2020年高考英语-全国一卷

2020年高考英语-全国一卷
2020年高考英语-全国一卷

2020普通高等学校招生全国统一考试

英语

第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)

做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

例:How much is the shirt?

A.£19.15.

B.£9.18.

C.£9.15.

答案是C.

1. Where does the conversation probably take place?

A. In a supermarket.

B. In the post office.

C. In the street

2. What did Carl do?

A. He designed a medal.

B. He fixed a TV set.

C. He took a test.

3. What does the man do?

A. He’s a tailor.

B. He’s a waiter.

C. He’s a shop assistant.

4. When will the flight arrive?

A. At18:20.

B. At 18:35.

C. At 18:50.

5. How can the man improve his article?

A. By deleting unnecessary words.

B. By adding a couple of points.

C. By correcting grammar mistakes.

第二节(共15小题:每小题15分,满分22.5分)

听下面5段对话或独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、

C三个选项中选出最佳选项,听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5移钟:听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。

6. What does Bill often do on Friday night?

A.Visit his parents.

B. Go to the movies.

C. Walk along Broadway.

7. Who watches musical plays most often?

A.Bill.

B. Sarah.

C. Bill’s parents.

听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。

8. Why does David want to speak to Mike?

A. To invite him to a party.

B. To discuss a schedule.

C. To call off a meeting.

9. What do we know about the speakers?

A. They are colleagues.

B. They are close friends.

C. They’ve never met before.

听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。

10. What kind of camera does the man want?

A. A TV camera.

B. A video camera.

C. A movie camera.

11. Which function is the man most interested in?

A. Underwater filming.

B. A large memory.

C. Auto-focus.

12. How much would the man pay for the second camera?

A. 950 euros.

B. 650 euros.

C. 470 euros.

听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。

13. Who is Clifford?

A. A little girl.

B. The m an’s pet.

C. A fictional character.

14. Who sugg ested that Norman paint for children’s books?

A. His wife.

B. Elizabeth.

C. A publisher.

I5. What is Norman’s story based on?

A. A book.

B. A painting.

C. A young woman.

16. What is it that shocked Norman?

A. His unexpected success.

B. His efforts made in vain.

C. His editor’s dis agreement.

听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。

17. Who would like to make small talk according to the speaker?

A. Relatives.

B. Strangers.

C. Visitors.

18. Why do people have small talk?

A. To express opinions.

B. To avoid arguments.

C. To show friendliness.

19. Which of the following is a frequent topic in small talk?

A. Politics.

B. Movies.

C. Salaries.

20. What does the speaker recommend at the end of his lecture?

A. Asking open-ended questions.

B. Feeling free to change topics.

C. Making small talk interesting.

第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)

第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。

A

Train Information

All customers travelling on TransLink services must be in possession of a valid ticket before boarding. For ticket information, please ask at your local station or call 13 12 30. While Queensland Rail makes every effort to ensure trains run as scheduled, there can be no guarantee of connections between trains or between train services and bus services.

Lost property (失物招领)

Call Lost Property on 13 16 17 during business hours for items lost on Queensland Rail services. The lost property office is open Monday to Friday 7:30 am to 5:00 pm and is located(位于) at Roma Street station.

Public holidays

On public holidays, generally a Sunday timetable operates. On certain major event days, i.e. Australia Day, Anzac Day, sporting and cultural days, special additional services may operate.

Christmas Day services operate to a Christmas Day timetable.Before travel please visit

https://www.360docs.net/doc/c2179424.html,.au or call TransLink on 13 12 30 anytime.

Customers using mobility devices

Many stations have wheelchair access from the car park or entrance to the station platforms. For assistance, please call Queensland Rail on 13 16 17.

Guardian trains (outbound)

21. What would you do to get ticket information?

A. Call 13 16 17.

B. Visit https://www.360docs.net/doc/c2179424.html,.au.

C. Ask at the local station.

D. Check the train schedule.

22. At which station can you find the lost property office?

A. Altandi.

B. Roma Street.

C. Varsity Lakes.

D. Fortitude Valley.

23. Which train would you take if you go from Central to Varsity Lakes?

A. 6:42 pm.

B. 7:29 pm.

C. 8:57 pm.

D. 11:02 pm.

B

Returning to a book you’ve read many times can feel like drinks with an old friend. There’s a welcome familiarity—but also sometimes a slight suspicion that time has changed you both, and thus the relationship. But books don’t change, people do. And that’s what makes the act of rereading so rich and transformative.

The beauty of rereading lies in the idea that our bond with the work is based on our present mental register. It’s true, the older I get, the more I feel time has wings. But with reading, it’s all about the present. It’s about the now and what one contributes to the now, because reading is a give and take between author and reader. Each has to pull their own weight.

There are three books I reread annually. The first, which I take to reading every spring, is Emest Hemingway’s A Moveable Feast. Published in 1964, it’s his classic memoir of 1920s Paris. The language is almost intoxicating(令人陶醉的), an aging writer looking back on an ambitious yet simpler time. Another is Annie Dillard’s Holy the Firm, her poetic 1975 ramble(随笔) about everything and nothing. The third book is Julio Cortázar’s Save Twilight: Selected Poems, because poetry. And because Cortázar.

While I tend to buy a lot of books, these three were given to me as gifts, which might add to the meaning I attach to them. But I imagine that, while money is indeed wonderful and necessary, rereading an author’s work is the highest currency a reader can pay them.

The best books are the ones that open further as time passes. But remember, it’s you that has to grow and read and reread in order to better understand your friends.

24. Why does the author like rereading?

A. It evaluates the writer-reader relationship.

B. It’s a window to a whole new world.

C. It’s a substitute for drinking with a friend.

D. It extends the understanding of oneself.

25. What do we know about the book A Moveable Feast?

A. It’s a brief account of a trip.

B. It’s about Hemingway’s life as a young man.

C. It’s a record of a historic event.

D. It’s about Hemingway’s friends in Paris.

26. What does the underlined word “currency” in paragraph 4 refer to?

A. Debt.

B. Reward.

C. Allowance.

D. Face value.

27. What can we infer about the author from the text?

A. He loves poetry.

B. He’s an editor.

C. He’s very ambitious.

D. He teaches reading.

C

Race walking shares many fitness benefits with running, research shows, while most likely contributing to fewer injuries. It does, however, have its own problem.

Race walkers are conditioned athletes. The longest track and field event at the Summer Olympics is the 50-kilometer race walk, which is about five miles longer than the marathon. But the sport’s rules require that a race walker’s knees stay straight through

most of the leg swing and one foot remain in contact(接触) with the ground at all times.

It’s this strange form that makes race walking such an attr active activity, however, says Jaclyn Norberg, an assistant professor of exercise science at Salem State University in Salem, Mass.

Like running, race walking is physically demanding, she says, According to most calculations, race walkers moving at a pace of six miles per hour would burn about 800

calories(卡路里) per hour, which is approximately twice as many as they would burn

walking, although fewer than running, which would probably burn about 1,000 or more calories per hour.

However, race walking does not pound the body as much as running does, Dr. Norberg says. According to her research, runners hit the ground with as much as four times their body weight per step, while race walkers, who do not leave the ground, create only about 1.4 times their body weight with each step.

As a result, she says, some of the injuries associated with running, such as runner’s knee, are uncommon among race walkers. But the sport’s strange form does place considerable stress on the ankles and hips, so people with a history of such injuries might want to be cautious in adopting the sport. In fact, anyone wishing to try race walking should probably first consult a coach or experienced racer to learn proper technique, she says. It takes some practice.

28. Why are race walkers conditioned athletes?

A. They must run long distances.

B. They are qualified for the marathon.

C. They have to follow special rules.

D. They are good at swinging their legs.

29. What advantage does race walking have over running?

A. It’s more popular at the Olympics.

B. It’s less challenging physically.

C. It’s more effective in body building.

D. It’s less likely to cause knee injuries.

30. What is Dr. Norberg’s suggestion for someone trying race walking?

A. Getting experts’ opinions.

B. Having a medical checkup.

C. Hiring an experienced coach.

D. Doing regular exercises.

31. Which word best describes the author’s attitude to race walking?

A. Skeptical.

B. Objective.

C. Tolerant.

D. Conservative.

D

The connection between people and plants has long been the subject of scientific research. Recent studies have found positive effects. A study conducted in Youngstown, Ohio, for example, discovered that greener areas of the city experienced less crime. In another, employees were shown to be 15% more productive when their workplaces were decorated with houseplants.

The engineers at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) have taken it a step further—changing the actual composition of plants in order to get them to perform diverse, even unusual functions. These include plants that have sensors printed onto their leaves to show when they’re short of water and a plant that can detect harmful chemicals in groundwater. “We’re thinking about how we can engineer plants to replace functions of the things that we use every day,” explained Michael Strano, a professor of chemical engineering at MIT.

One of his latest projects has been to make plants grow(发光) in experiments using some common vegetables. Strano’s team found that they could create a faint l ight for

three-and-a-half hours. The light, about one-thousandth of the amount needed to read by, is just a start. The technology, Strano said, could one day be used to light the rooms or even to turn trees into self-powered street lamps.

In the future, the team hopes to develop a version of the technology that can be sprayed onto plant leaves in a one-off treatment that would last the plant’s lifetime. The engineers are also trying to develop an on and off “switch” where the glow would fade when exposed to daylight.

Lighting accounts for about 7% of the total electricity consumed in the US. Since lighting is often far removed from the power source(电源)—such as the distance from a power plant to street lamps on a remote highway—a lot of energy is lost during transmission(传输). Glowing plants could reduce this distance and therefore help save energy.

32. What is the first paragraph mainly about?

A. A new study of different plants.

B. A big fall in crime rates.

C. Employees from various workplaces.

D. Benefits from green plants.

33. What is the function of the sensors printed on plant leaves by MIT engineer?

A. To detect plants’ lack of water .

B. To change compositions of plants.

C. To make the life of plants longer.

D. To test chemicals in plants.

34. What can we expect of the glowing plants in the future?

A. They will speed up energy production.

B. They may transmit electricity to the home.

C. They might help reduce energy consumption.

D. They could take the place of power plants.

35. Which of the following can be the best title for the text?

A. Can we grow more glowing plants?

B. How do we live with glowing plants?

C. Could glowing plants replace lamps?

D. How are glowing plants made pollution-free?

第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)

根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

A Few Tips for Self-Acceptance

We all want it ... to accept and love ourselves. But at times it seems too difficult and too far out of reach. 36 Here’s a handful of ways that will set you in the right direction.

●37 Do not follow the people who make you feel not-good-enough. Why do you follow them? Are you hoping that eventually you will feel empowered because your life is better than theirs? Know that your life is your own; you are the only you in this world.

● Forgive yourself for mistakes that you have made. We are often ashamed of our shortcomings, our mistakes and our failures. 38 You will make mistakes, time and time again. Rather than getting caught up in how you could have done better, why not offer yourself a compassionate (有同情心) response? “That didn’t go as planned. But, I

tried my best.”

●Recognize all of your strengths. Write them down in a journal. Begin to train your brain to look at strength before weakness. List all of your accomplishments and achievements. You have a job, earned your degree, and you got out of bed today. 39

●Now that you’ve listed your strengths, list your imperfections. Turn the page in your journal. Put into words why you feel unworthy, why you don’t feel good enough. Now, read these words back to yourself. 40 Turn to a page in your journal to your list of strengths and achievements. See how awesome you are?

A. Feeling upset again?

B. Where do you start?

C. Nothing is too small to celebrate.

D. Remember, you are only human.

E Set an intention for self-acceptance.

F. Stop comparing yourself with others.

G. When does the comparison game start?

第三部分语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)

第一节完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)

阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

Since our twins began learning to walk, my wife and I have kept telling them that our sliding glass door is just a window. The 41 is obvious. If we 42 it is a door, they’ll want to go outside 43 . It will drive us crazy. The kids apparently know the 44 . But our insisting it’s45 a window has kept them from 46 millions of requests to open the door.

I hate lying to the kids. One day they’ll 47 and discover that everything they’ve always known about windows is a 48 .

I wonder if 49 should always tell the truth no matter the 50 . I have a

very strong 51 that the lie we’re telling is doing 52 damage to our children. Windows and doors have 53 metaphorical(比喻) meanings. I’m telling them they can’t open what they absolutely know is a door. What if later in 54 they come to a metaphorical door, like an opportunity(机会) of some sort, and 55 opening the door and taking the opportunity, they just 56 it and wonder, “What if it isn’t a door?” That is, “What if it isn’t a 57 opportunity?”

Maybe i t’s an unreasonable fear. But the 58 is that I shouldn’t lie to my kids.

I should just 59 repeatedly having to say, “No. We can’t go outside now.” Then when they come to other doors in life, be they real or metaphorical, they won’t 60 to open them and walk through.

41. A. relief B. target C. reason D. case

42. A. admit B. believe C mean D. realize

43. A. gradually B. constantly C. temporarily D. casually

44. A. result B. danger C. method D. truth

45. A. merely B. slightly C. hardly D. partly

46. A. reviewing B. approving C. receiving D. attempting

47. A. win out B. give up C. wake up D. stand out

48. A. dream B. lie C. fantasy D. fact

49. A. parents B. twins C. colleagues D. teachers

50. A. restrictions B. explanations C. differences D. consequences

51. A. demand B. fear C. desire D. doubt

52. A. physical B. biological C. spiritual D. behavioral

53. A traditional B. important C. double D. original

54. A. life B. time C. reply D. history

55. A. by comparison with B. in addition to C. regardless of D. instead of

56. A. get hold of B. stare at C. knock on D. make use of

57. A real B. typical C. similar D. limited

58. A. safety rule B. comfort zone C. bottom line D. top secret

59. A. delay B. regret C. enjoy D. accept

60. A. hurry B. decide C. hesitate D. intend

第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)

阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

China has become the first country to land a spacecraft on the far side of the moon. The unmanned Chang’e-4 probe(探测器)—the name was inspired by an ancient Chinese moon goddess—61 (touch) down last week in the South Pole-Aitken basin. Landing on the moon’s far side is 62 (extreme) challenging. Because the moon’s body blocks direct radio communication with a probe, China first had to put a satellite in orbit above the moon in a spot 63 it could send signals to the spacecraft and to Earth. The far side of the moon is of particular 64 (interesting) to scientists because it has a lot of deep craters (环形山), more so 65 the familiar near side. Chinese

researchers hope to use the instruments onboard Chang’e-4 66 (find) and study areas of the South Pole-Aitken basin. “This really excites scientists,”Carle Pieters, a scientist at Brown University, says, “because it 67 (mean) we have the chance to obtain information about how the moon 68 (construct).”Data about the moon’s composition, such as how 69 ice and other treasures it contains, could help China decide whether 70 (it) plans for a future lunar (月球的) base are practical.

第四部分写作(共两节,满分35分)

第一节短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。

修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意:1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;

2. 只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。

Today I tried cooking a simply dish myself. I like eating frying tomatoes with eggs, and I thought it must to be easy to cook. My mom told me how to preparing it. First I cut the tomatoes into pieces but put them aside. Next I broke the eggs into a bowl and beat them quickly with chopstick. After that I poured oil into a pan and turned off the stove. I waited patiently unless the oil was hot. Then I put the tomatoes and the beaten eggs into pan together. “Not that way,” my mom tried to stop us but failed. She was right. It didn’t tum out as I had wished.

第二节书面表达(满分25分)

你校正在组织英语作文比赛。请以身边值得尊敬和爱戴的人为题,写一篇短文参赛,内容包括:

1.人物简介;

2. 尊敬和爱戴的原因。

注意:1. 词数100左右;

2.短文题目和首句已为你写好。

2020年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(全国卷I)

参考答案

第二部分阅读理解

第一节

21. C 22. B 23. B 24. D 25.B 26. B 27. A 28. C 29. D 30. A

31.B 32. D 33.A 34. C 35. C

第二节

36. B 37. F 38. D 39. C 40. A

第三部分 语言知识运用

第一节

41. C 42. A 43. B 44. D 45. A 46. D 47. C 48. B 49. A 50. D

51.B 52. C 53. B 54.A 55. D 56. B 57. A 58.C 59. D 60. C

第二节

61. touched 62. extremely 63. where 64. interest 65. than

66. to find 67. means 68. is constructed 69. much 70. its

第四部分写作

第一节 Today I tried cooking a s s i imply mple dish myself. I like eating frying fried

tomatoes with eggs, and I thought it must to be easy to cook. My mom told me how to

preparing prepare it. First I cut the tomatoes into pieces but and

put them aside. Next I broke the eggs into a bowl and beat them quickly with chopstick chopsticks . After that I poured oil into a pan and turned off on

the stove, I waited patiently

unless until/till the oil was hot. Then I put the tomatoes and the beaten eggs into the

pan together. “Not that way,” my mom tried to stop us me but failed. She was right. It didn't tum out as I had wished.

第二节 书面表达

2018年高考英语全国1卷含答案解析和简单解析

绝密★启封前 2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(新课标I) 英语 注意事项: 1.答题前,先将自己的、号填写在试题卷和答题卡上,并将号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定 位置。用2B铅笔将答题卡上试卷类型A后的方框涂黑。 2.选择题的作答:每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑,写 在试题卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。 3.非选择题的作答:用签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域。写在试题卷、草稿纸和答 题卡上的非答题区域均无效。 4.考试结束后,请将本试题卷和答题卡一并上交。 第Ⅰ卷 第一部分听力(共两节,满分 30 分) 做题时,现将答案标在试卷上,录音容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到 答题卡上。 第一节(共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分) 听下面 5 段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的 A,B,C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一 小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例: How much is the shirt? A.£ 19.15 B.£ 9.18 C.£ 9.15 答案是 C。 1.What are the speakers talking about? A. Having a birthday party. B. Doing some exercise. C. Getting Lydia a gift 2.What is the woman going to do? A. Help the man. B. Take a bus. C. Get a camera 3.What does the woman suggest the man do? A. Tell Kate to stop. B. Call Kate, s friends. C. Stay away from Kate.

2014年高考英语全国1卷听力(录音+原文+答案)

2014年高考英语全国1卷听力(录音+原文+答案) 听力下载 链接:https://https://www.360docs.net/doc/c2179424.html,/s/15fBZw6-1yj309FrPWC-lBg 提取码:1234 2014全国卷听力试题 第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分) 做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例:How much is the shirt? A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15. 答案是C。 1. What does the woman want to do? A. Find a place. B. Buy a map. C. Get an address.

2. What will the man do for the woman? A. Repair her car. B. Give her a ride. C. Pick up her aunt. 3. Who might Mr. Peterson be? A. A new professor. B. A department head. C. A company director. 4. What does the man think of the book? A. Quite difficult. B. Very interesting. C. Too simple. 5. What are the speakers talking about? A. Weather. B. Clothes. C. News. 第二节(共15小题,每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。 6. Why is Harry unwilling to join the woman? A. He has a pain in his knee.

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Chemistry. 听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。 8. What is the man? A. A hotel manager. B. A tour guide. C. A taxi driver. 9. What is the man doing for the woman? A. Looking for some local foods. B. Showing her around the seaside. C. Offering information about a hotel. 听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。 10. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In an office. B. At home. C. At a restaurant. 11. What will the speakers do tomorrow evening? A. Go to a concert. B. Visit a friend. C. Work extra hours. 12. Who is Alice going to call? A. Mike. B. Joan. C. Catherine. 听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。 13. Why does the woman meet the man? A. To look at an apartment. B. To deliver some furniture. C. To have a meal together. 14. What does the woman like about the carpet? A. Its color. B. Its design. C. Its quality. 15. What does the man say about the kitchen? A. It’s a good size. B. It’s newly painted. C.It’s equately equipped. 16. What will the woman probably do next? A. Go downtown. B. Talk with her friend. C. Make payment. 听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。 17. Who is the speaker probably talking to? A. Movie fans. B. News reporters. C. College students. 18. When did the speaker take English classes? A. Before he left his hometown. BAter he came to America C. When he was 15 years old. 19. How does the speaker feel about his teacher? A. He’s proud. B. He’s sympathetic. C. He’s grateful. 20. What does the speaker mainly talk about? A. How education shaped his life. B. How his language skills improved. C. How he managed his business well. 第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。 A Washington, D.C. Bicycle Tours Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. Duration: 3 hours This small group bike tour is a fantastic way to see the world-famous cherry trees with beautiful flowers of Washington, D.C. Your guide will provide a history lesson about the trees and the famous monuments where they blossom. Reserve your spot before availability – and the cherry blossoms – disappear! Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour Duration: 3 hours (4 miles) Join a guided bike tour and view some of the most popular monuments in Washington, D.C. Explore the monuments and memorials on the National Mall as your guide shares unique facts and history at each stop. Guided tour includes bike, helmet, cookies and bottled water. Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. Duration: 3 hours Morning or Afternoon, this bike tour is the perfect tour for D.C. newcomers and locals looking to experience Washington, D.C. in a healthy way with minimum effort. Knowledgeable guides will entertain you with the most interesting stories about Presidents, Congress, memorials, and parks. Comfortable bikes and a smooth tour route (路线) make cycling between the sites fun and relaxing. Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour Duration: 3 hours (7 miles) Join a small group bike tour for an evening of exploration in the heart of Washington, D.C. Get up close to the monuments and memorials as you bike the sites of Capitol Hill and the National Mall. Frequent stops are made for photo taking as your guide offers unique facts and history. Tour includes bike, helmet, and bottled water. All riders are equipped with reflective vests and safety lights. 21. Which tour do you need to book in advance? A. Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. B. Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour. C. Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. D. Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour. 22. What will you do on the Capital City Bike Tour? A. Meet famous people. B. Go to a national park. C. Visit well-known museums. D. Enjoy interesting stories. 23. Which of the following does the bicycle tour at night provide? A. City maps. B. Cameras C. Meals. D. Safety lights. B Good Morning Britain’s Susanna Reid is used to grilling guests on the sofa every morning, but she is cooking up a storm in her latest role – showing families how to prepare delicious and nutritious meals on a tight budget. In Save Money: Good Food, she visits a different home each week and with the help of chef Matt Tebbutt offers top tips on how to reduce food waste, while preparing recipes for under £5 per family a day. And the Good Morning Britain presenter says she’s been able to put a lot of what she’s learnt into practice in her own home, preparing meals for sons, Sam, 14, Finn, 13, and Jack, 11. “We love Mexican churros, so I buy them on my phone from my local Mexican takeaway restaurant,” she explains. “I pay £5 for a p ortion (一份), but Matt makes them for 26p a portion, because they are flour, water, sugar and oil. 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He assists her in cooking matters. D. He invites guest families for her. 26. What does the author intend to do in paragraph 4? A. Summarize the previous paragraphs. B. Provide some advice for the readers. C. Add some background information. D. Introduce a new topic for discussion. 27. What can be a suitable title for the text? A. Keeping Fit by Eating Smart B. Balancing Our Daily Diet C. Making Yourself a Perfect Chef D. Cooking Well for Less C Languages have been coming and going for thousands of years, but in recent times there has been less coming and a lot more going. When the world was still populated by hunter-gatherers, small, tightly knit (联系) groups developed their own patterns of speech independent of each other. Some language experts believe that 10,000 years ago, when the world had just five to ten million people, they spoke perhaps 12,000 languages between them. Soon afterwards, many of those people started settling down to become farmers, and their languages too became more settled and fewer in number. In recent centuries, trade, industrialisation, the development of the nation-state and the spread of universal compulsory education, especially globalisation and better communications in the past few decades, all have caused many languages to disappear, and dominant languages such as English, Spanish and Chinese are increasingly taking over. At present, the world has about 6,800 languages. The distribution of these languages is hugely uneven. The general rule is that mild zones have relatively few languages, often spoken by many people, while hot, wet zones have lots, often spoken by small numbers. Europe has only around 200 languages; the Americas about 1,000; Africa 2,400; and Asia and the Pacific perhaps 3,200, of which Papua New Guinea alone accounts for well over 800. The median number (中位数) of speakers is a mere 6,000, which means that half the world’s languages are spoken by fewer people than that. Already well over 400 of the total of 6,800 languages are close to extinction (消亡), with only a few elderly speakers left. Pick, at random, Busuu in Cameroon (eight remaining speakers), Chiapaneco in Mexico (150), Lipan Apache in the United States (two or three) or Wadjigu in Australia (one, with a question-mark): none of these seems to have much chance of survival. 28. What can we infer about languages in hunter-gatherer times? A. They developed very fast. B. They were large in number. 英语试题第1页

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(完整word版)2018年高考英语全国1卷及答案.doc

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Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour Duration: 3 hours (7 miles) Join a small group bike tour for an evening of exploration in the heart of Washington, D.C. Get up close to the monuments and memorials as you bike the sites of Capitol Hill and the National Mall. Frequent stops are made for photo taking as your guide offers unique facts and history. Tour includes bike, helmet, and bottled water. All riders are equipped with reflective vests and safety lights. 21.Which tour do you need to book in advance? A.Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. B.Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour. C.Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. D.Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour. 22.What will you do on the Capital City Bike Tour? A. Meet famous people. B. Go to a national park. C. Visit well-known museums. D. Enjoy interesting stories. 23. Which of the following does the bicycle tour at night provide? A. City maps. B. Cameras C. Meals. D. Safety lights. B Good Morning Britain ’ Susanna Reid is used to morning, but she is cooking up a storm in her latest role delicious and nutritious meals on a tight budget. In Save Money: Good Food , she visits a different h chef Matt Tebbutt offers top tips on how to reduce food w under£5per family a day. And the Good Morning Brit put a lot of what she’ s learnt into practice in her Finn, 13, and Jack, 11. “ Welove Mexican churros, so I buy them on m takeaway restaurant,” she explains.“ I payo 26p a portion, because they are flour, water, sugar and but sometimes we’ re not aware how cheaply we ca The eight-part series ( 系列节目 ), Save Money: Go ITV ’ sSave Money: Good Health , which gave viewers vast range of health products on the market. With food our biggest weekly household expense, S different family each week. In tonight’ s Easte of some delicious inspiration on a budget. The team tran celebration with less expensive but still tasty recipes. 24. What do we know about Susanna Reid? A. She enjoys embarrassing her guests. C. She dislikes working early in the morning. D. She 25. How does Matt Tebbutt help Susanna? A. He buys cooking materials for her. C. He assists her in cooking matters. 26. What does the author intend to do in paragraph 4? A. Summarize the previous paragraphs.B C. Add some background information. D. 27. What can be a suitable title for the text? A. Keeping Fit by Eating Smart C. Making Yourself a Perfect Chef C Languages have been coming and going for thous has been less coming and a lot more going. When th gatherers, small, tightly knit ( 联系) groups deve independent of each other. Some language experts be world had just five to ten million people, they spoke perh Soon afterwards, many of those people started set languages too became more settled and fewer in numbe industrialisation, the development of the nation-state and education, especially globalisation and better communic have caused many languages to disappear, and domina and Chinese are increasingly taking over. At present, the world has about 6,800 languages. T hugely uneven. The general rule is that mild zones have many people, while hot, wet zones have lots, often spok around 200 languages; the Americas about 1,000; Africa 3,200, of which Papua New Guinea alone accounts for w 数 ) of speakers is a mere 6,000, which means that half fewer people than that. Already well over 400 of the total of 6,800 language only a few elderly speakers left. Pick, at random, Busuu speakers), Chiapaneco in Mexico (150), Lipan Apache i Wadjigu in Australia (one, with a question-mark): none o survival. 28. What can we infer about languages in hunter-gather A. They developed very fast.

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