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2022年全国统一高考英语卷(新高考Ⅰ卷)含答案解析

2022年全国统一高考英语卷(新高考Ⅰ卷)含答案解析

绝密★启用前2022年全国统一高考英语试卷(新高考Ⅰ)副标题学校:___________姓名:___________班级:___________考号:___________ 注意事项:1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。

2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑;如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。

回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在试卷上无效。

3.考试结束后,本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第I 卷(选择题)一、阅读理解(本大题共15小题,共37.5分)AGrading Policies for Introduction to Literature Grading Scale 90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E. Essays (60%)Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course: Essay 1 = 10%; Essay 2 = 15%; Essay 3 = 15%; Essay 4 = 20%. Group Assignments (30%)Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework (10%)Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previousclass' lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both of which will be graded.Late WorkAn essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be accepted.1. Where is this text probably taken from?A. A textbook.B. An exam paper.C. A course plan.D. An academic article.2. How many parts is a student's final grade made up of?A. Two.B. Three.C. Four.D. Five.3. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?A. You will receive a zero.B. You will lose a letter grade.C. You will be given a test.D. You will have to rewrite it.BLike most of us,I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste.The arugula(芝麻菜)was to make a nice green salad,rounding out a roast chicken dinner.But I ended up working late.Then friends called with a dinner invitation.I stuck the chicken in the freezer.But as days passed,the arugula went bad.Even worse,I had unthinkingly bought way too much;I could have made six salads with what I threw out.In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry,"food waste goes against the moral grain,"as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month's cover story.It's jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away - from "ugly"(but quite eatable)vegetables rejected by grocers to large amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.Producing food that no one eats wastes the water,fuel,and other resources used to grow it.That makes food waste an environmental problem.In fact,Royte writes,"if food waste were a country,it would be the third largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world."If that's hard to understand,let's keep it as simple as the arugula at the back of my refrigerator.Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time - but for him,it's more like 12 boxesof donated strawberries nearing their last days.Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen inWashington.D.C.,which recovers food and turns it into healthy st year it recovered more than 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished(有瑕疵的)produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields.And the strawberries?Volunteers will wash,cut,and freeze or dry them for use in meals down the road.Such methods seem obvious,yet so often we just don't think. "Everyone can play a part in reducing waste,whether by not purchasing more food than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not include the side dish you won't eat." Curtin says.4. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story?______A. We pay little attention to food waste.B. We waste food unintentionally at times.C. We waste more vegetables than meat.D. We have good reasons for wasting food.5. What is a consequence of food waste according to the text?______A. Moral decline.B. Environmental harm.C. Energy shortage.D. Worldwide starvation.6. What does Curtin's company do?______A. It produces kitchen equipment.B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.C. It helps local farmers grow fruits.D. It makes meals out of unwanted food.7. What does Curtin suggest people do?______A. Buy only what is needed.B. Reduce food consumption.C. Go shopping once a week.D. Eat in restaurants less often.CThe elderly residents(居民)in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.The project was dreamed up by a local charity(慈善组织)to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people's wellbeing.It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia,a serious illness of the mind.Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in use.Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier.She said:"I used to keephens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went toschool.""I like the project a lot.I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they've gone to bed.""It's good to have a different focus.People have been bringing their children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them.I'm enjoying the creative activities,and it feels great to have done something useful."There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East,and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.Wendy Wilson,extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street,one of the first to embark on the project, said:"Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions.We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here."Lynn Lewis,director of Notting Hill Pathways,said:"We are happy to be taking part in the project.It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities."8. What is the purpose of the project?______A. To ensure harmony in care homes.B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.C. To raise money for medical research.D. To promote the elderly people's welfare.9. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier______A. She has learned new life skills.B. She has gained a sense of achievement.C. She has recovered her memory.D. She has developed a strong personality.10. What do the underlined words "embark on" mean in paragraph 7?______A. Improve.B. Oppose.C. Begin.D. Evaluate.11. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?______A. It is well received.B. It needs to be more creative.C. It is highly profitable.D. It takes ages to see the results.DHuman speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds,from the common "m" and "a" to the rare clicks of some southern African languages.But why are certain sounds more common than others?A ground-breaking,five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led to new speech sounds that are now found in half the world's languages.More than 30 years ago,the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals,such as "f" and "v",were more common in the languages of societies that ate softer foods.Now a team of researchers led by Damián Blasi at the University ofZurich,Switzerland,has found how and why this trend arose.They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned(对齐),making it hard to produce labiodentals,which are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper ter,our jaws changed to an overbite structure(结构),making it easier to produce such sounds.The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development of agriculture in the Neolithic period.Food became easier to chew at this point.The jawbone didn't have to do as much work and so didn't grow to be so large.Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age,with the use of "f" and "v" increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years.These sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer people today.This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds were present when human beings evolved around 300,000 years ago."The set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human beings,but rather the huge variety of speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like biological change and cultural evolution," said Steven Moran,a member of the research team.12. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi's research focus on?______A. Its variety.B. Its distribution.C. Its quantity.D. Its development.13. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals______A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.B. They could not open and close their lips easily.C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.14. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?______A. Supporting evidence for the research results.B. Potential application of the research findings.C. A further explanation of the research methods.D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.15. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds?______A. It is key to effective communication.B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.C. It is a complex and dynamic system.D. It drives the evolution of human beings.二、阅读七选五(本大题共5小题,共12.5分)Fitness Magazine recently ran an article titled "Five Reasons to Thank Your Workout Partner." One reason was: "You'll actually show up if you know someone is waiting for you at the gym," while another read: " (1) " With a workout partner, you will increase your training effort as there is a subtle (微妙) competition.So, how do you find a workout partner?First of all, decide what you want from that person. (2) Or do you just want to be physically fit, able to move with strength and flexibility? Think about the exercises you would like to do with your workout partner.You might think about posting what you are looking for on social media, but it probably won't result in a useful response. (3) If you plan on working out in a gym, that person must belong to the same gym.My partner posted her request on the notice board of a local park. Her notice included what kind of training she wanted to do, how many days a week and how many hours she wanted to spend on each session, and her age. It also listed her favorite sports and activities, and provided her phone number. (4)You and your partner will probably have different skills. (5) Over time, both of you will benefit—your partner will be able to lift more weights and you will become more physically fit.The core (核心) of your relationship is that you will always be there to help each other.A.Your first meeting may be a little awkward.B.A workout partner usually needs to live close by.C.You'll work harder if you train with someone else.D.Do you want to be a better athlete in your favorite sport?E.How can you write a good "seeking training partner" notice?F.Just accept your differences and learn to work with each other.G.Any notice for a training partner should include such information.16. A. A B. B C. C D. D E.E F.F G. G17. A. A B. B C. C D. D E.E F.F G. G18. A. A B. B C. C D. D E.E F.F G. G19. A. A B. B C. C D. D E.E F.F G. G20. A. A B. B C. C D. D E.E F.F G. G三、完形填空(本大题共15小题,共15.0分)My husband,our children and I have had wonderful camping experiences over the past ten years.Some of our(21) are funny,especially from the early years when our children werelittle.Once,we(22) along Chalk Creek.I was(23) that our 15-month-old boy would fall into the creek(小溪).I tied a rope around his waist to keep him near to our spot.That lasted about ten minutes.He was(24),and his crying let the whole campground know it.So(25) tying him up,I just kept a close eye on him.It(26) - he didn't end up in the creek.Mythree-year-old,however,did.Another time,we rented a boat in Vallecito Lake.The sky was clear when we(27),but storms move in fast in the mountains,and this one quickly(28) our peaceful morning trip.The(29) picked up and thunder rolled.My husband stopped fishing to(30) the motor.Nothing.He tried again.No(31).We were stuck in the middle of the lake with a dead motor.As we all sat there(32),a fisherman pulled up,threw us a rope and towed(拖)us back.We were(33).Now,every year when my husband pulls our camper out of the garage,we are filled with a sense of(34),wondering what camping fun and(35)we will experience next.21. A. ideas B. jokes C. memories D. discoveries22. A. camped B. drove C. walked D. cycled23. A. annoyed B. surprised C. disappointed D. worried24. A. unhurt B. unfortunate C. uncomfortable D. unafraid25. A. due to B. instead of C. apart from D. as for26. A. worked B. happened C. mattered D. changed27. A. signed up B. calmed down C. checked out D. headed off28. A. arranged B. interrupted C. completed D. recorded29. A. wind B. noise C. temperature D. speed30. A. find B. hide C. start D. fix31. A. luck B. answer C. wonder D. signal32. A. patiently B. tirelessly C. doubtfully D. helplessly33. A. sorry B. brave C. safe D. right34. A. relief B. duty C. pride D. excitement35. A. failure B. adventure C. performance D. conflict第II卷(非选择题)四、语法填空(本大题共1小题,共15.0分)36. The Chinese government recently finalized a plan to set up a Giant PandaNational Park (GPNP). (1) (cover) an area about three times (2) size of Yellowstone National Part, the GPNP will be one of the first national parks in the country. The plan will extend protection to a significant number of areas that (3) (be) previously unprotected, bringing many of the existing protected areas for giant pandas under oneauthority (4) (increase) effectiveness and reduce inconsistencies in management.After a three-year pilot period, the GPNP will be officially set up next year. TheGPNP (5) (design) to reflect the guiding principle of "protecting the authenticity and integrity (完整性) of natural ecosystems, preserving biological diversity, protectingecological buffer zones, (6) leaving behind precious natural assets (资产) for future generations". The GPNP's main goal is to improve connectivity betweenseparate (7) (population) and homes of giant pandas, and (8) (eventual) achieve adesired level of population in the wild.Giant pandas also serve (9) an umbrella species (物种), bringing protection to a host of plants and animals in the southwestern and northwestern parts of China. The GPNP is intended to provide stronger protection for all the species (10) live within the Giant Panda Range and significantly improve the health of the ecosystem in the area. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10)五、书面表达(本大题共2小题,共40.0分)37. 假定你是校广播站英语节目"Talk and Talk"的负责人李华,请给外教Caroline写邮件邀请她做一次访谈。

2022年全国新高考Ⅰ卷英语试题答案及解析

2022年全国新高考Ⅰ卷英语试题答案及解析

2022年全国新高考Ⅰ卷英语试题答案及解析2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(新高考全国Ⅰ卷)试题本试卷共10页,满分120分。

考试用时120分钟。

注意事项:1. 答卷前,考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。

用2B铅笔将试卷类型(A)填涂在答题卡相应位置上。

将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处”。

因笔试不考听力,选择题从第二部分的“阅读”开始,试题序号从“21”开始。

2. 作答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑;如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案,答案不能答在试卷上。

3. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答,答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上;如需改动,先划掉原来的答案,然后再写上新的答案;不准使用铅笔和涂改液,不按以上要求作答的答案无效。

4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁:考试结束后,将试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第二部分阅读(共两节,满分50分)第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

AGrading Policies for Introduction to LiteratureGrading Scale90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.Essays(60%)Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course: Essay 1 =10%; Essay 2=15%; Essay 3=15%; Essay 4=20% Group Assignments(30%)Students will work in groups to complete four assignments(作业)during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework(10%) Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete shortin-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previousclass lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally,from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to becompleted at home, both of which will be graded.Late WorkAn essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each classperiod it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Dailyassignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of anexcused absence will be accepted.21. Where is this text probably taken from?A. A textbook.B. An exam paper.C. A course plan.D. An academic article.22. How many parts is a students final grade made up of?A. Two.B. Three.C. Four.D. Five.23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?A. You will receive a zero.B. You will lose a letter grade.C. You will be given a test.D. You will have to rewrite it.BLike most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste. The arugula(芝麻菜)was to make a nice green salad, rounding out a roast chicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then friends called with a dinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed, the arugula went bad. Even worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much;I could have made six salads with what I threw out.In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, "food waste goes against the moral grain," as Elizabeth Royte writes in this months cover story. Its jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away—from “ugly"(but quite eatable)vegetables rejected by grocers to large amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.Producing food that no one eats wastes the water, fuel, and other resources used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem. In fact, Royte writes, "if food waste were a country, it would be the third largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world."If thats hard to understand, lets keep it as simple as the arugula at the back of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time — but for him, its more like 12 bones of donated strawberries nearing their last days. Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington, D.C., which recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered more than 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished(有瑕疵的)produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields. And the strawberries? Volunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for use in meals down the road.Such methods seem obvious, yet so often we just dont think. "Everyone can play a part in reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more food than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not include the side dish you wont eat," Curtin says.24. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story?A. We pay little attention to food waste.B. We waste food unintentionally at times.C. We waste more vegetables than meat.D. We have good reasons for wasting food.25. What is a consequence of food waste according to the test?A. Moral decline.B. Environmental harm.C. Energy shortage.D. Worldwide starvation.26. What does Curtins company do?A. It produces kitchen equipment.B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.C. It helps local farmers grow fruitsD. It makes meals out of unwanted food.27. What does Curtin suggest people do?A. Buy only what is needed.B. Reduce food consumption.C. Go shopping once a week.D. Eat in restaurants less often.CThe elderly residents(居民)in care homes in London are being given hens to look afterto stop them feeling lonely.The project was dreamed up by a local charity(慈善组织)to reduce loneliness andimprove elderly peoples wellbeing, It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use ofmedicine where hens are in use.Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She said: “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I wentto school."I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hensout and down there again at night to see theyve gone to bed."Its good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children in to see thehens and residents come and sit outside to watch them. Im enjoying the creative activities,and it feels great to have done something useful."There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East,and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on theproject, said: "Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. Weare looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here."Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: "We are happy to be taking part inthe project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creativeactivities."28. What is the purpose of the project?A. To ensure harmony in care homes.B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.C. To raise money for medical research.D. To promote the elderly peoples welfare.29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?A. She has learned new life skills.B. She has gained a sense of achievement.C. She has recovered her memory.D. She has developed a strong personality.30. What do the underlined words "embark on" mean in paragraph 7?A. Improve.B. Oppose.C. Begin.D. Evaluate.31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?A. It is well received.B. It needs to be more creative.C. It is highly profitable.D. It takes ages to see the results.DHuman speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from the common "m" and"a" to the rare clicks of some southern African languages. But why are certain sounds morecommon than others? A ground-breaking, five-year study shows that diet-related changes inhuman bite led to new speech sounds that are now found in half the worlds languages.More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals, such as "f" and "v", were more common in the languages of societies that atesofter foods. Now a team of researchers led by Damián Blasi at the University of Zurich,Switzerland, has found how and why this trend arose.They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults werealigned(对齐), making it hard to produce labiodentals, which are formed by touching thelower lip to the upper teeth. Later, our jaws changed to an overbite structure(结构), making it easier to produce such sounds.The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development ofagriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easier tochew at this point. The jawbonedidnt have to do as much work and so didnt grow to be so large.Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global change in thesound of world languages after the Neolithic age, with the use of "f" and "v" increasingremarkably during the last few thousand years. These sounds are still not found in thelanguages of many hunter-gatherer people today.This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds were presentwhen human beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. "The set of speech sounds we use hasnot necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human beings, but rather the hugevariety of speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of thingslike biological change and cultural evolution," said Steven Moran, a member of the researchteam.32. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasis research focus on?A. Its variety.B. Its distribution.C. Its quantity.D. Its development.33. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals?A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.B. They could not open and close their lips easily.C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.34. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?A. Supporting evidence for the research results.B. Potential application of the research findings.C. A further explanation of the research methods.D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.35. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds?A. It is key to effective communication.B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.C. It is a complex and dynamic system.D. It drives the evolution of human beings.第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

2020年全国统一高考英语试卷(新课标ⅰ)(解析版)

2020年全国统一高考英语试卷(新课标ⅰ)(解析版)

2020年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(全国卷I)英语注意事项:1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。

2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。

如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。

回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。

3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。

录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。

每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

例:How much is the shirt?A.£19.15.B.£9.18.C.£9.15.答案是C。

1.Where are the speakers?A.At a swimming pool.B.In a clothing shop.C.At a school lab.【答案】B【解析】【原文】本题为听力题,解析略。

2.What will Tom do next?A.Turn down the music.B.Postpone the show.C.Stop practicing.【答案】C【解析】【原文】本题为听力题,解析略。

3.What is the woman busy doing?A.Working on a paper.B.Tidying up the office.anizing a party.【答案】C【解析】【原文】本题为听力题,解析略。

4.When will Henry start his vacation?A.This weekend.B.Next week.C.At the end of August.【答案】A【解析】【原文】本题为听力题,解析略。

2022全国1卷高考英语试题及答案【参考】

2022全国1卷高考英语试题及答案【参考】

2022全国1卷高考英语试题及答案【参考】真的猛士,敢于直面惨淡的分数,敢于正视淋漓的成绩单。

这是怎样的哀痛者和幸福者?下面给大家带来一些关于2022全国1卷高考英语试题及答案【参考】,希望对大家有所帮助。

2022全国1卷高考英语试题英语注意事项:1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。

2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。

如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。

回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。

3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。

录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。

每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

例:How much is the shirt?A. ?19.15.B. B. ?9.18.C. C. ?9.15.答案是C。

1.Where does this conversation take place?A. In a classroom.B. In a hospital.C.In a museum.2.What does Jack want to do?A. Take fitness classes.B. Buy a pair of gym shoes.C. Change his work schedule.3.What are the speakers talking about?A. What to drink.B. Where to meetC. When to leave.4.What is the relationship between the speakers?A. Colleges.B. Classmates.C. Strangers.5.Why is Emily mentioned in the conversation?A. She might want a ticket.B. She is looking for the man.C. She has an extra ticket.第二节(共15小题,每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白。

2020年统一考试(全国卷III)高考英语试题及答案

2020年统一考试(全国卷III)高考英语试题及答案

2020年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(全国卷III)英语第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。

录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。

每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

例:How much is the shirt?A. £19.15.B. £9.18.C. £9.15.答案是C。

1. Where does the conversation probably take place?A. In a supermarket.B. In the post office.C. In the street.2. What did Carl do?A. He designed a medal.B. He fixed a TV set.C. He took a test.3. What does the man do?A. He’s a tailor.B. He’s a waiter.C. He’s a shop assistant.4. When will the flight arrive?A. At 18:20.B. At 18:35.C. At 18:50.5. How can the man improve his article?A. By deleting unnecessary words.B. By adding a couple of points.C. By correcting grammar mistakes.第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白。

每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。

(精编)2020年高考英语试卷(全国新高考Ⅰ卷)

(精编)2020年高考英语试卷(全国新高考Ⅰ卷)

(精编)2020年高考英语试卷(全国新高考Ⅰ卷)一、阅读理解1.POETRY CHALLENGEWrite a poem about how courage, determination, and strength have helped you face challenges in your life.Prizes3 Grand Prizes: Trip to Washington, D.C. for each of three winners, a parent and one other person of the winner's choice. Trip includes round-trip air tickets, hotel stay for two nights, and tours of the National Air and Space Museum and the office of National Geographic World.6 First Prizes: The book Sky Pioneer: A Photobiography of Amelia Earhart signed by author Corinne Szabo and pilot Linda Finch.50 Honorable Mentions: Judges will choose up to 50 honorable mention winners, who will each receive a T-shirt in memory of Earhart's final flight.RulesFollow all rules carefully to prevent disqualification.■ Write a poem using 100 words or fewer. Your poem can be any format, any number of lines.■ Write by hand or type on a single sheet of paper. You may use both the front and back of the paper.■ On the same sheet of paper, write or type your name, address, telephone number, and birth date.■ Mail your entry to us by October 31 this year.(1)How many people can each grand prize winner take on the free trip?A.Four.B.Two.C.Six.D.Three.(2)What will each of the honorable mention winners get?A.A special T-shirt.B.A plane ticket.C.A photo of Amelia Earhart.D.A book by Corinne Szabo.(3)Which of the following will result in disqualification?ing both sides of the paper.B.Typing your poem out.C.Mailing your entry on October 30.D.Writing a poem of 120 words. 2.Jennifer Mauer has needed more willpower than the typical college student to pursue her goal of earning a nursing degree. That willpower bore fruit when Jennifer graduated from University of Wisconsin-Eau Claire and became the first in her large family to earn a bachelor's degree.Mauer, of Edgar, Wisconsin, grew up on a farm in a family of 10 children. Her dad worked at a job away from the farm, and her mother ran the farm with the kids. After high school, Jennifer attended a local technical college, working to pay her tuition (学费), because there was no extra money set aside for a college education. After graduation, she worked to help her sisters and brothers pay for their schooling.Jennifer now is married and has three children of her own. She decided to go back to college to advance her career and to be able to better support her family while doing something she loves: nursing. She chose the UW-Eau Claire program at Ministry Saint Joseph Hospital in Marshfield because she was able to pursue her four-year degree close to home. She could drive to class and be home in the evening to help with her kids. Jennifer received great support from her family as she worked to earn her degree: Her husband worked two jobs to cover the bills, and her 68-year-old mother helped take care of the children at times.Through it all, she remained in good academic standing and graduated with honors. Jennifer sacrificed (牺牲)to achieve her goal, giving up many nights with her kids and missing important events to study. "Some nights my heart was breaking to have to pick between my kids and studying for exams or papers," she says. However, her children have learned an important lesson witnessing their mother earn her degree. Jennifer is a first-generation graduate and an inspiration to her family—and that's pretty powerful.(1)What did Jennifer do after high school?A.She supported herself through college.B.She helped her dad with his work.C.She taught her sisters and brothers at home.D.She ran the family farm on her own.(2)Why did Jennifer choose the program at Ministry Saint Joseph's Hospital in Marshfield?A.To save money for her parents.B.To take care of her kids easily.C.To find a well-paid job there.D.To learn from the best nurses.(3)What did Jennifer sacrifice to achieve her goal?A.Her reputation.B.Her health.C.Her chance of promotion.D.Her time with family.(4)What can we learn from Jennifer's story?A.Hard work pays off.B.Time is money.cation is the key to success.D.Love breaks down barriers.3.In the mid-1990s, Tom Bissell taught English as a volunteer in Uzbekistan. He left after seven months, physically broken and having lost his mind. A few years later, still attracted to the country, he returned to Uzbekistan to write an article about the disappearance of the Aral Sea.His visit, however, ended up involving a lot more than that. Hence this book, Chasing the Sea: Lost Among the Ghosts of Empire in Central Asia, which talks about a road trip from Tashkent to Karakalpakstan, where millions of lives have been destroyed by the slow drying up of the sea. It is the story of an American travelling to a strange land, and of the people he meets on his way: Rustam, his translator, a lovely 24-year-old who picked up his colorful English in California, Oleg and Natasha, his hosts in Tashkent, and a string of foreign aid workers.This is a quick look at life in Uzbekistan, made of friendliness and warmth, but also its darker side of society. In Samarkand, Mr Bissell admires the architectural wonders, while on his way to Bukhara he gets a taste of police methods when suspected of drug dealing. In Ferghana, he attends a mountain funeral (葬礼)followed by a strange drinking party. And in Karakalpakstan, he is saddened by the dust storms, diseases and fishing boats stuck miles from the sea.Mr Bissell skillfully organizes historical insights and cultural references, making his tale a well-rounded picture of Uzbekistan, seen from Western eyes. His judgment and references are decidedly American, as well as his delicate stomach. As the author explains, this is neither a travel nor a history book, or even a piece of reportage. Whatever it is, the result is a fine and vivid description of the purest of Central Asian traditions.(1)What made Mr Bissell return to Uzbekistan?A.His love for teaching.B.His friends' invitation.C.His desire to regain health.D.His interest in the country.(2)What does the underlined word "that" in paragraph 2 refer to?A.Working as a volunteer in Uzbekistan.B.Developing a serious mental disease.C.Writing an article about the Aral Sea.D.Taking a guided tour in Central Asia.(3)Which of the following best describes Mr Bissell's road trip in Uzbekistan?A.Pleasant.B.Romantic.C.Dangerous.D.Eventful. (4)What is the purpose of this text?A.To remember a writer.B.To introduce a book.C.To recommend a travel destination.D.To explain a cultural phenomenon.4.According to a recent study in the Journal of Consumer Research, both the size and consumption habits of our eating companions can influence our food intake. And contrary to existing research that says you should avoid eating with heavier people who order large portions (份), it's the beanpoles with big appetites you really need to avoid.To test the effect of social influence on eating habits, the researchers conducted two experiments. In the first, 95 undergraduate women were individually invited into a lab to ostensibly (表面上) participate in a study about movie viewership. Before the film began, each woman was asked to help herself to a snack. An actor hired by the researchers grabbed her food first. In her natural state, the actor weighed 105 pounds. But in half the cases she wore a specially designed fat suit which increased her weight to 180 pounds.Both the fat and thin versions of the actor took a large amount of food. The participants followed suit, taking more food than they normally would have. However, they took, significantly more when the actor was thin.For the second test, in one case the thin actor took two pieces of candy from the snack bowls. In the other case, she took 30 pieces. The results were similar to the first test: the participants followed suit but took significantly more candy when the thin actor took 30 pieces.The tests show that the social environment is extremely influential when we're making decisions. If this fellow participant is going to eat more, so will I. Call it the "l have what she's having" effect. However, we'll adjust the influence. If an overweight person is having a large portion, I'll hold back a bit because I see the results of his eating habits. But if a thin person eats a lot, I'll follow suit. If he can eat much and keep slim, why can't I?(1)What is the recent study mainly about?A.Consumer demand.B.Food safety.C.Eating behavior.D.Movie viewership.(2)What does the underlined word "beanpoles" in paragraph 1 refer to?A.Picky eaters.B.Big eaters.C.Tall thin persons.D.Overweight persons.(3)Why did the researchers hire the actor?A.To find out what she would do in the two tests.B.To see how she would affect the participants.C.To study why she could keep her weight down.D.To test if the participants could recognize her.(4)On what basis do we "adjust the influence" according to the last paragraph?A.How we perceive others.B.How hungry we are.C.How we feel about the food.D.How slim we want to be.二、七选五5. 阅读下面短文, 从短文后的选项中选山可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

高考英语全国甲卷试卷(含答案)

2020年高考全国甲卷英语试卷第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)略第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。

AThe Lake District Attractions GuideDalemain Mansion&Historic GardensHistory, Culture & Landscape (景观). Discover and enjoy 4 centuries of history, 5 acres of celebrated and award-winning gardens with parkland walk. Owned by the Hasell family since 1679, home to the International Marmalade Festival. Gifts and antiques, plant sales, museums & Mediaeval Hall Tearoom.Open: 29 Mar - 29 Oct, Sun to Thurs.Tearoom, Gardens & Gift Shop: 10.30 - 17.00 (16.00 in Oct).House: 11.15 - 16.00 (15.00 in Oct).Town: Pooley Bridge & PenrithAbbot Hall Art Gallery&MuseumThose viewing the quality of Abbot Hall’s temporary exhibitions may be forgiven for thinking they are in a city gallery. The impressive permanent collection includes Turners and Romneys and the temporary exhibition program has Canaletto and the artists from St Ives.Open: Mon to Sat and Summer Sundays. 10.30 - 17.00 Summer. 10.30 - 16.00 Winter. Town: KendalTullie House Museum&Art GalleryDiscover, explore and enjoy award-winning Tullie House, where historic collections, contemporary art and family fun are brought together in one impressive museum and art gallery. There are four fantastic galleries to visit from fine art to interactive fun, so there’s something for everyone!Open:High Season1Apr-31Oct: Mon to Sat10.00 - 17.00, Sun11.00 - 17.00.Low Season1Nov - 31Mar:Mon to Sat10.00 - 16.30,Sun12.00 - 16.30. Town:CarlisleDove Cottage& The Wordsworth MuseumDiscover William Wordsworth's inspirational home. Take a tour of his Lakeland cottage, walk through his hillside garden and explore the riches of the collection in the Museum. Visit the shop and relax in the café. Exhibitions, events and family activities throughout the year.Open: Daily, 9.30 - 17.30 (last admission 17.00).Town:Grasmere21.When is the House at Dalemain Mansion &Historic Gardens open on Sundays in July?A.09.30 - 17.30B.10.30 - 16.00C.11.15 - 16.00D.12.00 - 16.3022.What can visitors do at Abbot Hall Art Gallery &Museum?A.Enjoy Romney’s works.B.Have some interactive fun.C.Attend a famous festival.D.Learn the history of a family.23.Where should visitors go if they want to explore Wordsworth’s life?A.PenrithB.KendalC.CarlisleD.GrasmereBSome parents will buy any high-tech toy if they think it will help their child, but researchers said puzzles help children with math-related skills.Psychologist Susan Levine, an expert on mathematics development in young children at the University of Chicago, found children who play with puzzles between ages 2 and 4 later develop better spatial skills. Puzzle play was found to be a significant predictor of cognition (认知) after controlling for differences in parents’ income, education and the amount of parent talk, Levine said.The researchers analyzed video recordings of 53 child-parent pairs during everyday activities at home and found children who play with puzzles between 26 and 46 months of age have better spatial skills when assessed at 54 months of age."The children who played with puzzles performed better than those who did not, on tasks that assessed their ability to rotate (旋转) and translate shapes," Levine said in a statement.The parents were asked to interact with their children as they normally would, and about half of the children in the study played with puzzles at one time. Higher-income parents tended to have children play with puzzles more frequently, and both boys and girls who played with puzzles had better spatial skills. However, boys tended to play with more complex puzzles than girls, and the parents of boys provided more spatial language and were more active during puzzle play than the parents of girls.The findings were published in the journal Developmental Science.24. In which aspect do children benefit from puzzle play?A.Building confidenceB.Developing spatial skillsC.Learning self-controlD.Gaining high-tech knowledge25.What did Levine take into consideration when designing her experiment?A.Parents’ ageB.Children's imaginationC.Parents' educationD.Child-parent relationship26.How do boys differ from girls in puzzle play?A.They play with puzzles more often.B.They tend to talk less during the game.C.They prefer to use more spatial language.D.They are likely to play with tougher puzzles.27.What is the text mainly about?A. A mathematical methodB. A scientific studyC. A woman psychologistD. A teaching programCWhen you were trying to figure out what to buy for the environmentalist on your holiday list, fur probably didn’t cross your mind. But some ecologists and fashion(时装)enthusiasts are trying to bring back the market for fur made from nutria(海狸鼠).Unusual fashion shows in New Orleans and Brooklyn have showcased nutria fur made into clothes in different styles. “It sounds crazy to talk about guilt-free fur — unless you understand that the nutria are destroying vast wetlands every year,” says Cree McCree, project director of Righteous Fur.Scientists in Louisiana were so concerned that they decided to pay hunters $5 a tail. Some of the fur ends up in the fashion shows like the one in Brooklyn last month.Nutria were brought there from Argentina by fur farmers and let go into the wild. “The ecosystem down there can’t handle this non-native species(物种). It’s destroying the environment. It’s them or us,” says Michael Massimi, an expert in this field.The fur trade kept nutria in check for decades, but when the market for nutria collapsed in the late 1980s, the cat-sized animals multiplied like crazy.Biologist Edmond Mouton runs the nutria control program for Louisiana. He says it’s not easy to convince people that nutria fur is green, but he has no doubt about it. Hunters bring in more than 300,000 nutria tails a year, so part of Mouton’s job these days is trying to promote fur.Then there’s Righteous Fur and its unusual fashions. Model Paige Morgan says, “To give people a guilt-free option that they can wear without someone throwing paint on them — I think that’s going to be a massive thing, at least here in New York.” Designer Jennifer Anderson admits it took her a while to come around to the opinion that using nutria fur for her creations is morally acceptable. She’s trying to come up with a label to attach to nutria fashions to show it is eco-friendly.28.What is the purpose of the fashion shows in New Orleans and Brooklyn?A.To promote guilt-free fur.B.To expand the fashion market.C.To introduce a new brand.D.To celebrate a winter holiday.29.Why are scientists concerned about nutria?A.Nutria damage the ecosystem seriously.B.Nutria are an endangered species.C.Nutria hurt local cat-sized animals.A.Nutria are illegally hunted.30.What does the underlined word “collapsed” in paragraph 5 probably mean?A.Boomed.B.Became mature.C.Remained stable.D.Crashed.31.What can we infer about wearing fur in New York according to Morgan?A.It’s formal.B.It’s risky.C.It’s harmful.D.It’s traditional.DI have a special place in my heart for libraries. I have for as long as I can remember.I was always an enthusiastic reader, sometimes reading up to three books a day as a child. Stories were like air to me and while other kids played ball or went to parties, I lived out adventures through the books I checked out from the library.My first job was working at the Ukiah Library when I was 16 years old. It was a dream job and I did everything from shelving books to reading to the children for story time.As I grew older and became a mother, the library took on a new place and anadded meaning in my life. I had several children and books were our main source (来源) of entertainment. It was a big deal for us to load up and go to the local library, where my kids could pick out books to read or books they wanted me to read to them.I always read, using different voices, as though I were acting out the stories with my voice and they loved it! It was a special time to bond with my children and it filled them with the wonderment of books.Now, I see my children taking their children to the library and I love that the excitement of going to the library lives on from generation to generation.As a novelist, I’ve found a new relationship with libraries. I encourage readers to go to their local library when they can't afford to purchase a book. I see libraries as a safe haven (避风港) for readers and writers, a bridge that helps put together a reader with a book. Libraries, in their own way, help fight book piracy (盗版行为) and I think all writers should support libraries in a significant way when they can. Encourage readers to use the library. Share library announcements on your social media. Frequent them and talk about them when you can.32.Which word best describes the author’s relationship with books as a child?A.CooperativeB.UneasyC.InseparableD.Casual33.What does the underlined phrase “an added meaning” in paragraph 3 refer to?A.Pleasure from working in the library.B.Joy of reading passed on in the family.D.A closer bond developed with the readers.34.What does the author call on other writers to do?A.Sponsor book fairs.B.Write for social media.C.Support libraries.D.Purchase her novels.35.Which can be a suitable title for the text?A.Reading: A Source of KnowledgeB.My Idea about WritingC.Library: A Haven for the YoungD.My Love of the Library第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。

2021年高考英语真题试题——新高考全国Ⅰ卷(word版-含答案与解析)

2021年全国普通高等学校招生统一考试全国新高考Ⅰ卷英语试卷第一部分听力(共两节, 满分30分)做题时, 先将答案标在试卷上。

录音内容结束后, 你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分, 满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。

每段对话后有一个小题, 从题中所给的A.B.C三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听完每段对话后, 你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

例: How much is the shirt?A.£19.15.B.£9.18.C.£9.15.答案是C。

1.Why did the woman go to Mallorca?A.To teach Spanish.B.To look for a job.C.To see a friend.2.What does the man ask the woman to do?A.Take him to hospital.B.Go to a class with him.C.Submit a report for him.3.Who will look after the children?A.Jennifer.B.Suzy.C.Marie.4.What are the speakers going to do?A.Drive home.B.Go shopping.C.Eat out.5.What are the speakers talking about?A.How to fry fish.B.How to make coffee.C.How to remove a bad smell.第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分, 满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白。

每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听每段对话或独白前, 你将有时间阅读各个小题, 每小题5秒钟;听完后, 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。

2022年新高考全国Ⅰ卷英语真题含参考答案

2022年新高考全国Ⅰ卷英语真题一、短对话1.What will the speakers do next?A.Check the map.B.Leave the restaurant.C.Park the car.2.Where are the speakers?A.At a bus stop.B.At home.C.At the airport. 3.What did the speakers do last week?A.They had a celebration dinner.B.They went to see a newborn baby.C.They sent a mail to their neighbors.4.Why does the man make the phone call?A.To cancel a weekend trip.B.To make an appointment.C.To get some information.5.What does the man probably want to do?A.Do some exercise.B.Get an extra key.C.Order room service.二、长对话听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。

6.Why does the woman come to the man?A.To ask for permission.B.To extend an invitation.C.To express thanks.7.When are the students going to the museum?A.On Friday.B.On Saturday.C.On Sunday.听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。

8.What are the speakers talking about?A.Buying groceries.B.Choosing gifts.C.Seeing friends.9.Who is Clara?A.The man’s wife.B.The man’s sister.C.The man’s daughter.10.How much did the man spend on the city passes?A.$36.B.$50.C.$150.听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。

2020年全国统一高考英语试卷以及答案(全国1卷解析版)

2020年全国统一高考英语试卷(全国1卷)第一部分听力(共两节)第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。

每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。

听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。

每段对话仅读一遍。

例:How much is the shirt?A. £19.15.B. £9.18.C. £9.15.答案是C.1.(1.5分)Where does this conversation take place?A.In a classroom.B.In a hospital.C.In a museum.2.(1.5分)What does Jack want to do?A.Take fitness classes.B.Buy a pair of gym shoes.C.Change his work schedule.3.(1.5分)What are the speakers talking about?A.What to drink.B.Where to meet.C.When to leave.4.(1.5分)What is the relationship between the speakers?A.Colleagues.B.Classmates.C.Strangers.5.(1.5分)Why is Emily mentioned in the conversation?A.She might want a ticket.B.She is looking for the man.C.She has an extra ticket.第二节(每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白.每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项.听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间.每段对话或独白读两遍.6.(3分)听材料,回答下列问题.(1)How long did James run his business?A.10 years.B.13 years.C.15 years.(2)How does the woman feel about James' situation?A.Embarrassed.B.Concerned.C.Disappointed.7.(4.5分)听材料,回答下列问题.(1)What has Kate's mother decided to do?A.Return to school.B.Change her job.C.Retire from work.(2)What did Kate's mother study at college?A.Oil painting.B.Art history.C.Business administration.(3)What is Kate's attitude toward her mother's decision?A.Disapproving.B.Ambiguous.C.Understanding.8.(4.5分)听材料,回答下列问题.(1)What is the man doing?A.Chairing a meeting.B.Hosting a radio program.C.Conducting a job interview.(2)What benefits Mary most in her job?A.Her wide reading.B.Her leaders' guidance.C.Her friends' help.(3)Who will Mary talk about next?A.Her teacher.B.Her father.C.Her mother.9.(6分)听材料,回答下列问题.(1)Why does the man seldom do exercise?A.He lacks motivation.B.He has a heart problem.C.He works all the time.(2)What does Jacob Sattelmair probably do?A.He's an athlete.B.He's a researcher.C.He's a journalist.(3)Why does the woman speak of a study?A.To encourage the man.B.To recommend an exercise.C.To support her findings.(4)How much time will the man probably spend exercising weekly?A.300 minutes.B.150 minutes.C.75 minutes.10.(4.5分)听材料,回答下列问题.(1)What did the scientists do to the road?A.They repaired it.B.They painted it.C.They blocked it.(2)Why are young birds drawn to the road surface?A.It's warm.B.It's brown.C.It's smooth.(3)What is the purpose of the scientists' experiment?A.To keep the birds there for a whole year.B.To help students study the birds well.C.To prevent the birds from being killed.第二部分阅读理解(共两节)第一节(满分30分)阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。

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A Welcome to Holker Hall & Gardens Visitor Information How to get to Holker By Car Follow brown signs on A590 from J36, M6. Approximate travel times: Windernere-20 minutes, Kendal-25 minutes, Lancaster-45 minutes, Manchester-1 hour 30 minutes.

By Rail: The nearest station is Cark-in-Cartmel with trains to Carnforth, Lancaster and Preston for connections to major cities &airports.

Opening Times Sunday-Friday(closed on Saturday) 11:00am-4:00pm, 30th march-2nd November.

Admission Charges Hall&Gardens Gardens Adults: £ £ Groups: £ £ Special Events Producers’ Market 13th April Join us to taste a variety of fresh local food and drinks. Meet the producers and get some excellent recipe ideas.

Holker Garden Festival 30th May The event celebrates its 22nd anniversary with a great show of the very best of gardening, making it one of the most popular events in gardening.

National Garden Day 28th August Holker once again opens its gardens in aid of the disadvantaged. For just a small donation you can take a tour with our garden guide.

Winter Market 8th November This is an event for all the family. Wander among a variety of shops selling gifts while enjoying a live music show and nice street entertainment.

21. How long does it probably take a tourist to drive to Holker from Manchester

A. 20 minutes B. 25 minutes C. 45 minutes D. 90 minutes

22. How much should a member of a tour group pay to visit Hall & Gardens

A. £ B. £ C. £ D. £ 23. Which event will you go to if you want to see a live music show

A. Producers’ Market B. Holker Garden Festival

C. National Garden Day D. Winter Market B Cities usually have a good reason for being where they are, like a nearby port or river. People settle in these places because they are easy to get to and naturally suited to communications and trade. New York City, for example, is near a large harbour at the mouth of the Hudson River. Over 300 years its population grew gradually from 800 people to 8 million. But not all cities develop slowly over a long period of time. Boom towns grow from nothing almost overnight. In 1896, Dawson, Canada, was unmapped wilderness(荒野). But gold was discovered there in 1897, and two years later, it was one of the largest cities in the West, with a population of 30000.

Dawson did not have any of the natural conveniences of cities like London or Paris. People went there for gold. They travelled over snow-covered mountains and sailed hundreds of miles up icy rivers. The path to Dawson was covered with thirty feet of wet snow that could fall without warning. An avalanche(雪崩) once closed the path, killing 63 people. For many who made it to Dawson, however, the rewards were worth the difficult trip. Of the first 20000 people who dug for gold, 4000 got rich. About 100 of these stayed rich men for the rest of their lives. But no matter how rich they were, Dawson was never comfortable. Necessities like food and wood were very expensive. But soon, the gold that Dawson depended on had all been found. The city was crowded with disappointed people with no interest in settling down, and when they heard there were new gold discoveries in Alaska, they left Dawson City as quickly as they had come. Today, people still come and go-to see where the Canadian gold rush happened. Tourism is now the chief industry of Dawson City-its present population is 762.

24. What attracted the early settlers to New York City A. its business culture B. its small population C. its geographical position D. its favourable climate 25. What do we know about those who first dug for gold in Dawson A. two-thirds of them stayed there B. one out of five people got rich C. almost everyone gave up D. half of them died 26. What was the main reason for many people to leave Dawson A. they found the city too crowded B. they wanted to try their luck elsewhere C. they were unable to stand the winter D. they were short of food

27. What is the text mainly about A. the rise and fall of a city B. the gold rush in Canada C. journeys into the wilderness D. tourism in Dawson C While famous foreign architects are invited to lead the designs of landmark buildings in China such the new CCTV tower and the National Center for the Performing Arts, many excellent Chinese architects are making great efforts to take the center stage.

Their efforts have been proven fruitful. Wang Shu, a 49-year-old Chinese architect, won the 2012 Pritzker Architecture Prize-which is often referred to as the Nobel Prize in architecture-on February 28. He is the first Chinese citizen to win this award.

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