投资学课后答案
《证券投资学》课后习题答案
《证券投资学》课后习题答案第一章证券市场概述1、什么是投资？实体投资与金融投资、直接金融与间接金融、直接金融投资与间接金融投资的区别在哪里？答：投资是经济主体为了获得未来的收益而垫支资本转换为资产的过程，这一结果因存在风险而存在不确定性。
实体投资是指对设备、建筑物等固定资产的购置以形成新的生产能力。
其最终的结果是增加了社会物质财富和经济总量。
金融投资是指投资者为了获得收益而通过银行存款，购买股票、债券等金融资产方式让渡资金使用权以获取收入行为过程。
直接金融是融资方与投资方不通过金融中介而直接融通资金的方式，间接金融是融资方与投资方通过金融中介而间接融通资金的方式，二者的区别是资金融通过程中是否有中介机构的参与并与投资者产生契约关系，在间接融资中，投资银行只起帮助其中一方寻找或撮合适当的另一方以实现融资的委托代理关系的作用。
直接金融投资是投资者通过在资本市场直接买卖股票、债券等由筹资者发行的基础证券以获得收益的投资方式，而间接金融投资指投资者不直接购买股票、债券等有价证券，他们购买银行存单、基金、信托产品或金融衍生产品以间接的获取收益。
直接金融投资者可以参加股东大会或债权人大会，了解发行公司信息较为容易，而间接金融投资者无这些特权。
2、什么是证券？其特征有哪些？可以分成几类？答：证券是一种凭证，它表明持有人有权依凭证所记载的内容取得相应的权益并具有法律效力。
按权益是否可以带来收益，证券可以分为有价证券和无价证券。
有价证券可分为广义有价证券和狭义有价证券。
广义有价证券分为商品证券、货币市场证券、和资本证券三种，狭义有价证券仅指资本证券。
证券的基本特征主要如下：1.所有权特征。
该特征指有价证券持有人依所持有的证券份额或数量大小对相应的资产拥有一定的所有权。
2.收益性特征。
指证券持有人可以通过转让资本的使用权而获取一定数额的资本收益。
3.流通性特征。
指证券持有人可以在规定的场所按自己的意愿快速地转让证券以换取现金。
投资学课后答案解析APT
投资学课后答案解析APTChapter 10 Arbitrage Pricing Theory and Multifactor Models of Risk andReturn Multiple Choice Questions1. ___________ a relationship between expected return and risk.A. APT stipulatesB. CAPM stipulatesC. Both CAPM and APT stipulateD. Neither CAPM nor APT stipulateE. No pricing model has found2. Consider the multifactor APT with two factors. Stock A has an expected return of 17.6%, a beta of 1.45 on factor 1 and a beta of .86 on factor 2. The risk premium on the factor 1 portfolio is3.2%. The risk-free rate of return is 5%. What is the risk-premium on factor 2 if no arbitrage opportunities exit?A. 9.26%B. 3%C. 4%D. 7.75%E. 9.75%3. In a multi-factor APT model, the coefficients on the macro factors are often called ______.A. systemic riskB. factor sensitivitiesC. idiosyncratic riskD. factor betasE. both factor sensitivities and factor betas4. In a multi-factor APT model, the coefficients on the macro factors are often called ______.A. systemic riskB. firm-specific riskC. idiosyncratic riskD. factor betasE. unique risk5. In a multi-factor APT model, the coefficients on the macro factors are often called ______.A. systemic riskB. firm-specific riskC. idiosyncratic riskD. factor loadingsE. unique risk6. Which pricing model provides no guidance concerning the determination of the risk premium on factor portfolios?A. The CAPMB. The multifactor APTC. Both the CAPM and the multifactor APTD. Neither the CAPM nor the multifactor APTE. No pricing model currently exists that provides guidance concerning the determination of the risk premium on any portfolio7. An arbitrage opportunity exists if an investor can constructa __________ investment portfolio that will yield a sure profit.A. small positiveB. small negativeC. zeroD. large positiveE. large negative8. The APT was developed in 1976 by ____________.A. LintnerB. Modigliani and MillerC. RossD. SharpeE. Fama9. A _________ portfolio is a well-diversified portfolio constructed to have a beta of 1 on one of the factors and a beta of 0 on any other factor.A. factorB. marketC. indexD. factor and marketE. factor, market, and index10. The exploitation of security mispricing in such a way that risk-free economic profits may be earned is called ___________.A. arbitrageB. capital asset pricingC. factoringD. fundamental analysisE. technical analysis11. In developing the APT, Ross assumed that uncertainty in asset returns was a result ofA. a common macroeconomic factor.B. firm-specific factors.C. pricing error.D. neither common macroeconomic factors nor firm-specific factors.E. both common macroeconomic factors and firm-specific factors.12. The ____________ provides an unequivocal statement on the expected return-beta relationship for all assets, whereas the_____________ implies that this relationship holds for all but perhaps a small number of securities.A. APT; CAPMB. APT; OPMC. CAPM; APTD. CAPM; OPME. APT and OPM; CAPM13. Consider a single factor APT. Portfolio A has a beta of 1.0 and an expected return of 16%. Portfolio B has a beta of 0.8 and an expected return of 12%. The risk-free rate of return is 6%. If you wanted to take advantage of an arbitrage opportunity, you should take a short position in portfolio __________ and a long position in portfolio _______.A. A; AB. A; BC. B; AD. B; BE. A; the riskless asset14. Consider the single factor APT. Portfolio A has a beta of 0.2 and an expected return of 13%. Portfolio B has a beta of 0.4 and an expected return of 15%. The risk-free rate of return is 10%. If you wanted to take advantage of an arbitrage opportunity, you should take a short position in portfolio _________ and a long position in portfolio _________.A. A; AB. A; BC. B; AD. B; BE. No arbitrage opportunity exists.15. Consider the one-factor APT. The variance of returns onthe factor portfolio is 6%. The beta of a well-diversified portfolio on the factor is 1.1. The variance of returns on the well-diversified portfolio is approximately __________.A. 3.6%B. 6.0%C. 7.3%D. 10.1%E. 8.6%16. Consider the one-factor APT. The standard deviation of returns on awell-diversified portfolio is 18%. The standard deviation on the factor portfolio is 16%. The beta of the well-diversified portfolio is approximately __________.A. 0.80B. 1.13C. 1.25D. 1.56E. 0.9317. Consider the single-factor APT. Stocks A and B have expected returns of 15% and 18%, respectively. The risk-free rate of return is 6%. Stock B has a beta of 1.0. If arbitrage opportunities are ruled out, stock A has a beta of__________.A. 0.67B. 1.00C. 1.30D. 1.69E. 0.7518. Consider the multifactor APT with two factors. Stock A has an expected return of 16.4%, a beta of 1.4 on factor 1 and abeta of .8 on factor 2. The risk premium on the factor 1 portfolio is 3%. The risk-free rate of return is 6%. What is the risk-premium on factor 2 if no arbitrage opportunities exit?A. 2%B. 3%C. 4%D. 7.75%E. 6.89%19. Consider the multifactor model APT with two factors. Portfolio A has a beta of 0.75 on factor 1 and a beta of 1.25 on factor 2. The risk premiums on the factor 1 and factor 2 portfolios are 1% and 7%, respectively. The risk-free rate of return is 7%. The expected return on portfolio A is __________ if no arbitrage opportunities exist.A. 13.5%B. 15.0%C. 16.5%D. 23.0%E. 18.7%20. Consider the multifactor APT with two factors. The risk premiums on the factor 1 and factor 2 portfolios are 5% and 6%, respectively. Stock A has a beta of 1.2 on factor 1, and a beta of 0.7 on factor 2. The expected return on stock A is 17%. If no arbitrage opportunities exist, the risk-free rate of return is ___________.A. 6.0%B. 6.5%C. 6.8%D. 7.4%E. 7.7%21. Consider a one-factor economy. Portfolio A has a beta of 1.0 on the factor and portfolio B has a beta of 2.0 on the factor. The expected returns on portfolios A and B are 11% and 17%, respectively. Assume that the risk-free rate is 6% and that arbitrage opportunities exist. Suppose you invested $100,000 in the risk-free asset, $100,000 in portfolio B, and sold short $200,000 of portfolio A. Your expected profit from this strategy would be______________.A. ?$1,000B. $0C. $1,000D. $2,000E. $1,60022. Consider the one-factor APT. Assume that two portfolios,A and B, are well diversified. The betas of portfolios A andB are1.0 and 1.5, respectively. The expected returns on portfolios A and B are 19% and 24%, respectively. Assuming no arbitrage opportunities exist, the risk-free rate of return must be ____________.A. 4.0%B. 9.0%C. 14.0%D. 16.5%E. 8.2%23. Consider the multifactor APT. The risk premiums on the factor 1 and factor 2 portfolios are 5% and 3%, respectively. The risk-free rate of return is 10%. Stock A has an expected return of 19% and a beta on factor 1 of 0.8. Stock A has a beta on factor 2 of ________.B. 1.50C. 1.67D. 2.00E. 1.7324. Consider the single factor APT. Portfolios A and B have expected returns of 14% and 18%, respectively. The risk-free rate of return is 7%. Portfolio A has a beta of 0.7. If arbitrage opportunities are ruled out, portfolio B must have a beta of __________.A. 0.45B. 1.00C. 1.10D. 1.22E. 1.33There are three stocks, A, B, and C. You can either invest in these stocks or short sell them. There are three possible states of nature for economic growth in the upcoming year; economic growth may be strong, moderate, or weak. The returns for the upcoming year on stocks A, B, and C for each of these states of nature are given below:25. If you invested in an equally weighted portfolio of stocksA and B, your portfolio return would be ___________ if economic growth were moderate.A. 3.0%C. 15.5%D. 16.0%E. 17.0%26. If you invested in an equally weighted portfolio of stocksA and C, your portfolio return would be ____________ if economic growth was strong.A. 17.0%B. 22.5%C. 30.0%D. 30.5%E. 25.6%。
投资学习题参考答案1
第1章投资概述一、单项选择题1、C2、A3、D4、C二、是非判断题1、√2、√3、√4、×5、√6、×三、多项选择题1、ABDE2、ABCE3、AB4、ABDE第2章市场经济与投资决定一、单项选择题1、B2、D3、A二、是非判断题1、√2、×3、√4、×5、√6、×7、√三、多项选择题1、ACE2、ABC3、ABDE4、ABCDE第3章习题参考答案单项选择题1、C2、B3、A4、A5、B6、D7、C8、B9、D 10、D 11、B 12、A 13、B 14、D 15、B 16、D 17、A 18、C 19、A 20、A 21、C 22、C 多项选择题ABC ABCD ABC ABCD ABCD AD CD AD ABCD10、ABCD11、ABCD12、ABCD13、ABCD14、AC15、ABC判断题1、√2、√3、×4、√5、×6、×7、√8、×9、×10、√11、√第4章习题参考答案单项选择题1、D2、C3、B4、B5、A6、B7、A8、A9、A 10、B 11、B 12、D 13、B 14、A 15、D 16、B 17、D 18、A 19 B 20、D多项选择题ACDE ABCDE AB ABCDE BCD ABCD AB ABDE BCD10、ABCD11、ABD12、ABCD13、ABDE14、BE15、BCE判断题1、√2、√3、×4、×5、√6、×7、×8、√9、√10、×11、√12、×13、×14、×15、×第5章思考题参考答案一、选择题1、ABCD2、ABCE3、B4、B5、B四、计算题1．a．设该债券的名义收益率为r，则：103.67*（1+r ）20=1000r = (1000/103.67) (1/20) -1= 12%b ．虽然该债券将未来的货币量锁定为1000，但是在20年之后货币的购买力会发生变化，导致投资者从名义上固定的货币量中所获得的实际财富会发生变化，因此该债券不是一种无风险的投资。
《证券投资学》课后练习题9 大题答案
第九章证券投资技术分析主要理论与方法二、名词解释K线、开盘价、收盘价、最高价、最低价、阳线、阴线、影线、跳空、空头、多头、支撑线、压力线、趋势线、轨道线、黄金分割线、百分比线、速度线、甘氏线、反转形态、整理形态、头肩顶、头肩底、双重底、双重顶、三重底、三重顶、圆形底、圆形顶、三角形、矩形、楔形、旗形、喇叭形、菱形、V形、突破、随机漫步理论、循环周期理论、相反理论。
1. K线：Ｋ线图最早是日本德川幕府时代大阪的米商用来记录当时一天、一周或一月中米价涨跌行情的图示法，后被引入股市。
Ｋ线图有直观、立体感强、携带信息量大的特点，蕴涵着丰富的东方哲学思想，能充分显示股价趋势的强弱、买卖双方力量平衡的变化，预测后市走向较准确，是应用较多的技术分析手段。
2. 开盘价：目前我国股票市场采用集合竞价的方式产生开盘价。
3. 收盘价：是多空双方经过一段时间的争斗后最终达到的共识，是供需双方最后的暂时平衡点，具有指明价格的功能。
4. 最高价：是交易过程中出现的最高的价格。
5. 最低价：是交易过程中出现的最低的价格。
6. 阳线：收盘价高于开盘价时用空（或红）实体表示，称为阳线。
7. 阴线：开盘价高于收盘价时用黑（或蓝）实体表示，称为阴线。
8. 影线：影线表示高价和低价。
9. 跳空：股价受利多或利空影响后，出现较大幅度上下跳动的现象。
大小所决定．10、空头：空头是投资者和股票商认为现时股价虽然较高，但对股市前景看坏，预计股价将会下跌，于是把借来的股票及时卖出，待股价跌至某一价位时再买进，以获取差额收益。
空头指的是变为股价已上涨到了最高点，很快便会下跌，或当股票已开始下跌时，认为还会继续下跌，趁高价时卖出的投资者。
采用这种先卖出后买进、从中赚取差价的交易方式称为空头。
人们通常把股价长期呈下跌趋势的股票市场称为空头市场，空头市场股价变化的特征是一连串的大跌小涨。
11、多头：多头是指投资者对股市看好，预计股价将会看涨，于是趁低价时买进股票，待股票上涨至某一价位时再卖出，以获取差额收益。
《证券投资学》吴晓求课后习题答案
1简述有价证券的种类和特征。
债券：偿还性、流通性、安全性、收益性股票：不可偿还性、参与性、收益性、流通性、价格的波动性和风险性证券投资基金：1集合理财、专业管理2组合投资、分散风险3利益共享、风险共担4严格监管、信息透明5独立托管、保障安全2股票有哪几种主要类型?（1）按上市地区划分：A股、B股、H股、N股、S股（2）按股票代表的股东权利划分：普通股和优先股（3）其他分类: 记名股票和无记名股票、有票面值股票和无票面值股票、单一股票和复数股票、表决权股票和无表决权股票。
3简述普通股票的基本特征和主要种类。
基本特征：(1) 持有普通股的股东有权获得股利，但必须是在公司支付了债息和优先股的股息之后才能分得。
普通股的股利是不固定的，一般视公司净利润的多少而定。
(2) 当公司因破产或结业而进行清算时，普通股东有权分得公司剩余资产，但普通股东必须在公司的债权人、优先股股东之后才能分得财产。
(3) 普通股东一般都拥有发言权和表决权，即有权就公司重大问题进行发言和投票表决。
普通股东持有一股便有一股的投票权，持有两股者便有两股的投票权。
任何普通股东都有资格参加公司最高级会议在每年一次的股东大会，但如果不愿参加，也可以委托代理人来行使其投票权。
(4) 普通股东一般具有优先认股权，即当公司增发新普通股时，现有股东有权优先(可能还以低价)购买新发行的股票，以保持其对企业所有权的原百分比不变，从而维持其在公司中的权益主要种类：股份有限公司根据有关法规的规定以及筹资和投资者的需要，可以发行不同种类的普通股。
1、按股票有无记名，可分为记名股和不记名股2、按股票是否标明金额，可分为面值股票和无面值股票3、按投资主体的不同，可分为国家股、法人股、个人股等等4、按发行对象和上市地区的不同，又可将股票分为A股、B股、H股和N股等等。
以上第3、4种分类，是我国目前实务中为便于对公司股份来源的认识和股票发行而进行的分类。
在其他一些国家，还有的按是否拥有完全的表决权和获利权，将普通股分为若干级别。
投资学：书上习题及答案
1、投资者有面值1000元、每年息票收入为75元（按年支付）的3年期债券。
息票从现在到一年后做第一次支付。
现在债券价格为975.48元。
已知折现率为10％，那么投资者是保存还是出售这个债券？
解：由债券估值公式可知，债券的理论价格是：
元；
但是这种债券的市场价格是
元，说明这种债券在市场上被高估了，因此投资者应该出售这个债券。
1．一投资者以保证金购买某公司股票1000股，每股40元，原始保证金为50%，最低保证金为30%。
如果股价下跌到30元，实际保证金是多少？在价格下跌到何价位或以下时，会收到补交保证金的通知？
2．一投资者以每股30元卖空某公司1000股股票，原始保证金为50%。
（1）他的保证金账户中有多少资产？
（2）如果股价上涨到35元和下降到28元时，实际保证金是多少？
（3）如果最低保证金为35%，股价上涨到多少时，投资者会收到补交保证金的通知？
3．如果股票的股息为5元，其预期年增长率为6％，而应得回报率
为14%，那么它的内在价值是多少?
4．某公司现时每股股息为2元，预期前3年股息年平均增长率为10%，3年后预期年平均增长率为4％，投资者的应得回报率为8％，那么股票的内在价值是多少?
5．某公司现在每股股息为3元，股息年平均增长率为6％，应得回报率为l0％，计算3年后的股价和现时的内在价值。
投资学习题及其答案
《投资学》习题及答案题1- 4考察的是“均值-方差分析”1.（1） 股票K 和L 的预期收益分别是多少？ （2） 股票K 和L 的标准差分别是多少？ （3） 股票K 和L 的协方差是多少？ （4） 股票K 和L 的相关系数是多少？（5） 如果投资人在股票K 和L 上的投资分别是35%和65%，那么其投资组合的预期收益是多少？（6） 如果投资人在股票K 和L 上的投资分别是35%和65%，那么其投资组合的标准差是多少？源自博迪习题集P31 （1）r̅=∑r i p i n i=1E (r K )=0.1×10% +0.2×11% +0.4×12% +0.2×13% +0.1×14% =12% E (r L )=0.1×9% +0.2×8% +0.4×7% +0.2×6% +0.1×9% =7.4%（2）σi =[ ∑p i (r i −r̅)2n i=1 ]12⁄ σK =[0.1×(10%-12%)2 +0.2×(11%-12%)2 +0.4×(12%-12%)2 +0.2×(13%-12%)2 +0.1×(14%-12%)2 ]1/2 =1.0954%σL =[0.1×(9%-7.4%)2 +0.2×(8%-7.4%)2 +0.4×(7%-7.4%)2 +0.2×(6%-7.4%)2 +0.1×(9%-7.4%)2 ]1/2 =1.0198%（3）cov ij =∑p n (r i,n −r̅i )(rj,n −r̅j )m n=1 cov (r K ,r L )=0.1×(10%-12%)×(9%-7.4%)+0.2×(11%-12%)×(8%-7.4%)+0.4×(12%-12%)×(7%-7.4%)+0.2×(13%-12%)×(6%-7.4%)+0.1×(14%-12%)×(9%-7.4%)=-0.00004（4）ρij =σij σi σj ⁄ρK,L = -0.00004 / (0.010954×0.010198) = -0.3581 （5）E(R p )=R ̅p =∑w i n i r̅i E(R p )=0.35×12% +0.65×7.4% =9.01%（6）σp =[w A 2σA 2+w B 2σB 2+2w A w B σA,B ]1/2σp = [0.352×0.0109542 +0.652×0.0101982 +2×0.35×0.65×(-0.00004)]1/2 =0.6359% 由于负的协方差或相关系数，组合标准差比组合中任意一个证券的标准差都小。
投资学10版习题答案
CHAPTER 14: BOND PRICES AND YIELDSPROBLEM SETS1. a. Catastrophe bond—A bond that allows the issuer to transfer“catastrophe risk” from the firm to the capital markets. Investors inthese bonds receive a compensation for taking on the risk in the form ofhigher coupon rates. In the event of a catastrophe, the bondholders willreceive only part or perhaps none of the principal payment due to themat maturity. Disaster can be defined by total insured losses or by criteriasuch as wind speed in a hurricane or Richter level in an earthquake.b. Eurobond—A bond that is denominated in one currency, usually thatof the issuer, but sold in other national markets.c. Zero-coupon bond—A bond that makes no coupon payments. Investorsreceive par value at the maturity date but receive no interest paymentsuntil then. These bonds are issued at prices below par value, and theinvestor’s return comes from the difference between issue price and thepayment of par value at maturity (capital gain).d. Samurai bond—Yen-dominated bonds sold in Japan by non-Japaneseissuers.e. Junk bond—A bond with a low credit rating due to its high default risk;also known as high-yield bonds.f. Convertible bond—A bond that gives the bondholders an option toexchange the bond for a specified number of shares of common stock ofthe firm.g. Serial bonds—Bonds issued with staggered maturity dates. As bondsmature sequentially, the principal repayment burden for the firm isspread over time.h. Equipment obligation bond—A collateralized bond for which thecollateral is equipment owned by the firm. If the firm defaults on thebond, the bondholders would receive the equipment.i. Original issue discount bond—A bond issued at a discount to the facevalue.j. Indexed bond— A bond that makes payments that are tied to ageneral price index or the price of a particular commodity.k. Callable bond—A bond that gives the issuer the option to repurchase the bond at a specified call price before the maturity date.l. Puttable bond —A bond that gives the bondholder the option to sell back the bond at a specified put price before the maturity date.2. The bond callable at 105 should sell at a lower price because the call provision is more valuable to the firm. Therefore, its yield to maturity should be higher.3.Zero coupon bonds provide no coupons to be reinvested. Therefore, the investor's proceeds from the bond are independent of the rate at which coupons could be reinvested (if they were paid). There is no reinvestment rate uncertainty with zeros.4.A bond’s coupon interest payments and principal repayment are not affected by changes in market rates. Consequently, if market ratesincrease, bond investors in the secondary markets are not willing to pay as much for a claim on a gi ven bond’s fixed interest and principalpayments as they would if market rates were lower. This relationship is apparent from the inverse relationship between interest rates and present value. An increase in the discount rate (i.e., the market rate. decreases the present value of the future cash flows. 5. Annual coupon rate: 4.80% $48 Coupon paymentsCurrent yield:$48 4.95%$970⎛⎫= ⎪⎝⎭6. a.Effective annual rate for 3-month T-bill:%0.10100.0102412.11645,97000,10044==-=-⎪⎭⎫ ⎝⎛b. Effective annual interest rate for coupon bond paying 5% semiannually:(1.05.2—1 = 0.1025 or 10.25%Therefore the coupon bond has the higher effective annual interest rate. 7.The effective annual yield on the semiannual coupon bonds is 8.16%. If the annual coupon bonds are to sell at par they must offer the same yield, which requires an annual coupon rate of 8.16%.8. The bond price will be lower. As time passes, the bond price, which isnow above par value, will approach par.9. Yield to maturity: Using a financial calculator, enter the following:n = 3; PV = -953.10; FV = 1000; PMT = 80; COMP iThis results in: YTM = 9.88%Realized compound yield: First, find the future value (FV. of reinvestedcoupons and principal:FV = ($80 * 1.10 *1.12. + ($80 * 1.12. + $1,080 = $1,268.16Then find the rate (y realized . that makes the FV of the purchase price equal to $1,268.16:$953.10 ⨯ (1 + y realized .3 = $1,268.16 ⇒y realized = 9.99% or approximately 10% Using a financial calculator, enter the following: N = 3; PV = -953.10; FV =1,268.16; PMT = 0; COMP I. Answer is 9.99%.10.a. Zero coupon 8%10% couponcouponCurrent prices $463.19 $1,000.00 $1,134.20b. Price 1 year from now $500.25 $1,000.00 $1,124.94Price increase $ 37.06 $ 0.00 − $ 9.26Coupon income $ 0.00 $ 80.00 $100.00Pretax income $ 37.06 $ 80.00 $ 90.74Pretax rate of return 8.00% 8.00% 8.00%Taxes* $ 11.12 $ 24.00 $ 28.15After-tax income $ 25.94 $ 56.00 $ 62.59After-tax rate of return 5.60% 5.60% 5.52%c. Price 1 year from now $543.93 $1,065.15 $1,195.46Price increase $ 80.74 $ 65.15 $ 61.26Coupon income $ 0.00 $ 80.00 $100.00Pretax income $ 80.74 $145.15 $161.26Pretax rate of return 17.43% 14.52% 14.22%Taxes†$ 19.86 $ 37.03 $ 42.25After-tax income $ 60.88 $108.12 $119.01After-tax rate of return 13.14% 10.81% 10.49%* In computing taxes, we assume that the 10% coupon bond was issued at par and that the decrease in price when the bond is sold at year-end is treated as a capital loss and therefore is not treated as an offset to ordinary income.† In computing taxes for the zero coupon bond, $37.06 is taxed as ordinary income (see part (b); the remainder of the price increase is taxed as a capital gain.11. a. On a financial calculator, enter the following:n = 40; FV = 1000; PV = –950; PMT = 40You will find that the yield to maturity on a semiannual basis is 4.26%.This implies a bond equivalent yield to maturity equal to: 4.26% * 2 =8.52%Effective annual yield to maturity = (1.0426)2– 1 = 0.0870 = 8.70%b. Since the bond is selling at par, the yield to maturity on a semiannualbasis is the same as the semiannual coupon rate, i.e., 4%. The bondequivalent yield to maturity is 8%.Effective annual yield to maturity = (1.04)2– 1 = 0.0816 = 8.16%c. Keeping other inputs unchanged but setting PV = –1050, we find abond equivalent yield to maturity of 7.52%, or 3.76% on a semiannualbasis.Effective annual yield to maturity = (1.0376)2– 1 = 0.0766 = 7.66%12. Since the bond payments are now made annually instead of semiannually,the bond equivalent yield to maturity is the same as the effective annual yield to maturity. [On a financial calculator, n = 20; FV = 1000; PV = –price; PMT = 80]The resulting yields for the three bonds are:Bond Price Bond Equivalent Yield= Effective Annual Yield$950 8.53%1,000 8.001,050 7.51The yields computed in this case are lower than the yields calculatedwith semiannual payments. All else equal, bonds with annual payments are less attractive to investors because more time elapses beforepayments are received. If the bond price is the same with annualpayments, then the bond's yield to maturity is lower.13.Price Maturity(years.BondEquivalentYTM$400.00 20.00 4.688% 500.00 20.00 3.526 500.00 10.00 7.177385.54 10.00 10.000 463.19 10.00 8.000 400.00 11.91 8.00014. a. The bond pays $50 every 6 months. The current price is:[$50 × Annuity factor (4%, 6)] + [$1,000 × PV factor (4%, 6)] = $1,052.42 Alternatively, PMT = $50; FV = $1,000; I = 4; N = 6. Solve for PV = $1,052.42.If the market interest rate remains 4% per half year, price six months from now is:[$50 × Annuity factor (4%, 5)] + [$1,000 × PV factor (4%, 5)] = $1,044.52Alternatively, PMT = $50; FV = $1,000; I = 4; N = 5. Solve for PV = $1,044.52.b. Rate of return $50($1,044.52$1,052.42)$50$7.904.0%$1,052.42$1,052.42+--===15.The reported bond price is: $1,001.250However, 15 days have passed since the last semiannual coupon was paid, so:Accrued interest = $35 * (15/182) = $2.885The invoice price is the reported price plus accrued interest: $1,004.1416. If the yield to maturity is greater than the current yield, then the bond offers the prospect of price appreciation as it approaches its maturity date. Therefore, the bond must be selling below par value.17. The coupon rate is less than 9%. If coupon divided by price equals 9%, and price is less than par, then price divided by par is less than 9%.18.Time Inflation in YearJust EndedPar Value Coupon Payment Principal Repayment 0 $1,000.001 2% 1,020.00 $40.80 $ 0.002 3% $1,050.60 $42.02 $ 0.00 31%$1,061.11$42.44$1,061.11The nominal rate of return and real rate of return on the bond in each year are computed as follows:Nominal rate of return = interest + price appreciationinitial priceReal rate of return = 1 + nominal return1 + inflation - 1Second YearThird YearNominal return 071196.0020,1$60.30$02.42$=+050400.060.050,1$51.10$44.42$=+Real return%0.4040.0103.1071196.1==- %0.4040.0101.1050400.1==- The real rate of return in each year is precisely the 4% real yield on the bond.19.The price schedule is as follows: Year Remaining Maturity (T).Constant Yield Value $1,000/(1.08)TImputed Interest (increase inconstant yield value)0 (now) 20 years$214.551 19 231.71 $17.162 18 250.25 18.54 19 1 925.93 201,000.0074.0720.The bond is issued at a price of $800. Therefore, its yield to maturity is: 6.8245%Therefore, using the constant yield method, we find that the price in one year (when maturity falls to 9 years) will be (at an unchanged yield. $814.60, representing an increase of $14.60. Total taxable income is: $40.00 + $14.60 = $54.6021. a. The bond sells for $1,124.72 based on the 3.5% yield to maturity .[n = 60; i = 3.5; FV = 1000; PMT = 40]Therefore, yield to call is 3.368% semiannually, 6.736% annually. [n = 10 semiannual periods; PV = –1124.72; FV = 1100; PMT = 40]b. If the call price were $1,050, we would set FV = 1,050 and redo part (a) to find that yield to call is 2.976% semiannually, 5.952% annually. With a lower call price, the yield to call is lower.c. Yield to call is 3.031% semiannually, 6.062% annually. [n = 4; PV = −1124.72; FV = 1100; PMT = 40]22. The stated yield to maturity, based on promised payments, equals 16.075%.[n = 10; PV = –900; FV = 1000; PMT = 140]Based on expected reduced coupon payments of $70 annually, theexpected yield to maturity is 8.526%.23. The bond is selling at par value. Its yield to maturity equals the couponrate, 10%. If the first-year coupon is reinvested at an interest rate of rpercent, then total proceeds at the end of the second year will be: [$100 *(1 + r)] + $1,100Therefore, realized compound yield to maturity is a function of r, as shown in the following table:8% $1,208 1208/1000 – 1 = 0.0991 = 9.91%10% $1,210 1210/1000 – 1 = 0.1000 = 10.00%12% $1,212 1212/1000 – 1 = 0.1009 = 10.09%24. April 15 is midway through the semiannual coupon period. Therefore,the invoice price will be higher than the stated ask price by an amountequal to one-half of the semiannual coupon. The ask price is 101.25percent of par, so the invoice price is:$1,012.50 + (½*$50) = $1,037.5025. Factors that might make the ABC debt more attractive to investors,therefore justifying a lower coupon rate and yield to maturity, are:i. The ABC debt is a larger issue and therefore may sell with greaterliquidity.ii. An option to extend the term from 10 years to 20 years is favorable ifinterest rates 10 years from now are lower than today’s interest rates. Incontrast, if interest rates increase, the investor can present the bond forpayment and reinvest the money for a higher return.iii. In the event of trouble, the ABC debt is a more senior claim. It hasmore underlying security in the form of a first claim against realproperty.iv. The call feature on the XYZ bonds makes the ABC bonds relativelymore attractive since ABC bonds cannot be called from the investor.v. The XYZ bond has a sinking fund requiring XYZ to retire part of theissue each year. Since most sinking funds give the firm the option toretire this amount at the lower of par or market value, the sinking fundcan be detrimental for bondholders.26. A. If an investor believes the firm’s credit prospects are poor in the nearterm and wishes to capitalize on this, the investor should buy a creditdefault swap. Although a short sale of a bond could accomplish the same objective, liquidity is often greater in the swap market than it is in theunderlying cash market. The investor could pick a swap with a maturitysimilar to the expected time horizon of the credit risk. By buying theswap, the investor would receive compensation if the bond experiencesan increase in credit risk.27. a. When credit risk increases, credit default swaps increase in valuebecause the protection they provide is more valuable. Credit defaultswaps do not provide protection against interest rate risk however.28. a. An increase in the firm’s times interest-earned ratio decreases thedefault risk of the firm→increases the bond’s price → decreases the YTM.b. An increase in the issuing firm’s debt-equity ratio increases thedefault risk of the firm → decreases the bond’s price → increases YTM.c. An increase in the issuing firm’s quick ratio increases short-runliquidity, → implying a decrease in default risk of the firm → increasesthe bond’s price → decreases YTM.29. a. The floating rate note pays a coupon that adjusts to market levels.Therefore, it will not experience dramatic price changes as marketyields fluctuate. The fixed rate note will therefore have a greater pricerange.b. Floating rate notes may not sell at par for any of several reasons:(i) The yield spread between one-year Treasury bills and othermoney market instruments of comparable maturity could be wider(or narrower. than when the bond was issued.(ii) The credit standing of the firm may have eroded (or improved.relative to Treasury securities, which have no credit risk.Therefore, the 2% premium would become insufficient to sustainthe issue at par.(iii) The coupon increases are implemented with a lag, i.e., onceevery year. During a period of changing interest rates, even thisbrief lag will be reflected in the price of the security.c. The risk of call is low. Because the bond will almost surely not sell for much above par value (given its adjustable coupon rate), it is unlikely that the bond will ever be called.d. The fixed-rate note currently sells at only 88% of the call price, so that yield to maturity is greater than the coupon rate. Call risk iscurrently low, since yields would need to fall substantially for the firm to use its option to call the bond.e. The 9% coupon notes currently have a remaining maturity of 15 years and sell at a yield to maturity of 9.9%. This is the coupon rate thatwould be needed for a newly issued 15-year maturity bond to sell at par.f. Because the floating rate note pays a variable stream of interestpayments to maturity, the effective maturity for comparative purposes with other debt securities is closer to the next coupon reset date than the final maturity date. Therefore, yield-to-maturity is anindeterminable calculation for a floating rate note, with “yield -to-recoupon date” a more meaningful measure of return.30. a. The yield to maturity on the par bond equals its coupon rate, 8.75%.All else equal, the 4% coupon bond would be more attractive because its coupon rate is far below current market yields, and its price is far below the call price. Therefore, if yields fall, capital gains on the bond will not be limited by the call price. In contrast, the 8¾% coupon bond canincrease in value to at most $1,050, offering a maximum possible gain of only 0.5%. The disadvantage of the 8¾% coupon bond, in terms ofvulnerability to being called, shows up in its higher promised yield to maturity.b. If an investor expects yields to fall substantially, the 4% bond offers a greater expected return.c. Implicit call protection is offered in the sense that any likely fallin yields would not be nearly enough to make the firm considercalling the bond. In this sense, the call feature is almost irrelevant.31. a. Initial price P 0 = $705.46 [n = 20; PMT = 50; FV = 1000; i = 8]Next year's price P 1 = $793.29 [n = 19; PMT = 50; FV = 1000; i = 7] HPR %54.191954.046.705$)46.705$29.793($50$==-+=b. Using OID tax rules, the cost basis and imputed interest under theconstant yield method are obtained by discounting bond payments at the original 8% yield and simply reducing maturity by one year at a time: Constant yield prices (compare these to actual prices to compute capital gains.: P 0 = $705.46P 1 = $711.89 ⇒ implicit interest over first year = $6.43P 2 = $718.84 ⇒ implicit interest over second year = $6.95Tax on explicit interest plus implicit interest in first year =0.40*($50 + $6.43) = $22.57Capital gain in first year = Actual price at 7% YTM —constant yield price =$793.29—$711.89 = $81.40Tax on capital gain = 0.30*$81.40 = $24.42Total taxes = $22.57 + $24.42 = $46.99c. After tax HPR =%88.121288.046.705$99.46$)46.705$29.793($50$==--+d. Value of bond after two years = $798.82 [using n = 18; i = 7%; PMT = $50; FV = $1,000]Reinvested income from the coupon interest payments = $50*1.03 + $50 = $101.50Total funds after two years = $798.82 + $101.50 = $900.32Therefore, the investment of $705.46 grows to $900.32 in two years:$705.46 (1 + r )2 = $900.32 ⇒ r = 0.1297 = 12.97%e. Coupon interest received in first year: $50.00Less: tax on coupon interest 40%: – 20.00Less: tax on imputed interest (0.40*$6.43): – 2.57Net cash flow in first year: $27.43The year-1 cash flow can be invested at an after-tax rate of:3% × (1 – 0.40) = 1.8%By year 2, this investment will grow to: $27.43 × 1.018 = $27.92In two years, sell the bond for: $798.82 [n = 18; i = 7%%; PMT =$50; FV = $1,000]Less: tax on imputed interest in second year:– 2.78 [0.40 × $6.95] Add: after-tax coupon interest received in second year: + 30.00 [$50 × (1 – 0.40)]Less: Capital gains tax on(sales price – constant yield value): – 23.99 [0.30 × (798.82 – 718.84)] Add: CF from first year's coupon (reinvested):+ 27.92 [from above]Total $829.97$705.46 (1 + r)2 = $829.97 r = 0.0847 = 8.47%CFA PROBLEMS1. a. A sinking fund provision requires the early redemption of a bond issue.The provision may be for a specific number of bonds or a percentage ofthe bond issue over a specified time period. The sinking fund can retireall or a portion of an issue over the life of the issue.b. (i) Compared to a bond without a sinking fund, the sinking fundreduces the average life of the overall issue because some of thebonds are retired prior to the stated maturity.(ii) The company will make the same total principal payments overthe life of the issue, although the timing of these payments will beaffected. The total interest payments associated with the issue willbe reduced given the early redemption of principal.c. From the investor’s point of view, the key reason for demanding asinking fund is to reduce credit risk. Default risk is reduced by theorderly retirement of the issue.2. a. (i) Current yield = Coupon/Price = $70/$960 = 0.0729 = 7.29%(ii) YTM = 3.993% semiannually, or 7.986% annual bond equivalent yield.On a financial calculator, enter: n = 10; PV = –960; FV = 1000; PMT = 35Compute the interest rate.(iii) Realized compound yield is 4.166% (semiannually), or 8.332% annualbond equivalent yield. To obtain this value, first find the future value(FV) of reinvested coupons and principal. There will be six payments of$35 each, reinvested semiannually at 3% per period. On a financialcalculator, enter:PV = 0; PMT = 35; n = 6; i = 3%. Compute: FV = 226.39Three years from now, the bond will be selling at the par value of $1,000because the yield to maturity is forecast to equal the coupon rate.Therefore, total proceeds in three years will be: $226.39 + $1,000 =$1,226.39Then find the rate (y realized. that makes the FV of the purchaseprice equal to $1,226.39:$960 × (1 + y realized.6 = $1,226.39 y realized = 4.166% (semiannual.Alternatively, PV = −$960; FV = $1,226.39; N = 6; PMT = $0. Solve for I =4.16%.b. Shortcomings of each measure:(i) Current yield does not account for capital gains or losses on bondsbought at prices other than par value. It also does not account forreinvestment income on coupon payments.(ii) Yield to maturity assumes the bond is held until maturity and that all coupon income can be reinvested at a rate equal to the yield to maturity.(iii) Realized compound yield is affected by the forecast ofreinvestment rates, holding period, and yield of the bond at the endof the investor's holding period.3. a. The maturity of each bond is 10 years, and we assume that couponsare paid semiannually. Since both bonds are selling at par value, thecurrent yield for each bond is equal to its coupon rate.If the yield declines by 1% to 5% (2.5% semiannual yield., the Sentinalbond will increase in value to $107.79 [n=20; i = 2.5%; FV = 100; PMT = 3].The price of the Colina bond will increase, but only to the call price of102. The present value of scheduled payments is greater than 102, butthe call price puts a ceiling on the actual bond price.b. If rates are expected to fall, the Sentinal bond is more attractive:since it is not subject to call, its potential capital gains are greater.If rates are expected to rise, Colina is a relatively better investment. Itshigher coupon (which presumably is compensation to investors for thecall feature of the bond. will provide a higher rate of return than theSentinal bond.c. An increase in the volatility of rates will increase the value of thefirm’s option to call back the Colina bond. If rates go down, the firm can call the bond, which puts a cap on possible capital gains. So, greatervolatility makes the option to call back the bond more valuable to theissuer. This makes the bond less attractive to the investor.4. Market conversion value = Value if converted into stock = 20.83 × $28 =$583.24Conversion premium = Bond price – Market conversion value= $775.00 – $583.24 = $191.765. a. The call feature requires the firm to offer a higher coupon (or higherpromised yield to maturity) on the bond in order to compensate theinvestor for the firm's option to call back the bond at a specified priceif interest rate falls sufficiently. Investors are willing to grant thisvaluable option to the issuer, but only for a price that reflects thepossibility that the bond will be called. That price is the higherpromised yield at which they are willing to buy the bond.b. The call feature reduces the expected life of the bond. If interestrates fall substantially so that the likelihood of a call increases,investors will treat the bond as if it will "mature" and be paid off at thecall date, not at the stated maturity date. On the other hand, if ratesrise, the bond must be paid off at the maturity date, not later. Thisasymmetry means that the expected life of the bond is less than thestated maturity.c. The advantage of a callable bond is the higher coupon (and higherpromised yield to maturity) when the bond is issued. If the bond is never called, then an investor earns a higher realized compound yield on acallable bond issued at par than a noncallable bond issued at par on the same date. The disadvantage of the callable bond is the risk of call. Ifrates fall and the bond is called, then the investor receives the call price and then has to reinvest the proceeds at interest rates that are lowerthan the yield to maturity at which the bond originally was issued. Inthis event, the firm's savings in interest payments is the investor's loss.6. a. (iii)b. (iii) The yield to maturity on the callable bond must compensatethe investor for the risk of call.Choice (i) is wrong because, although the owner of a callablebond receives a premium plus the principal in the event of a call,the interest rate at which he can reinvest will be low. The lowinterest rate that makes it profitable for the issuer to call thebond also makes it a bad deal f or the bond’s holder.Choice (ii) is wrong because a bond is more apt to be called wheninterest rates are low. Only if rates are low will there be aninterest saving for the issuer.c. (iii)d. (ii)。
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第一章选择题1-9ABADD CBAC 10 ABC 11ABD 12 ABCD13 ABCD 14 ACD 15 BD 16 AB 17BD思考题 1．投资就是投资主体、投资目的、投资方式和行为内在联系的统一，这充分体现了投资必然与所有权相联系的本质特征。
也就是说，投资是要素投入权、资产所有权、收益占有权的统一。
这是因为：①反映投资与所有权联系的三权统一的本质特征，适用于商品市场经济的一切时空。
从时间上看，无论是商品经济发展的低级阶段还是高度发达的市场经济阶段，投资都无一例外地是要素投入权、资产所有权、收益占有权的统一；从空间上看，无论是在中国还是外国乃至全球范围，投资都无一例外地是这三权的高度统一。
②反映投资与所有权联系的三权统一的本质特征，适用于任何投资种类和形式。
尽管投资的类型多种多样，投资的形式千差万别，但它们都是投资的三权统一。
③反映投资与所有权联系的三权统一本质特征贯穿于投资运动的全过程。
投资的全过程是从投入要素形成资产开始到投入生产，生产出成果，最后凭借对资产的所有权获取收益。
这一全过程实际上都是投资三权统一的实现过程。
④反映投资与所有权联系的三权统一本质特征，是投资区别于其他经济活动的根本标志。
投资的这种本质特征决定着投资的目的和动机，规定着投资的发展方向，决定着投资的运动规律。
这些都使投资与其他经济活动区别开来，从而构成独立的经济范畴和研究领域。
2．金融投资在整个社会经济中的作用来看，金融投资的功能具有共性，主要有以下几个方面：（1）筹资与投资的功能。
这是金融投资最基本的功能。
筹资是金融商品服务筹资主体的功能，投资是金融商品服务投资主体的功能。
社会经济发展的最终决定力量是其物质技术基础，物质技术基础的不断扩大、提高必须依靠实业投资。
（2）分散化与多元化功能。
金融投资促进了投资权力和投资风险分散化，同时又创造了多元化的投资主体集合。
金融投资把投资权力扩大到了整个社会。
（３）自我发展功能。
金融投资具有一种促进自己不断创新和发展的内在机制。
（4）资源配置优化功能。
货币是经济增长的第一推动力和持续动力，因此如筹集货币和分配货币并通过货币的分配而优化整个经济系统的资源配置，是经济运行的首要问题。
金融投资为有效地利用货币资本和优化资源配置提供了条件。
（5）经济运行的调节功能。
金融投资对国民经济运行的反应十分灵敏，能够充分地展现出经济运行的动向。
经济发展前景看好，金融投资的价格就上升。
（６）增值与投机功能。
金融投资本质上是货币资本的运动，货币资本自身具有增值的要求。
金融投资在这里充当其货币资本增值的工具。
投机性，产生于金融商品的性质和市场价格的波动以及相应的交易制度。
3．投资和投机的区别表现在五个方面：（1）交易目的不同。
股票投资者关心的是本金的安全，并在本金安全的基础上获得长期稳定的股息收入；而投机者则期望在短期的价格涨跌中取得资本所得。
（2）持有时间不同。
投机动机的实施者一般持有股票时间都在一年以上；而投机者的持有期限可能只有几月、几周，甚至几天、几小时。
（3）风险倾向不同。
投资动机者的准则是"安全第一"，宁可少一点收益也不愿承担过大的风险。
在选择投资对象时，多看好公司经营状况好，发展前景好，股价稳中有升的股票。
投资动机者则不同，他们多是以"收益第一"作为投资准则，为了可观的收益，宁愿冒很大的风险，所以他们通常热衷于股价波动大的中小公司股票，特别是那些有周期性价格变化规律的股票。
（4）交易方式不同。
从事投资动机的资金主要来源于自身积蓄，在投资实施时伴随着实际的交割，即投资者买卖股票的同时进行货币收付；而用于投机的资金多从他人处借得，其交易方式主要是买空和卖空，并不伴随实际的交割行为。
（5）投资的决策依据不同。
投资行为的做出基于对股票发行公司的分析考察；投机行为则侧重于对市场行情短期变化的预测。
4. 金融投资和实物投资的区别实物投资主要是以实物资产为对象，是投入资金，以建造或购置固定资产和与之相联系的流动资产而取得利益的一种实际资产化的过程。
实物资产是金融资产存在和发展的基础，金融资产的收益最终来源于实物资产在社会再生产过程中的创造。
金融投资都是以货币资金转化为金融资产，都没有实现为实物资产，因而也没有引起社会再生产扩大和社会总投资的增加。
只有当金融投资被直接投资者运用于直接投资时，才使社会总投资增加和社会再生产规模扩大。
但金融投资之所以成为一种重要的投资形式，主要是因为金融投资把社会闲散资金迅速集中起来，从而形成巨额资金流入直接投资者手中，这必然加速和扩大了直接投资的规模，促进了经济的增长。
随着商品经济的充分发展，市场经济的高度完善，银行和信用的作用越来越大，金融市场越来越成熟完善，股份公司越来越普遍，金融投资在聚集投资资金方面的作用也越来越重要。
5．BSV（1996）模型假定投资者在决策时存在两种偏差：一是相似性偏差，即基于近期数据与某种模式(比如股票上升或下降通道)的相似性来预测，过分重视近期数据。
这会造成投资者对新信息反应过度，认为近期股价的变化反映了其未来变化的趋势，从而错误地对价格变化进行外推。
二是保守性偏差，即不能及时根据变化了的情况修正自己的预测，这会造成投资者对新信息反应不足，认为股票收益的变化只是一种暂时现象，投资者未根据收益的变化充分调整对未来收益的预期，当后来的实际收益与先前的预期不符时才进行调整。
投资者在相似性偏差和保守性偏差之间的状态转移遵循贝叶斯法则。
6．随着商品经济的发展，金融投资在市场经济中的作用越来越大，但需要指出，金融投资之所以成为一种重要的投资形式，主要是因为金融投资把社会闲散资金迅速集中起来，从而形成巨额资金流入直接投资者手中，这必然加速和扩大了直接投资的规模，促进了经济的增长。
而且随着我国市场机制的日益完善，银行和信用的作用越来越大，金融市场越来越成熟完善，股份公司越来越普遍，金融投资在聚集投资资金方面的作用也越来越重要。
通过发行股票与债券，使投资主体多元化，聚集了社会上的闲散资金，用于企业的发展，用于赚取利润。
金融投资还为有效的利用货币资本额和优化资源配置提供了条件。
可以说提供了一个渠道与方式。
7．投机是促成市场流动的基本组成部分，在市场经济中发挥着不可欠缺的功能。
它在与投资和其他经济活动正确结合，相互作用的条件下，不仅对市场无害，而且有一定的积极作用。
这在期货市场、证券市场、外汇市场上表现尤为明显。
投机的经济功能主要表现为以下几点：（1）承担交易风险。
在证券和期货市场上，投机者是和保值者相辅相成的。
保值者的目的是为了获得合理的正常的稳定经营收入，因此他们往往利用套头交易等方式逃避风险。
而投机者则是专门承担价格波动风险的，以期通过风险来赚钱。
承担风险已成为投资者的一种专业化职能，没有投机者也就没有风险的承担者。
投机者承受风险才能使旨在保值的投机者能顺利避险。
（2）价格平衡。
在正常情况下市场价格是随着供求关系的变化而上下波动的，供过于求则价格下降，供不应求则价格上升。
而投机者所遵循的原则是低价买、高价卖，当市场供大于求时，价格很低，投机者大量低价购进，吸收剩余，实际上是增加了市场需求，减小了供求缺口，使价格不致下降到过低水平；而当供小于求时，价格很高，投机者大量卖出，客观上增加了市场供给，消除部分短缺，同样减少供求缺口，使价格不致上升到过高水平。
所以，投机行为可以缓和价格波动，使商品的生产者和使用者不致因价格的暴跌或暴涨而蒙受太大的损失，即投机行为可以为生产者和使用者创造一个相对稳定的市场环境。
（3）活跃市场。
体现在一个市场能够迅速地向某一个买方或卖方提供他们要交易的对象；还要在不发生过度的价格波动下，有承受交易的能力，使大量大交易迅速完成。
投机活动在证券、外汇、期货市场上能起到催化与润滑作用，使市场活跃起来，增加市场的流动性。
（4）使相关市场或产品趋于协调。
市场上各商品之间常具有高度相关性。
在一定的市场情况下，这些竞争性商品的价格有一定的比例关系，投机者常仔细研究这种关系。
当一种商品与另一种商品的价格关系脱节时，由于投机者的作用，将会使市场间逐渐恢复一致。
8. 做市商制度的功能①具有市场价格稳定功能。
在做市商制度中，交易的买卖价格由做市商集合市场信息后公布，即使投资者的市场预期不好，报出超低市场价格的卖盘，只要做市商不供给相应的买价，交易就不能形成。
从而做市商可根据自身信息较全面的优势，稳定市场价格，避免由于投资者的不合理市场预期而造成的市场价格大起大落。
②具有保持市场流动性的功能。
做市商在交易中既充当交易的买方又充当交易的卖方，这使市场的交易不会因为交易单边的缺失而中断。
例如，在我国现行的证券市场涨停制度下，有时会出现好的股票买不到，差的股票卖不掉的现象，这就是交易单边缺失而发生的交易中断。
在做市商制度下，做市商依据自身的实力，可以根据市场的需求进行买入和卖出的报价，并且可以针对市场的需求进行单独报价，从而满足投资者的买卖愿望，增强了市场在边缘位置的活跃性。
第二章能力训练答案选择题1-11ADABB BAADCB 12AC 13BC 14ABCD 15ABCD 16ABD 17BCD思考题 1．债券投资所带来的收益有以下3种：①利息收入，除了中央政府或联邦政府发行的债券免税之外，也适用于所得税。
②资本损益，如果有收益的话,适用于资本利得税。
在中国，尚未开征这类税种。
③将利息作再投资所得到的收益。
2．每股净收益突出了相对价值的重要意义。
某家上市公司的税后利润的绝对数即便很高，倘若由于其总股本非常大，每股净收益因此较低的话，该公司股票的市价肯定不会高；反之，每股净收益的数额大则意味着企业有潜力增发股利或增资扩大生产经营规模，公司股票的价格会因此而稳步上升。
3．具有上述复杂资本结构的企业，必须同时列示两个每股净收益的数据：一个�"原始的每股净收益"，即将可转换的有价证券作为一般的公司债券和优先股处理；另一个为"完全稀释后的每股净收益"，即假定全部可转换的公司债券和优先股都按规定的调换比率转化为普通股。
这后一个每股净收益着眼于未来有可能发生的情况，旨在提醒股东们意识到，稀释对他们在公司所有权的比重所具有的潜在影响。
4．意义在于：它一方面衡量了股东们持有该种股票所获得的股息收益的高低情况；另一方面也为投资者揭示了出售这种股票或者放弃购买这种股票而转向别的投资所具有的机会成本。
5．①是贴现率以面值为计算基础，但投资者购买国库券时实际支付的金额小于面值，这也可以理解为投资的利息收益在购买国库券时就已取得；②是所有国库券的持有日都计息，但1年假设只有360天，即它是按365(6)/360方式的欧洲货币法来计息的。
6．到期收益率实际上是基于投资者持有债券直至到期日的假定。