广东省2020年高考英语模拟试题及答案

广东省2020年高考英语模拟试题及答案
广东省2020年高考英语模拟试题及答案

广东省2020年高考英语模拟试题及答案

(试卷满分150分,考试时间120分钟)

考生注意事项:

1.答卷前,着生务必将自已的姓名、准考证号填写在答題卡上。

2.回蓉选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答題卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。

第一部分听力(共20小题;共两节,满分30分) (略)

第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)

第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、BC和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。

A

72 hours in Beijing

Traveling to China is no longer a luxury for many foreign passport holders. The Chinese government has permitted a 72-hour visa-free policy that offers access to visitors from 53 countries including the US, France and Austria. Let’s start with the capital of China, Beijing Here's a pick of the best in Beijing! Mutianyu Great Wall

Your trip to Beijing isn't really complete without seeing one of the “New Seven Wonders of the World”, the Great Wall of China, The Mutia nyu section of the Great Wall is by far the most well-preserved of all. Taking a one hour bus ride, Mutianyu would be your ideal location for a half-day of hiking away from the large crowds in the city. Also, the authorities have allowed tourists to paint graffiti on a specific section of the Great Wall since 2014. The Great Wall was designated a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1987.

798 Art Zone

This would be on the top of my list! Named after the 798 factory that was built in the 1950s, the art zone is home to various galleries, design studios, art exhibition spaces, fashionable shops and bars. You could easily spend half your day wandering around the complex, feeling the contrast of the present and the past.

Summer Palace

Located in northwestern Beijing, th e Summer Palace is by far the city’s most well-preserved royal park. With its huge lake and hilltop views, the palace offers you a pastoral escape into the landscape of traditional Chinese paintings. The Summer Palace was added to the UNESCO World Heritage List in 1998. Sichuan Provincial Restaurant

While in Beijing, apart from trying the city’s best-known Peking duck, the Sichuan provincial restaurant is one of places where you can enjoy regional delicious food. It offers one of China’s eight great cuisines, Sichuan, which ranges from Mapo tofu to spicy chicken.

21. Which of the following is true about the Mutianyu Great Wall?

A. It is the most well-preserved part of the Great Wall.

B. You can paint graffiti anywhere

C. You need a half-day to get there.

D. It was designated a UNESCO World Heritage site in 2014

22. When was the Summer Palace added to the UNESCO World Heritage List?

A. In1950.

B. In 1987

C. In 1998

D. In2014.

23. Which place is the authors first choice when visiting Beijing?

A. Mutianyu Great Wall.

B. Summer Palace.

C. 798 Art Zone

D. Sichuan Provincial Restaurant.

B

TRAIL SAFE! is a unique safety training program designed specifically for National Park Service (NPS) Trail V olunteers, but is useful to everyone! It’s based upon NPS Operational L eadership Training, where the human factor of safety is explored. TRAIL SAFE! captures (捕捉) the core learning objectives of the 16-hour Operational Leadership course while allowing volunteers to learn from their own homes online.

The TRAIL SAFE! series includes eight video lessons, each ranging in length from 18 to 40 minutes long. Watch them over the course of multiple days, or “binge watch” the entire series in three hours—it’s up to you—but please watch them in order from Lesson 1 through Lesson 8. After viewing the lessons, send your training verification (验证) emails to register your participation. When you have viewed and registered for all eight individual lessons, each participant will receive a TRAIL SAFE! pin and a SPE/GAR card in the mail for use in the field. Thank you for helping to make Sleeping Bear Dunes one of the safest work environments for NPS Trail V olunteers like yourself.

Ready to start?

Click on this link to access all TRAIL SAFE! videos: https://https://www.360docs.net/doc/f94395926.html,/iatr/trail-safe.htm

If you require Audio Descriptive versions of TRAIL SAFE!, the link to those videos is also available on the Ice Age Trail site.

Record your participation

In order to receive credits for your participation, please fill in your answers to the following questions and email to: Matthew_https://www.360docs.net/doc/f94395926.html,.

●Which video lesson did you just complete viewing?

●N ame of the Trail where you volunteer.

●Your name and full mailing address, so we may send your course completion materials to you.

●Names and addresses of others if you are viewing this lesson in a group setting.

●Optional: Please let us know any comments or suggestions you have about this lesson.

Upon registering your completion for the entire eight lesson series, you’ll receive your TRAIL SAFE! pin and risk assessment card via mail.

24. What is the aim of TRAIL SAFE!?

A. To develop volunteers’ operational leadership.

B. To offer links to the websites for learning.

C. To provide credits for viewing.

D. To pass the risk assessment.

25. How long does it take the participants to watch the eight videos at a time?

A. 18 minutes.

B. 40 minutes.

C. 3 hours.

D. 16 hours.

26. What should the participants do to get a SPE/GAR card?

A. Watch and register for all the series.

B. Give some comments on the lessons.

C. Send and receive training mails.

D. Answer all of the questions.

27. What can be inferred about the job of NPS Trail V olunteers?

A. It is popular with everyone.

B. It can be dangerous.

C. It shall be completed online.

D. It needs NPS working experience.

C

“Anything you want, anytime you need it.”

The message appeared on computer screens across the country at the same time, on the same day: December 12th, at 12 p.m.. Simultaneously, important looking envelopes containing cards with the same message were hand-delivered to the offices of all the major news companies.

One found its way to the desk of Chris Lin, a business reporter at The Post. The card was beautifully designed – a black background with the words printed out in crisp white letters. There was no explanation on the back, just a website address.Chris went to the website. Its style was identical to the ca rd’s and said: “Anytime: Starting Tomorrow.”

The next day websites and blogs were filled with articles theorising about Anytime. Was it a shopping website like Tao Bao or Amazon? A joke? Something illegal? Anytime’s marketing had worked – it was a househol d name before it’d even made a single sale.

When the opening came, that day at noon, the Anytime website suddenly had a single field that read, “What do you want?” All you had to do was type the words into that box, and then specify how quickly you wanted your item delivered: within one, ten, or twenty-four hours.

Bloggers were the first to test the service. And their reviews were glowing. Within weeks, Anytime had become a part of daily life. Nobody used other delivery sites or the post anymore as Anytime was much cheaper and faster.

Chris still wondered what exactly Anytime was. He tried to find out who owned the company, but it was registered in a small country that did not require such information to be made public. He did find some interesting facts, though. Anyone who challenged the company, it seemed, met with serious trouble. A government official critical of Anytime for avoiding tax was forced to leave his position after news stories suddenly appeared claiming he was dishonest. The head of another company taking Anytime to court died in a car accident just days before the case was to begin.

Chris began making a list of all the people who had something terrible happen to them after opposing or criticising Anytime. By lunch, he had more than one hundred examples. Something was definitely wrong. Chris worked on his list the rest of the day, emailing people who could provide more information and looking through newspaper records. After working through the night, an exhausted Chris finally fell asleep at his desk at 4 a.m..

When he woke a few hours later, there was a message flashing on his computer screen: “Stop making

trouble.” Chris smiled. He had no intention of stopping now that he knew he was on the right track.

28. What was on the front of the card sent to Chris Lin?

A. An invitation to a company opening.

B. The website address of a new company.

C. The words “Anytime:Starting tomorrow”.

D. The words “Anything you want, anytime you need it”.

29. Why did the company choose to send the cards to many news reporters?

A. Because it didn’t have enough money for traditional advertising.

B. Because it wanted to attract the reporters as customers.

C. So the reporters would write stories about the new company.

D. So people would find the new company interesting.

30. What did Chris’ s research suggest about Anytime?

A. It may be very dangerous.

B. Its popularity would soon decrease.

C. It was doing business all over the world.

D. It was being widely criticised by journalists.

31. How did Chris feel at the end of the story?

A. Scared that he would get into trouble.

B. Confident that he would find the truth.

C. Nervous about what the company would do.

D. Satisfied that he had discovered the company’s secret.

D

Connecting with people has become so much easier with advancing technology. Tasks that once required a postage stamp or carrier pigeon are now as simple as tapping a name or even a face on your screen, and you’re connected. But also easier is unconsciously getting caught up in a dilemma by violating certain new r ules for communicating. A big one for some: Don’t call until you’ve texted to confirm it’s OK to call. But that’s just the beginning.

“I’m usually pretty mild and not much bothers me,” said Mark Angielle, a 29-year-old office manager from White Plains, New York. But the one thing that he hates more than anything else in life is the terrible one-word message —“K.” “At the very least reply with, Got it.” he said “At least give me a few words

here. You’re not that busy.”

There are hundreds, perhaps even thousands, of others who have taken Lo social media to express their distaste for people who don’t follow the unwritten rules of digital communication.

“These rules are simply a new display of a phenomenon we’ve seen in the past,” said James Ivory, professor of communication a Virginia Tech. In the same way that generations and small groups of friends have their own slang and customs, internet culture has given birth to technology-dependent beings that have their own unique set of routine.

But not everyone gets the point. Unlike language, digital communication can be filled with ambiguous clues (线索、迹象) that the person on the other end of the call, text or email may or may not easily understand.

“As soon as people aren’t talking face to face, the first thing that gets lost is some of the richness of the body language,” Ivory said, “People immediate ly fill that gap by using emoji (表情符号) to sum up a feeling in seconds.

“There's great potential for danger,” Ivory warned. “What's considered polite in one form might be inappropriate or rude in another occasion.”

32. What can you infer about Mark from Paragraph 2?

A. He is a businessman with a bad temper.

B. He complains about social manners.

C. He can’t bear one- word messages.

D. He dislike a busy business life.

33. According to the text, which of the following breaks the rules for communicating?

A. John says “I got it.” to his boss face to face.

B. Jim calls Bill without confirming in advance.

C. Mary texts Lily to make sure if she can call her.

D. Jack sends “Thanks a lot” to his business friends.

34. Why may people misunderstand each other during digital communication?

A. Emoji cannot sum up feelings.

B. People use their own slang and customs.

C. There are large quantities of written rules.

D. People gets wrong messages without clear clues.

35. What are people expected to do after reading tie passage?

A. To obey their own digital communication rules.

B. To be aware of rules during digital communication.

C. To use advancing technology even with disadvantages.

D. To keep pace with digital communication development.

第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)

根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

What’s the purpose of building patience abilities? In a word, happiness. Better relationships, more success. But indeed it takes efforts to build them successfully. ___36___. Thus, when the big ones come, we will have developed the patience we need for hard times.

Understand the addictive nature of anger and impatience. We, human beings, are still constructed with our old reptilian (爬行动物似的) brain that protects our physical and emotional survival. On the emotional survival side, we want our way to get ahead, to achieve, to “look good.” Let’s just face it. ___37___ So the first step in growing patience is to get in touch with the addictive quality of the opposite of patience—anger, impatience, blaming and shaming. We all have them. And we can grow beyond them.

Upgrade our attitude towards discomfort and pain. Pain has its purposes and pushes us to find solutions—we try to change the other person, situation or thing that we think is causing our discomfort. But the problem is that it is not the outside thing that’s the source of our pain, but how our mind is set.

___38___

Pay attention when the impatience or pain starts. Most of us don’t really realize it when we are feeling even the smallest—but very present—painful feelings. ___39___ But to really care for ourselves, get curious about what’s actually happening in the moment inside you. Focusing on what’s actually happening, you can notice the worry of not wanting what’s happening, the resistance.

___40___ When you find yourself impatient, or angry with yourself, you can remind yourself that you are growing, and that, “Sure, this is understandable; this is what happens to me when I’m bothered.” You can say to yourself, “It’s true. I don’t like this; this is uncomfortable, but I can tolerate it.”

A. Practice positive self-talk.

B. So the solution to pain is an inside job.

C. Patience abilities benefit you in many ways.

D. Learn to forgive yourself for being impatient in hard times.

E. We ignore the fact that we’re in pain and focus completely on fixing the problem.

F. The urge to protect ourselves and what we consider valuable is absolutely habit-forming.

G. Effective ways are recommended to train ourselves to work with little pains and annoyances.

第三部分语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分

第一节(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)

阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

When you think of friends, you often think of those who accompany you for a long time. But there is another kind of ___41___ ---one that does not unfold over a ___42___period of time but springs entirely from a particular___43___

In my eighth grade,there was Jenny. I___44___to stay at her farmhouse with cats and dogs. Eighth grade was a terrible year. We both___45___ it,but we didn't talk about it. On cold winter days,she

___46___ me how she lied on her pony Redwing's back. Then we would ___47___on long journey,riding and walking,She left in ninth grade and I ___48___her. We had gotten each other through a ___49___time.

Anyone with children knows the rapid friendships formed with parallel parents. To Julie, I will be forever ____50____. We met on a ____51____in New Jersey. Her twin boys were about the same

____52____as my daughter. She lived in the beach town. I lived alone with my ____53____ a block away. My husband had left for North Dakota,leaving me to ____54____out what to do ext. Now, ____55____, there was someone I could talk to. For the next weeks,we met at the beach,and I would go

____56____with her so that the ____57____could go on playing. The normal state of her little

home____58____my broken heart.

Such friends as these often ____59____when your own life is off balance;they ____60____you till the world settles on its axis(轴)once again.

41. A. classmate B. friendship C. marriage D. neighbour

42. A. brief B. special C. consistent D. long

43. A. custom B. festival C. ceremony D. moment

44. A. loved B. tended C. attempted D. demanded

45. A. overlooked B. knew C. forgot D. preserved

46. A. inspired B. required C. consulted D. showed

47. A. go out B. make up C. slow down D. fall behind

48. A. followed B. admired C. missed D. forgave

49. A. cheerful B. difficult C. grand D. decisive

50. A. reliable B. merciful C. generous D. grateful

51. A. beach B. farm C. playground D. square

52. A. size B. intelligence C. age D. weight

53. A. daughter B. husband C. sister D. parents

54. A. turn B. puzzle C. point D. carry

55. A. punctually B. ridiculously C. suddenly D. theoretically

56. A. home B. downtown C. shopping D. swimming

57. A. adolescents B. boys C. children D. girls

58. A. ached B. hardened C. comforted D. bled

59. A. withdraw B. arrive C. disappear D. gather

60. A. recommended B. promoted C. tolerated D. supported

第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)

阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式

According to Xinhua News Agency, the Palace Museum and Huawei signed a strategic cooperation agreement on March 15. The two sides will set an example ___61___ 5G application.

The Palace Museum received more than 17 million visitors in 2018, ___62___(make) it the most visited museum in the world. In the past 20 years, an office information network covering the whole museum ___63___(build) gradually. The museum has developed an App that provides an in-depth

___64___(explain) of cultural relic information and cultural services. Also, the museum has research on the application of VR, AR, AI and other ___65___(technique) in museums.

___66___signing of the agreement marks a new chapter in the strategic cooperation between the Palace Museum and Huawei Technologies Co. So, Huawei will make efforts ___67___(accelerate) the intelligent construction of the Palace Museum.

"The 600-year-old Palace Museum has never been so close to science and technology," Shan Jixiang said ___68___(proud), director of the Palace Museum.

Shan shared many ideas about the 5G Palace Museum. With the help of advanced technology,

___69___is expected that in the future, audiences around the world will be able to experience and visit the Palace Museum, whether it is a field trip or a virtual tour. Also, the use of AI technology provides a

___70___(broad) platform and stronger knowledge support for cultural relics among young people.

第四部分写作(共两节,满分35分)

第一节短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

71.假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。

修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。

Yesterday we took part a tree planting activity organised by our class. Early-in the morning, we set out for Bantou Reservoir in Xiamen, When we were arrived there, we began to work immediately. Firstly, we dug holes that are slightly larger than the root balls. Next, we gentle placed the trees into our new homes. After that, we refilled the holes use enough soil to support the root. Finally, we watered the trees. Three hours passed by after we knew it. Tired as we were, we felt exciting, talking and laughing all the way home. How an unforgettable experience!

第二节书面表达(满分25分)

72.校学生会计划举办“汉语桥”活动,你受学生会委托写一则通知,邀请你校美国留学生参加此活动。内容包括:

1. 介绍活动的意义;

2. 邀请美国留学生参加动员会the pep rally;

3. 动员会的时间、地点。

注意:

1. 词数100左右;

2. 可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;

3. 开头和结语已为你写好。

Notice

Dear overseas students from America

______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________

The Students’ Union

参考答案

第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分) (略)

第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)

第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)

21. A 22. C 23. C 24. A 25. C 26. A 27. B 28. D 29. C 30. A

31. B 32. C 33. B 34. D 35. B

第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)

36. G 37. F 38. B 39. E 40. A

第三部分语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分

第一节(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)

41. B 42. D 43. D 44. A 45. B 46. D 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. D

51. A 52. C 53. A 54. B 55. C 56. A 57. C 58. C 59. B 60. D

第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)

61. to/for 62. making 63. has been built 64. explanation 65. techniques

66. The 67. to accelerate 68. proudly 69. it 70. broader

第四部分写作(共两节,满分35分)

第一节短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

71 改错依次为:

(1)在pat和a之间加in (2)去掉arrived前的were (3)are →were

(4)gentle →gently(5)our →their (6)use →using (7)root →roots

(8)after →before (9)exciting →excited (10)How →What

第二节书面表达(满分25分)

72.范文:

Dear American overseas students,

Here comes the news that Chinese Bridge series activities will be held in our school. So all of participants are warmly welcome in the pep rally to get fully prepared for the follow-ups.

Themed at promoting Chinese culture around the world, Chinese Bridge acts as a platform to help narrow the gap of mutual understanding about China. Whoever is actively involved in it will develop a positive awareness of Chinese and its culture behind. Based on it, the pep rally is scheduled in our school auditorium from 14:00pm-15:00pm next Friday afternoon.

Please make sure you are available at that time and join us.

Student’s Union

【高考指导】2019高考英语考试时间及分数分配指南

一定要看!2019高考英语考试时间及分数分配指南 高考马上就要来临,考生必须提前掌握好答题时间分配及策略,下面是老师给同学们提供的英语学科考试时间分配建议,大家请务必结合自身情况,提前安排自己的答题习惯,做好心理建设和思想准备。 分值比例 答题策略 一、听力篇 A.直接在对话中听到的一般不是正确答案。如果选项中出现一些日常生活中不太可能发生或很少发生的事情一般不会是正确选项。 B.通常要办的事情都是不顺利,如买东西买不到,订房间客满等。借车一般是借不到的。匹萨海鲜吃了一般会有不适反应。 C.一般男生提出的观点女生都不同意或有不同看法,反之女生提出的观点男生都是同意和赞赏的。 男生的特征:脏、乱、差、浪费、穷、小气 女生的特征:爱干净、节约、富有、好学、能干、耐心、恋家 休闲时,男生一般喜欢待在家里看TV 或者看movie 女生一般喜欢高雅艺术如theater

D.考试、作业、论文一般比较难或须要熬夜。老师一般比较严厉。听讲座的 题目一般是比较有趣丰富的,内容一般是比较复杂难懂的。作文一般需要修改polish或重写rewrite。 E.坐车、飞机、轮船一般都需要等。事故、灾难、一般不会死人。医院需要预约make an appointment。 F.后句比前句重要,回答比提问重要。 G.若选项中个别单词或短语被明显播读,此项多为错项。同义词替换选项, 正确可能性大。 二、阅读篇 很多同学在阅读理解中,都错在了关键的第一步——审题上。那么到底如何看题干,我们应该看哪里?大部分同学知道,用时间,大写词去定位, 但其实这只是最基本的定位信息。 A.看似松散,一般每篇只有四个问题,实则考查对文章中心思想的把握能力。 B.看似粗线条,根据文中具体信息便可判断正确答案,实则考查句意理解的精确度。 C. 抓住关键句,每段的首句大抵是本段的关键句。 七选五 A.从答案出发,再到文章。通常为议论文,着眼每个小标题。小标题就可以决定选项。 B.一定要既能承上,又能启下,才是最佳答案。关键词很重要,但也可能 是陷阱。 三、完形填空篇 1.先纵观全文大意。 2.选择答案,如果遇上不会的单词,从你会的单词去排除。 3.通常高考英语的完形填空不存在词性的选择,选项的词性基本保持一致的。

2010广东高考英语试题及答案

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高考英语时间这么分配最合理,给你安排得明明白白! 其实高考英语必备的那些技巧,你必须得掌握的、最基本的就是答题时,高考英语时间如何分配的问题了。 你想啊,如果你做题慢慢吞吞的,写作文时只剩下10分钟时间了,就算你作文水平再高,连构思带动笔,10分钟也够呛。所以,控制每道题的答题时间,不要留下“会做而没时间做”的遗憾。 上面是一个时间表,先让大家对时间分配有个大致的了解,下面会讲各题型基本情况和如何提高答题时间的方法。 【资料推荐】

我下面要说的方法相当于兵器,但想要打好高考这场硬仗,你还要实战演练,就是要做题。而且我每次讲完方法,都会有同学要我推荐资料,这次干脆直接放上来了。 这次推荐的真题书是巨微英语《高考英语历年真题逐句精解》,里面有9套卷子,都是逐词逐句精解的,每个句子都会画图讲解语法结构,就算是长难句,也能轻松看懂,重点单词也会单独标注,每次对答案时看到,印象都会更深一点儿。尤其推荐给英语基础弱的同学。 【方法篇——如何提高答题速度,缩短答题时间?】 1、听力 在高考英语时间分配中,只有听力的时间是固定的。在听听力时,你的记忆就像鱼一样,只有7秒,听完就忘了。不可能都听完半小时了,

你突然想起了听力的一个答案选错了,也没法再回去检查。所以听力要抓住当时,听完马上勾选项。 做听力时,首先,要预览问题和选项,圈出关键词,比如人名、事件等,这样听的时候心里更有底气,也更容易捕捉到正确答案。跟别人用时一样,但正确率更高。 2、阅读理解 阅读理解有2种题型,一是给完整文章,读完做选择题;二是给文章挖空,让你七选五。其实它们难度差不多,算下来就是5篇阅读,平均每篇7分钟。 很多同学抱怨高考英语时间不够用,就是阅读拖了后腿。你可以掐表计算一下,看你做一篇阅读大概要用时多久。 7分钟,时间很短,尤其在考场上,一晃就过去了。很多英语基础差的同学,就喜欢一句一句往过读,不会的单词句子也不知道跳过,7分钟可能连文章都没读完。所以,学会找关键词和跳读的技巧很重要,具体步骤如下:

2010高考英语单选汇总(全)

2010 全国卷I / 新课标卷 21 ---Have you finished reading Jane Eyre? ---No, I_____ my homework all day yesterday. A . was doing B . would do C . had done D . do Key. A 22. The workers _____the glasses and marked on each box “This Side Up” A. carried B. delivered C. pressed D. packed Key. D 23. I?ll spend half of my holiday practicing English and ___ half learning drawing. A. another B. the other C. other?s D. other Key. B 24. As a child, Jack studied in a village school, ___ is named after his grandfather. A. which B. where C. what D. that Key. A 25.Mary made coffee ____ her guests were finishing their meal. A. so that B although C. while D. as if Key. C 26. I have seldom seen my mother ____pleased with my progress as she is now. A. so B. very C. too D. rather key. A 27. Mrs. White showed her students some old maps ____from the library. A. to borrow B. to be borrowed C. borrowed D. borrowing key. C 28. When you are home, give a call to let me know you ____safely. A. are arriving B. have arrived C. had arrived D. will arrive Key. B 29. Just be patient .You_____ expect the world to change so soon. A. can?t B. needn?t C. may not D. will not Key. A 30. The little boy won?t go to sleep ______his mother tells him a story. A. or B. unless C. but D. whether Key. B 31.—Everybody is going to climb the mountain. Can I go too, mom? —______ Wait till you are old enough, dear. A.Will you? B.Why not? C.I hope so. D.I?m afraid not. Key. D 32.The discovery of gold in Australia led thousands to believe that a fortune _______. A.is made B.would make C.was to be made D.had made Key. C 33.We haven?t discussed yet _____we are going to place our new furniture. A.that B.which C.what D.where Key. D 34.With Father?s Day around the corner, I ha ve taken some money out of the bank_____ presents for my dad.

2010年高考英语试题及答案(广东卷)

绝密前启用试卷类型:A 2010年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(广东卷) 英语 本试卷共12页,四大题,满分150分。考试用时120分钟。 注意事项: 1.答卷前,考生务必用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名和考生号、试室号、座位号填 写在答题卡上。用2B铅笔将试卷类型(A)填涂在答题卡相应位置上。将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处”。 2.选择题每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑,如需改 动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案,答案不能答在试卷上。 3.非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答,答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应 位置上;如需改动,先划掉原来的答案,然后再写上新的答案;不准使用铅笔和涂改液。 不按以上要求作答的答案无效。 4.考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后,将试卷和答题卡一并交回。 I 听力(共两节,满分35分) 第一节听力理解(5段,共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分) 每段播放两遍。各段后有几个小题,各段播放前每小题有5秒钟的阅读时间。请根 据各段播放内容及其相关小题,在5秒钟内从题中所给的A、B、C项中,选出最 佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 听第一段对话,回答1-3题。 1.Why does the man want to borrow the women’s notes? A .He missed the classes. B.He is not satisfied with his notes. C.He has not taken any notes in class. 2. When does the man feel sleepy? A.On his way to class. B.At the beginning of class. C.Thirty minutes after class begins.

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