国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter 8

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国际财务管理(英文版)课后习题答案9

CHAPTER 8 MANAGEMENT OF TRANSACTION EXPOSURE SUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS ANDPROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. How would you define transaction exposure? How is it different from economic exposure?Answer: Transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency values of the firm‟s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpected changes in exchange rates. Unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term.2. Discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure using the forward contract vs. money market instruments. When do the alternative hedging approaches produce the same result?Answer: Hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling or buying foreign currency receivables or payables forward. On the other hand, money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables, thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions. If the interest rate parity is holding, the two hedging methods are equivalent.3. Discuss and compare the costs of hedging via the forward contract and the options contract.Answer: There is no up-front cost of hedging by forward contracts. In the case of options hedging, however, hedgers should pay the premiums for the contracts up-front. The cost of forward hedging, however, may be realized ex post when the hedger regrets his/her hedging decision.4. What are the advantages of a currency options contract as a hedging tool compared with the forward contract?Answer: The main advantage of using options contracts for hedging is that the hedger can decide whether to exercise options upon observing the realized future exchange rate. Options thus provide a hedge against ex post regret that forward hedger might have to suffer. Hedgers can only eliminate the downside risk while retaining the upside potential.5. Suppose your company has purchased a put option on the German mark to manage exchange exposure associated with an account receivable denominated in that currency. In this case, your company can be said to have an …insurance‟ policy on its receivable. Explain in what sense this is so.Answer: Your company in this case knows in advance that it will receive a certain minimum dollar amount no matter what might happen to the $/€exchange rate. Furthermore, if the German mark appreciates, your company will benefit from the rising euro.6. Recent surveys of corporate exchange risk management practices indicate that many U.S. firms simply do not hedge. How would you explain this result?Answer: There can be many possible reasons for this. First, many firms may feel that they are not really exposed to exchange risk due to product diversification, diversified markets for their products, etc. Second, firms may be using self-insurance against exchange risk. Third, firms may feel that shareholders can diversify exchange risk themselves, rendering corporate risk management unnecessary.7. Should a firm hedge? Why or why not?Answer: In a perfect capital market, firms may not need to hedge exchange risk. But firms can add to their value by hedging if markets are imperfect. First, if management knows about the firm‟s exposure better than shareholders, the firm, not its shareholders, should hedge. Second, firms may be able to hedge at a lower cost. Third, if default costs are significant, corporate hedging can be justifiable because it reduces the probability of default. Fourth, if the firm faces progressive taxes, it can reduce tax obligations by hedging which stabilizes corporate earnings.8. Using an example, discuss the possible effect of hedging on a firm‟s tax obligations.Answer: One can use an example similar to the one presented in the chapter.9. Explain contingent exposure and discuss the advantages of using currency options to manage this type of currency exposure.Answer: Companies may encounter a situation where they may or may not face currency exposure. In this situation, companies need options, not obligations, to buy or sell a given amount of foreign exchange they may or may not receive or have to pay. If companies either hedge using forward contracts or do not hedge at all, they may face definite currency exposure.10. Explain cross-hedging and discuss the factors determining its effectiveness.Answer: Cross-hedging involves hedging a position in one asset by taking a position in another asset. The effectiveness of cross-hedging would depend on the strength and stability of the relationship between the two assets.PROBLEMS1. Cray Research sold a super computer to the Max Planck Institute in Germany on credit and invoiced €10 million payable in six months. Currently, the six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€ and the foreign exchange advisor for Cray Research predicts that the spot rate is likely to be $1.05/€ in six months.(a) What is the expected gain/loss from the forward hedging?(b) If you were the financial manager of Cray Research, would you recommend hedging this euro receivable? Why or why not?(c) Suppose the foreign exchange advisor predicts that the future spot rate will be the same as the forward exchange rate quoted today. Would you recommend hedging in this case? Why or why not?Solution: (a) Expected gain($) = 10,000,000(1.10 – 1.05)= 10,000,000(.05)= $500,000.(b) I would recommend hedging because Cray Research can increase the expected dollar receipt by $500,000 and also eliminate the exchange risk.(c) Since I eliminate risk without sacrificing dollar receipt, I still would recommend hedging.2. IBM purchased computer chips from NEC, a Japanese electronics concern, and was billed ¥250 million payable in three months. Currently, the spot exchange rate is ¥105/$ and the three-month forward rate is ¥100/$. The three-month money market interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the U.S. and 7 percent per annum in Japan. The management of IBM decided to use the money market hedge to deal with this yen account payable.(a) Explain the process of a money market hedge and compute the dollar cost of meeting the yen obligation.(b) Conduct the cash flow analysis of the money market hedge.Solution: (a). Let‟s first compute the PV of ¥250 million, i.e.,250m/1.0175 = ¥245,700,245.7So if the above yen amount is invested today at the Japanese interest rate for three months, the maturity value will be exactly equal to ¥25 million which is the amount of payable.To buy the above yen amount today, it will cost:$2,340,002.34 = ¥250,000,000/105.The dollar cost of meeting this yen obligation is $2,340,002.34 as of today.(b)___________________________________________________________________Transaction CF0 CF1____________________________________________________________________1. Buy yens spot -$2,340,002.34with dollars ¥245,700,245.702. Invest in Japan - ¥245,700,245.70 ¥250,000,0003. Pay yens - ¥250,000,000Net cash flow - $2,340,002.34____________________________________________________________________3. You plan to visit Geneva, Switzerland in three months to attend an international business conference. You expect to incur the total cost of SF 5,000 for lodging, meals and transportation during your stay. As of today, the spot exchange rate is $0.60/SF and the three-month forward rate is $0.63/SF. You can buy the three-month call option on SF with the exercise rate of $0.64/SF for the premium of $0.05 per SF. Assume that your expected future spot exchange rate is the same as the forward rate. The three-month interest rate is 6 percent per annum in the United States and 4 percent per annum in Switzerland.(a) Calculate your expected dollar cost of buying SF5,000 if you choose to hedge via call option on SF.(b) Calculate the future dollar cost of meeting this SF obligation if you decide to hedge using a forward contract.(c) At what future spot exchange rate will you be indifferent between the forward and option market hedges?(d) Illustrate the future dollar costs of meeting the SF payable against the future spot exchange rate under both the options and forward market hedges.Solution: (a) Total option premium = (.05)(5000) = $250. In three months, $250 is worth $253.75 = $250(1.015). At the expected future spot rate of $0.63/SF, which is less than the exercise price, you don‟t expect to exercise options. Rather, you expect to buy Swiss franc at $0.63/SF. Since you are going to buy SF5,000, you expect to spend $3,150 (=.63x5,000). Thus, the total expected cost of buying SF5,000 will be the sum of $3,150 and $253.75, i.e., $3,403.75.(b) $3,150 = (.63)(5,000).(c) $3,150 = 5,000x + 253.75, where x represents the break-even future spot rate. Solving for x, we obtain x = $0.57925/SF. Note that at the break-even future spot rate, options will not be exercised.(d) If the Swiss franc appreciates beyond $0.64/SF, which is the exercise price of call option, you will exercise the option and buy SF5,000 for $3,200. The total cost of buying SF5,000 will be $3,453.75 = $3,200 + $253.75.This is the maximum you will pay.4. Boeing just signed a contract to sell a Boeing 737 aircraft to Air France. Air France will be billed €20 million which is payable in one year. The current spot exchange rate is $1.05/€ and the one -year forward rate is $1.10/€. The annual interest rate is 6.0% in the U.S. and5.0% in France. Boeing is concerned with the volatile exchange rate between the dollar and the euro and would like to hedge exchange exposure. (a) It is considering two hedging alternatives: sell the euro proceeds from the sale forward or borrow euros from the Credit Lyonnaise against the euro receivable. Which alternative would you recommend? Why?(b) Other things being equal, at what forward exchange rate would Boeing be indifferent between the two hedging methods?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the future dollar proceeds will be (20,000,000)(1.10) = $22,000,000. In the case of money market hedge (MMH), the firm has to first borrow the PV of its euro receivable, i.e., 20,000,000/1.05 =€19,047,619. Then the firm should exchange this euro amount into dollars at the current spot rate to receive: (€19,047,619)($1.05/€) = $20,000,000, which can be invested at the dollar interest rate for one year to yield:$20,000,000(1.06) = $21,200,000.Clearly, the firm can receive $800,000 more by using forward hedging.(b) According to IRP, F = S(1+i $)/(1+i F ). Thus the “indifferent” forward rate will be:F = 1.05(1.06)/1.05 = $1.06/€. $ Cost Options hedge Forward hedge $3,453.75 $3,150 0 0.579 0.64 (strike price) $/SF$253.755. Suppose that Baltimore Machinery sold a drilling machine to a Swiss firm and gave the Swiss client a choice of paying either $10,000 or SF 15,000 in three months.(a) In the above example, Baltimore Machinery effectively gave the Swiss client a free option to buy up to $10,000 dollars using Swiss franc. What is the …implied‟ exercise exchange rate?(b) If the spot exchange rate turns out to be $0.62/SF, which currency do you think the Swiss client will choose to use for payment? What is the value of this free option for the Swiss client?(c) What is the best way for Baltimore Machinery to deal with the exchange exposure?Solution: (a) The implied exercise (price) rate is: 10,000/15,000 = $0.6667/SF.(b) If the Swiss client chooses to pay $10,000, it will cost SF16,129 (=10,000/.62). Since the Swiss client has an option to pay SF15,000, it will choose to do so. The value of this option is obviously SF1,129 (=SF16,129-SF15,000).(c) Baltimore Machinery faces a contingent exposure in the sense that it may or may not receive SF15,000 in the future. The firm thus can hedge this exposure by buying a put option on SF15,000.6. Princess Cruise Company (PCC) purchased a ship from Mitsubishi Heavy Industry. PCC owes Mitsubishi Heavy Industry 500 million yen in one year. The current spot rate is 124 yen per dollar and the one-year forward rate is 110 yen per dollar. The annual interest rate is 5% in Japan and 8% in the U.S. PCC can also buy a one-year call option on yen at the strike price of $.0081 per yen for a premium of .014 cents per yen.(a) Compute the future dollar costs of meeting this obligation using the money market hedge and the forward hedges.(b) Assuming that the forward exchange rate is the best predictor of the future spot rate, compute the expected future dollar cost of meeting this obligation when the option hedge is used.(c) At what future spot rate do you think PCC may be indifferent between the option and forward hedge?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the dollar cost will be 500,000,000/110 = $4,545,455. In the case of money market hedge, the future dollar cost will be: 500,000,000(1.08)/(1.05)(124)= $4,147,465.(b) The option premium is: (.014/100)(500,000,000) = $70,000. Its future value will be $70,000(1.08) = $75,600.At the expected future spot rate of $.0091(=1/110), which is higher than the exercise of $.0081, PCC will exercise its call option and buy ¥500,000,000 for $4,050,000 (=500,000,000x.0081).The total expected cost will thus be $4,125,600, which is the sum of $75,600 and $4,050,000.(c) When the option hedge is used, PCC will spend “at most” $4,125,000. On the other hand, when the forward hedging is used, PCC will have to spend $4,545,455 regardless of the future spot rate. This means that the options hedge dominates the forward hedge. At no future spot rate, PCC will be indifferent between forward and options hedges.7. Airbus sold an aircraft, A400, to Delta Airlines, a U.S. company, and billed $30 million payable in six months. Airbus is concerned with the euro proceeds from international sales and would like to control exchange risk. The current spot exchang e rate is $1.05/€ and six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€ at the moment. Airbus can buy a six-month put option on U.S. dollars with a strike price of €0.95/$ for a premium of €0.02 per U.S. dollar. Currently, six-month interest rate is 2.5% in the euro zone and 3.0% in the U.S.pute the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale if Airbus decides to hedge using aforward contract.b.If Airbus decides to hedge using money market instruments, what action does Airbus need to take?What would be the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale in this case?c.If Airbus decides to hedge using put options on U.S. dollars, what would be the …expected‟ europroceeds from the American sale? Assume that Airbus regards the current forward exchange rate as an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate.d.At what future spot exchange rate do you think Airbus will be indifferent between the option andmoney market hedge?Solution:a. Airbus will sell $30 million forward for €27,272,727 = ($30,000,000) / ($1.10/€).b. Airbus will borrow the present value of the dollar receivable, i.e., $29,126,214 = $30,000,000/1.03, and then sell the dollar proceeds spot for euros: €27,739,251. This is the euro amount that Airbus is going to keep.c. Since th e expected future spot rate is less than the strike price of the put option, i.e., €0.9091< €0.95, Airbus expects to exercise the option and receive €28,500,000 = ($30,000,000)(€0.95/$). This is gross proceeds. Airbus spent €600,000 (=0.02x30,000,000) upfr ont for the option and its future cost is equal to €615,000 = €600,000 x 1.025. Thus the net euro proceeds from the American sale is €27,885,000, which is the difference between the gross proceeds and the option costs.d. At the indifferent future spot rate, the following will hold:€28,432,732 = S T (30,000,000) - €615,000.Solving for S T, we obtain the “indifference” future spot exchange rate, i.e., €0.9683/$, or $1.0327/€.Note that €28,432,732 is the future value of the proceeds under money market hed ging:€28,432,732 = (€27,739,251) (1.025).Suggested solution for Mini Case: Chase Options, Inc.[See Chapter 13 for the case text]Chase Options, Inc.Hedging Foreign Currency Exposure Through Currency OptionsHarvey A. PoniachekI. Case SummaryThis case reviews the foreign exchange options market and hedging. It presents various international transactions that require currency options hedging strategies by the corporations involved. Seven transactions under a variety of circumstances are introduced that require hedging by currency options. The transactions involve hedging of dividend remittances, portfolio investment exposure, and strategic economic competitiveness. Market quotations are provided for options (and options hedging ratios), forwards, and interest rates for various maturities.II. Case Objective.The case introduces the student to the principles of currency options market and hedging strategies. The transactions are of various types that often confront companies that are involved in extensive international business or multinational corporations. The case induces students to acquire hands-on experience in addressing specific exposure and hedging concerns, including how to apply various market quotations, which hedging strategy is most suitable, and how to address exposure in foreign currency through cross hedging policies.III. Proposed Assignment Solution1. The company expects DM100 million in repatriated profits, and does not want the DM/$ exchange rate at which they convert those profits to rise above 1.70. They can hedge this exposure using DM put options with a strike price of 1.70. If the spot rate rises above 1.70, they can exercise the option, while ifthat rate falls they can enjoy additional profits from favorable exchange rate movements.To purchase the options would require an up-front premium of:DM 100,000,000 x 0.0164 = DM 1,640,000.With a strike price of 1.70 DM/$, this would assure the U.S. company of receiving at least:DM 100,000,000 – DM 1,640,000 x (1 + 0.085106 x 272/360)= DM 98,254,544/1.70 DM/$ = $57,796,791by exercising the option if the DM depreciated. Note that the proceeds from the repatriated profits are reduced by the premium paid, which is further adjusted by the interest foregone on this amount.However, if the DM were to appreciate relative to the dollar, the company would allow the option to expire, and enjoy greater dollar proceeds from this increase.Should forward contracts be used to hedge this exposure, the proceeds received would be:DM100,000,000/1.6725 DM/$ = $59,790,732,regardless of the movement of the DM/$ exchange rate. While this amount is almost $2 million more than that realized using option hedges above, there is no flexibility regarding the exercise date; if this date differs from that at which the repatriate profits are available, the company may be exposed to additional further current exposure. Further, there is no opportunity to enjoy any appreciation in the DM.If the company were to buy DM puts as above, and sell an equivalent amount in calls with strike price 1.647, the premium paid would be exactly offset by the premium received. This would assure that the exchange rate realized would fall between 1.647 and 1.700. If the rate rises above 1.700, the company will exercise its put option, and if it fell below 1.647, the other party would use its call; for any rate in between, both options would expire worthless. The proceeds realized would then fall between:DM 100,00,000/1.647 DM/$ = $60,716,454andDM 100,000,000/1.700 DM/$ = $58,823,529.This would allow the company some upside potential, while guaranteeing proceeds at least $1 million greater than the minimum for simply buying a put as above.Buy/Sell OptionsDM/$Spot Put Payoff “Put”Profits Call Payoff“Call”Profits Net Profit1.60 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.61 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.62 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.63 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.64 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 1.65 (1,742,846) 60,606,061 1,742,846 0 60,606,061 1.66 (1,742,846) 60,240,964 1,742,846 0 60,240,964 1.67 (1,742,846) 59,880,240 1,742,846 0 59,880,240 1.68 (1,742,846) 59,523,810 1,742,846 0 59,523,810 1.69 (1,742,846) 59,171,598 1,742,846 0 59,171,598 1.70 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.71 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.72 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.73 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.74 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.75 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.76 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.77 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.78 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.79 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.80 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.81 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.82 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.83 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.84 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 1.85 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529Since the firm believes that there is a good chance that the pound sterling will weaken, locking them into a forward contract would not be appropriate, because they would lose the opportunity to profit from this weakening. Their hedge strategy should follow for an upside potential to match their viewpoint. Therefore, they should purchase sterling call options, paying a premium of:5,000,000 STG x 0.0176 = 88,000 STG.If the dollar strengthens against the pound, the firm allows the option to expire, and buys sterling in the spot market at a cheaper price than they would have paid for a forward contract; otherwise, the sterling calls protect against unfavorable depreciation of the dollar.Because the fund manager is uncertain when he will sell the bonds, he requires a hedge which will allow flexibility as to the exercise date. Thus, options are the best instrument for him to use. He can buy A$ puts to lock in a floor of 0.72 A$/$. Since he is willing to forego any further currency appreciation, he can sell A$ calls with a strike price of 0.8025 A$/$ to defray the cost of his hedge (in fact he earns a net premium of A$ 100,000,000 x (0.007234 –0.007211) = A$ 2,300), while knowing that he can‟t receive less than 0.72 A$/$ when redeeming his investment, and can benefit from a small appreciation of the A$.Example #3:Problem: Hedge principal denominated in A$ into US$. Forgo upside potential to buy floor protection.I. Hedge by writing calls and buying puts1) Write calls for $/A$ @ 0.8025Buy puts for $/A$ @ 0.72# contracts needed = Principal in A$/Contract size100,000,000A$/100,000 A$ = 1002) Revenue from sale of calls = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,573 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007234 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)3) Total cost of puts = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,332 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007211 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)4) Put payoffIf spot falls below 0.72, fund manager will exercise putIf spot rises above 0.72, fund manager will let put expire5) Call payoffIf spot rises above .8025, call will be exercised If spot falls below .8025, call will expire6) Net payoffSee following Table for net payoff Australian Dollar Bond HedgeStrikePrice Put Payoff “Put”Principal Call Payoff“Call”Principal Net Profit0.60 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.61 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.62 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.63 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.64 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.65 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.66 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.67 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.68 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.69 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.70 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.71 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.72 (75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,2410.73 (75,332) 73,000,000 75,573 0 73,000,2410.74 (75,332) 74,000,000 75,573 0 74,000,2410.75 (75,332) 75,000,000 75,573 0 75,000,2410.76 (75,332) 76,000,000 75,573 0 76,000,2410.77 (75,332) 77,000,000 75,573 0 77,000,2410.78 (75,332) 78,000,000 75,573 0 78,000,2410.79 (75,332) 79,000,000 75,573 0 79,000,2410.80 (75,332) 80,000,000 75,573 0 80,000,2410.81 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.82 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.83 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.84 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2410.85 (75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,2414. The German company is bidding on a contract which they cannot be certain of winning. Thus, the need to execute a currency transaction is similarly uncertain, and using a forward or futures as a hedge is inappropriate, because it would force them to perform even if they do not win the contract.Using a sterling put option as a hedge for this transaction makes the most sense. For a premium of:12 million STG x 0.0161 = 193,200 STG,they can assure themselves that adverse movements in the pound sterling exchange rate will not diminish the profitability of the project (and hence the feasibility of their bid), while at the same time allowing the potential for gains from sterling appreciation.5. Since AMC in concerned about the adverse effects that a strengthening of the dollar would have on its business, we need to create a situation in which it will profit from such an appreciation. Purchasing a yen put or a dollar call will achieve this objective. The data in Exhibit 1, row 7 represent a 10 percent appreciation of the dollar (128.15 strike vs. 116.5 forward rate) and can be used to hedge against a similar appreciation of the dollar.For every million yen of hedging, the cost would be:Yen 100,000,000 x 0.000127 = 127 Yen.To determine the breakeven point, we need to compute the value of this option if the dollar appreciated 10 percent (spot rose to 128.15), and subtract from it the premium we paid. This profit would be compared with the profit earned on five to 10 percent of AMC‟s sales (which would be lost as a result of the dollar appreciation). The number of options to be purchased which would equalize these two quantities would represent the breakeven point.Example #5:Hedge the economic cost of the depreciating Yen to AMC.If we assume that AMC sales fall in direct proportion to depreciation in the yen (i.e., a 10 percent decline in yen and 10 percent decline in sales), then we can hedge the full value of AMC‟s sales. I have assumed $100 million in sales.1) Buy yen puts# contracts needed = Expected Sales *Current ¥/$ Rate / Contract size9600 = ($100,000,000)(120¥/$) / ¥1,250,0002) Total Cost = (# contracts)(contract size)(premium)$1,524,000 = (9600)( ¥1,250,000)($0.0001275/¥)3) Floor rate = Exercise – Premium128.1499¥/$ = 128.15¥/$ - $1,524,000/12,000,000,000¥4) The payoff changes depending on the level of the ¥/$ rate. The following table summarizes thepayoffs. An equilibrium is reached when the spot rate equals the floor rate.AMC ProfitabilityYen/$ Spot Put Payoff Sales Net Profit 120 (1,524,990) 100,000,000 98,475,010 121 (1,524,990) 99,173,664 97,648,564 122 (1,524,990) 98,360,656 96,835,666 123 (1,524,990) 97,560,976 86,035,986 124 (1,524,990) 96,774,194 95,249,204 125 (1,524,990) 96,000,000 94,475,010 126 (1,524,990) 95,238,095 93,713,105 127 (847,829) 94,488,189 93,640,360 128 (109,640) 93,750,000 93,640,360 129 617,104 93,023,256 93,640,360 130 1,332,668 92,307,692 93,640,360 131 2,037,307 91,603,053 93,640,360 132 2,731,269 90,909,091 93,640,360 133 3,414,796 90,225,664 93,640,360 134 4,088,122 89,552,239 93,640,360 135 4,751,431 88,888,889 93,640,360 136 5,405,066 88,235,294 93,640,360 137 6,049,118 87,591,241 93,640,360 138 6,683,839 86,966,522 93,640,360 139 7,308,425 86,330,936 93,640,360 140 7,926,075 85,714,286 93,640,360 141 8,533,977 85,106,383 93,640,360 142 9,133,318 84,507,042 93,640,360 143 9,724,276 83,916,084 93,640,360 144 10,307,027 83,333,333 93,640,360 145 10,881,740 82,758,621 93,640,360 146 11,448,579 82,191,781 93,640,360 147 12,007,707 81,632,653 93,640,360 148 12,569,279 81,081,081 93,640,360 149 13,103,448 80,536,913 93,640,360 150 13,640,360 80,000,000 93,640,360。

国际财务管理(英文版) 第11版马杜拉答案 Chapter 8

Chapter 8Relationships Among Inflation,Interest Rates, and Exchange Rates Lecture OutlinePurchasing Power Parity (PPP)Interpretations of PPPRationale Behind PPP TheoryDerivation of PPPUsing PPP to Estimate Exchange Rate EffectsGraphic Analysis of PPPTesting the PPP TheoryWhy PPP Does Not OccurPPP in the Long RunInternational Fisher Effect (IFE)Implications of the IFE for Foreign InvestorsDerivation of the IFEGraphic Analysis of the IFETests of the IFEWhy the IFE Does Not OccurComparison of IRP, PPP, and IFE TheoriesChapter ThemeThis chapter discusses the relationship between inflation and exchange rates according to the purchasing power parity (PPP) theory. Since this is one of the most popular subjects in inter-national finance, it is covered thoroughly. While PPP is a relevant theory, it should be emphasized that PPP will not always hold in reality. It does however, provide a foundation in understanding how inflation can affect exchange rates. The international Fisher effect (IFE) is also discussed in this chapter. This theory is also very important. Yet, it should again be emphasized that this theory does not always hold. If the PPP and IFE theories held consistently, decision making by MNCs would be much easier. Because these theories do not hold consistently, an MNC’s decision making is very challenging.Topics to Stimulate Class Discussion1. Provide reasoning for why highly inflated countries such as Brazil tend to have weak homecurrencies.2. Identify the inflation rate of your home country and some well-known foreign country. Thenidentify the percentage change of your home currency with respect to that foreign country.Did the currency change in the direction and by the magnitude that you would have expected according to PPP? If not, offer possible reasons for this discrepancy.3. Identify the quoted one-year interest rates in your home country and in a well-known foreigncountry as of one year ago. Also determine how your home currency changed relative to this foreign currency over the last year. Did the currency change according to the IFE theory? If not, does this information disprove IFE? Elaborate.4. Provide a simple explanation of the difference between interest rate parity (from the previouschapter), PPP (from this chapter), and IFE (from this chapter).Critical debateDoes PPP Eliminate Concerns about Long-Term Exchange Rate Risk?Proposition Yes. Studies have shown that exchange rate movements are related to inflation differentials in the long run. Based on PPP, the currency of a high-inflation country will depreciate against the home currency. A subsidiary in that country should generate inflated revenue from the inflation, which will help offset the adverse exchange effects when its earnings are remitted to the parent. If a firm is focused on long-term performance, the deviations from PPP will offset over time. In some years, the exchange rate effects may exceed the inflation effects, and in other years the inflation effects will exceed the exchange rate effects.Opposing view No. Even if the relationship between inflation and exchange rate effects is consistent, this does not guarantee that the effects on the firm will be offsetting. A subsidiary in a high-inflation country will not necessarily be able to adjust its price level to keep up with the increased costs of doing business there. The effects vary with each MNC’s situation. Even if the subsidiary can raise its prices to match the rising costs, there are short-term deviations from PPP. The investors who invest in an MNC’s stock may be concerned about short-term deviations fromPPP, because they will not necessarily hold the stock for the long term. Thus, investors may prefer that firms manage in a manner that reduces the volatility in their performance in short-run and long-run periods.With whom do you agree? State your reasons Examine the exchange rate policies of the major multinationals by referring to their annual reports. The Forbes listing of major multinationals on the web is a good starting point. In particular, consult the reports of Renault (France) and Phillips (Holland).ANSWER: It is possible that inflation and exchange rate effects will offset over the long run. However, many investors will not be satisfied because they may invest in the firm for just a few years or even a shorter term. Thus, they will prefer that MNCs assess their exposure to exchange rate risk and attempt to limit the risk.Answers to End of Chapter Questions1. PPP. Explain the theory of purchasing power parity (PPP). Based on this theory, what is ageneral forecast of the values of currencies in countries with high inflation?ANSWER: PPP suggests that the purchasing power of a consumer will be similar when purchasing goods in a foreign country or in the home country. If inflation in a foreign country differs from inflation in the home country, the exchange rate will adjust to maintain equal purchasing power.Currencies in countries with high inflation will be weak according to PPP, causing the purchasing power of goods in the home country versus these countries to be similar.2. Rationale of PPP. Explain the rationale of the PPP theory.ANSWER: When inflation is high in a particular country, foreign demand for goods in that country will decrease. In addition, that country’s demand for foreign goods should increase.Thus, the home currency of that country will weaken; this tendency should continue until the currency has weakened to the extent that a foreign country’s goods are no more attractive than the home country’s goods. Inflation differentials are offset by exchange rate changes. 3. Testing PPP. Explain how you could determine whether PPP exists. Describe a limitation intesting whether PPP holds.ANSWER: One method is to choose two countries and compare the inflation differential to the exchange rate change for several different periods. Then, determine whether the exchange rate changes were similar to what would have been expected under PPP theory.A second method is to choose a variety of countries and compare the inflation differential ofeach foreign country relative to the home country for a given period. Then, determine whether the exchange rate changes of each foreign currency were what would have been expected based on the inflation differentials under PPP theory.A limitation in testing PPP is that the results will vary with the base period chosen. The baseperiod should reflect an equilibrium position, but it is difficult to determine when such a period exists.4. Testing PPP. Inflation differentials between the U.S. and other industrialized countries havetypically been a few percentage points in any given year. Yet, in many years annual exchange rates between the corresponding currencies have changed by 10 percent or more.What does this information suggest about PPP?ANSWER: The information suggests that there are other factors besides inflation differentials that influence exchange rate movements. Thus, the exchange rate movements will not necessarily conform to inflation differentials, and therefore PPP will not necessarily hold.5. Limitations of PPP. Explain why PPP does not hold.ANSWER: PPP does not consistently hold because there are other factors besides inflation that influences exchange rates. Thus, exchange rates will not move in perfect tandem with inflation differentials. In addition, there may not be substitutes for traded goods. Therefore, even when a country’s inflation increases, the foreign demand for its products will not necessarily decrease (in the manner suggested by PPP) if substitutes are not available.6. Implications of IFE. Explain the international Fisher effect (IFE). What is the rationale forthe existence of the IFE? What are the implications of the IFE for firms with excess cash that consistently invest in foreign Treasury bills? Explain why the IFE may not hold.ANSWER: The IFE suggests that a currency’s value will adjust in accordance with the differential in interest rates between two countries.The rationale is that if a particular currency exhibits a high nominal interest rate, this may reflect a high anticipated inflation. Thus, the inflation will place downward pressure on the currency’s value if it occurs.The implications are that a firm that consistently purchases foreign Treasury bills will on average earn a similar return as on domestic Treasury bills.The IFE may not hold because exchange rate movements react to other factors in addition to interest rate differentials. Therefore, an exchange rate will not necessarily adjust in accordance with the nominal interest rate differentials, so that IFE may not hold.7. Implications of IFE. Assume UK interest rates are generally above foreign interest rates.What does this suggest about the future strength or weakness of the pound based on the IFE?Should UK investors invest in foreign securities if they believe in the IFE? Should foreign investors invest in UK securities if they believe in the IFE?ANSWER: The IFE would suggest that the pound will depreciate over time if UK interest rates are currently higher than foreign interest rates. Consequently, foreign investors who purchased UK securities would on average receive a similar yield as what they receive in their own country, and UK investors who purchased foreign securities would on average receive a yield similar to UK rates.8. Comparing Parity Theories. Compare and contrast interest rate parity (discussed in theprevious chapter), purchasing power parity (PPP), and the international Fisher effect (IFE).ANSWER: Interest rate parity can be evaluated using data at any one point in time to determine the relationship between the interest rate differential of two countries and the forward premium (or discount). PPP suggests a relationship between the inflation differential of two countries and the percentage change in the spot exchange rate over time. IFE suggestsa relationship between the interest rate differential of two countries and the percentagechange in the spot exchange rate over time. IFE is based on nominal interest rate differentials, which are influenced by expected inflation. Thus, the IFE is closely related to PPP.9. Real Interest Rate. One assumption made in developing the IFE is that all investors in allcountries have the same real interest rate. What does this mean?ANSWER: The real return is the nominal return minus the inflation rate. If all investors require the same real return, then the differentials in nominal interest rates should be solely due to differentials in anticipated inflation among countries.10. Interpreting Inflationary Expectations. If investors in the UK and Canada require the samereal interest rate, and the nominal rate of interest is 2 percent higher in Canada, what does this imply about expectations of UK inflation and Canadian inflation? What do these inflationary expectations suggest about future exchange rates?ANSWER: Expected inflation in Canada is 2 percent above expected inflation in the UK. If these inflationary expectations come true, PPP would suggest that the value of the Canadian dollar should depreciate by 2 percent against the pound.11. PPP Applied to the Euro. Assume that several European countries that use the euro as theircurrency experience higher inflation than the United States, while two other European countries that use the euro as their currency experience lower inflation than the United States.According to PPP, how will the euro’s value against the dollar be affected?ANSWER: The high European inflation overall would reduce the U.S. demand for European products, increase the European demand for U.S. products, and cause the euro to depreciate against the dollar.According to the PPP theory, the euro's value would adjust in response to the weighted inflation rates of the European countries that are represented by the euro relative to the inflation in the U.S. If the European inflation rises, while the U.S. inflation remains low, there would be downward pressure on the euro.12. Source of Weak Currencies. Currencies of some Latin American countries, such as Braziland Venezuela, frequently weaken against most other currencies. What concept in this chapter explains this occurrence? Why don’t all U.S.-based MNCs use forward contracts to hedge their future remittances of funds from Latin American countries to the U.S. even if they expect depreciation of the currencies against the dollar?ANSWER: Latin American countries typically have very high inflation, as much as 200 percent or more. PPP theory would suggest that currencies of these countries will depreciateagainst the U.S. dollar (and other major currencies) in order to retain purchasing power across countries. The high inflation discourages demand for Latin American imports and places downward pressure in their Latin American currencies. Depreciation of the currencies offsets the increased prices on Latin American goods from the perspective of importers in other countries.Interest rate parity forces the forward rates to contain a large discount due to the high interest rates in Latin America, which reflects a disadvantage of hedging these currencies. The decision to hedge makes more sense if the expected degree of depreciation exceeds the degree of the forward discount. Also, keep in mind that some remittances cannot be perfectly hedged anyway because the amount of future remittances is uncertain.13. PPP. Japan has typically had lower inflation than the United States. How would one expectthis to affect the Japanese yen’s value? Why does this expected relationship not always occur?ANSWER: Japan’s low inflation should place upward pressure on the yen’s value. Yet, other factors can sometimes offset this pressure. For example, Japan heavily invests in U.S.securities, which places downward pressure on the yen’s value.14. IFE. Assume that the nominal interest rate in Mexico is 48 percent and the interest rate in theUnited States is 8 percent for one-year securities that are free from default risk. What does the IFE suggest about the differential in expected inflation in these two countries? Using this information and the PPP theory, describe the expected nominal return to U.S. investors who invest in Mexico.ANSWER: If investors from the U.S. and Mexico required the same real (inflation-adjusted) return, then any difference in nominal interest rates is due to differences in expected inflation. Thus, the inflation rate in Mexico is expected to be about 40 percent above the U.S.inflation rate.According to PPP, the Mexican peso should depreciate by the amount of the differential between U.S. and Mexican inflation rates. Using a 40 percent differential, the Mexican peso should depreciate by about 40 percent. Given a 48 percent nominal interest rate in Mexico and expected depreciation of the peso of 40 percent, U.S. investors will earn about 8 percent.(This answer used the inexact formula, since the concept is stressed here more than precision.)15. IFE. Shouldn’t the IFE discourage investors from attempting to capitalize on higher foreigninterest rates? Why do some investors continue to invest overseas, even when they have no other transactions overseas?ANSWER: According to the IFE, higher foreign interest rates should not attract investors because these rates imply high expected inflation rates, which in turn imply potential depreciation of these currencies. Yet, some investors still invest in foreign countries where nominal interest rates are high. This may suggest that some investors believe that (1) the anticipated inflation rate embedded in a high nominal interest rate is overestimated, or (2) the potentially high inflation will not cause substantial depreciation of the foreign currency (which could occur if adequate substitute products were not available elsewhere), or (3) thereare other factors that can offset the possible impact of inflation on the foreign currency’s value.16. Changes in Inflation. Assume that the inflation rate in Brazil is expected to increasesubstantially. How will this affect Brazil’s nominal interest rates and the value of its currency (called the real)? If the IFE holds, how will the nominal return to UK investors who invest in Brazil be affected by the higher inflation in Brazil? Explain.ANSWER: Brazil’s nominal interest rate would likely increase to maintain the real return required by Brazilian investors. The Brazilian real would be expected to depreciate according to the IFE. If the IFE holds, the return to UK investors who invest in Brazil would not be affected. Even though they now earn a higher nominal interest rate, the expected decline in the Brazilian real offsets the additional interest to be earned.17. Comparing PPP and IFE. How is it possible for PPP to hold if the IFE does not?ANSWER: For the IFE to hold, the following conditions are necessary:(1) investors across countries require the same real returns,(2) the expected inflation rate embedded in the nominal interest rate occurs,(3) the exchange rate adjusts to the inflation rate differential according to PPP.If conditions (1) or (2) do not hold, PPP may still hold, but investors may achieve consistently higher returns when investing in a foreign country’s securities. Thus, IFE would be refuted.18. Estimating Depreciation Due to PPP. Assume that the spot exchange rate of the Britishpound is $1.73. How will this spot rate adjust according to PPP if the United Kingdom experiences an inflation rate of 7 percent while the United States experiences an inflation rate of 2 percent?ANSWER: According to PPP, the exchange rate of the pound will depreciate by 4.7 percent.Therefore, the spot rate would adjust to $1.73 × [1 + (–.047)] = $1.65.19. Forecasting the Future Spot Rate Based on IFE. Assume that the spot exchange rate of theSingapore dollar is £0.35. The one-year interest rate is 11 percent in the United Kingdom and7 percent in Singapore. What will the spot rate be in one year according to the IFE? (Youmay use the approximate formula to answer this question.)ANSWER: £0.35 × (1 + .04) = £0.36420. Deriving Forecasts of the Future Spot Rate. As of today, assume the following informationis available:UK MexicoReal rate of interest requiredinvestors 2% 2%byNominal interest rate 11% 15%Spot rate — £0.05One-year forward rate — £0.049a. Use the forward rate to forecast the percentage change in the Mexican peso over the nextyear.ANSWER: (£0.049– £0.05)/£0.05 = –.02, or –2%b. Use the differential in expected inflation to forecast the percentage change in theMexican peso over the next year.ANSWER: 11% – 15% = –4%; the negative sign represents depreciation of the peso.c. Use the spot rate to forecast the percentage change in the Mexican peso over the next year.ANSWER: zero percent change21. Inflation and Interest Rate Effects. The opening of Russia's market has resulted in a highlyvolatile Russian currency (the rouble). Russia's inflation has commonly exceeded 20 percent per month. Russian interest rates commonly exceed 150 percent, but this is sometimes less than the annual inflation rate in Russia.a. Explain why the high Russian inflation has put severe pressure on the value of theRussian rouble.ANSWER: As Russian prices were increasing, the purchasing power of Russian consumers was declining. This would encourage them to purchase goods in the UK and elsewhere, which results in a large supply of roubles for sale. Given the high Russian inflation, foreign demand for roubles to purchase Russian goods would be low. Thus, the rouble’s value should depreciate against the dollar, and against other currencies.b. Does the effect of Russian inflation on the decline in the rouble’s value support the PPPtheory? How might the relationship be distorted by political conditions in Russia?ANSWER: The general relationship suggested by PPP is supported, but the rouble’s value will not normally move exactly as specified by PPP. The political conditions that could restrict trade or currency convertibility can prevent Russian consumers from shifting to foreign goods. Thus, the rouble may not decline by the full degree to offset the inflation differential between Russia and the UK Furthermore, the government may not allow the rouble to float freely to its proper equilibrium level.c. Does it appear that the prices of Russian goods will be equal to the prices of UK goodsfrom the perspective of Russian consumers (after considering exchange rates)? Explain.ANSWER: Russian prices might be higher than UK prices, even after considering exchange rates, because the rouble might not depreciate enough to fully offset the Russian inflation. The exchange rate cannot fully adjust if there are barriers on trade or currency convertibility.d. Will the effects of the high Russian inflation and the decline in the rouble offset eachother for UK importers? That is, how will UK importers of Russian goods be affected by the conditions?ANSWER: UK importers will likely experience higher prices, because the Russian inflation may not be completely offset by the decline in the rouble’s value. This may cause a reduction in the UK demand for Russian goods.22. IFE Application to Asian Crisis. Before the Asian crisis, many investors attempted tocapitalize on the high interest rates prevailing in the Southeast Asian countries although the level of interest rates primarily reflected expectations of inflation. Explain why investors behaved in this manner.Why does the IFE suggest that the Southeast Asian countries would not have attracted foreign investment before the Asian crisis despite the high interest rates prevailing in those countries?ANSWER: The investors' behavior suggests that they did not expect the international Fisher effect (IFE) to hold. Since central banks of some Asian countries were maintaining their currencies within narrow bands, they were effectively preventing the exchange rate from depreciating in a manner that would offset the interest rate differential. Consequently, superior profits from investing in the foreign countries were possible.If investors believed in the IFE, the Asian countries would not attract a high level of foreign investment because of exchange rate expectations. Specifically, the high nominal interest rate should reflect a high level of expected inflation. According to purchasing power parity (PPP), the higher interest rate should result in a weaker currency because of the implied market expectations of high inflation.23. IFE Applied to the Euro. Given the recent conversion of several European currencies to theeuro, explain what would cause the euro’s value to change against the dollar according to the IFE.ANSWER: If interest rates change in these European countries whose home currency is the euro, the expected inflation rate in those countries change, so that the inflation differential between those countries and the U.S. changes. Thus, there may be an impact on the value of the euro, because a change in the inflation differential affects trade flows and therefore affects the exchange rate.Advanced Questions24. IFE. Beth Miller does not believe that the international Fisher effect (IFE) holds. Currentone-year interest rates in Europe are 5 percent, while one-year interest rates in the U.S. are 3 percent. Beth converts $100,000 to euros and invests them in Germany. One year later, she converts the euros back to dollars. The current spot rate of the euro is $1.10.a. According to the IFE, what should the spot rate of the euro in one year be?b. If the spot rate of the euro in one year is $1.00, what is Beth’s percentage return from herstrategy?c. If the spot rate of the euro in one year is $1.08, what is Beth’s percentage return from herstrategy?d. What must the spot rate of the euro be in one year for Beth’s strategy to be successful?ANSWER:a.%90.11)05.1()03.1(1)1()1(−=−=−++=f h f i i eIf the IFE holds, the euro should depreciate by 1.90 percent in one year. This translates to a spot rate of $1.10 × (1 – 1.90%) = $1.079.b.1. Convert dollars to euros: $100,000/$1.10 = €90,909.092. Invest euros for one year and receive €90,909.09 × 1.05 = €95,454.553. Convert euros back to dollars and receive €95,454.55 × $1.00 = $95,454.55The percentage return is $95,454.55/$100,000 – 1 = –4.55%.c.1. Convert dollars to euros: $100,000/$1.10 = €90,909.092. Invest euros for one year and receive €90,909.09 × 1.05 = €95,454.553. Convert euros back to dollars and receive €95,454.55 × $1.08 = $103,090.91The percentage return is $103,090.91/$100,000 – 1 = 3.09%.d. Beth’s strategy would be successful if the spot rate of the euro in one year is greater than$1.079.25. Integrating IRP and IFE. Assume the following information is available for the U.S. andEurope:U.S. Europe Nominal interest rate 4% 6%Expected inflation 2% 5%Spot rate ----- $1.13One-year forward rate ----- $1.10a. Does IRP hold?b. According to PPP, what is the expected spot rate of the euro in one year?c. According to the IFE, what is the expected spot rate of the euro in one year?d. Reconcile your answers to parts (a). and (c).ANSWER:a.%89.11)06.1()04.1(1)1()1(−=−=−++=f h i i pTherefore, the forward rate of the euro should be $1.13 × (1 – 1.89%) = $1.109. IRP does not hold in this case.b.%86.21)05.1()02.1(1)1()1(−=−=−++=f h f I I eAccording to PPP, the expected spot rate of the euro in one year is $1.13 × (1 – 2.86%) = $1.098.c.%89.11)06.1()04.1(1)1()1(−=−=−++=f h f i i eAccording to the IFE, the expected spot rate of the euro in one year is $1.13 × (1 – 2.86%) = $1.098.Parts a and c combined say that the forward rate premium or discount is exactly equal to theexpectedpercentage appreciation or depreciation of the euro.26. IRP. The one-year risk-free interest rate in Mexico is 10%. The one-year risk-free rate in theUK is 2%. Assume that interest rate parity exists. The spot rate of the Mexican peso is £0.14.a. What is the forward rate premium?b. What is the one-year forward rate of the peso?c. Based on the international Fisher effect, what is the expected change in the spot rate over thenext year?d.If the spot rate changes as expected according to the IFE, what will be the spot rate in oneyear?pare your answers to (b) and (d) and explain the relationship.ANSWER:a. According to interest rate parity, the forward premium is07273.1)10.1()02.1(−=−++b. The forward rate is £0.14 × (1 – .07273) = £0.1298.c. According to the IFE, the expected change in the peso is:07273.1)10.1()02.1(−=−++or –7.273%d. £.14 × (1 – .07273) = £0.1298e. The answers are the same. When IRP holds, the forward rate premium and the expected percentage change in the spot rate are derived in the same manner. Thus, the forward premium serves as the forecasted percentage change in the spot rate according to IFE.27. Testing the PPP. How could you use regression analysis to determine whether therelationship specified by PPP exists on average? Specify the model, and describe how you would assess the regression results to determine if there is a significant difference from the relationship suggested by PPP.ANSWER: A regression model could be applied to historical data to test PPP. The model isspecified as:()e a a 1+I 1 + I u f 01U.S.f =+−⎡⎣⎢⎤⎦⎥+1where e f is the percentage change in the foreign currency’s exchange rate, I U.S. and I f are U.S.and foreign inflation rates, a 0 is a constant, a 1 is the slope coefficient, and u is an error term. If PPP holds, a 0 should equal zero, and a 1 should equal 1. A t-test on a 0 and a 1 is shown below.t -test for a : t = a 0s.e. of a t -test for a : t = a1s.e. of a 0001 1 1−−。

国际财务管理课后习题答案

C H A P T E R8M A N A G E M E N T O F T R A N S A C T I O N E X P O S U R ESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS ANDPROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. How would you define transaction exposure How is it different from economic exposureAnswer: Transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency values of the firm’s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpected changes in exchange rates. Unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term.2. Discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure using the forward contract vs. money market instruments. When do the alternative hedging approaches produce the same resultAnswer: Hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling or buying foreign currency receivables or payables forward. On the other hand, money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables, thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions. If the interest rate parity is holding, the two hedging methods are equivalent.3. Discuss and compare the costs of hedging via the forward contract and the options contract. Answer: There is no up-front cost of hedging by forward contracts. In the case of options hedging, however, hedgers should pay the premiums for the contracts up-front. The cost of forward hedging, however, may be realized ex post when the hedger regrets his/her hedging decision.4. What are the advantages of a currency options contract as a hedging tool compared with the forward contractAnswer: The main advantage of using options contracts for hedging is that the hedger can decide whether to exercise options upon observing the realized future exchange rate. Options thus provide a hedge against ex post regret that forward hedger might have to suffer. Hedgers can only eliminate the downside risk while retaining the upside potential.5. Suppose your company has purchased a put option on the German mark to manage exchange exposure associated with an account receivable denominated in that currency. In this case, your company can be said to have an ‘insurance’ policy on its receivable. Explain in what sense this is so.Answer: Your company in this case knows in advance that it will receive a certain minimum dollar amount no matter what might happen to the $/€exchange rate. Furthermore, if the German mark appreciates, your company will benefit from the rising euro.6. Recent surveys of corporate exchange risk management practices indicate that many U.S. firms simply do not hedge. How would you explain this resultAnswer: There can be many possible reasons for this. First, many firms may feel that they are not really exposed to exchange risk due to product diversification, diversified markets for their products, etc. Second, firms may be using self-insurance against exchange risk. Third, firms may feel that shareholders can diversify exchange risk themselves, rendering corporate risk management unnecessary.7. Should a firm hedge Why or why notAnswer: In a perfect capital market, firms may not need to hedge exchange risk. But firms can add to their value by hedging if markets are imperfect. First, if management knows about the firm’s exposure better than shareholders, the firm, not its shareholders, should hedge. Second, firms may be able to hedge at a lower cost. Third, if default costs are significant, corporate hedging can be justifiable because it reduces the probability of default. Fourth, if the firm faces progressive taxes, it can reduce tax obligations by hedging which stabilizes corporate earnings.8. Using an example, discuss the possible effect of hedging on a firm’s tax obligations.Answer: One can use an example similar to the one presented in the chapter.9. Explain contingent exposure and discuss the advantages of using currency options to manage this type of currency exposure.Answer: Companies may encounter a situation where they may or may not face currency exposure. In this situation, companies need options, not obligations, to buy or sell a given amount of foreign exchange they may or may not receive or have to pay. If companies either hedge using forward contracts or do not hedge at all, they may face definite currency exposure.10. Explain cross-hedging and discuss the factors determining its effectiveness.Answer: Cross-hedging involves hedging a position in one asset by taking a position in another asset. The effectiveness of cross-hedging would depend on the strength and stability of the relationship between the two assets.PROBLEMS1. Cray Research sold a super computer to the Max Planck Institute in Germany on credit and invoiced €10 million payable in six months. Currently, the six-month forward exchange rate is $€ and the foreign exchange advisor for Cray Research predicts that the spot rate is likely to be $€ in six months.(a) What is the expected gain/loss from the forward hedging(b) If you were the financial manager of Cray Research, would you recommend hedging this euro receivable Why or why not(c) Suppose the foreign exchange advisor predicts that the future spot rate will be the same as the forward exchange rate quoted today. Would you recommend hedging in this case Why or why not Solution: (a) Expected gain($) = 10,000,000 –= 10,000,000(.05)= $500,000.(b) I would recommend hedging because Cray Research can increase the expected dollar receipt by $500,000 and also eliminate the exchange risk.(c) Since I eliminate risk without sacrificing dollar receipt, I still would recommend hedging.2. IBM purchased computer chips from NEC, a Japanese electronics concern, and was billed ￥250 million payable in three months. Currently, the spot exchange rate is ￥105/$ and the three-month forward rate is ￥100/$. The three-month money market interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the U.S. and 7 percent per annum in Japan. The management of IBM decided to use the money market hedge to deal with this yen account payable.(a) Explain the process of a money market hedge and compute the dollar cost of meeting the yen obligation.(b) Conduct the cash flow analysis of the money market hedge.Solution: (a). Let’s first compute the PV of ￥250 million, .,250m/ = ￥245,700,So if the above yen amount is invested today at the Japanese interest rate for three months, the maturity value will be exactly equal to ￥25 million which is the amount of payable.To buy the above yen amount today, it will cost:$2,340, = ￥250,000,000/105.The dollar cost of meeting this yen obligation is $2,340, as of today.(b)___________________________________________________________________Transaction CF0 CF1____________________________________________________________________1. Buy yens spot -$2,340,with dollars ￥245,700,2. Invest in Japan - ￥245,700, ￥250,000,0003. Pay yens - ￥250,000,000Net cash flow - $2,340,____________________________________________________________________3. You plan to visit Geneva, Switzerland in three months to attend an international business conference.You expect to incur the total cost of SF 5,000 for lodging, meals and transportation during your stay. As of today, the spot exchange rate is $SF and the three-month forward rate is $SF. You can buy the three-month call option on SF with the exercise rate of $SF for the premium of $ per SF. Assume that your expected future spot exchange rate is the same as the forward rate. The three-month interest rate is 6 percent per annum in the United States and 4 percent per annum in Switzerland.(a) Calculate your expected dollar cost of buying SF5,000 if you choose to hedge via call option on SF.(b) Calculate the future dollar cost of meeting this SF obligation if you decide to hedge using a forward contract.(c) At what future spot exchange rate will you be indifferent between the forward and option market hedges(d) Illustrate the future dollar costs of meeting the SF payable against the future spot exchange rate under both the options and forward market hedges.Solution: (a) Total option premium = (.05)(5000) = $250. In three months, $250 is worth $ = $250. At the expected future spot rate of $SF, which is less than the exercise price, you don’t expect to exercise options. Rather, you expect to buy Swiss franc at $SF. Since you are going to buy SF5,000, you expect to spend $3,150 (=.63x5,000). Thus, the total expected cost of buying SF5,000 will be the sum of $3,150 and $, ., $3,.(b) $3,150 = (.63)(5,000).(c) $3,150 = 5,000x + , where x represents the break-even future spot rate. Solving for x, we obtain x = $SF. Note that at the break-even future spot rate, options will not be exercised.(d) If the Swiss franc appreciates beyond $SF, which is the exercise price of call option, you will exercise the option and buy SF5,000 for $3,200. The total cost of buying SF5,000 will be $3, = $3,200 + $.This is the maximum you will pay.4. Boeing just signed a contract to sell a Boeing 737 aircraft to Air France. Air France will be billed €20million which is payable in one year. The current spot exchange rate is $€ and the one -year forward rateis $€. The annual interest rate is % in the U.S. and % in France. Boeing is concerned with the volatile exchange rate between the dollar and the euro and would like to hedge exchange exposure.(a) It is considering two hedging alternatives: sell the euro proceeds from the sale forward or borrow euros from the Credit Lyonnaise against the euro receivable. Which alternative would you recommend Why(b) Other things being equal, at what forward exchange rate would Boeing be indifferent between the two hedging methodsSolution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the future dollar proceeds will be (20,000,000) = $22,000,000. In the case of money market hedge (MMH), the firm has to first borrow the PV of its euro receivable, ., 20,000,000/ =€19,047,619. Then the firm should exchange this euro amount into dollars at the current spot rate to receive: (€19,047,619)($€) = $20,000,000, which can be in vested at the dollar interest rate for one year to yield:$20,000,000 = $21,200,000.Clearly, the firm can receive $800,000 more by using forward hedging.(b) According to IRP, F = S(1+i $)/(1+i F ). Thus the “indifferent” forward rate will be: F = / = $€.5. Suppose that Baltimore Machinery sold a drilling machine to a Swiss firm and gave the Swiss client a choice of paying either $10,000 or SF 15,000 in three months.(a) In the above example, Baltimore Machinery effectively gave the Swiss client a free option to buy up to $10,000 dollars using Swiss franc. What is the ‘implied’ exercise exchange rate(b) If the spot exchange rate turns out to be $SF, which currency do you think the Swiss client will choose to use for payment What is the value of this free option for the Swiss client (c) What is the best way for Baltimore Machinery to deal with the exchange exposure Solution: (a) The implied exercise (price) rate is: 10,000/15,000 = $SF .(b) If the Swiss client chooses to pay $10,000, it will cost SF16,129 (=10,000/.62). Since the Swiss client has an option to pay SF15,000, it will choose to do so. The value of this option is obviously SF1,129 (=SF16,129-SF15,000).(c) Baltimore Machinery faces a contingent exposure in the sense that it may or may not receive SF15,000 in the future. The firm thus can hedge this exposure by buying a put option on SF15,000. 6. Princess Cruise Company (PCC) purchased a ship from Mitsubishi Heavy Industry. PCC owes Mitsubishi Heavy Industry 500 million yen in one year. The current spot rate is 124 yen per dollar and the one-year forward rate is 110 yen per dollar. The annual interest rate is 5% in Japan and 8% in the .$ Cost Options hedgeForward hedge$3,$3,1500 (strike price)$/SF$PCC can also buy a one-year call option on yen at the strike price of $.0081 per yen for a premium of .014 cents per yen.(a) Compute the future dollar costs of meeting this obligation using the money market hedge and the forward hedges.(b) Assuming that the forward exchange rate is the best predictor of the future spot rate, compute the expected future dollar cost of meeting this obligation when the option hedge is used.(c) At what future spot rate do you think PCC may be indifferent between the option and forward hedge Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the dollar cost will be 500,000,000/110 = $4,545,455. In the case of money market hedge, the future dollar cost will be: 500,000,000/(124)= $4,147,465.(b) The option premium is: (.014/100)(500,000,000) = $70,000. Its future value will be $70,000 = $75,600.At the expected future spot rate of $.0091(=1/110), which is higher than the exercise of $.0081, PCC will exercise its call option and buy ￥500,000,000 for $4,050,000 (=500,000,.The total expected cost will thus be $4,125,600, which is the sum of $75,600 and $4,050,000.(c) When t he option hedge is used, PCC will spend “at most” $4,125,000. On the other hand, when the forward hedging is used, PCC will have to spend $4,545,455 regardless of the future spot rate. This means that the options hedge dominates the forward hedge. At no future spot rate, PCC will be indifferent between forward and options hedges.7. Airbus sold an aircraft, A400, to Delta Airlines, a U.S. company, and billed $30 million payable in six months. Airbus is concerned with the euro proceeds from international sales and would like to control exchange risk. The current spot exchange rate is $€ and six-month forward exchange rate is $€ at the moment. Airbus can buy a six-month put option on . dollars with a strike price of €$ for a premium of € per . dollar. Currently, six-month interest rate is % in the euro zone and % in the U.S.pute the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale if Airbus decides to hedge using aforward contract.b.If Airbus decides to hedge using money market instruments, what action does Airbus need to takeWhat would be the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale in this casec.If Airbus decides to hedge using put options on . dollars, what would be the ‘expected’ europroceeds from the American sale Assume that Airbus regards the current forward exchange rate as an unbiased predictor of the future spot exchange rate.d.At what future spot exchange rate do you think Airbus will be indifferent between the option andmoney market hedgeSolution:a. Airbus will sell $30 million for ward for €27,272,727 = ($30,000,000) / ($€).b. Airbus will borrow the present value of the dollar receivable, ., $29,126,214 = $30,000,000/, and then sell the dollar proceeds spot for euros: €27,739,251. This is the euro amount that Airbus is going to ke ep.c. Since the expected future spot rate is less than the strike price of the put option, ., €< €, Airbus expects to exercise the option and receive €28,500,000 = ($30,000,000)(€$). This is gross proceeds. Airbus spent €600,000 (=,000,000) upfront for the option and its future cost is equal to €615,000 = €600,000 x . Thus the net europroceeds from the American sale is €27,885,000, which is the difference between the gross proceeds and the option costs.d. At the indifferent future spot rate, the following will hold:€28,432,732 = S T (30,000,000) - €615,000.Solving for S T, we obtain the “indifference” future spot exchange rate, ., €$, or $€. Note that €28,432,732 is the future value of the proceeds under money market hedging:€28,432,732 = (€27,739,251) .Suggested solution for Mini Case: Chase Options, Inc.[See Chapter 13 for the case text]Chase Options, Inc.Hedging Foreign Currency Exposure Through Currency OptionsHarvey A. PoniachekI. Case SummaryThis case reviews the foreign exchange options market and hedging. It presents various international transactions that require currency options hedging strategies by the corporations involved. Seven transactions under a variety of circumstances are introduced that require hedging by currency options. The transactions involve hedging of dividend remittances, portfolio investment exposure, and strategic economic competitiveness. Market quotations are provided for options (and options hedging ratios), forwards, and interest rates for various maturities.II. Case Objective.The case introduces the student to the principles of currency options market and hedging strategies. The transactions are of various types that often confront companies that are involved in extensive international business or multinational corporations. The case induces students to acquire hands-on experience in addressing specific exposure and hedging concerns, including how to apply various market quotations, which hedging strategy is most suitable, and how to address exposure in foreign currency through cross hedging policies.III. Proposed Assignment Solution1. The company expects DM100 million in repatriated profits, and does not want the DM/$ exchange rate at which they convert those profits to rise above . They can hedge this exposure using DM put options with a strike price of . If the spot rate rises above , they can exercise the option, while if that rate falls they can enjoy additional profits from favorable exchange rate movements.To purchase the options would require an up-front premium of:DM 100,000,000 x = DM 1,640,000.With a strike price of DM/$, this would assure the U.S. company of receiving at least:DM 100,000,000 – DM 1,640,000 x (1 + x 272/360)= DM 98,254,544/ DM/$ = $57,796,791by exercising the option if the DM depreciated. Note that the proceeds from the repatriated profits are reduced by the premium paid, which is further adjusted by the interest foregone on this amount. However, if the DM were to appreciate relative to the dollar, the company would allow the option to expire, and enjoy greater dollar proceeds from this increase.Should forward contracts be used to hedge this exposure, the proceeds received would be:DM100,000,000/ DM/$ = $59,790,732,regardless of the movement of the DM/$ exchange rate. While this amount is almost $2 million more than that realized using option hedges above, there is no flexibility regarding the exercise date; if this date differs from that at which the repatriate profits are available, the company may be exposed to additional further current exposure. Further, there is no opportunity to enjoy any appreciation in the DM. If the company were to buy DM puts as above, and sell an equivalent amount in calls with strike price , the premium paid would be exactly offset by the premium received. This would assure that the exchange rate realized would fall between and . If the rate rises above , the company will exercise its put option, and if it fell below , the other party would use its call; for any rate in between, both options would expire worthless. The proceeds realized would then fall between:DM 100,00,000/ DM/$ = $60,716,454andDM 100,000,000/ DM/$ = $58,823,529.This would allow the company some upside potential, while guaranteeing proceeds at least $1 million greater than the minimum for simply buying a put as above.Buy/Sell OptionsDM/$SpotPut Payoff “Put”Profits Call Payoff“Call”Profits Net Profit(1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 60,606,061 1,742,846 0 60,606,061 (1,742,846) 60,240,964 1,742,846 0 60,240,964 (1,742,846) 59,880,240 1,742,846 0 59,880,240 (1,742,846) 59,523,810 1,742,846 0 59,523,810 (1,742,846) 59,171,598 1,742,846 0 59,171,598 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529(1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529Since the firm believes that there is a good chance that the pound sterling will weaken, locking them into a forward contract would not be appropriate, because they would lose the opportunity to profit from this weakening. Their hedge strategy should follow for an upside potential to match their viewpoint. Therefore, they should purchase sterling call options, paying a premium of:5,000,000 STG x = 88,000 STG.If the dollar strengthens against the pound, the firm allows the option to expire, and buys sterling in the spot market at a cheaper price than they would have paid for a forward contract; otherwise, the sterling calls protect against unfavorable depreciation of the dollar.Because the fund manager is uncertain when he will sell the bonds, he requires a hedge which will allow flexibility as to the exercise date. Thus, options are the best instrument for him to use. He can buy A$ puts to lock in a floor of A$/$. Since he is willing to forego any further currency appreciation, he can sell A$ calls with a strike price of A$/$ to defray the cost of his hedge (in fact he earns a net premium of A$ 100,000,000 x –= A$ 2,300), while knowing that he can’t receive less than A$/$ when redeeming his investment, and can benefit from a small appreciation of the A$.Example #3:Problem: Hedge principal denominated in A$ into US$. Forgo upside potential to buy floor protection.I. Hedge by writing calls and buying puts1) Write calls for $/A$ @Buy puts for $/A$ @# contracts needed = Principal in A$/Contract size100,000,000A$/100,000 A$ = 1002) Revenue from sale of calls = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,573 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007234 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)3) Total cost of puts = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,332 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007211 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)4) Put payoffIf spot falls below , fund manager will exercise putIf spot rises above , fund manager will let put expire5) Call payoffIf spot rises above .8025, call will be exercised If spot falls below .8025, call will expire6) Net payoffSee following Table for net payoff Australian Dollar Bond HedgeStrikePrice Put Payoff “Put”Principal Call Payoff“Call”Principal Net Profit(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 73,000,000 75,573 0 73,000,241(75,332) 74,000,000 75,573 0 74,000,241(75,332) 75,000,000 75,573 0 75,000,241(75,332) 76,000,000 75,573 0 76,000,241(75,332) 77,000,000 75,573 0 77,000,241(75,332) 78,000,000 75,573 0 78,000,241(75,332) 79,000,000 75,573 0 79,000,241(75,332) 80,000,000 75,573 0 80,000,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241 4. The German company is bidding on a contract which they cannot be certain of winning. Thus, the need to execute a currency transaction is similarly uncertain, and using a forward or futures as a hedge is inappropriate, because it would force them to perform even if they do not win the contract.Using a sterling put option as a hedge for this transaction makes the most sense. For a premium of:12 million STG x = 193,200 STG,they can assure themselves that adverse movements in the pound sterling exchange rate will not diminish the profitability of the project (and hence the feasibility of their bid), while at the same time allowing the potential for gains from sterling appreciation.5. Since AMC in concerned about the adverse effects that a strengthening of the dollar would have on its business, we need to create a situation in which it will profit from such an appreciation. Purchasing a yen put or a dollar call will achieve this objective. The data in Exhibit 1, row 7 represent a 10 percent appreciation of the dollar strike vs. forward rate) and can be used to hedge against a similar appreciation of the dollar.For every million yen of hedging, the cost would be:Yen 100,000,000 x = 127 Yen.To determine the breakeven point, we need to compute the value of this option if the dollar appreciated 10 percent (spot rose to , and subtract from it the premium we paid. This profit would be compared with the profit earned on five to 10 percent of AMC’s sales (which would be lost as a result of the dollar appreciation). The number of options to be purchased which would equalize these two quantities would represent the breakeven point.Example #5:Hedge the economic cost of the depreciating Yen to AMC.If we assume that AMC sales fall in direct proportion to depreciation in the yen ., a 10 percent decline in yen and 10 percent decline in sales), then we can hedge the full value of AMC’s sales. I have assumed $100 million in sales.1) Buy yen puts# contracts needed = Expected Sales *Current ￥/$ Rate / Contract size9600 = ($100,000,000)(120￥/$) / ￥1,250,0002) Total Cost = (# contracts)(contract size)(premium)$1,524,000 = (9600)( ￥1,250,000)($￥)3) Floor rate = Exercise – Premium￥/$ = ￥/$ - $1,524,000/12,000,000,000￥4) The payoff changes depending on the level of the ￥/$ rate. The following table summarizes thepayoffs. An equilibrium is reached when the spot rate equals the floor rate.AMC ProfitabilityYen/$ Spot Put Payoff Sales Net Profit120 (1,524,990) 100,000,000 98,475,010121 (1,524,990) 99,173,664 97,648,564122 (1,524,990) 98,360,656 96,835,666123 (1,524,990) 97,560,976 86,035,986124 (1,524,990) 96,774,194 95,249,204125 (1,524,990) 96,000,000 94,475,010126 (1,524,990) 95,238,095 93,713,105127 (847,829) 94,488,189 93,640,360128 (109,640) 93,750,000 93,640,360129 617,104 93,023,256 93,640,360130 1,332,668 92,307,692 93,640,360131 2,037,307 91,603,053 93,640,360132 2,731,269 90,909,091 93,640,360133 3,414,796 90,225,664 93,640,360134 4,088,122 89,552,239 93,640,360135 4,751,431 88,888,889 93,640,360136 5,405,066 88,235,294 93,640,360137 6,049,118 87,591,241 93,640,360138 6,683,839 86,966,522 93,640,360139 7,308,425 86,330,936 93,640,360140 7,926,075 85,714,286 93,640,360141 8,533,977 85,106,383 93,640,360142 9,133,318 84,507,042 93,640,360143 9,724,276 83,916,084 93,640,360144 10,307,027 83,333,333 93,640,360145 10,881,740 82,758,621 93,640,360146 11,448,579 82,191,781 93,640,360147 12,007,707 81,632,653 93,640,360148 12,569,279 81,081,081 93,640,360149 13,103,448 80,536,913 93,640,360150 13,640,360 80,000,000 93,640,360The parent has a DM payable, and Lira receivable. It has several ways to cover its exposure; forwards, options, or swaps.The forward would be acceptable for the DM loan, because it has a known quantity and maturity, but the Lira exposure would retain some of its uncertainty because these factors are not assured.The parent could buy DM calls and Lira puts. This would allow them to take advantage of favorable。

《国际财务管理》章后练习题及参考答案

《国际财务管理》章后练习题及参考答案《国际财务管理》章后练习题及参考答案《国际财务管理》章后练习题及参考答案第一章绪论第一章绪论一、单选题一、单选题1. 关于国际财务管理学与财务管理学的关系表述正确的是(C)。

A. 国际财务管理是学习财务管理的基础B. 国际财务管理与财务管理是两门截然不同的学科C. 国际财务管理是财务管理的一个新的分支D. 国际财务管理研究的范围要比财务管理的窄2. 凡经济活动跨越两个或更多国家国界的企业，都可以称为( A )。

A. 国际企业 B. 跨国企业 C. 跨国公司 D. 多国企业3.企业的( C)管理与财务管理密切结合，是国际财务管理的基本特点 A.资金 B.人事 C.外汇 D成本4.国际财务管理与跨国企业财务管理两个概念( D) 。

A. 完全相同B. 截然不同C. 仅是名称不同D. 内容有所不同 4.国际财务管理的内容不应该包括( C )。

A. 国际技术转让费管理B. 外汇风险管理企业进出口外汇收支管理 C. 合并财务报表管理 D.5.“企业生产经营国际化”和“金融市场国际化”的关系是( C )。

A. 二者毫不相关 B. 二者完全相同 C. 二者相辅相成 D. 二者互相起负面影响二、多选题二、多选题1.国际企业财务管理的组织形态应考虑的因素有( )。

A.公司规模的大小 B.国际经营的投入程度C.管理经验的多少D.整个国际经营所采取的组织形式 2.国际财务管理体系的内容包括( )A.外汇风险的管理B.国际税收管理C.国际投筹资管理D.国际营运资金管 3.国际财务管理目标的特点( )。

A.稳定性B.多元性C.层次性D.复杂性4.广义的国际财务管理观包括( )。

A.世界统一财务管理观B.比较财务管理观C.跨国公司财务管理观D.国际企业财务管理观5. 我国企业的国际财务活动日益频繁，具体表现在( )。

A. 企业从内向型向外向型转化 B. 外贸专业公司有了新的发展 C. 在国内开办三资企业 D. 向国外投资办企业 E. 通过各种形式从国外筹集资金三、判断题三、判断题1.国际财务管理是对企业跨国的财务活动进行的管理。

国际财务管理(填有答案)

《国际财务管理》章后练习题及参考答案第一章绪论一、单选题1. 关于国际财务管理学与财务管理学的关系表述正确的是(C)。

A. 国际企业B. 跨国企业C. 跨国公司D. 多国企业3.企业的（ C）管理与财务管理密切结合，是国际财务管理的基本特点A.资金B.人事C.外汇 D成本4.国际财务管理与跨国企业财务管理两个概念( D) 。

A. 完全相同B. 截然不同C. 仅是名称不同D. 内容有所不同4.国际财务管理的内容不应该包括( C )。

A. 国际技术转让费管理B. 外汇风险管理C. 合并财务报表管理D. 企业进出口外汇收支管理5.“企业生产经营国际化”和“金融市场国际化”的关系是( C )。

A. 二者毫不相关B. 二者完全相同C. 二者相辅相成D. 二者互相起负面影响二、多选题1.国际企业财务管理的组织形态应考虑的因素有（）。

A.公司规模的大小B.国际经营的投入程度C.管理经验的多少D.整个国际经营所采取的组织形式2.国际财务管理体系的内容包括（）A.外汇风险的管理B.国际税收管理C.国际投筹资管理D.国际营运资金管3.国际财务管理目标的特点（）。

A.稳定性B.多元性C.层次性D.复杂性4.广义的国际财务管理观包括（）。

A.世界统一财务管理观B.比较财务管理观C.跨国公司财务管理观D.国际企业财务管理观5. 我国企业的国际财务活动日益频繁，具体表现在( )。

A. 企业从内向型向外向型转化B. 外贸专业公司有了新的发展C. 在国内开办三资企业D. 向国外投资办企业E. 通过各种形式从国外筹集资金三、判断题1.国际财务管理是对企业跨国的财务活动进行的管理。

（）2.国际财务管理学是着重研究企业如何进行国际财务决策，使所有者权益最大化的一门科学。

国际财务管理课后习题答案

International Financial Management
国际财务管理
第四章外汇汇率预测
• 1、
St 5
1 8%
1 5% • 2、 iA =（1+6%）×（1+5%）－1≈11.3% iB =（1+6%）×（1+8%）－1≈14.48%
SF 5 1 14 . 48 % 1 11 . 3 % 5 . 1429
108
1
110
1
9月1日，98 100 0 . 010204 0 . 01 0 . 000204 由此造成收益为：6250×（0.000204-0.0001683）≈0.23万美元
5、
卖出应收款100万英镑应收美元数
执行汇率应收款到期日的期权协即期汇率定价格（汇率） 1英镑=1.58美元 1英镑=1.60美元 1英镑=1.63美元 1英镑=1.65美元 1英镑=1.67美元 1.63美元 1.63美元 1.63美元 1.63美元 1.63美元 1.63美元 1.63美元 1.63美元 1.65美元 1.67美元
第六章外汇风险管理的策略与方法
外汇现货市场
外汇期货市场
3月1日，
6250 110 56 . 82 万美元 62 . 5 万美元
3月1日，
9月1日，
6250 108
57 . 87 万美元
9月1日，
6250 100
6250 98
63 . 78 万美元
损失：62.5－56.82=5.68万美收益：63.78－ 57.87－0.5 元 =5.41万美元 • 现货市场的损失没有全部被期货市场的收益所抵补，相差 0.27万美元，其原因是：（1）支付外汇期货交易佣金0.5万美元（2）期汇市场与现汇市场的汇率变动幅度不一致 3月1日，1 1 0 . 0092592 0 . 0090099 0 . 0001683

国际财务管理课后习题答案chapter

国际财务管理课后习题答案c h a p t e rLast updated on the afternoon of January 3, 2021C H A P T E R8M A N A G E M E N T O F T R A N S A C T I O N E X P O S U R ESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS ANDPROBLEMSQUESTIONS1. How would you define transaction exposure How is it different from economic exposureAnswer: Transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency values of the firm’s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpected changes in exchange rates. Unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term.2. Discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure using the forward contract vs. money market instruments. When do the alternative hedging approaches produce the same result?Answer: Hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling or buying foreign currency receivables or payables forward. On the other hand, money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables, thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions. If the interest rate parity is holding, the two hedging methods are equivalent.3. Discuss and compare the costs of hedging via the forward contract and the options contract. Answer: There is no up-front cost of hedging by forward contracts. In the case of options hedging, however, hedgers should pay the premiums for the contracts up-front. The cost of forward hedging, however, may be realized ex post when the hedger regrets his/her hedging decision.4. What are the advantages of a currency options contract as a hedging tool compared with the forward contract?Answer: The main advantage of using options contracts for hedging is that the hedger can decide whether to exercise options upon observing the realized future exchange rate. Options thus provide a hedge against ex post regret that forward hedger might have to suffer. Hedgers can only eliminate the downside risk while retaining the upside potential.5. Suppose your company has purchased a put option on the German mark to manage exchange exposure associated with an account receivable denominated in that currency. In this case, your company can be said to have an ‘insurance’ policy on its re ceivable. Explain in what sense this is so. Answer: Your company in this case knows in advance that it will receive a certain minimum dollar amount no matter what might happen to the $/€exchange rate. Furthermore, if the German mark appreciates, your company will benefit from the rising euro.6. Recent surveys of corporate exchange risk management practices indicate that many U.S. firms simply do not hedge. How would you explain this result?Answer: There can be many possible reasons for this. First, many firms may feel that they are not really exposed to exchange risk due to product diversification, diversified markets for their products, etc. Second, firms may be using self-insurance against exchange risk. Third, firms may feel that shareholders can diversify exchange risk themselves, rendering corporate risk management unnecessary.7. Should a firm hedge Why or why notAnswer: In a perfect capital market, firms may not need to hedge exchange risk. But firms can add to their value by hedging if markets are imperfect. First, if management knows about the firm’s exposure better than shareholders, the firm, not its shareholders, should hedge. Second, firms may be able to hedge at a lower cost. Third, if default costs are significant, corporate hedging can be justifiable because it reduces the probability of default. Fourth, if the firm faces progressive taxes, it can reduce tax obligations by hedging which stabilizes corporate earnings.8. Us ing an example, discuss the possible effect of hedging on a firm’s tax obligations.Answer: One can use an example similar to the one presented in the chapter.9. Explain contingent exposure and discuss the advantages of using currency options to manage this type of currency exposure.Answer: Companies may encounter a situation where they may or may not face currency exposure. In this situation, companies need options, not obligations, to buy or sell a given amount of foreign exchange they may or may not receive or have to pay. If companies either hedge using forward contracts or do not hedge at all, they may face definite currency exposure.10. Explain cross-hedging and discuss the factors determining its effectiveness.Answer: Cross-hedging involves hedging a position in one asset by taking a position in another asset. The effectiveness of cross-hedging would depend on the strength and stability of the relationship between the two assets.PROBLEMS1. Cray Research sold a super computer to the Max Planck Institute in Germany on credit and invoiced €10 million payable in six months. Currently, the six-month forward exchange rate is $€ and the foreign exchange advisor for Cray Research predicts that th e spot rate is likely to be $€ in six months.(a) What is the expected gain/loss from the forward hedging?(b) If you were the financial manager of Cray Research, would you recommend hedging this euro receivable Why or why not(c) Suppose the foreign exchange advisor predicts that the future spot rate will be the same as the forward exchange rate quoted today. Would you recommend hedging in this case Why or why notSolution: (a) Expected gain($) = 10,000,000 –= 10,000,000(.05)= $500,000.(b) I would recommend hedging because Cray Research can increase the expected dollar receipt by $500,000 and also eliminate the exchange risk.(c) Since I eliminate risk without sacrificing dollar receipt, I still would recommend hedging.2. IBM purchased computer chips from NEC, a Japanese electronics concern, and was billed ￥250 million payable in three months. Currently, the spot exchange rate is ￥105/$ and the three-month forward rate is ￥100/$. The three-month money market interest rate is 8 percent per annum in the U.S. and 7 percent per annum in Japan. The management of IBM decided to use the money market hedge to deal with this yen account payable.(a) Explain the process of a money market hedge and compute the dollar cost of meeting the yen obligation.(b) Conduct the cash flow analysis of the money market hedge.Solution: (a). Let’s first compute the PV of ￥250 million, .,250m/ = ￥245,700,So if the above yen amount is invested today at the Japanese interest rate for three months, the maturity value will be exactly equal to ￥25 million which is the amount of payable.To buy the above yen amount today, it will cost:$2,340, = ￥250,000,000/105.The dollar cost of meeting this yen obligation is $2,340, as of today.(b)___________________________________________________________________Transaction CF0 CF1____________________________________________________________________1. Buy yens spot -$2,340,with dollars ￥245,700,2. Invest in Japan - ￥245,700, ￥250,000,0003. Pay yens - ￥250,000,000Net cash flow - $2,340,____________________________________________________________________3. You plan to visit Geneva, Switzerland in three months to attend an international business conference. You expect to incur the total cost of SF 5,000 for lodging, meals and transportation during your stay. As of today, the spot exchange rate is $SF and the three-month forward rate is $SF. You can buy the three-month call option on SF with the exercise rate of $SF for the premium of $ per SF. Assume that your expected future spot exchange rate is the same as the forward rate. The three-month interest rate is 6 percent per annum in the United States and 4 percent per annum in Switzerland.(a) Calculate your expected dollar cost of buying SF5,000 if you choose to hedge via call option on SF.(b) Calculate the future dollar cost of meeting this SF obligation if you decide to hedge using a forward contract.(c) At what future spot exchange rate will you be indifferent between the forward and option market hedges?(d) Illustrate the future dollar costs of meeting the SF payable against the future spot exchange rate under both the options and forward market hedges.Solution: (a) Total option premium = (.05)(5000) = $250. In three months, $250 is worth $ = $250. At the expected future spot rate of $SF, which is less than the exercise price, you don’t expect to exercise options. Rather, you expect to buy Swiss franc at $SF. Since you are going to buy SF5,000, you expect to spend $3,150 (=.63x5,000). Thus, the total expected cost of buying SF5,000 will be the sum of $3,150 and $, ., $3,.(b) $3,150 = (.63)(5,000).(c) $3,150 = 5,000x + , where x represents the break-even future spot rate. Solving for x, we obtain x = $SF. Note that at the break-even future spot rate, options will not be exercised.(d) If the Swiss franc appreciates beyond $SF, which is the exercise price of call option, you will exercise the option and buy SF5,000 for $3,200. The total cost of buying SF5,000 will be $3, = $3,200 + $.This is the maximum you will pay. 4. Boeing just signed a contract to sell a Boeing 737 aircraft to Air France. Air France will be billed€20 million which is payable in one year. The current spot exchange rate is $€ and the one -year forward rate is $€. The annual interest rate is % in the U.S. and % in France. Boeing is concerned with the volatile exchange rate between the dollar and the euro and would like to hedge exchange exposure. (a) It is considering two hedging alternatives: sell the euro proceeds from the sale forward or borroweuros from theCredit Lyonnaise against the euro receivable. Which alternative would you recommend Why(b) Other things being equal, at what forward exchange rate would Boeing be indifferent between the two hedging methods?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the future dollar proceeds will be (20,000,000) = $22,000,000. In the case of money market hedge (MMH), the firm has to first borrow the PV of its euro receivable, ., 20,000,000/ =€19,047,619. Then the firm should exchange this euro amount into dollars at the current spot rate to receive: (€19,047,619)($€) = $20,000,000, which can be invested at the dollar interest rate for one year to yield:$20,000,000 = $21,200,000.Clearly, the firm can receive $800,000 more by using forward hedging.(b) According to IRP, F = S(1+i $)/(1+i F ). Thus the “indifferent” forward rate will be:F = / = $€.5. Suppose that Baltimore Machinery sold a drilling machine to a Swiss firm and gave the Swiss client a choice of paying either $10,000 or SF 15,000 in three months.(a) In the above example, Baltimore Machinery effectively gave the Swiss client a free option to buy up to $10,000 dollars using Swiss franc. What is the ‘implied’ exercise exchange rate?(b) If the spot exchange rate turns out to be $SF, which currency do you think the Swiss client will choose to use for payment What is the value of this free option for the Swiss client(c) What is the best way for Baltimore Machinery to deal with the exchange exposure?Solution: (a) The implied exercise (price) rate is: 10,000/15,000 = $SF .(b) If the Swiss client chooses to pay $10,000, it will cost SF16,129 (=10,000/.62). Since the Swiss client has an option to pay SF15,000, it will choose to do so. The value of this option is obviously SF1,129 (=SF16,129-SF15,000).(c) Baltimore Machinery faces a contingent exposure in the sense that it may or may not receive $ Cost Options hedge Forward hedge$3, $3,150 0 (strike price) $/SF $SF15,000 in the future. The firm thus can hedge this exposure by buying a put option on SF15,000.6. Princess Cruise Company (PCC) purchased a ship from Mitsubishi Heavy Industry. PCC owes Mitsubishi Heavy Industry 500 million yen in one year. The current spot rate is 124 yen per dollar and the one-year forward rate is 110 yen per dollar. The annual interest rate is 5% in Japan and 8% in the . PCC can also buy a one-year call option on yen at the strike price of $.0081 per yen for a premium of .014 cents per yen.(a) Compute the future dollar costs of meeting this obligation using the money market hedge and the forward hedges.(b) Assuming that the forward exchange rate is the best predictor of the future spot rate, compute the expected future dollar cost of meeting this obligation when the option hedge is used.(c) At what future spot rate do you think PCC may be indifferent between the option and forward hedge?Solution: (a) In the case of forward hedge, the dollar cost will be 500,000,000/110 = $4,545,455. In the case of money market hedge, the future dollar cost will be: 500,000,000/(124)= $4,147,465.(b) The option premium is: (.014/100)(500,000,000) = $70,000. Its future value will be $70,000 = $75,600.At the expected future spot rate of $.0091(=1/110), which is higher than the exercise of $.0081, PCC will exercise its call option and buy ￥500,000,000 for $4,050,000 (=500,000,.The total expected cost will thus be $4,125,600, which is the sum of $75,600 and $4,050,000.(c) When the option hedge is used, PCC will spend “at most” $4,125,000. On the other hand, when the forward hedging is used, PCC will have to spend $4,545,455 regardless of the future spot rate. This means that the options hedge dominates the forward hedge. At no future spot rate, PCC will be indifferent between forward and options hedges.7. Airbus sold an aircraft, A400, to Delta Airlines, a U.S. company, and billed $30 million payable in six months. Airbus is concerned with the euro proceeds from international sales and would like to control exchange risk. The current spot exchange rate is $€ and six-month forward exchange rate is $€ at the moment. Airbus can buy a six-month put option on . dollars with a strike price of €$ f or a premium of € per . dollar. Currently, six-month interest rate is % in the euro zone and % in the U.S.pute the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale if Airbus decides to hedge usinga forward contract.b.If Airbus decides to hedge using money market instruments, what action does Airbus need totake What would be the guaranteed euro proceeds from the American sale in this casec.d.If Airbus decides to hedge using put options on . dollars, what would be the ‘expected’ europroceeds from the American salee.Assume that Airbus regards the current forward exchange rate as an unbiased predictor of thefuture spot exchange rate.f.g.At what future spot exchange rate do you think Airbus will be indifferent between the option andmoney market hedge?Solution:a. Airbus will sell $30 million forward for €27,272,727 = ($30,000,000) / ($€).b. Airbus will borrow the present value of the dollar receivable, ., $29,126,214 = $30,000,000/, and then sell the dollar proceeds spot for euros: €27,739,251. This is the euro amount that Airbus is going to keep.c. Since the expected future spot rate is less than the strike price of the put option, ., €< €, Airbus expects to exercise the option and receive €28,500,000 = ($30,000,000)(€$). This is gross proceeds. Airbus spent €600,000 (=,000,000) upfront for the option and its future cost is equal to €615,000 = €600,000 x . Thus the net euro proceeds from the American sale is €27,885,000, which is the difference between the gross proceeds and the option costs.d. At the indifferent future spot rate, the following will hold:€28,432,732 = S T (30,000,000) - €615,000.Solving for S T, we obtain the “indifference” future spot exchange rate, ., €$, or $€. Note that €28,432,732 is the future value of the proceeds under money market hedging:€28,432,732 = (€27,739,251) .Suggested solution for Mini Case: Chase Options, Inc.[See Chapter 13 for the case text]Chase Options, Inc.Hedging Foreign Currency Exposure Through Currency OptionsHarvey A. PoniachekI. Case SummaryThis case reviews the foreign exchange options market and hedging. It presents various international transactions that require currency options hedging strategies by the corporations involved. Seven transactions under a variety of circumstances are introduced that require hedging by currency options. The transactions involve hedging of dividend remittances, portfolio investment exposure, and strategic economic competitiveness. Market quotations are provided for options (and options hedging ratios), forwards, and interest rates for various maturities.II. Case Objective.The case introduces the student to the principles of currency options market and hedging strategies. The transactions are of various types that often confront companies that are involved in extensive international business or multinational corporations. The case induces students to acquire hands-on experience in addressing specific exposure and hedging concerns, including how to apply various market quotations, which hedging strategy is most suitable, and how to address exposure in foreign currency through cross hedging policies.III. Proposed Assignment Solution1. The company expects DM100 million in repatriated profits, and does not want the DM/$ exchange rate at which they convert those profits to rise above . They can hedge this exposure using DM put options with a strike price of . If the spot rate rises above , they can exercise the option, while if that rate falls they can enjoy additional profits from favorable exchange rate movements.To purchase the options would require an up-front premium of:DM 100,000,000 x = DM 1,640,000.With a strike price of DM/$, this would assure the U.S. company of receiving at least:DM 100,000,000 – DM 1,640,000 x (1 + x 272/360)= DM 98,254,544/ DM/$ = $57,796,791by exercising the option if the DM depreciated. Note that the proceeds from the repatriated profits are reduced by the premium paid, which is further adjusted by the interest foregone on this amount. However, if the DM were to appreciate relative to the dollar, the company would allow the option to expire, and enjoy greater dollar proceeds from this increase.Should forward contracts be used to hedge this exposure, the proceeds received would be:DM100,000,000/ DM/$ = $59,790,732,regardless of the movement of the DM/$ exchange rate. While this amount is almost $2 million more than that realized using option hedges above, there is no flexibility regarding the exercise date; if this date differs from that at which the repatriate profits are available, the company may be exposed to additional further current exposure. Further, there is no opportunity to enjoy any appreciation in the DM.If the company were to buy DM puts as above, and sell an equivalent amount in calls with strike price , the premium paid would be exactly offset by the premium received. This would assure that the exchange rate realized would fall between and . If the rate rises above , the company will exercise its put option, and if it fell below , the other party would use its call; for any rate in between, both options would expire worthless. The proceeds realized would then fall between:DM 100,00,000/ DM/$ = $60,716,454andDM 100,000,000/ DM/$ = $58,823,529.This would allow the company some upside potential, while guaranteeing proceeds at least $1 million greater than the minimum for simply buying a put as above.Buy/Sell OptionsDM/$Spot Put Payoff “Put”Profits Call Payoff“Call”Profits Net Profit(1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 0 1,742,846 60,716,454 60,716,454 (1,742,846) 60,606,061 1,742,846 0 60,606,061 (1,742,846) 60,240,964 1,742,846 0 60,240,964 (1,742,846) 59,880,240 1,742,846 0 59,880,240 (1,742,846) 59,523,810 1,742,846 0 59,523,810 (1,742,846) 59,171,598 1,742,846 0 59,171,598 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529 (1,742,846) 58,823,529 1,742,846 0 58,823,529Since the firm believes that there is a good chance that the pound sterling will weaken, locking them into a forward contract would not be appropriate, because they would lose the opportunity to profit from this weakening. Their hedge strategy should follow for an upside potential to match their viewpoint. Therefore, they should purchase sterling call options, paying a premium of:5,000,000 STG x = 88,000 STG.If the dollar strengthens against the pound, the firm allows the option to expire, and buys sterling in the spot market at a cheaper price than they would have paid for a forward contract; otherwise, the sterling calls protect against unfavorable depreciation of the dollar.Because the fund manager is uncertain when he will sell the bonds, he requires a hedge which will allow flexibility as to the exercise date. Thus, options are the best instrument for him to use. He can buy A$ puts to lock in a floor of A$/$. Since he is willing to forego any further currency appreciation, he can sell A$ calls with a strike price of A$/$ to defray the cost of his hedge (in fact he earns a net premium of A$ 100,000,000 x –= A$ 2,300), while knowing that he can’t receive less than A$/$ when redeeming his investment, and can benefit from a small appreciation of the A$. Example #3:Problem: Hedge principal denominated in A$ into US$. Forgo upside potential to buy floor protection.I. Hedge by writing calls and buying puts1) Write calls for $/A$ @Buy puts for $/A$ @# contracts needed = Principal in A$/Contract size100,000,000A$/100,000 A$ = 1002) Revenue from sale of calls = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,573 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007234 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)3) Total cost of puts = (# contracts)(size of contract)(premium)$75,332 = (100)(100,000 A$)(.007211 $/A$)(1 + .0825 195/360)4) Put payoffIf spot falls below , fund manager will exercise putIf spot rises above , fund manager will let put expire5) Call payoffIf spot rises above .8025, call will be exercised If spot falls below .8025, call will expire6) Net payoffSee following Table for net payoff Australian Dollar Bond HedgeStrikePrice Put Payoff “Put”Principal Call Payoff“Call”Principal Net Profit(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 72,000,000 75,573 0 72,000,241(75,332) 73,000,000 75,573 0 73,000,241(75,332) 74,000,000 75,573 0 74,000,241(75,332) 75,000,000 75,573 0 75,000,241(75,332) 76,000,000 75,573 0 76,000,241(75,332) 77,000,000 75,573 0 77,000,241(75,332) 78,000,000 75,573 0 78,000,241(75,332) 79,000,000 75,573 0 79,000,241(75,332) 80,000,000 75,573 0 80,000,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241(75,332) 0 75,573 80,250,000 80,250,241 4. The German company is bidding on a contract which they cannot be certain of winning. Thus, the need to execute a currency transaction is similarly uncertain, and using a forward or futures as a hedge is inappropriate, because it would force them to perform even if they do not win the contract. Using a sterling put option as a hedge for this transaction makes the most sense. For a premium of: 12 million STG x = 193,200 STG,they can assure themselves that adverse movements in the pound sterling exchange rate will notdiminish the profitability of the project (and hence the feasibility of their bid), while at the same time allowing the potential for gains from sterling appreciation.5. Since AMC in concerned about the adverse effects that a strengthening of the dollar would have on its business, we need to create a situation in which it will profit from such an appreciation. Purchasing a yen put or a dollar call will achieve this objective. The data in Exhibit 1, row 7 represent a 10 percent appreciation of the dollar strike vs. forward rate) and can be used to hedge against a similar appreciation of the dollar.For every million yen of hedging, the cost would be:Yen 100,000,000 x = 127 Yen.To determine the breakeven point, we need to compute the value of this option if the dollar appreciated 10 percent (spot rose to , and subtract from it the premium we paid. This profit would be compared with the profit earned on five to 10 percent of AMC’s sales (which would be lost as a result of the dollar appreciation). The number of options to be purchased which would equalize these two quantities would represent the breakeven point.Example #5:Hedge the economic cost of the depreciating Yen to AMC.If we assume that AMC sales fall in direct proportion to depreciation in the yen ., a 10 percent decline in yen and 10 percent decline in sales), then we can hedge the full value of AMC’s sales. I have assumed $100 million in sales.1) Buy yen puts# contracts needed = Expected Sales *Current ￥/$ Rate / Contract size9600 = ($100,000,000)(120￥/$) / ￥1,250,0002) Total Cost = (# contracts)(contract size)(premium)$1,524,000 = (9600)( ￥1,250,000)($￥)3) Floor rate = Exercise – Premium￥/$ = ￥/$ - $1,524,000/12,000,000,000￥4) The payoff changes depending on the level of the ￥/$ rate. The following table summarizes thepayoffs. An equilibrium is reached when the spot rate equals the floor rate.AMC ProfitabilityYen/$ Spot Put Payoff Sales Net Profit120 (1,524,990) 100,000,000 98,475,010121 (1,524,990) 99,173,664 97,648,564122 (1,524,990) 98,360,656 96,835,666123 (1,524,990) 97,560,976 86,035,986124 (1,524,990) 96,774,194 95,249,204125 (1,524,990) 96,000,000 94,475,010126 (1,524,990) 95,238,095 93,713,105127 (847,829) 94,488,189 93,640,360128 (109,640) 93,750,000 93,640,360129 617,104 93,023,256 93,640,360130 1,332,668 92,307,692 93,640,360131 2,037,307 91,603,053 93,640,360132 2,731,269 90,909,091 93,640,360133 3,414,796 90,225,664 93,640,360134 4,088,122 89,552,239 93,640,360135 4,751,431 88,888,889 93,640,360136 5,405,066 88,235,294 93,640,360137 6,049,118 87,591,241 93,640,360138 6,683,839 86,966,522 93,640,360139 7,308,425 86,330,936 93,640,360140 7,926,075 85,714,286 93,640,360141 8,533,977 85,106,383 93,640,360142 9,133,318 84,507,042 93,640,360143 9,724,276 83,916,084 93,640,360144 10,307,027 83,333,333 93,640,360145 10,881,740 82,758,621 93,640,360146 11,448,579 82,191,781 93,640,360147 12,007,707 81,632,653 93,640,360148 12,569,279 81,081,081 93,640,360149 13,103,448 80,536,913 93,640,360150 13,640,360 80,000,000 93,640,360The parent has a DM payable, and Lira receivable. It has several ways to cover its exposure; forwards,。

国际财务管理（英文版）课后习题答案8

IM-1 CHAPTER 7 FUTURES AND OPTIONS ON FOREIGN EXCHANGESUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER QUESTIONS AND PROBLEMSQUESTIONS 1. Explain Explain the the the basic basic basic differences differences differences between between between the the the operation operation operation of of of a a a currency currency currency forward forward forward market market market and and and a a a futures futures market. Answer: The The forward forward forward market market market is is is an an an OTC OTC OTC market market market where where where the the the forward forward forward contract contract contract for for for purchase purchase purchase or or or sale sale sale of of foreign currency is tailor-made between the client and its international bank. No money changes hands until the maturity date of the contract when delivery and receipt are typically made. A futures contract is an an exchange-traded exchange-traded exchange-traded instrument instrument instrument with with with standardized standardized standardized features features features specifying specifying specifying contract contract contract size size size and and and delivery delivery delivery date. date. Futures Futures contracts contracts contracts are are are marked-to-market marked-to-market marked-to-market daily daily daily to to to reflect reflect reflect changes changes changes in in in the the the settlement settlement settlement price. price. Delivery Delivery is is seldom made in a futures market. Rather a reversing trade is made to close out a long or short position.2. In In order order order for for for a a a derivatives derivatives derivatives market market market to to to function function function most most most efficiently, efficiently, two two types types types of of of economic economic economic agents agents agents are are needed: hedgers and speculators. Explain. Answer: Two Two types types types of of of market market market participants participants participants are are are necessary necessary necessary for for for the the the efficient efficient efficient operation operation operation of of of a a a derivatives derivatives market: speculators and h edgers hedgers . A speculator attempts to profit from a change in the futures price. To To do do do this, this, this, the the the speculator speculator speculator will will will take take take a a a long long long or or or short short short position position position in in in a a a futures futures futures contract contract contract depending depending depending upon upon upon his his expectations of future price movement. A hedger, on-the-other-hand, desires to avoid price variation by locking in a purchase price of the underlying asset through a long position in a futures contract or a sales price through a short position. In effect, the hedger passes off the risk of price variation to the speculator who is better able, or at least more willing, to bear this risk. 3. Why are most futures positions closed out through a reversing trade rather than held to delivery? Answer: In forward markets, approximately 90 percent of all contracts that are initially established result i n the short making delivery to the long of the asset underlying the contract. This is natural because the terms of forward forward contracts contracts contracts are are are tailor-made tailor-made between the the long long long and and and short. short. By By contrast, contrast, only only about about about one one one percent percent percent of of currency futures contracts result in delivery. While futures contracts are useful for speculation and hedgi n g , their standardized delivery delivery dates dates dates make them make them unlikely unlikely to to to correspond correspond correspond to the actual future to the actual future dates when foreign IM-2 exchange exchange transactions transactions transactions will will will occur. occur. Thus, Thus, they they they are are are generally generally generally closed closed closed out out out in in in a a a reversing reversing reversing trade. trade. In In fact, fact, fact, the the commission commission that that that buyers buyers buyers and and and sellers sellers sellers pay to pay to transact transact in in in the the the futures futures futures market market market is a single is a single a mount amount amount that covers that covers the round-trip transactions of initiating and closing out the position. 4. How can the FX futures market be used for price discovery? Answer: To the extent that FX forward prices are an unbiased predictor of future spot exchange rates, the market anticipates whether one currency will appreciate or depreciate versus another. Because FXfutures contracts trade in an expiration cycle, different contracts expire at different periodic dates into the future. The pattern of the prices of these cont racts provides information as to the market’s current belief about about the the the relative relative relative future future future value value value of of of one one one currency currency currency versus versus versus another at another at the the scheduled scheduled scheduled expiration expiration expiration dates dates dates of of of the the contracts. One will generally generally see see see a a a steadily steadily steadily appreciating appreciating appreciating or or or depreciating depreciating depreciating pattern; pattern; pattern; however, however, however, it it it may may may be be mixed mixed at at at times. times. Thus, Thus, the the the futures futures futures market market market is is is useful useful useful for for price discovery , , i.e., i.e., i.e., obtaining obtaining obtaining the the the market’s market’s forecast of the spot exchange rate at different future dates. 5. What is the major difference in the obligation of one with a long position in a futures (or forward) contract in comparison to an options contract? Answer: Answer: A A A futures futures futures (or (or (or forward) forward) forward) contract contract contract is is is a a a vehicle vehicle vehicle for for for buying buying buying or or or selling selling selling a a a stated stated stated amount amount amount of of of foreign foreign exchange at a stated price per unit at a specified time in the future. If the long holds the contract to the delivery date, he pays the effective contractual futures (or forward) price, regardless of whether it is an advantageous advantageous price price price in in in comparison comparison comparison to to to the the the spot spot spot price price price at at at the the the delivery delivery delivery date. date. By By contrast, contrast, contrast, an an an option option option is is is a a contract giving the long the right to buy or sell a given quantity of an asset at a specified price at some time time in in in the the the future, future, future, but but but not enforcing not enforcing any any obligation obligation obligation on on on him him him if if if the the the spot spot spot price price price is is is more more more favorable favorable favorable than than than the the exercise price. Because the option owner does not have to exercise the option if it is to his disadvantage, the option has a price, or premium, whereas no price is paid at inception to enter into a futures (or forward) contract. 6. What is meant by the terminology that an option is in-, at-, or out-of-the-money? Answer: A call (put) option with S t > E (E > S t ) is referred to as trading in-the-money. If S t@ E the option is trading at-the-money. If S t< E (E < S t ) the call (put) option is trading out-of-the-money . IM-3 7. List List the the the arguments (variables) arguments (variables) of of which which which an an an FX call FX call or or put put put option option option model model model price price price is is is a function. a function. How does the call and put premium change with respect to a change in the arguments? Answer: Both call and put options are functions of only six variables: S t , E, r i , r $, Ta nd and s . When all else remains the same, the price of a European FX call (put) option will increase: 1. the larger (smaller) is S , 2. the smaller (larger) is E , 3. the smaller (larger) is r i , 4. the larger (smaller) is r $, 5. the larger (smaller) r $ is relative to r i , and 6. the greater is s . When r $ and r i are not too much different in size, a European FX call and put will increase in price when the option term-to-maturity increases. However, when r $ is very much larger than r i , a European FX call will will increase increase increase in in in price, price, price, but but but the the the put put put premium premium premium will will will decrease, decrease, decrease, when when when the the the option option option term-to-maturity term-to-maturity term-to-maturity increases. increases. The opposite is true when r i is very much greater than r $. For American FX options the analysis is less complicated. Since Since a a a longer longer longer term term term American American American option option option can can can be be be exercised exercised exercised on on on any any any date date date that that that a shorter a shorter term option can be exercised, or a some later date, it follows that the all else remaining the same, the longer term American option will sell at a price at least as large as the shorter term option. IM-4 PROBLEMS 1. Assume Assume today’s today’s today’s settlement settlement settlement price price price on on on a a a CME CME CME EUR EUR EUR futures futures futures contract contract contract is is is $1.3140/EUR. $1.3140/EUR. ou Y ou have have have a a short position in one contract. Your performance bond account currently has a balance of $1,700. The next next three three three days’ days’ days’ settlement settlement settlement prices prices prices are are are $1.3126, $1.3126, $1.3126, $1.3133, $1.3133, $1.3133, and and and $1.3049. $1.3049. Calculate Calculate the the the chan chan changes ges ges in in in the the performance performance bond bond bond account account account from from from daily daily daily marking-to-market marking-to-market and and the the the balance balance balance of of of the the the performance performance performance bond bond account after the third day. Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3140 - $1.3126) + ($1.3126 - $1.3133) + ($1.3133 - $1.3049)] x EUR125,000 = $2,837.50, where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract. 2. Do problem 1 again assuming you have a long position in the futures contract. Solution: $1,700 + [($1.3126 - $1.3140) + ($1.3133 - $1.3126) + ($1.3049 - $1.3133)] x EUR125,000 = $562.50, where EUR125,000 is the contractual size of one EUR contract. With only $562.50 in your performance bond account, you would experience a a margin margin call requesting that additional funds be added to your performance bond account to bring the balance back up to the initial performance bond level. 3. Using Using the the the quotations quotations quotations in in in Exhibit Exhibit Exhibit 7.3, 7.3, 7.3, calculate calculate calculate the the the face face face value value value of of of the the the open open open interest interest interest in in in the the the June June June 2005 2005 Swiss franc futures contract. Solution: 2,101 contracts x SF125,000 = SF262,625,000.where SF125,000 is the contractual size of one SF contract. 4. Using the quotations in Exhibit 7.3, note that the June 2005 Mexican peso futures contract has a price of of $0.08845. $0.08845. ou Y ou believe believe believe the the the spot spot spot price price price in in in June will June will be be $0.09500. $0.09500. What speculative position position would would you enter into to attempt to profit from your beliefs? Calculate your anticipated profits, assuming you take a position i n three contracts. in three contracts. What is the size of your profit (loss) if the futures price is indeed an unbiased predictor of the future spot price and this price materializes? September 20, 1999 December 20, 1999 March 20, 2000 ·Borrow $100 million at ·Pay interest for first three ·Pay back principal September 20 LIBOR + 200 months plus interest basis points (bps) ·Roll loan over at ·September 20 LIBOR = 7% December 20 LIBOR + 200 bps IM-6 Loan First loan payment (9%) Second payment initiated and futures contract expires and principal ¯ ¯ ¯· · ·9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00 a. Formulate Johnson’s September 20 floating -to-fixed-rate strategy using the Eurodollar future contracts discussed discussed in in in the the the text text text above. above. Show Show that that that this this this strategy strategy strategy would would would result result result in in in a a a fixed-rate fixed-rate fixed-rate loan, loan, loan, assuming assuming assuming an an increase in the LIBOR rate to 7.8 percent by December 20, which remains at 7.8 percent through March 20. Show all calculations. Johnson Johnson is is is considering considering considering a a a 12-month 12-month 12-month loan loan loan as as as an an an alternative. alternative. This This approach approach approach will will will result result result in in in two two two additional additional uncertain cash flows, as follows: Loan First Second Third Fourth payment initiated payment (9%) payment payment and principal ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯¯· · · · ·9/20/99 12/20/99 3/20/00 6/20/00 9/20/00 b. Describe the strip hedge that Johnson could use and explain how it hedges the 12-month loan (specify number of contracts). No calculations are needed. CFA Guideline Answer a. The basis point value (BPV) of a Eurodollar futures contract can be found by substituting the contract specifications into the following money market relationship: BPV FUT = Change in V alue = (face value) x (days to maturity / 360) x (change in yield)= ($1 million) x (90 / 360) x (.0001) = $25 The number of contract, N, can be found by: N = (BPV spot) / (BPV futures) = ($2,500) / ($25) = 100 OR IM-7 N = (value of spot position) / (face value of each futures contract) = ($100 million) / ($1 million) = 100 OR N = (value of spot position) / (value of futures position) = ($100,000,000) / ($981,750) where value of futures position = $1,000,000 x [1 – (0.073 / 4)] » 102 contracts Therefore on September 20, Johnson would sell 100 (or 102) December Eurodollar futures contracts at the 7.3 percent yield. The implied LIBOR rate in December is 7.3 percent as indicated by the December Eurofutures discount yield of 7.3 percent. Thus a borrowing rate of 9.3 percent (7.3 percent + 200 basis points) can be locked in if the hedge is correctly implemented. A rise in the rate to 7.8 percent represents a 50 basis point (bp) i ncrease over the implied LIBOR rate. increase over the implied LIBOR rate. For a 50 basis point increase in LIBOR, the cash flow on the short futures position is: = ($25 per basis point per contract) x 50 bp x 100 contracts = $125,000. However, the cash flow on the floating rate liability is: = -0.098 x ($100,000,000 / 4) = - $2,450,000. Combining Combining the the the cash cash cash flow flow flow from from from the the the hedge hedge hedge with with with the the the cash cash cash flow flow flow from from from the the the loan loan loan results results results in in in a a a net net net outflow outflow outflow of of $2,325,000, which translates into an annual rate of 9.3 percent: = ($2,325,000 x 4) / $100,000,000 = 0.093 This is precisely the implied borrowing rate that Johnson locked in on September 20. Regardless of the LIBOR rate on December 20, the net cash outflow will be $2,325,000, which translates into an annualized rate of 9.3 percent. Consequently, the floating rate liability has been converted to a fixed rate liability in the sense that the interest rate uncertainty associated with the March 20 payment (using the December 20 contract) has been removed as of September 20. b. In a strip hedge, Johnson would sell 100 December futures (for the March payment), 100 March futures (for (for the the the June June June payment), payment), payment), and and and 100 100 100 June futures (for June futures (for t he the the September September September payment). payment). The The objective objective objective is is is to to to hedge hedge each each interest interest interest rate rate rate payment payment payment separately separately separately using using using the the the appropriate appropriate appropriate number number number of of of contracts. contracts. The The problem problem problem is is is the the same as in Part A except here three cash flows are subject to rising rates and a strip of futures is used to Strategy A Strategy BContract Month (contracts) (contracts)September 1998 300 100 December 1998 0 100 March 1999 0 100 a. Explain why strategy B is a more effective hedge than strategy A when the yield curve IM-9 a. Strategy B’s SuperiorityStrategy B is a strip hedge that is constructed by selling (shorting) 100 futures contracts maturing in each of of the the the next next next three three three quarters. quarters. With With the the the strip strip strip hedge hedge hedge in in in place, place, place, each each each quarter quarter quarter of of of the the the coming coming coming year year year is is is hedged hedged against shifts in interest rates for that quarter. The reason Strategy B will be a more effective hedge than Strategy Strategy A A A for for for Jacob Jacob Jacob Bower Bower Bower is is is that that that Strategy Strategy Strategy B B B is is is likely likely likely to to to work work work well well well whether whether whether a a a parallel parallel parallel shift shift shift or or or a a nonparallel shift occurs over the one-year term of Bower’s liability. That is, regardless of what happens to the term structure, Strategy B structures the futures hedge so that the rates reflected by the Eurodollar futures cash price match the applicable rates for the underlying liability-the 90day LIBOR-based rate on Bower’s Bower’s liability. liability. The The same same same is is is not not not true true true for for for Strategy Strategy Strategy A. A. Because Because Jacob Jacob Jacob Bower’s Bower’s Bower’s liability liability liability carries carries carries a a floating interest rate that resets quarterly, he needs a strategy that provides a series of three-month hedges. Strategy A will need to be restructured when the three-month September contract expires. In particular, if the yield curve twists upward (futures yields rise more for distant expirations than for near expirations), Strategy A will produce inferior hedge results. b. Scenario in Which Strategy A is Superior Strategy Strategy A A A is is is a a a stack stack stack hedge strategy hedge strategy that that initially initially initially involves involves involves selling selling selling (shorting) (shorting) (shorting) 300 300 300 September September September contracts. contracts. Strategy Strategy A A A is is is rarely rarely rarely better better better than than than Strategy Strategy Strategy B B B as as as a a a hedging hedging hedging or or or risk-reduction risk-reduction risk-reduction strategy. strategy. Only Only from from from the the perspective of favorable cash flows is Strategy A better than Strategy B. Such cash flows occur only in certain certain interest interest interest rate rate rate scenarios. scenarios. For For example example example Strategy Strategy Strategy A A A will will will work work work as as as well well well as as as Strategy Strategy Strategy B B B for for for Bower’s Bower’s liability liability if if if interest interest interest rates rates rates (instantaneously) (instantaneously) (instantaneously) change change change in in in parallel parallel parallel fashion. fashion. Another Another interest interest interest rate rate rate scenario scenario where where Strategy Strategy Strategy A A A outperforms outperforms outperforms Strategy Strategy Strategy B B B is is is one one one in in in which which which the the the yield yield yield curve curve curve rises rises rises but but but with with with a a a twist twist twist so so so that that futures futures yields yields yields rise rise rise more more more for for for near near near expirations expirations than than for for for distant distant distant expirations. expirations. Upon Upon expiration expiration expiration of of of the the September contract, Bower will have to roll out his hedge by selling 200 December contracts to hedge the remaining interest payments. This action will have the effect that the cash flow from Strategy A will be larger than the cash flow from Strategy B because the appreciation on the 300 short September futures contracts will be larger than the cumulative appreciation in the 300 contracts shorted in Strategy B (i.e., 100 100 September, September, September, 100 100 100 December, December, December, and and and 100 100 100 March). March). Consequently, Consequently, the the the cash cash cash flow flow flow from from from Strategy Strategy Strategy A A A will will more than offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability, whereas the cash flow from Strategy B will exactly offset the increase in the interest payment on the liability. 8. Use Use the the the quotations quotations quotations in in in Exhibit Exhibit Exhibit 7.7 7.7 7.7 to to to calculate calculate calculate the the the intrinsic intrinsic intrinsic value value value and and and the the the time time time value value value of of of the the the 97 97 September Japanese yen American call and put options.Solution: Premium - Intrinsic V alue = Time V alue IM-10 97 Sep Call 2.08 - Max[95.80 – 97.00 = - 1.20, 0] = 2.08 cents per 100 yen 97 Sep Put 2.47 - Max[97.00 – 95.80 = 1.20, 0] = 1.27 cents per 100 yen 9. Assume Assume spot spot spot Swiss Swiss Swiss franc franc franc is is is $0.7000 $0.7000 $0.7000 and and and the the the six-month six-month six-month forward forward forward rate rate rate is is is $0.6950. $0.6950. What What is is is the the minimum price that a six-month American call option with a striking price of $0.6800 should sell for in a rational market? Assume the annualized six-month Eurodollar rate is 3 ½ percent. Solution: Note to Instructor: A complete solution to this problem relies on the boundary expressions presented in footnote 3 of the text of Chapter 7. C a ³Max [(70 - 68), (69.50 - 68)/(1.0175), 0] ³ Max [ 2, 1.47, 0] = 2 cents 10. Do problem 9 again assuming an American put option instead of a call option.Solution: P a ³Max [(68 - 70), (68 - 69.50)/(1.0175), 0] ³Max [ -2, -1.47, 0] = 0 cents 11. Use the European option-pricing models developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9 and the the put put put of of of problem problem problem 10. 10. Assume Assume the the the annualized annualized annualized volatility volatility volatility of of of the the the Swiss Swiss Swiss franc franc franc is is is 14.2 14.2 14.2 percent. percent. This problem can be solved using the FXOPM.xls spreadsheet. Solution: d 1 = [ln (69.50/68) + .5(.142)2(.50)]/(.142)Ö.50 = .2675 d 2 = d 1 - .142Ö.50 = .2765 - .1004 = .1671 N(d 1) = .6055 N(d 2) = .5664 N(-d 1) = .3945 N(-d 2) = .4336 C e = [69.50(.6055) - 68(.5664)]e -(.035)(.50) = 3.51 cents P e = [68(.4336) - 69.50(.3945)]e -(.035)(.50) = 2.03 cents 12. Use the binomial option-pricing model developed in the chapter to value the call of problem 9. IM-11 The volatility of the Swiss franc is 14.2 percent. Solution: The spot rate at T will be either 77.39¢ = 70.00¢(1.1056) or 63.32¢(1.1056) or 63.32¢ = 70.00¢ = 70.00¢(.9045), where (.9045), where u = e .142Ö.50 = = 1.1056 1.1056 1.1056 and and d = 1/u = .9045. At At the the the exercise exercise exercise price price price of of E = = 68, 68, 68, the the the option option option will will will only only only be be exercised at time T if the Swiss franc appreciates; its exercise value would be C uT = 9.39¢9.39¢ = 77.39¢ = 77.39¢ - - 68. If the Swiss franc depreciates it would not be rational to exercise the option; its value would be C dT = 0. The hedge ratio is h = (9.39 – 0)/(77.39 – 63.32) = .6674. Thus, the call premium is: C 0 = Max {[69.50(.6674) {[69.50(.6674) –– 68((70/68)(.6674 – 1) +1)]/(1.0175), 70 – 68} = Max [1.64, 2] = 2 cents per SF. IM-12 MINI CASE: THE OPTIONS SPECULA TOR A A speculator speculator speculator is is is considering considering considering the the the purchase purchase purchase of of of five five five three-month three-month three-month Japanese Japanese Japanese yen yen yen call call call options options options with with with a a striking price of 96 cents per 100 yen. The premium is 1.35 cents per 100 yen. The spot price is 95.28 cents cents per per per 100 100 100 yen yen yen and and and the the the 90-day 90-day 90-day forward forward forward rate rate rate is is is 95.71 95.71 95.71 cents. cents. cents. The The The speculator speculator speculator believes believes believes the the the yen yen yen will will appreciate to $1.00 per 100 yen over the next three months. As the speculator’s assistant, you have been asked to prepare the following: 1. Graph the call option cash flow schedule. 2. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen appreciates to $1.00/100 yen.3. Determine the speculator’s profit if the yen only appreciates to the forward rate.4. Determine the future spot price at which the speculator will only break even. Suggested Solution to the Options Speculator: 1. +-2. (5 x ¥6,250,000) x [(100 - 96) - 1.35]/10000 = $8,281.25. 6,250,000) x [(100 - 96) - 1.35]/10000 = $8,281.25. 3. Since the option expires out-of-the-money, the speculator will let the option expire worthless. He will only lose the option premium. 4. S T = E + C = 96 + 1.35 = 97.35 cents per 100 yen. 。

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CHAPTER 8 MANAGEMENT OF TRANSACTION EXPOSURE SUGGESTED ANSWERS AND SOLUTIONS TO END—OF—CHAPTER QUESTIONS ANDPROBLEMSQUESTIONS1。

How would you define transaction exposure? How is it different from economic exposure? Answer：Transaction exposure is the sensitivity of realized domestic currency values of the firm’s contractual cash flows denominated in foreign currencies to unexpected changes in exchange rates。

Unlike economic exposure, transaction exposure is well-defined and short-term。

2。

Discuss and compare hedging transaction exposure using the forward contract vs。

money market instruments。

When do the alternative hedging approaches produce the same result？Answer: Hedging transaction exposure by a forward contract is achieved by selling or buying foreign currency receivables or payables forward。

On the other hand，money market hedge is achieved by borrowing or lending the present value of foreign currency receivables or payables, thereby creating offsetting foreign currency positions. If the interest rate parity is holding， the two hedging methods are equivalent。

3。

Discuss and compare the costs of hedging via the forward contract and the options contract. Answer： There is no up—front cost of hedging by forward contracts. In the case of options hedging, however，hedgers should pay the premiums for the contracts up-front. The cost of forward hedging, however， may be realized ex post when the hedger regrets his/her hedging decision.4. What are the advantages of a currency options contract as a hedging tool compared with the forward contract?Answer：The main advantage of using options contracts for hedging is that the hedger can decide whether to exercise options upon observing the realized future exchange rate。

Options thus provide a hedge against ex post regret that forward hedger might have to suffer. Hedgers can only eliminate the downside risk while retaining the upside potential.5. Suppose your company has purchased a put option on the German mark to manage exchange exposure associated with an account receivable denominated in that currency。

In this case, your company can be said to have an ‘insurance’ policy on its receivable。

Explain in what sense this is so。

Answer: Your company in this case knows in advance that it will receive a certain minimum dollar amount no matter what might happen to the ＄/€exchange rate. Furthermore, if the German mark appreciates, your company will benefit from the rising euro.6。

Recent surveys of corporate exchange risk management practices indicate that many U。

S. firmssimply do not hedge. How would you explain this result？Answer: There can be many possible reasons for this。

First， many firms may feel that they are not really exposed to exchange risk due to product diversification, diversified markets for their products， etc. Second, firms may be using self—insurance against exchange risk。

Third，firms may feel that shareholders can diversify exchange risk themselves，rendering corporate risk management unnecessary。

7。

Should a firm hedge? Why or why not?Answer: In a perfect capital market, firms may not need to hedge exchange risk. But firms can add to their value by hedging if markets are imperfect。

First， if management knows about the firm's exposure better than shareholders, the firm, not its shareholders, should hedge。

Second， firms may be able to hedge at a lower cost。

Third，if default costs are significant， corporate hedging can be justifiable because it reduces the probability of default。

Fourth, if the firm faces progressive taxes, it can reduce tax obligations by hedging which stabilizes corporate earnings。

8。

Using an example，discuss the possible effect of hedging on a firm’s tax obligations.Answer: One can use an example similar to the one presented in the chapter.9. Explain contingent exposure and discuss the advantages of using currency options to manage this type of currency exposure。

Answer: Companies may encounter a situation where they may or may not face currency exposure。

In this situation，companies need options, not obligations, to buy or sell a given amount of foreign exchange they may or may not receive or have to pay. If companies either hedge using forward contracts or do not hedge at all， they may face definite currency exposure.10。

Explain cross—hedging and discuss the factors determining its effectiveness。

Answer： Cross—hedging involves hedging a position in one asset by taking a position in another asset. The effectiveness of cross—hedging would depend on the strength and stability of the relationship between the two assets.PROBLEMS1。

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