安徽省合肥九中2020_2021学年高二英语上学期第一次月考试题25

安徽省合肥九中2020-2021学年高二英语上学期第一次月考试题(考试时间:120分钟满分:150分)第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)第一节(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。

每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。

听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

1. When does the concert start?A. At 8:45.B. At 9:15.C. At 9:30.2. What does the man usually do at 6:30 in the morning?A. Get up.B. Do exercise.C. Eat breakfast.3. How’s the weather tomorrow?A. Snowy.B. Sunny.C. Windy.4. What is the man gong to do?A. Go to the air port.B. Attend a meeting.C. Visit his friend.5. How does the woman feel now?A. Weak.B. Patient.C. Good.第二节(共15小题,每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白。

每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。

听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。

6. Why does the man want to learn Spanish?A. To learn about Spanish culture.B. To travel in Latin America.C. To find a job in Spain.7. How long has the woman been learning Chinese?A. One year.B. Two years.C. Three years.听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。

8. Why is the woman worried?A. She lost a job.B. She will have an interview.C. She made a mistake.9. What does the man think is important in an interview? 5秒钟的作答时间。

每段对话或独白读两遍。

A. Appearance.B. Academic performance.C. Working experience.10. What’s the man’s advice on answering questions in a job interview?A. Being confident.B. Being honest.C. Being careful.听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。

11. Which of the following is the man complaining about?A. The hunters.B. The environment.C. The owners of the dogs.12. Who was once attacked by a dog?A. The man.B. The man’s friend.C. The woman’s husband.13. How do the dog owners behave towards passers-by?A. Politely.B. Irresponsibly.C. Considerately. 听第9段材料,回答第14至16题。

14. From whom did the man learn cooking?A. His grandmother.B. His grandfather.C. His mother.15.What does the woman want to be?A. A doctor.B. A cook.C. A reporter.16.What does the woman think of the job as a reporter?A. Dangerous.B. Challenging.C. Interesting.听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。

17. How often do the students have an art class?A. Once a week.B. Twice a week.C. Every two weeks.18. What should the students avoid doing in the art classroom?A. Talking with each other.B. Laughing at other s’ ideas.C. Using others’ art materials.19. What can we say about Sophia’s art teaching method?A. Encouraging.B. Impractical.C. Simple.20. What is the text mainly about?A. A coming art lesson.B. Rules to be followed in the art class.C. Methods of making pencil drawings.第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)第一节 (共15小题; 每小题2分, 满分30分)阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中, 选出最佳选项。

AA way to Turn Plastic Waste into $78 Million of Biofuel16-year-old Egyptian student Azza Abdel Hamid Faiad, meanwhile, was at work finding a way to make use of waste plastic. The young scientist discovered a catalyst(催化剂) that could turn Egypt’s one million tons of annually waste plastic into a $78 million worth of biofuel each year. She hopes that the development could “provide an economically efficient method for pro duction of hydrocarbon(碳氢化合物) fuel,” and many appear to agree; Faiad has been awarded the European Fusion Development Agreement Award at the 23rd European Union Contest for Young Scientists, and is seeking patents for her discovery.A Pee(尿)-Powered Energy Generator(发电机) Created by Four Nigerian TeenagersFour Nigerian teenage girls amazed visitors to the Maker Faire Africa with their pee-powered energy generator. Able to source an impressive six hours of power fromjust one liter of urine(尿), the 14-and15-year-olds’ renewable energy generator holds interesting possibilities for providing electricity in remote areas or in disaster zones.Turning Banana Peels(皮) into Bioplastics16-year-old Turkish student Elif Bilgin developed her very own technique for turning the ordinary banana peel into bioplastics, a discovery which she hopes could reduce dependence on petrol chemicals and make use of some of the 200 tons of banana peel thrown away daily in Thailand alone. Her development relies on the properties of the starches(淀粉) and cellulose(纤维) found in the outer layer of banana peels, which through a chemical process developed by Bilgin herself, can be transformed into a non-decaying(不腐烂的) bioplastics.21.What do we know from the first invention?A.The young student was working in a factory though she is young.B.The young student’s invention will surely solve the energy problem.C.The young Egyptian student’s invention is very environmentally friendly. D.People seemed to have different opinions on the young student’s invent ion. 22.What is the purpose of Elif Bilgin’s invention?A.To increase the dependence on nature.B.To make use of petro chemicals resources.C.To throw away unnecessary banana peels.D.To be less dependent on petrol chemicals.23.What do the three inventions have in common?A.They all make full use of nature resources.B.They all try to save a lot of energy.C.They are unique inventions by the young.D.They all can be put into use easily.BChina will have the most 5G connections of any nation by 2025, according to a new study, while Europe will fall behind Korea, the United States and Japan in terms of 5G penetration (渗透) by that year.5G is the fifth generation of network technology. It is expected to bring unbelievable speeds to Internet users, with some operations running 10 times faster than on 4G networks. 5G is also expected to unlock the potential in a lot of new services, including artificial intelligence, science of robots, self-driving cars, and the Internet of things.The GSMA said that China’s three major mobile operators — China Unicom, China Mobile, and China Telecom—are already moving ahead with 5G networks. While most nations will have 5G by updating existing foundations, the study noted that China plans to build part of its 5G networks.One of the major distinguishing factors between Chinese mobile operators and those in the rest of the world is the intention to erect the new and independent 5G networks. That is, China is determined to build a completely advanced 5G. The high cost underlines China’s seriousness about paying whatever it takes.Korea will lead the world in terms of 5G penetration in 2025, when 66 percentof the nation’s total connections will be 5G, according to GSMA.This compares to 50 percent in the US,49 percent in Japan, 36 percent in China, 30 percent in Europe, and a global average of 18 percent. Out of the five economies leading on 5G, Europe will have the lowest participation in 2025, as the area is moving more slowly in having its 5G networks.24.What will 5G bring?A.A completely new pattern for daily life.B.Excellent networks and national safety.C.Amazing speeds for public transportation.D.Realizing the potential in many new services.25.What is the future of 5G in China?A.It will develop rapidly.B.It may be lack of government support.C.It will move forward slowly.D.It may fall behind Europe.26.Which of the following best explains “erect” underlined in paragraph 4? A.bring up. B.set up.C.turn up. D.pick up.27.What can we infer from the last paragraph?A.Some Chinese will use 5G in 2025.B.Koreans cannot own 5G in 2025.C.Only five countries will have 5G in 2025.D.Europe will pay little attention to 5G in 2025.CTwenty minutes of exercise may help kids with ADHD(小儿多动症) settle in to read or solve a math problem, a new research suggests.The small study, of 40 8~10 year-olds, looked only at the short-term effects of a single period time of exercise. But researchers warn that they are not saying exercise is the answer to ADHD.But it seems that exercise may at least do no harm to kids' ability to focus, they say. And further studies should look into whether it's a good choice for managing some children's ADHD.“This is only a first study,” said lead researcher Matthew B.Pontifex, of Michigan State University in East Lansing.“We need to learn how long the effects last, and how exercise might combine with or compare to traditional ADHD treatments” like stimul ant medications(刺激性药物), Pontifex explained.He noted that there's been a lot of research into older adults. But little is known about kids, even though some parents, teachers and doctors have advocated exercise for helping children with ADHD.So for their study, Pontifex and his colleagues found 20 children with diagnosed(诊断) or suspected ADHD, and 20 ADHD-free kids of the same age and family-income level.All of the children took a standard test of their ability to ignore distractions(注意力分散) and stay focused on a simple task at hand - the main ability that troubles kids with ADHD, Pontifex noted. The kids also took standard tests of reading, spelling and math skills.Each child took the tests after either 20 minutes of treadmill(跑步机) exercise or 20 minutes of quiet reading (on separate days). Overall, the study found, both groups of children performed better after exercise than after reading.On the test of focusing ability, the ADHD group was correct on about 80 percent of responses after reading, versus(相对于) about 84 percent after exercise. Kids without ADHD performed better -reaching about a 90 percent correct rate after exercise.Similarly, both groups of kids scored higher on their reading and math tests after exercise, versus post-reading.28.What does the new research suggest?A.Exercising will make kids with ADHD stronger.B.Exercising will help kids with ADHD focus better.C.Exercising will help make math problems easier.D.Exercising will help kids read more quickly.29.What is the problem about the research into kids?A.There is too much research into the older adults.B.The research about the ADHD is enough.C.The research about kids with ADHD is limited.D.Exercise is not combined with traditional treatment.30.Why did Pontifex’s team nee d 20 ADHD –free kids during the research? A.They need to compare their performance with that of kids with ADHD.B.They need them to do some reading and math problems after school.C.They need them to take a standard test of their ability to ignore distractions. D.They need them to take standard tests of reading, spelling and math skills. 31.What happened to the kids after exercising?A.Kids with ADHD performed better than kids without ADHD in reading.B.Kids without ADHD performed the same before and after exercising.C.Both groups scored higher on their reading and math tests after reading. D.Both kids with ADHD and without ADHD performed better after exercise.D“A lie can travel half way around the world before the truth can put its boo ts on.” That quote is attributed to Mark Twain. In today’s Internet world of “fake(假的)news”, lies spread even faster than the truth is having trouble finding its boots.To make matters worse, most young people get news from social media sites where facts are mixed with rumors(谣言), half-truths and complete lies. This has led to young people becoming confused. In the latest PISA, which tested 15-year-old worldwide on academic subjects, fewer than one in ten of the examinees were reported to be able to distinguish fact from opinion. A Stanford University study showed that studentsat all levels of education could not tell real news from fake news. In one instance, 80 percent thought that a paid advertisement was a real news story.Fake news is spread by people who have a prejudice. They want to influence public opinion either for or against something or someone. It is important, then, for young people to recognize when they are being used and to be skeptical of online information.Traditional media, such as newspapers and television, are still the more credible sources of information. Reporters are professionally trained to look for facts, and editors have the job of making sure those facts are correct. However, if you get most of your information online, you have to be your own editor. In that case, the first thing to do is to look at the writer of a post. Is this person known to be credible? Does the site where you read the post have a prejudice? Next, look for other sources from mainstream media to confirm the information. In other words, by putting on your truth boots you won’t be fooled into chasing lies.32.Why is the quote mentioned in paragraph 1?A.To give a definition.B.To introduce the topic.C.To offer background information.D.To highlight the wisdom of Mark Twain.33.What will always happen to young people with news around?A.They prefer to real news story.B.They are easily taken in by fake news.C.They can distinguish fact from opinion.D.They get worried about their education.34.What is the author’s suggestion from the text?A.Fight against prejudices.B.Avoid traditional media.C.Be an editor of your own.D.Believe in trained reporters.35.What is the text mainly about?A.The truth about fake news.B.The influence of fake news.C.Problems with online information.D.Sources of online information.第二节 (共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,选项中有两项为多余选项。

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2021学年-有答案-安徽省合肥市某校高二上学期第一次月考英语试题

2021学年-有答案-安徽省合肥市某校高二上学期第一次月考英语试题

安徽省合肥市某校2020-2021学年高二上学期第一次月考英语试题一、阅读选择1.The National Gallery Description:The National Gallery is the British national art museum built on the north side of Trafalgar Square in London.It houses a diverse collection of more than 2,300 examples of European art ranging from 13th-century religious paintings to more modern ones by Renoir and Van Gogh.The older collections of the gallery are reached through the main entrance while the more modern works in the East Wing are most easily reached from Trafalgar Square by a ground floor entrance.Lay out:The modern Sainsbury Wing on the western side of the building houses 13th-to 15th-century paintings, and artists include Duccio, Uccello, Van Eyck, Lippi, Mantegna, Botticelli and Memling.The main West Wing houses 16th-century paintings, and artists include Leonardo da Vinci, Cranach, Michelangelo, Raphael, Bruegel, Bronzino, Titan an d Veronest.The North Wing houses 17th-century paintings, and artists include Caravaggio, Rubens, Poussin, Van Dyck, Velazquez, Claude and Vermeer.The East Wing houses 18th-to early 20th-century paintings, and artists include Canaletto, Goya, Turner, Constable, Renoir and Van Gogh.Opening Hours:The Gallery is open every day from 10 a.m. to 6 p.m.(Fridays 10 a.m. to 9 p.m.)and is free, but charges apply to some special exhibitions.Getting There:Nearest underground stations: Charing Cross(2-minute walk). Leicester Square(3-minute walk), Embankment(7-minute walk), and Piccadilly Circus(8-minute walk).(1)In which century's collection can you see religious paintings?A.The 17th.B.The 13th.C.The 18th.D.The 20th.(2)Where are Leonardo da Vinci's works shown?A.In the main West Wing.B.In the East Wing.C.In the Sainsbury Wing.D.In the North Wing.(3)Which underground station is closest to the National Gallery?A.Leicester Square.B.Piccadilly Circus.C.Embankment.D.Charing Cross.2. At 12 years old, Braeden Mannering is already well on his way to running an empire! A 2016 win of Delaware's Healthy Lunchtime Challenge brought Braeden to the White House, where the president asked the children at the event to think about how they could pay the experience forward.A few days later, on the drive back home, Braeden saw a homeless man in the rain. He had his parents stop so that he cold give the man a bag of snacks. Braeden knew at that moment that this was how he wanted to pay it forward. He knew what he wanted to do in the future. He felt that it was his duty to help people in trouble.Since that day in July,2016,Braeden has handed out over 8,000 bags to the homeless through his organization Brae's Brown Bags, also known as 3B.These bags vary in contents, and include food, toiletries (化妆品) and even books for the kids 'bags.In addition to packing and distributing (分发) bags, Braeden travels the country, giving talks in schools to inspire other young people to help their communities. On his travel, he's raised$60,000 to expand his program. He also is a leader at the annual Delaware Hunger Conference, where he encourages kids to write to lawmakers and help pack bags, showing them how to make a difference.This is a huge accomplishment, especially for someone of his age. But, as he says, “Anyone can change the world, as long as you dream big."(1)What does the underlined word "it" in Para.2 refer to?A.The experience.B.The bag.C.The moment.D.The event.(2)What does the boy's organization try to do?A.Help homeless women with make-up.B.Provide children with clothes.C.Donate things in bags to people losing their homes.D.Hand out bags for people to do shopping.(3)Which of the following is NOT the reason why Braeden travels the country?A.To give talks in schools.B.To raise some money.C.To inspire young people to help their communities.D.To pay a visit to some lawmakers.(4)How does the author like the boy's career?A.It is not a little boy's task to do so.B.It is great considering his young age.C.He sets a good example for other children.D.The government should give him more help.3. FootballAncient Chinese, Roman and Egyptian writings help you know about games played by kicking a ball. We also know that in the twelfth century, in some English towns, on certain days of the year, hundreds of young men would kick a ball around the streets. Unluckily, fight often resulted. People were hurt and even killed. In 1314,such games were not allowed because they were too dangerous.The game we now know as football developed in England in the early nineteenth century. Football was played in many schools and clubs as early as 1823. These schools and clubs often had different rules, but in 1863, the Football Association or FA was created, and standard rules were agreed for everyone to follow. These are the rules that many parts of the world use for football today. In 1871, a cup was given for the best English club,called the FA Cup. Football soon spread across the world.In the United States and Canada, however, a different type of football game developed, where the football players could pick the ball up and carry it. The ball is also in a different shape. In American football there is also more violent contact (激烈交锋) between players, who have to wear special clothing to protect themselves.Football is now certainly the most popular game on earth. Why is that? One reason may be that it's a simple game. All we need is a ball, and a few things to mark the goals. It's a more relaxed game which can be enjoyed by just a few people of any age, on any piece of ground or even in the street. Another reason may be that it allows people to show their special skills. Some footballers become very rich and famous, like David Beckham. For this reason, many young people dream of becoming football stars and getting veryrich. Television too has made football more popular. Millions of people can watch international matches such as the World Cup, which is held every four years.(1)What helps you know about games played by kicking a ball?________(2)Where did the football game develop in the early 19th century?________(3)When were the football standard rules made for everyone to follow?________(4)Why do American football players have to wear special clothing?________(5)Why is football now the most popular game on earth?________4.Technology offers conveniences such as opening the garage door from your car or changing the television station without touching the TV.Now one American company is offering its employees a new convenience: a microchip implanted in their hands. Employees who have these chips can do all kinds of things just by waving their hands. Three Square Market is offering to implant microchips in all of their employees for free. Each chip costs $300 and Three Square Market will pay for the chip. Employees can volunteer to have the chips implanted in their hands. About 50 out of 80 employees have chosen to do so. The president of the company, his wife and their children are also getting chips implanted in their hands.The chip is about the size of a grain of rice. Implanting the chip only takes about a second and is said to hurt onlyvery briefly. The chips go under the skin between the thumb and forefinger. With a chip in the hand, a person can enter the office building, buy food, sign into computers and more simply by waving that hand near a scanner. The chips will be also used to identify employees. Employees who want convenience, but do not want to have a microchip implanted under their skin can wear a wristband(腕带)or a ring with a chip instead. They can perform the same tasks with a wave of their hands as if they had an implanted chip.Three Square Market is the first company in the United States to offer to implant chips in its employees. Epicenter, a company in Sweden, has been implanting chips in its employees for a while.Three Square Market says the chip cannot track the employees. The company says scanners can read the chips only when they are within a few inches of them. "The chips protect against identity theft, similar to credit cards." The U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved the chips back in 2004, so they should be safe for humans, according to the company.In the future, people with the chips may be able to do more with them, even outside the office. Todd Westby is Chief Executive Officer of Three Square Market. He says, "Eventually, this technology will become standardized allowing you to use this as your passport, public transit, all purchasing opportunities, etc."(1)Which of the following best describes Todd Westby's attitude towards the chips?A.Optimistic.B.Casual.C.Defensive.D.Disappointing.(2)What is the third paragraph mainly about?A.The advantages of the chips.B.The places to implant the chips.C.The substitutes of the chips.D.The potential risks of implanting the chips.(3)What does the underlined word "them" in Paragraph 5 refer to?A.the credit cardsB.the employeesC.the handsD.the scanners(4)We can infer that _____.A.most people suspect the application of the chipsB.the chips are very popular among the employeesC.the chips have magic powersD.the price of the chips is reasonable二、七选五根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。

安徽省合肥市某中学2019-2020学年高二第一次月考英语试卷 Word版含答案

安徽省合肥市某中学2019-2020学年高二第一次月考英语试卷 Word版含答案

姓名,年级:时间:英语试卷(试卷满分 150 分,考试时间 120 分钟)第Ⅰ卷第一部分:听力(共两节,满分 30 分)第一节(共 5 小题;每小题 1。

5 分,满分 7.5 分)听下面 5 段对话.每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置.听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题.每段对话仅读一遍。

1.What is the woman eating?A.Some fruit。

B.Some chocolate。

C.Some cookies。

2.Whatis the man probably?A.A guide. B.A visitor。

C.A passer­by。

3.Wheredoes the conversation probably takeplace?A.At a clinic。

B.In a gym.C.In a hotel。

4.Whydoes the woman ask for anotherbeefsteak?A.She is too hungry. B.Her firstbeefsteak is on the ground。

C.Her husbandlikes it。

5.Why did the woman get the book so late?A.The man forgot it。

B.The man’s boss forgot it。

C.The woman wasn't at home.第二节(共 15 小题;每小题 1。

5 分,满分 22。

5 分)听下面 5 段对话或独白.每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。

听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5 秒钟的作答时间.每段对话或独白读两遍。

安徽省合肥市九中20212021学年高一英语上学期第一次月考试题

安徽省合肥市九中20212021学年高一英语上学期第一次月考试题

安徽省合肥市九中2021-2021学年高一英语上学期第一次月考试题第一局部听力〔共两节,总分值20分〕第一节〔共5小题;每题1分,总分值5分〕听下面5段对话。

每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项当选出最正确选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。

听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

例:How much is the shirt?A. £ 19. 15.B. £ 9. 18.C. £ 9. 15.答案是C。

1. What is the man looking for?A. His phone.B. His book.C. His pen.2. What does Carol’s father ask her to do?A. Put on warm clothes.B. Go out with him.C. T alk with her friends.3. How many members are there in Alice’s group now?A. Two.B. Four.C. Six.4. What are the speakers talking about?A. Ways of cooking.B. Healthy food for kids.C. Kids helping in the kitchen.5. What is the woman?A. She’s a receptionist.B. She’s a shop assistant.C. She’s a secretary.第二节〔共15小题;每题1分,总分值15分〕听下面5段对话或独白。

每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项当选出最正确选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。

听毎段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每题5 秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。

2020-2021学年上学期高二1月考英语试卷含答案

2020-2021学年上学期高二1月考英语试卷含答案

高二月考英语试卷含答案一、单选题(共20题;共40分)1.The ________ on her face suggested that she was not satisfied with our work.A. impressionB. sightC. appearanceD. expre ssion2.A program launched by the bike-sharing company Mobike appeals to local residents _______ riders can use a mobile app to locate and unlock bikes conveniently.A. whichB. whenC. whoseD. w here3.It's on the festival occasions the family get together he misses his late father.A. where, thatB. which, whenC. when, thatD. that, when4.Emphasis is laid on the necessity that all the objectives to be attained ________ into account before staring a new project.A. be takenB. should takeC. would be takenD. have to be takenrge quantities of meat _______ sold in that store at the present time.A. are beingB. is beingC. will beD. is6.—Could you do me a ________ and take the box up to the sixth floor?—With pleasure.No problem at all.A. favourB. goodC. pleasureD. kind ness7.The world seven continents and four oceans.A. makes up ofB. makes out ofC. is consistedof D. consists of8.Just be a little patient,madam. Doctor Watt is seeing you________.A. in timeB. on timeC. at a timeD. in no time9.A great variety of guidance for _____ visitors — ideas for what to do in off-peak season, for example, or outside of the city center — can have the effect of diverting them from already saturated landmarks, or discouraging short break away in the first place.A. positiveB. influentialC. prospectiveD. vi siting10."We pray for the firefighters who their best to deal with this desperate situation now," the spokesman said immediately he heard about the big fire.A. are tryingB. have triedC. hadtried D. will try11.If the product is significantly different from ________ described in the ad, you have every right to complain to the local authority.A. oneB. onesC. thatD. th ose12.It was the training _____ he had as a young man _____ made him such a good engineer.A. what; thatB. that; whatC. that;which D. which; that13.Can you give me a case ______this phrase can be used?A. whenB. thatC. whereD. w hich14.The explorer could not even strike a match, ________ after the long journey on the freezing day.A. to freezeB. freezingC. frozenD. to be frozen15.The flag, nine red and white stripes, a national flag dating back to the 13th century.A. consisting of; based onB. consisted of; is based onC. consisting of; is based onD. consisted of; based on16.This problem is said _____ three times.A. having discussedB. to have been discussedC. having been discussedD. to have discussed17.________ full preparations, we decided to put off the meeting till next week.A. We did not makeB. Having not madeC. We had not madeD. Not having made18.Suddenly, a tall man driving a golden carriage_______ the girl and took her away,_______ into the woods.A. seizing; disappearedB. seized; disappearedC. seizing; disappearingD. seized; disappearing19.You have to be a fairly good speaker to ______listeners' interest for over an hour.A. holdB. makeC. improveD. rec eive20.The sports meeting we have been looking forward to finally.A. comesB. comeC. comingD. have come二、填空题(共1题;共10分)21.阅读下面的短文,按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求,在空格处填入一个适当的词或使用括号中词语的正确形式填空。

安徽省合肥九中2019-2020学年高二上学期第一次月考英语试卷

安徽省合肥九中2019-2020学年高二上学期第一次月考英语试卷

合肥九中2019-2020学年第一学期高二英语第一次月考英语试卷(时间:120分钟满分:150分命题人:郭惠娟审题人:王敬东)第I卷(选择题100分)第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)听下面五段对话,每段对话仅读一遍。

1. Where does the conversation take place?A. In a planeB. In a hospital.C. In a restaurant.2. Why does the man come here?A. To practice English.B. To buy a new recorder.C. To repair the recorder.3. What's the woman's plan for this evening?A. Watching a film.B. Practicing tennis.C. Seeing a match.4. What's the relationship between the speakers?A. Seller and customer.B. Boss and employee.C. Good friends.5. What kind of biscuits does the woman want?A. The square ones with cream.B. The round ones with cream.C. The square ones with chocolate.第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)听下面一段对话,回答第6和第7两个小题。

6. What do we know about Jim?A. He was kicked by a boy.B. He got hit by a football.C. He fell on the ground.7. When can Jim play sports again?A. In 48 hours.B. In 4 days.C. In a month.听下面一段对话,回答第8至第10三个小题。

安徽省合肥九中2020-2021学年高二英语上学期第一次月考试题【含答案】

安徽省合肥九中2020-2021学年高二英语上学期第一次月考试题【含答案】

安徽省合肥九中2020-2021学年高二英语上学期第一次月考试题(考试时间:120分钟满分:150分)第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)第一节(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。

每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。

听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

1. When does the concert start?A. At 8:45.B. At 9:15.C. At 9:30.2. What does the man usually do at 6:30 in the morning?A. Get up.B. Do exercise.C. Eat breakfast.3. How’s the weather tomorrow?A. Snowy.B. Sunny.C. Windy.4. What is the man gong to do?A. Go to the air port.B. Attend a meeting.C. Visit his friend.5. How does the woman feel now?A. Weak.B. Patient.C. Good.第二节(共15小题,每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白。

每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。

听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。

6. Why does the man want to learn Spanish?A. To learn about Spanish culture.B. To travel in Latin America.C. To find a job in Spain.7. How long has the woman been learning Chinese?A. One year.B. Two years.C. Three years.听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。

安徽省合肥九中2020学年高二英语下学期第一次月考试题

合肥九中2020学年第二学期高二第一次月考英语试卷(考试时间120分钟满分150分)第Ⅰ卷第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。

每段对话有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试题卷的相应位置。

听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

1. What does the man want to do?A. Look for his bag.B. Find a seat.C. Pick up a man.2. How long will the registration last?A. One hour.B. One hour and forty minutes.C. One and a half hours.3. Where could the speakers most probably be?A. In a classroom.B. In a library.C. In an office.4. What is the conversation about?A. Why the tiger shark is scary.B. What the tiger shark looks like.C. How the tiger shark gets its name.5. What does the woman mean?A. Tom makes a mistake.B. Her sister loves villages.C. She likes her sister.第二节(共15小题,每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白。

每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项选出最佳选项,并标在试题卷的相应位置。

听每段对话或独白前,你将时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间,每段对话或独白读两遍。

安徽省合肥市第十一中学2020-2021学年高二上学期第一次月考英语试题(解析版)

2020-2021学年度第一学期高二年级第一次月考英语试卷温馨提示:1.你现在拿到的这份试卷满分为150分,你将有100分钟的答题时间。

2.这份试卷共有试题卷8页,请你用0.5毫米黑色签字笔将答案涂写在答题卡上;答题前填写好自己的姓名、班级、考号等信息。

3.答题前请你认真审题。

考试结束后,请你将答题卡交回,试题卷收好以备老师讲解。

第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。

每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。

听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

1. How does the man feel now?A. Proud.B. Angry.C. Disappointed.2.What time is it now?A.10:45.B.11:15.C.11:45.3.What size does the woman want?A. Size 8.B. Size 10.C. Size 12.4.What might be the relationship between the speakers?A. Mother and son.B. Brother and sister.C. Father and daughter.5.What does the woman like best?A. The apple cake.B. The banana bread.C. The chocolate cookie.第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白。

每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。

听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。

2020-2021学年合肥市第九中学高三英语月考试卷及参考答案

2020-2021学年合肥市第九中学高三英语月考试卷及参考答案第一部分阅读(共两节,满分40分)第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项APeople in the Middle Ages did eat with their hands. Personal utensils (餐具) were mostly unheard of, especially forks. There were spoons to help serve, but only special guests would receive a knife from the host. Everyone else would be expected to bring their own. Of course, eating with one's hands can be quite a sticky situation, so towels were provided to help diners stay at least somewhat clean as they ate.Still, dining was often a messy affair. At special occasions in the wealthiest households, women tended to dine alone, separate from the men. Women were expected to uphold a quality of grace. Eating greasy meat by hand would certainly not help! Once the men and women had finished their meals, they would come together to socialize.Dietary scholars of the Middle Ages believed that the foods in a meal needed to be served and eaten in order of heaviness. The lightest and most easily digested foods, such as fruits and cheeses, were eaten first to help the digestive (消化) system get started. Once digestion was underway, greens and light meats, such as lettuce, cabbage and chicken, could be eaten. Last came the heavier vegetables and meats, such as carrots, beans, beef, pork, and mutton. This method was considered the most healthful way to eat.The main and largest meal of the day was supper, and it was eaten at midday. Dinner was a light meal, and many of those in nobility (贵族) -the highest levels of the Middle Ages society-skipped breakfast altogether. Breakfast was considered unnecessary for those who did not perform physical work. Snacks and any other eating during the day were viewed the same way. Commoners, or the working class, were allowed to eat breakfast and small meals throughout the day.1. What did people in the Middle Ages usually do at the dinner table?A. They cleaned hands before meals.B. They used personal utensils.C. They had to use knives at dinner.D. They ate mostly with hands.2. What is the third paragraph mainly about?A. The order of eating foods.B. The weight of various foods.C. The principles of digesting foods.D. The list of healthy foods.3. Why did the nobility avoid eating breakfast?A. Breakfast was wasted for the nobility.B. Breakfast was viewed as unnecessary.C. Breakfast was considered as a light meal.D. Breakfast was saved for commoners.BWe interviewed two people, one who went from the country to the city and one who did the opposite.Janet Lincoln is a salesgirl who moved to St. Louisfive years ago. Here’s what Janet told us:“Five years ago I used to live in a small town called Lemon Falls. I grew up and went to high school there. After I graduated I worked in a supermarket. Lemon Falls had a population of about 800 people, and I knew every single one of them. They all knew everything about me, too. You couldn’t do anything without everyone in town knowing about it. The first chance I got I moved to St. Louis and I love it. I don’t know as many people now as I used to, but that’s OK. I have a few good friends, and I see them when I want to. I kind of like beinganonymous. I’d never go back to Lemon Falls.”Troy Henson had the opposite experience. He and his wife, Darla, and their two children moved from St. Louis to Bloomfield three years ago. Here’s what Troy told us:“The best thing we ever did was get out of St. Louis. Don’t get me wrong; St. Louis is as good a place as any other city, I suppose — if you like cities, that is. We don’t. Both Darla and I grew up in St. Louis. We met at college and got married. Then the kids came along and life got difficult. We didn’t know any of our neighbors. We both had good jobs, but it always seemed like there was never enough money. That all changed when we moved to Bloomfield. I don’t make as much money as I used to, but then we don’t have as many expenses as we did. We know our neighbors. Life is good. We’d never leave Bloomfield.”4. What troubled Janet when she was in Lemon Falls?A. She had no friends.B. There was no privacy.C. There was a lot of competition.D. She couldn’t find a well-paid job.5. What does the underlined word “anonymous” in Paragraph 3 mean?A. Alone.B. Prepared.C. Sociable.D. Unknown.6. Different from Janet, Troy ________.A. prefers country lifeB. moved to a bigger cityC. grew up in a smaller townD. knows little about his new neighbors7. What is Troy’s opinion on living in Bloomfield?A. It is a little boring.B. It is quite comfortable.C. It costs a lot of money.D. It creates a safe environment.CIt’s become an accepted part of keeping up to date with extended family and friends, but if schoolchildren were in their parents’ shoes, the majority wouldn’t share posts of their sons and daughters online. Over 55% said they would not upload news about, or images of, their children to their social media feeds, according to survey of over 16,000 pupils by Votes for Schools.While some were concerned about being embarrassed or the longevity of content which could remain online indefinitely, others expressed concern about their personal data beingcompromised. One of the pupils surveyed said, “Although our parents mean well, sometimes theconsequenceof a post can be disastrous.”In response to thesurvey, children’s mental health charity Place2Be and law firm Mishcon de Reya have produced three films ahead of the Christmas holidays – the best period for parental oversharing.In one video, about safety online, 10-year-old Adavan said, “If you share anything with your family, you know who’s going to see it. But if you share it publicly, there are millions of people who can see your picture.”Joe Hancock, a security lead at Mishcon de Reya, encouraged parents to share wisely. “Simple steps, such as checking your privacy settings and asking others not to share content of your children on their accounts if they have not updated their privacy settings, are a good start. And, as we found out from the children during filming, having their permission is key,” he said.The study marks a shift away from the usual debate about teaching children to use the Internet safely. Sandra Davis, head of the law firm’s family department, said, “Children are the experts on the real and immediate impact of sharenting(晒娃)– the full extent of which we cannot know yet. We must ensure we listen to children and take their views into consideration now in order to avoid any unintendedconsequences further down the line.”8.What’s most pupils’ attitude towards sharing posts about children?A. Skeptical.B. Unconcerned.C. Tolerant.D. Unwilling.9.What does the author intend to do in Paragraph 2?A. Summarize the previous paragraph.B. Provide some advice for parents.C. Predict the consequence of sharing posts.D. Give reasons for the result of the survey.10.What should parents first pay attention to according to Joe Hancock?A. Safety.B. Consequence.C. Wisdom.D. Health.11.What can we learn from the last paragraph?A. Parents should take children’s opinions into account.B. Parents should teach children to use the Internet safely.C. Children must make sure to listen to their parents.D. Children should avoid unintended consequences of sharenting.DIt’s a little before8 a.m. when Mathias Schergen pushes open the side door at Chicago’s Jenner Elementary Academy for the Arts. He walks down the hall toward the office to sign in. It’s the same routine he’s had as Jenner’s art teacher for nearly a quarter century. “It’s going to be a good day,” a colleague calls out. “It’s a good day.” They hug. It seems like a typical Friday. Except it’s not. After 23 years at Jenner Elementary, Schergen is retiring. Even on his last day, there are still art projects to finish.Schergen leaves behind a richlegacyat this school. He’s won grants (拨款) for art projects. He turned an empty classroom into a museum. He’s pushed his students to make art about their lives. And he was awarded a Golden Apple — the most honorable teaching award in Chicago. But it wasn’t always easy. For years, Schergen taught in one of the city’s toughest neighborhoods. “When I first got my room, I noticed there were bullet holes in the window. That made me nervous,” he says. So he stuffed Beanie Babies in the holes to make it “look kind of funny”. “I didn’t even tell my wife for a whole year,” he says. “I didn’t want her to know.”With one hour to go, Schergen piles the chairs and sweeps the floor. He cleans out the sink for the last time. Fifth-grader Deontae Barnes, one of his best helpers, has watched him say goodbye all day. He wanders in the doorway. “Ah, come here, son,” Schergen says, signaling him over. He bends down for a hug. “Thank you for making these last days special and being a help to me.”When Deontae leaves, a reporter asks Schergen: When your kids ask why you’re retiring, what do you tell them? “I just tell them that grown people have dreams too,” he says. “I have other things in my life I have to do. It’s time. It’s just time.”12. Why is it a special Friday for Schergen?A. He was retiring on that day.B. He won an honor for his school.C. He was interviewed by a reporter.D. He received a Golden Apple award.13. What does the underlined word “legacy” in Paragraph 2 refer to?A. Art projects.B. Great achievements.C. Respect from students.D. Change in teaching.14. What made Schergen nervous when he first got to the school?A. Safety concerns in the school.B. The poorly-equipped classroom.C. Being misunderstood by his family.D. Students’ poor academic performance.15. What is the best title for the text?A.A Typical Day for an Art TeacherB. Time for Art ProjectsC. A Teacher’s Final Day at SchoolD. The Last Art Class第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

2020-2021学年安徽省合肥九中高一上学期第一次月考英语试卷(word版) 听力

英语试题(考试时间120分钟满分100分)第一部分听力(共两节,满分20分)做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。

录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节(共5小题;每题1分,满分5分)听下面5段对话。

每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。

听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

1.What will the man do this weekend?A.Go to Kare n’s home.B.Visit his grandparents.C.Travel with his family.2.How is the weather probably now?A.CloudyB.SunnyC.Rainy3.How will the speakers go to the park?A.By busB.By taxiC.By bike4.What does the woman probably think of the man’s lif estyle?A.BusyfortableC.Unhealthy5.What are the speakers mainly talking about?A.A family meeting.B.An adventure in a mountain.C.Their plans for summer holiday.第二节(共15小题;每题1分,满分15分)听下面5段对话或独白。

每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。

听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题, 每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。

每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料,回答第6,7题。

6.What will be prepared for dinner tonight?A. Steak, fish and bacon.B. Chicken, steak and fish.C. Chicken, steak and bacon.7. Who is most probably Mike?A. Tom’ s cousin.B. Tom’s nephew.C. Tom’s brother.听第7段材料,回答第8,9题。

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