbus is concerned with the euro proceeds from international sales and would like to control exchange risk. The current spot exchange rate is $1.05/€ and six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€ at the moment. Airbus can buy a six-month put option on U.S. dollars with a strike price of €0.95/$ for a premium of €0.02 per U.S. dollar. Currently, six-month interest rate is 2.5% in the euro zone and 3.0% in the U.S.pute the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale if Airbus decides tohedge using a forward contract.b.If Airbus decides to hedge using money market instruments, what action doesAirbus need to take? What would be the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale in this case?c.If Airbus decides to hedge using put options on U.S. dollars, what would be the‘expected’ euro proceeds from the American sale? Assume that Airbus regards the current forward exchange rate as an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate.d.At what future spot exchange rate do you think Airbus will be indifferent betweenthe option and money market hedge?Solution:a. Airbus will sell $30 million forward for €27,272,727 = ($30,000,000) / ($1.10/€).b. Airbus will borrow the present value of the dollar receivable, i.e., $29,126,214 = $30,000,000/1.03, and then sell the dollar proceeds spot for euros: €27,739,251. This is the euro amount that Airbus is going to keep.c. Since the expected future spot rate is less than the strike price of the put option, i.e., €0.9091< €0.95, Airbus expects to exercise the option and receive €28,500,000 = ($30,000,000)(€0.95/$). This is gross proceeds. Airbus spent €600,000 (=0.02x30,000,000) upfront for the option and its future cost is equal to €615,000 = €600,000 x 1.025. Thus the net euro proceeds from the American sale is €27,885,000, which is the difference between the gross proceeds and the option costs.d. At the indifferent future spot rate, the following will hold:€28,432,732 = S T (30,000,000) - €615,000.Solving for S T, we obtain the “indifference” future spot exchange rate, i.e., €0.9683/$, or $1.0327/€. Note that €28,432,732 is the future value of the proceeds under money market hedging: €28,432,732 = (€27,739,251) (1.025).Suggested solution for Mini Case: Chase Options, Inc.[See Chapter 13 for the case text]Chase Options, Inc.Hedging Foreign Currency Exposure Through Currency OptionsHarvey A. PoniachekI. Case SummaryThis case reviews the foreign exchange options market and hedging. It presents various international transactions that require currency options hedging strategies by the corporations involved. Seven transactions under a variety of circumstances are introduced that require hedging by currency options. The transactions involve hedging of dividend remittances, portfolio investment exposure, and strategic economic competitiveness. Market quotations are provided for options (and options hedging ratios), forwards, and interest rates for various maturities.II. Case Objective.The case introduces the student to the principles of currency options market and hedging strategies. The transactions are of various types that often confront companies that are involved in extensive international business or multinational corporations. The case induces students to acquire hands-on experience in addressing specific exposure and hedging concerns, including how to apply various market quotations, which hedging strategy is most suitable, and how to address exposure in foreign currency through cross hedging policies.III. Proposed Assignment Solution1. The company expects DM100 million in repatriated profits, and does not want the DM/$ exchange rate at which they convert those profits to rise above 1.70. They can hedge this exposure using DM put options with a strike price of 1.70. If the spot rate rises above 1.70, they can exercise the option, while if that rate falls they can enjoy additional profits from favorable exchange rate movements.To purchase the options would require an up-front premium of:DM 100,000,000 x 0.0164 = DM 1,640,000.With a strike price of 1.70 DM/$, this would assure the U.S. company of receiving at least:DM 100,000,000 – DM 1,640,000 x (1 + 0.085106 x 272/360)= DM 98,254,544/1.70 DM/$ = $57,796,791by exercising the option if the DM depreciated. Note that the proceeds from the repatriated profits are reduced by the premium paid, which is further adjusted by the interest foregone on this amount.However, if the DM were to appreciate relative to the dollar, the company would allow the option to expire, and enjoy greater dollar proceeds from this increase.Should forward contracts be used to hedge this exposure, the proceeds received would be:DM100,000,000/1.6725 DM/$ = $59,790,732,regardless of the movement of the DM/$ exchange rate. While this amount is almost $2 million more than that realized using option hedges above, there is no flexibility regarding the exercise date; if this date differs from that at which the repatriate profits are available, the company may be exposed to additional further current exposure. Further, there is no opportunity to enjoy any appreciation in the DM.If the company were to buy DM puts as above, and sell an equivalent amount in calls with strike price 1.647, the premium paid would be exactly offset by the premium received. This would assure that the exchange rate realized would fall between 1.647 and 1.700. If the rate rises above 1.700, the company will exercise its put option, and if it fell below 1.647, the other party would use its call; for any rate in between, both options would expire worthless. The proceeds realized would then fall between:DM 100,00,000/1.647 DM/$ = $60,716,454andDM 100,000,000/1.700 DM/$ = $58,823,529.This would allow the company some upside potential, while guaranteeing proceeds at least $1 million greater than the minimum for simply buying a put as above.Buy/Sell OptionsDM/$Spot Put Payoff “Put”ProfitsCallPayoff“Call”Profits Net Profit1.60 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,45460,716,4541.61 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,45460,716,454 1.62 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,45460,716,454 1.63 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,45460,716,4541.64 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,45460,716,454 1.65 (1,742,846) 60,606,0611,742,846 0 60,606,0611.66 (1,742,846) 60,240,9641,742,846 0 60,240,964 1.67 (1,742,846) 59,880,241,742,846 0 59,880,2401.68 (1,742,846) 59,523,811,742,846 0 59,523,810 1.69 (1,742,846) 59,171,5981,742,846 0 59,171,598 1.70 (1,742,846) 58,823,5291,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.71 (1,742,846) 58,823,5291,742,846 0 58,823,5291.72 (1,742,846) 58,823,5291,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.73 (1,742,846) 58,823,5291,742,846 0 58,823,5291.74 (1,742,846) 58,823,5291,742,846 0 58,823,5291.75 (1,742,846) 58,823,521,742,846 0 58,823,52991,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.76 (1,742,846) 58,823,5291,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.77 (1,742,846) 58,823,5291,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.78 (1,742,846) 58,823,5291.79 (1,742,846) 58,823,521,742,846 0 58,823,52991,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.80 (1,742,846) 58,823,5291.81 (1,742,846) 58,823,521,742,846 0 58,823,52991,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.82 (1,742,846) 58,823,5291,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.83 (1,742,846) 58,823,5291.84 (1,742,846) 58,823,521,742,846 0 58,823,52991,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.85 (1,742,846) 58,823,529Since the firm believes that there is a good chance that the pound sterling will weaken, locking them into a forward contract would not be appropriate, because they would lose the opportunity to profit from this weakening. Their hedge strategy should follow for an upside potential to match their viewpoint. Therefore, they should purchase sterling call options, paying a premium of:5,000,000 STG x 0.0176 = 88,000 STG.If the dollar strengthens against the pound, the firm allows the option to expire, and buys sterling in the spot market at a cheaper price than they would have paid for a forward contract; otherwise, the sterling calls protect against unfavorable depreciation of the dollar.Because the fund manager is uncertain when he will sell the bonds, he requires a hedge which will allow flexibility as to the exercise date. Thus, options are the best instrument for him to use. He can buy A$ puts to lock in a floor of 0.72 A$/$. Since he is willing to forego any further currency appreciation, he can sell A$ calls with a strike price of 0.8025 A$/$ to defray the cost of his hedge (in fact he earns a net premium of A$ 100,000,000 x (0.007234 – 0.007211) = A$ 2,300), while knowing that he can’t receive less than 0.72 A$/$ when redeeming his investment, and can benefit from a small appreciation of the A$.Example #3:Problem: Hedge principal denominated in A$ into US$. Forgo upside potential to buy floor protection.I. Hedge by writing calls and buying puts1) Write calls for $/A$ @ 0.8025Buy puts for $/A$ @ 0.72# contracts needed = Principal in A$/Contract size100,000,000A$/100,000 A$ = 1002) Revenue from sale of calls = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,573 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007234 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)3) Total cost of puts = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,332 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007211 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)4) Put payoffIf spot falls below 0.72, fund manager will exercise putIf spot rises above 0.72, fund manager will let put expire5) Call payoffIf spot rises above .8025, call will be exercised If spot falls below .8025, call will expire6) Net payoffSee following Table for net payoffAustralian Dollar Bond HedgeStrikePrice Put Payoff “Put”PrincipalCallPayoff“Call”Principal Net Profit0.60 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.61 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.62 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.63 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.64 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.65 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.66 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.67 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.68 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.69 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.70 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.71 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.72 (75,332) 72,000,0075,573 0 72,000,2410.73 (75,332) 73,000,0075,573 0 73,000,2410.74 (75,332) 74,000,0075,573 0 74,000,241 0.75 (75,332) 75,000,0075,573 0 75,000,2410.76 (75,332) 76,000,0075,573 0 76,000,24175,573 0 77,000,241 0.77 (75,332) 77,000,000.78 (75,332) 78,000,0075,573 0 78,000,24175,573 0 79,000,241 0.79 (75,332) 79,000,000.80 (75,332) 80,000,0075,573 0 80,000,24180,250,241 0.81 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000.82 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,0080,250,24180,250,241 0.83 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000.84 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,0080,250,24180,250,241 0.85 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,004. The German company is bidding on a contract which they cannot be certain of winning. Thus, the need to execute a currency transaction is similarly uncertain, and using a forward or futures as a hedge is inappropriate, because it would force them to perform even if they do not win the contract.Using a sterling put option as a hedge for this transaction makes the most sense. Fora premium of:12 million STG x 0.0161 = 193,200 STG,they can assure themselves that adverse movements in the pound sterling exchange rate will not diminish the profitability of the project (and hence the feasibility of their bid), while at the same time allowing the potential for gains from sterling appreciation.5. Since AMC in concerned about the adverse effects that a strengthening of the dollar would have on its business, we need to create a situation in which it will profit from such an appreciation. Purchasing a yen put or a dollar call will achieve this objective. The data in Exhibit 1, row 7 represent a 10 percent appreciation of the dollar (128.15 strike vs. 116.5 forward rate) and can be used to hedge against a similar appreciation of the dollar.For every million yen of hedging, the cost would be:Yen 100,000,000 x 0.000127 = 127 Yen.To determine the breakeven point, we need to compute the value of this option if the dollar appreciated 10 percent (spot rose to 128.15), and subtract from it the premium we paid. This profit would be compared with the profit earned on five to 10 percent of AMC’s sales (wh ich would be lost as a result of the dollar appreciation). The number of options to be purchased which would equalize these two quantities would represent the breakeven point.Example #5:Hedge the economic cost of the depreciating Yen to AMC.If we assume that AMC sales fall in direct proportion to depreciation in the yen (i.e., a 10 percent decline in yen and 10 percent decline in sales), then we can hedge the full value of AMC’s sales. I have assumed $100 million in sales.1) Buy yen puts# contracts needed = Expected Sales *Current ￥/$ Rate / Contract size9600 = ($100,000,000)(120￥/$) / ￥1,250,0002) Total Cost = (# contracts)(contract size)(premium)$1,524,000 = (9600)( ￥1,250,000)($0.0001275/￥)3) Floor rate = Exercise – Premium128.1499￥/$ = 128.15￥/$ - $1,524,000/12,000,000,000￥4) The payoff changes depending on the level of the ￥/$ rate. The following tablesummarizes the payoffs. An equilibrium is reached when the spot rate equals the floor rate.AMC ProfitabilityYen/$ Spot Put Payoff Sales Net Profit 120 (1,524,990) 100,000,000 98,475,010 121 (1,524,990) 99,173,664 97,648,564 122 (1,524,990) 98,360,656 96,835,666 123 (1,524,990) 97,560,976 86,035,986 124 (1,524,990) 96,774,194 95,249,204 125 (1,524,990) 96,000,000 94,475,010 126 (1,524,990) 95,238,095 93,713,105 127 (847,829) 94,488,189 93,640,360 128 (109,640) 93,750,000 93,640,360 129 617,104 93,023,256 93,640,360 130 1,332,668 92,307,692 93,640,360 131 2,037,307 91,603,053 93,640,360 132 2,731,269 90,909,091 93,640,360 133 3,414,796 90,225,664 93,640,360 134 4,088,122 89,552,239 93,640,360 135 4,751,431 88,888,889 93,640,360 136 5,405,066 88,235,294 93,640,360 137 6,049,118 87,591,241 93,640,360 138 6,683,839 86,966,522 93,640,360 139 7,308,425 86,330,936 93,640,360 140 7,926,075 85,714,286 93,640,360 141 8,533,977 85,106,383 93,640,360 142 9,133,318 84,507,042 93,640,360 143 9,724,276 83,916,084 93,640,360 144 10,307,027 83,333,333 93,640,360 145 10,881,740 82,758,621 93,640,360 146 11,448,579 82,191,781 93,640,360 147 12,007,707 81,632,653 93,640,360 148 12,569,279 81,081,081 93,640,360 149 13,103,448 80,536,913 93,640,360。