山东省泰安市2019-2020学年高一下学期期末考试英语试题(含答案)
【期末试卷】2019-2020学年高一上学期期末考试英语试卷(新高考卷)笔试部分附参考答案

【期末试卷】2019-2020学年高一上学期期末考试英语试卷(新高考卷)笔试部分附参考答案按秘密级事项管理★启用前2019-2020 高一上学期期末考试英语试卷(新高考卷)注意事项:1. 答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2. 回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。
回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。
写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分阅读(共两节,满分50分)第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5 分)阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
AArtificial intelligence (AI) is practically everywhere today. There are so many products out there which use AI. Some are being developed, some are already in use, and some failed and are being improved, so it’s very difficult to name a few of them and regard them as the best.ViIt is an AI personal trainer which is mainly concerned with fitness and coaching. It, however, requires the use of bio-sensing earphones and other fitness tracking equipment (设备)! It can play your favourite music while you work out and all you have to worry about is the exercise you’re doing.Deep TextDo you ever wonder how an ad appears suddenly just whenyou are looking for something similar? This is because of Deep Text. It uses real-time consumer (消费者) information to produce data which in turn is used to target consumers. Thus, if you search online for flight tickets from Bangalore to Delhi, it is very likely that an ad relating to hotels in Delhi will soon follow.Hello EggIf you live alone and miss your mother because you always miss your breakfast or don’t know what to eat for dinner, the n Hello Egg is exactly what you are looking for. A very healthy choice of the 2-minute noodles and oats, Hello Egg provides you with a detailed weekly meal plan about the needs of your body. It is truly a modern AI-powered home cooking tool for the young.WordsmithYou can put Mr. Smith into your Microsoft Excel using their free API, and let it write up detailed analysis (分析) of the stories behind your numbers. It can produce detailed reports on thousands of pages of spreadsheets in seconds.1.What can we learn about Vi from the text?A. It is an AI music player.B. It is a bio-sensing earphone.C. It doesn’t work without bio-sensing earphones.D. It can make you more energetic while you work out.2. Which can help you improve cooking skill?A.Hello Egg.B.Deep Text.C.Vi.D.Wordsmith.3. What can Wordsmith do for us?A.Produce a detailed report.B.Book a ticket ahead of time.C.Provide us with a detailed meal plan.D.Offer us information on hotels for traveling.BA couple in their 60s has travelled 12,000 miles across 16 countries from Britain to China — riding their bikes the entire way. Grandparents Peter and Chris stepped on the long journey after deciding to “do something a bit different”. They traversed (横穿) cities, deserts, mountains and everything in between across Europe, the Middle East and the East Asia. The married couple of 37 years enjoyed themselves with delicious local food and spent most nights inside a tiny tent put up wherever they could find shelter.Peter, 66, said the moment they finally had a look at the famous Great Wall after a year and a half of cycling 30 miles a day was “really exciting”. At the end of their journey, the special pair didn’t fly home but instead choose to book a cabin (舱) inside a 400m-long container ship. The final part was a three-week voyage from Singapore across the Indian Ocean and into the Mediterranean Sea before arriving at Southampton.“You never know what the day is going to bring. All you know is that you aregoing to get on your bike and cycle. Every day is an adventure and every day is new. Overall, the experience is absolutely unbelievable, ” Peter said.Peter and Chris initially set out to cycle from Britain in January 2017 but were forced home. They had cycled all the way to Hungary when Peter slipped on tiles and broke his leg. After seven months of recovery, the couple set out again in Britain. They finally arrived in China in November 2018.Both Peter and Chris agreed that the best part of the entiretrip was coming across the kindness of strangers along the way, many of whom invited the couple for food and drink. Chris, 64, said, “It was a wonderful experience, particularly wonderful because of the amazing people we met along the way.”4.What’s the couple’s purpose of taking the long journey?A.To try something new.B.To break the world record.C. To go across 16 countries by bike.D. To celebrate their 37-year marriage.5. How did the couple go back to their home after the trip to China?A. By cycling.B. By train.C. By plane.D. By sea.6. Why did the couple put off their trip in 2017?A. Peter had an accident.B. They ran out of their money.C. They met with a heavy snow.D. Peter fell ill suddenly in Hungary.7. What’s the best part of the trip for the couple?A. The beautiful scenes.B. The help from others.C. The delicious food and drink.D. The kindness from other cyclists.CHundreds of thousands of lives were saved in 2017 alone because of the improvement of the environment, according to a new research. Fine particle pollution declined rapidly following the new rules on industrial emissions and the promotion of cleanfuels, according to the study, published on Monday in the National Academy of Sciences of the United States of America. The study, which focused on the period from 2013-2017, was conducted by a group of Chinese researchers and scientists.PM2.5, as this kind of pollution is known, is so small that it can enter the bloodstream, potentially leading to cancer, stroke and heart attack in the long term. After rapid industrialization and weak regulations left the country with a reputation for smog and bad air quality, Chinese authorities started to take air pollution seriously in 2008.In 2013, Beijing had PM2.5 concentrations 40 times higher than levels recommended by the World Health Organization (WHO), and the governmentintroduced its toughest-ever clean air policies that year. The study found “signif icant declines” in PM2.5 levels across China from 2013-2017, with new standards for thermal power plants and industrial boilers, the replacement of old factories, and new emissions rules for vehicles. The authors say this “confirms the effectiveness of Chi na’s recent clean air actions.”These recent actions have seen Beijing fall out of the top 100 most-polluted cities in Asia in recent years, with the pollution levels 10% lower across Chinese cities between 2017 and 2018, according to a report by Greenpeace and AirVisual. Shanghai, the country’s largest city and financial capital, has also made environmental advances, such as adopting strict recycling regulations. Public pressure has been the driving force of pollution policy in China.Air pollution is a global issue, and India is now home to 22 of the 30 most polluted world cities, according to the Greenpeace and AirVisual report. In the US, a recent study said air pollutionwas linked to more than 107,000 deaths in 2011 and cost the country $866 billion.8. What saved many lives in China?A. China’s clean air policies.B. The increased particle pollution.C. The study by researchers.D. The reduction of the clean fuels.9. Why did PM2.5 cause many diseases?A. It was called smog.B. It made the air cleaner.C. It went into the blood.D. It had a bad reputation.10. When did Chinese government decide to treat the pollution?A. In 2008.B. In 2013.C. In 2017.D. In 2018.11. What did people in Shanghai do to protect the environment?A. They built the thermal power plants.B. They stopped using industrial boilers.C. They made Shanghai financial capital.D. They tried to recycle some rubbish.DIn the 1994 film Forrest Gump, there’s a famous saying, “Life is like a box of chocolates; you never know what you’re gonna get.” The surprise is part of the fun. Now blind box toys are bringing the magic of surprise to online shopping.A blind box toy is hidden inside uniform packaging(包装) butinvisible from the outside. You don’t know what will be inside, although the toys typically come from pop culture, ranging from movies to comics and cartoons.Blind boxes have caught on since they were first introduced from Japan to China in 2014. According to a 2019 Tmall report, the mini-series of Labubu blind box. designed by Hong Kong -born Kasing Lung, was named Champion of Unit Sales with 55,000 sold in just 9 seconds during the Singles Day shopping event. Most customers for blind boxes are young people aged 18 to 35.According to The Paper, blind box toys are popular in part because of their cute appearances. The typically cute cartoon figurines (小塑像) come in miniature (微型的) sizes, making them suitable for display almost anywhere.Even if blind boxes are not their top choice for decorations(装饰品), the mystery and uncertainty of the process also attracts people. It’s the main reason why people buy blind boxes one after another.“Fear of the unknown is always a part of the box-opening process,” said Miss Cao, 24, who lives and works in Shenyang. Speaking to Sina News, she said: “Until you open all the boxes, you cannot know what it is inside.”Opening a blind box is a delightful little surprise for our mundane daily lives, something small but fun to wait for each day, week or month. When people open this simple little box, they may be disappointed, but the uncertainty is part of the fun. People will open more blind boxes and hope for a better outcome.When someone re-makes Forrest Gump, don't be surprised if he says, “Life is like a blind box.”12.What feature of blind boxes attracts people?A.They often get toys designed by famous artists.B.They don’t know what they’ve got until they open them.C.They can learn about pop culture from the packaging.D.They can experience the excitement of online shopping.13.Why does Miss Cao love blind box toys?。
2019-2020学年度第二学期期末调研考试高一英语试题【含答案】

2019-2020学年度第⼆学期期末调研考试⾼⼀英语试题【含答案】2019-2020 学年度第⼆学期期末调研考试⾼⼀英语试题选择题部分第⼀部分听⼒(共两节,满分30分)做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。
录⾳内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第⼀节(共5⼩题;每⼩题1.5分,满分7.5分)听下⾯5段对话。
每段对话后有⼀个⼩题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关⼩题和阅读下⼀⼩题。
每段对话仅读⼀遍。
1.What will Peter do at 10:00 tomorrow?A. Go camping.B. Stay at home.C. Have a meeting.2.How much did the woman pay for the skirt?A. $10.B. $20.C.$40.3.What's the weather like now?A. Cloudy.B. Sunny.C. Rainy.4. When does the supermarket open on the weekend?A.At 6:00 am.B. At8:00 am.C.At 9:00 am.5.What will the woman do for her mother's birthday?A. Buy a gift.B.Throw a party.C.Make a cake.第⼆节(共15⼩题;每⼩题1.5分,满分22.5分)听下⾯5段对话或独⽩。
每段对话或独⽩后有⼏个⼩题,从题中所给A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听每段对话或独⽩前,你将有时间阅读各个⼩题,每⼩题5秒钟;听完后,各⼩题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
每段对话或独⽩读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. Where does the woman want to go?A.The nearest bank.B.The nearest hospital.C.The nearest post office.7. How will the woman go there?A. By bus.B. By car.C. On foot.听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
2020-2021学年高一英语下学期期末教学质量检测试题(含解析)

第二学期期末教学质量检测高一英语试卷考生注意:1.本试卷共150分,考试时间120分钟。
2.请将各题答案填写在答题卡上。
第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。
录音内容结束后你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。
每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题每段对话仅读一遍。
1.【此处有音频,请去附件查看】What are the speakers mainly talking about?A. Turning on the light.B. Power failure.C. Buyingair-conditioning.【答案】B【解析】【原文】W:The light has gone out!M: We often have power failure in this city when too many people are using air conditioning.2.【此处有音频,请去附件查看】How does the man usually go to work?A. By bus.B. By car.C. On foot.【答案】A【解析】【原文】W:Do you go to work on foot every day?M: Well. I'm too fat to walk a lot. I usually take a bus. But sometimes when the bus is crowded. I wish someone would give me a ride.3.【此处有音频,请去附件查看】What color does the man prefer to paint the bedroom?A. Light blue.B. Yellow.C. Pink.【答案】A【解析】【原文】W:Do you think we should paint our bedroom yellow or pink?M:Why not light blue?4.【此处有音频,请去附件查看】Where was the man last night?A. In the library.B. At home.C. At the concert. 【答案】B【解析】【原文】W: Hello. Tony. Where were you last night?M: I had to stay at home.W:But you missed a really wonderful concert!5.【此处有音频,请去附件查看】What do we know about the man?A. He likes driving.B. He enjoys traveling by car.C. He used to have a car.【答案】C【解析】【原文】W: You’ve sold your old car. You don’t need a new one?M:Not really. I’ve never liked driving anyway. Now that I’ve moved to a place near the subway entrance. I can go to work quite conveniently.第二节(共15小题每小题1.5分满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白。
山东省泰安市2022-2023学年高二上学期期中考试英语试题

20. What are pared between the two cultures in the end?
A. The numbers of artists. B. Styles of buildings. C. Standards of living.
第二节(共15小题;每小题分,满分分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6和第7两个小题。
A. Friends. B. Coworkers. C. Teacher and student.
11. What does the man suggest the woman do?
A. Go back to college. B. Find another job. C. Study with him.
高二年级考试
英语试题
第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题分,满分分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. When will the man arrive at the party?
Happy Valley
Happy Valley is one of the best amusement parks around the world for kids and families. It is a magical place for extreme adventure rides and carnivals. posing of nine areas of different themes including Sunshine Beach, Shangrila Woods and Typhoon Bay, you are sure to have a great time here.
山东省潍坊市2019-2020高一英语下学期期末考试试题(含解析)

山东省潍坊市2019-2020学年高一英语下学期期末考试试题(含解析)注意事项:1.答题前,考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。
回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。
第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)第一节(共5小题;每小题1。
5分,满分75分)听下面5段对话。
每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
每段对话仅读一遍。
1。
【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】What might the woman do next?A。
Go home。
B。
Make a call。
C. Fetch the watch.【答案】A【解析】【原文】W: How long will it take you to fix my watch?M: You can go home first. I’ll call you when it is r eady,but it shouldn’t take longer than a day。
2。
【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】Where was the man last night?A。
At a restaurant. B. At a hospital。
C. At home.【答案】A【解析】【原文】M: What a pity it was that you couldn’t come to dinner with us at that new restaurant yesterday。
W:I’m sorry. I caught terrible flu and thought I would be better off just staying at home。
部编版2019---2020学年度下学期小学五年级语文期末测试卷及答案

最新部编版2019---2020学年度下学期小学五年级语文期末测试卷及答案-CAL-FENGHAI.-(YICAI)-Company One12最新部编版2019---2020学年度下学期小学五年级语文期末测试卷及答案(满分:100分 时间: 90分钟)题号 一 二 三 四 五 六 七 八 九 十 总分 得分一、选择题。
(共12分)1.下面加点字的读音全都正确的一项是( )。
A.提供.(ɡòn ɡ)—供.认(ɡōn ɡ) 晃.眼(hu ǎn ɡ)—摇头晃.脑(hu àn ɡ)B.停泊.(b ó)—血泊.(p ō) 监.牢(ji ān )—国子监.(ji àn )C.丈夫.(f ū)—逝者如斯夫.(f ū) 喧哗.(hu á)—哗.哗流水(hu á)2.下面加点的字书写全都正确的一项是( )。
A.师傅. 副.业 负.担 附.庸 B.俊.马 竣.工 严骏. 峻.杰 C.树稍. 船艄. 捎.话 梢.胜一筹3.下面句子中加点的字哪一项解释有误( ) A.其人弗能应.也。
应:应答。
B.果.有杨梅。
果:果然。
C.未闻.孔雀是夫子家禽。
闻:听说。
4.下列句子中没有语病的一项是( )。
A.此次家长会上,学校领导认真总结并听取了家委会成员的建议B.今天全班都来参加毕业典礼彩排,只有龙一鸣一人请假C.中国为了实现半导体国产化这一夙愿,展现出毫不松懈的态度5.下面三幅书法作品中,哪一幅是怀素草书《千字文》(局部)( )A. B. C.6.对这幅漫画的寓意理解正确的一项是( )。
A.有些医生自己生病了,却不愿意进行急救B.讽刺少数医生良心出了问题却不承认,不改正C.有些人总喜欢把没有生病的人送进抢救室二、用修改符号修改下面的一段话。
(共2分)马老师多么和蔼可亲呀!上课时,他教我们耐心地写字的方法;下课时,他常常和我们在一起。
昨天下午,他给淘淘补了一天的课,他非常感动马老师。
山东省泰安市泰山国际学校 高一下学期期中考试英语试题(含解析)
山东省泰安市泰山国际学校2023-2024学年高一下学期期中联考英语试题本试卷分第Ⅰ卷(选择题)和第Ⅱ卷(非选择题)两部分,满分100分,考试时间90分钟。
注意事项:1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。
回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。
写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
A1.Guide to Stockholm University LibraryOur library offers different types of studying places and provides a good studying environment.ZonesThe library is divided into different zones. The upper floor is a quiet zone with over a thousand places for silent reading, and places where you can sit and work with your own computer. The reading places consist mostly of tables and chairs. The ground floor is the zone where you can talk. Here you can find sofas and armchairs for group work.ComputersYou can use your own computer to connect to the Wi-Fi specially prepared for notebook computers; you can also use library computers, which contain the most commonly used applications, such as Microsoft Office. They are situated in the area known as the Experimental Field on the ground floor.Group-study placesIf you want to discuss freely without disturbing others, you can book a study room or sit at a table on the ground floor. Some study rooms are for 2—3 people and others can hold up to 6—8 people. All rooms are marked on the library maps.There are 40 group-study rooms that must be booked via the website. To book, you need an active university account and a valid university card. You can use a room three hours per day, nine hours at most per week.Storage of study materialThe library has lockers for students to store course literature. When you have obtained at least 40 credits, you may rent a locker and pay 400 SEK for a year's rental period.Rules to be followedMobile phone conversations are not permitted anywhere in the library. Keep your phone silent as if you were in a lecture and exit the library if you need to receive calls.Please note that food and fruit are forbidden in the library, but you are allowed to have drinks and sweets with you.1.The library's upper floor is mainly for students to ________.A.read in a quiet placeB.have group discussionsC.take comfortable seatsD.get their computers fixed2.A student can rent a locker in the library if he _______.A.can afford the rental feeB.attends certain coursesC.has nowhere to put his booksD.has earned the required credits3.What should NOT be brought into the library?A.Mobile phones.B.Sandwiches.C.Candy.D.Orange juice.BGeorge was a game warden(猎物繁殖和保护区的管理员) in Kenya. One day, he found three tiny lions beside a dead lioness. They were so little that their eyes had not yet opened. Sadly, he took the three little lions and drove back home.When George got out of the car with the baby lions, his wife Joy Adamson immediately took over. Joy had cared for many young animals over the years, but she had never tried to raise baby lions! However, she was determined to save these babies.The lions grew rapidly. But as the lion grew bigger and stronger, Joy and George realized they could not keep three large lions. They decided to present two of the lions to a zoo; they would keep the smallest lion, which they named Elsa.Joy and George taught Elsa to hunt and to protect herself. Elsa liked to play with her human friends, but as Elsa grew to her adult size, this play became dangerous. More than once, Elsa knocked Joy to the ground, scratching(抓伤) her. Joy and George both realized that it was time to find Elsa a new home. They knew she needed a wild home where she could live the life she was born to lead. Finally, Joy and George decided to set Elsa free in Meru Park at the foot of Mt. Kenya.Elsa never forgot Joy and George. Whenever they camped nearby, Elsa would come to visit, rubbing her head against their legs in greeting.Joy missed Elsa, but was happy that she had made a successful life as a wild lion. Joy wrote a book about Elsa, Born Free, which became an international bestseller. Joy traveled all over the world, talking about the importance of saving the wild animals of the world.Joy lived out her life in Africa, working with wild animals. She wrote more books about her experiences. Her heart felt interest in animals and her great love for Elsa helpedinspire(激发) a worldwide movement to protect wildlife. For Joy Adamson, there was no greater gift than the beauty and spirit of wild animals, living free.2.When George took the three lions home, his wife ________.A. advised him to give them to a zooB. was frightened by their appearancesC. was unwilling to care for themD. had a great love for them3.Joy and George set Elsa free because ________.A. Elsa scratched JoyB. there wasn’t enough food for ElsaC. Elsa was big and strongD. Elsa was a danger to their neighbors4.What do we know about the book Born Free from the text?A. It became very popular.B. It is mainly about Joy’s experiences in Meru Park.C. It focuses on wild animals in Kenya.D. It helped change people’s attitudes towards wildlife.5.What’s the best title for the text?A. Joy Adamson: living with lionsB. Elsa: lion raised by a humanC. Born Free: a wonderful bookD. George: a game wardenCThe lack of clues left behind by ancient Americans has made it difficult for researchers to determine precisely when humans first arrived on the continent. However, it has always been believed to be about 13,000 years ago. Now, evidence from the Chiquihuite Cave in Zacatecas, Central Mexico, seems to suggest that prehistoric humans may have been living in North America as early as 30,000 years ago.Dr Ciprian Ardelean, of the Autonomous University of Zacatecas, who led the groundbreaking research, first became aware of the cave in May 2010. Getting to the cave located 2,740 metres above sea level required a 45-minute truck ride to the base and an uphill climb over a rough terrain. However, Dr Ardelean and his team found enough clues to make the difficult journey three additional times-in 2012, 2016 and 2017.The archaeologists' efforts revealed many artefacts including over 1,900 stone tools from multiple layers of the cave. The scientists found that most of the tools were between 13,000 and 16,000 years old. However, 239 artefacts unearthed from the deepest layer of the cave dated back an astonishing 30,000 years!While the genetic material gained in the cave was only plant and animal DNA, the team did find evidence of sulphur, potassium and zinc elements that could indicate human activities such as killing animals. Dr Ardelean says the absence of human DNA confirms that the early people visited the cave for short periods of time.The researchers are unsure of the ancient humans' origins or the path they took to get to America. They guess the groups were tribes (部落) who moved from place to place and went extinct at some point during their migrations. Dr Ardelean says, “We don't know who they were, where they came from or where they went. They're a complete enigma. We falsely assume that the native populations in the Americas today are direct descendants from the earliest Americans, but now we don't think that is the case.” Archaeologist Loren Davis, from Oregon State University, is unsure that the artefacts recovered are tools. The researcher says, “If it's true that people were in Zacatecas 32,000 years ago, that changes everything-it more than doubles the time people have been in the Americas. I'm not going to say it's impossible, but if all they found are broken rocks without any hard evidence, it's natural for people to challenge the conclusion.”6.What did Dr Ciprian Ardelean do?A. He sold hundreds of artefacts.B. He explored the cave four times.C. He made the cave world-known.D. He collected artefacts from the cave.7.What shakes the traditional belief concerning North America?A. Metal elements unearthed from the cave.B. Plant and animal DNA discovered in the cave.C. The artefacts from the cave's deepest layer.D. The artefacts from the upper layers of the cave.8.What does the underlined word “enigma” in Paragraph 5 mean?A. Problem.B. Breakthrough.C. Appeal.D. Mystery.9.In which column of a newspaper can we read this passage?A. Archaeology.B. Anecdote.C. Travel.D. Literature.DIn the waves of human exploration into space, our brave Chinese people have never stopped the pace of advancing. In just half a century, China has made remarkable space exploration success. After landing probes on the lunar and Martian surfaces, China has begun to set itsexploratory sights on the core of our solar system—the sun.Named Xihe after the sun goddess in ancient Chinese mythology, the 508-kilogramme Chinese H-Alpha Solar Explorer satellite was launched on Oct 14, 2021 from the Taiyuan Satellite Launch Centre in Shanxi Province. It then entered a sun-synchronous orbit about 517 kilometres above Earth."The spacecraft is China's first space-based solar telescope and is designed to work for at least three years," Wang Wei, project manager of the satellite, told China Daily.Its scientific payload is an H-Alpha imaging spectrograph (成像光谱仪). The H-Alpha band is one of the best spectral lines to study solar activity, according to the Global Times. "The instrument is able to observe and record changes in the sun's physical elements like its temperature and speed, facilitating scientists' studies about the dynamics and physics during a solar eruption," Wang told China Daily.Several Chinese satellites, such as the Fengyun 3E meteorological satellite, have carried equipment that can collect solar data, but Xihe is the first one dedicated to solar observation. "Since solar activity has many effects on life on Earth, it is important for mankind to study the sun," Zhao Jian, a senior official at the China National Space Administration, told China Daily.Since the 1960s, NASA has sent dozens of solar orbiters to circle the sun, and in 2004, the Genesis spacecraft returned a sample of solar wind. The most recently launched solar mission was Parker Solar Probe in 2018. Europe and Japan also have solar missions, according to the South China Morning Post."Our country is ranked No. 2 in the world in terms of published research papers on solar observations, but all of the satellite-generated data used by our scientists are from foreign spacecraft," Zhao told China Daily. "Xihe will put an end to the dependence on foreign satellites, and we will share its products with researchers around the world."10.What do we know about Xihe?A. It is expected to work for five years.B. It is an estimated half-ton scientific research satellite.C. It is named after an ancient Chinese scientist.D. It is the world's first solar observation satellite.11.What is the main task of Xihe according to the text?A. To monitor changes in the sun's physical elements.B. To adjust the temperature and speed of the sun.C. To study how solar activity affects life on Earth.D. To observe other satellites around the sun.12.Why is it essential to do research on the sun?A. Our reliance on foreign satellites will come to an end.B. It helps scientists learn more about solar history.C. Solar eruptions may bring human beings disasters.D. Creatures on Earth are affected by solar activity.13.What does the last paragraph mainly talk about?A. The advantages of the Xihe satellite.B. The significance of the Xihe mission.C. The development of China's space exploration.D. The ways scientists collect satellite-generated data.E14.The Taj MahalShah Jahan finished building the Taj Mahal in 1653. He was a rich and powerful emperoг, and he built the Taj Mahal as a memorial for his wife. ① ______ The word "Taj" means the crown, and "Mahal" was the name of his wife. More than twenty thousand people worked for 22 years to complete this beautiful domed building. More than a thousand elephants carried huge stones and jewels from all over India and Central Asia to the Taj Mahal. Shah Jahan wanted this memorial to be a burial place for himself and his wife.The Taj Mahal is on the bank of the Yamuna River in Agra in northern India. ② ______ Its picture is in most travel books and brochures. It is open daily from sunrise to sunset. Anyone can enter this peaceful and quiet place as long as they pay for the ticket.As you enter, you pass through beautiful, silent gardens. From the gardens, you cross a wide courtyard. Suddenly, you see the dome of the main building through a tall, red sandstone gate. At daybreak, the Taj Mahal's white walls turn rose. At noon, they glow white. At dusk, they become dark grey.③ ______After you pass through the gate, you step onto a wide stone platform. You catch sight of another garden with pools. Everything is arranged carefully in fours. ④ ______ The garden is divided into four parts. There are straight rows of colorful flowers and trees in each of the parts. At the four corners of the Taj Mahal, there are pointed tall towers. After the gardens,you go down stone steps towards the main building with the tomb and the graves of Shah Jahan and his wife.After hundreds of years, the Taj Mahal remains a lovely and peaceful place. ⑤ ______A.It was a monument of love.B.Four is a special number in the Muslim religion.C.Many people want to visit the Taj Mahal someday.D.This beautiful building is truly a jewel for all mankind.E.The Taj Mahal is most beautiful by the light of the full moon.F.To many people around the world, the Taj Mahal is a symbol of India.G. From the cool, dark gates, the Taj Mahal seems to float between the earth and sky.In the 1860s, John Roebling, a creative engineer, launched the idea of building a bridge connecting Manhattan with Brooklyn, New York. However, other bridge building experts thought this was 1 and told Roebling to forget the idea.John 2 about it all the time and he knew deep in his heart that it could be done. He then 3 the dream with his son, Washington, an up-and-coming engineer. Working together, the father and the son made a 4 of how it could be done and studied the problems they might face.After these preparations, they hired their crew and began to build their 5 bridge. The project started well, but a(n) 6 on the site took the life of John Roebling. Washington was injured when serving as chief engineer on the bridge and left with a certain amount of 7 damage. He wasn't able to move or even talk.8 , Washington did not give up and still wanted to complete the bridge. One day, an idea 9 him. All he could do was 10 one finger and he decided to make the best use of it.He touched his wife's arm with that 11 , indicating to her that he wanted her to call the 12 again. Then he used the 13 method of touching her arm to tell the engineers what to do. Then the project was underway again. For 13 years, Washington tapped out (输出) his instructions with his finger on his 14 arm, until the Brooklyn Bridge was finally completed.Perhaps this is one of the best examples of a never-give-up attitude that overcomes a terrible 15 disability and achieves an impossible goal.15.A.impossible B.perfect C.available D.suitable16.A.spoke B.read C.thought D.wrote17.pared B.shared C.provided D.realised18.A.map B.decision C.way D.plan19.A.dream B.future C.traditional D.fashionable20.A.lesson B.accident C.chance D.fight21.A.eye B.ear C.brain D.stomach22.A.Therefore B.Essentially C.However D.Frequently23.A.frightened B.challenged C.knocked D.hit24.A.move B.evolve C.practise D.change25.A.hand B.foot C.leg D.finger26.A.teachers B.engineers C.doctors D.neighbours27.A.same ual C..other D.different28.A.son's B.mother's C.father's D.wife's29.A.mental B.physical C.emotional D.visual30. Undoubtedly, Britain is a nation of hat wearers. From taking off hats ①_____ launching mortarboards(学位帽) in the air, hats have long been associated with ceremonies and practices. Even the history of the country can ②_____(tell) through hats.③_____(date) back to medieval England, the flat cap became a symbol of working class culture in the 19th and 20th centuries. The Edwardian era was ④_____ golden age of hats, when the decorations became even more delicate, ranging from flowers, birds to fruits. The porkpie hat, starting in the middle 19th century, was the ⑤_____(choose) for many well-dressed Victorian citizens. Decades later it ⑥_____(gradual) became a key feature of London street style. By the 1960s, though, hats faded out of people's sight because of the rise of private cars. It was the Royal Wedding ⑦_____(hold) in 2011 that contributed to the return of hat wearing. For example, Hat Works—the only museum in the country featured in hats and hat making—is ⑧_____(popular) than ever, with a distinct increase in its visitors.⑨_____ marks Britain out on the world stage is the large number of hats that can be called its own. The variety of hats in Britain ⑩_____(reflect) its multicultural background and rich cultural heritage.31.你校将以六月八日世界海洋日为主题, 举办英语征文比赛, 请你写一篇短文投稿。
人教版2019-2020学年高一下学期英语必修三 Unit3 The Million Pound Bank Note 训练卷(一) (含答案)
2019-2020学年高一下学期训练卷 必修三 Unit 3 The Million Pound Bank Note英 语 (一)(本卷满分100分)一、单词拼写(每小题1.5分,共15分)1. I’m afraid he is not fit for the job, for it’s one calling for ________(耐心).2. The prisoners were ________(允许)two hours’ exercise a day.3. Can you get me some writing paper and________(信封)when you are in the post office?4. Have you succeeded in ________(寻找)the answers to the questions?5. There are many ________(错误)in the book.6. The house has an underground ________(通道).7. There was a funny ________(场景)when the pig ran into the store. 8. She________(尖叫) when he saw the dead body.9. She was last found ________(漫游)aimlessly up and down the road.10. I set off for a new (冒险)in the United States on the first day of the new year.二、单句语法填空(每小题1.5分,共15分) 11. — Would you permit me ________here?(smoke) —Sorry ,we don't permit ________here in the lab.(smoke) 12. It is ________great honour for me to invite you to eat here. 13. He had just rushed into the classroom ________the teacher came in. 14. As________my task, I can finish it tomorrow morning.15. It is well-known________Chinese people are good at eating delicious foods.16. I’m sorry, but the seats _______ (reserve) for the old already. 17. Large amounts of money________(spend) rebuilding the temple. 18. Only when he apologizes for his________(rude) will I speak to him again. 19. It would be________(believe) that such a gentleman should be so rude to his parents.20. I opened the door and a boy in ________(rag) was standing there.三、翻译句子(每小题2分,共10分) 21.最近几年,有些人目睹了像UFO 一类的东西。
山东省泰安市2023-2024学年高二下学期7月期末英语试题
山东省泰安市2023-2024学年高二下学期7月期末英语试题一、阅读理解The Chinese animation is becoming more popular in recent years. As the new decade unfolds, the Chinese animation industry looks promising and is likely to deliver more to the world. Here’s our list of Chinese animation movies that people should give a try and watch. Big Fish and BegoniaThis fantasy Chinese animated film was released in 2016. It succeeds in various elementsin its story such as the cycle of life, death, and what’s beyond; the natural order, unconditional love, the yin and yang, the actions and the results, and a beautiful tale of family, love, and friendship. Beyond these remarkable themes is a breathtaking animation with vivid visuals that made watching the whole film a magical and dramatic experience.The Legend of HeiHumanity’s greed for development and urbanization and what are the consequences of these actions are some of the main themes in this fantastic adventure film. And it even gained the praise of Japanese animators when released in Japan in 2019.This film has a vivid style of flashy animation with great fight scenes, and lovable characters to follow. Besides, it delivers an amazing and heartwarming story of family, friendship, and coexistence that will teach the viewers so many important lessons in life. Jiang Ziya: The Legend of DeificationJiang Ziya or The Legend of Deification is the second installment of the Chinese mythology series after Nezha: The Demon’s Rebirth. However, this time, the story follows Jiang Ziya, a god with great sympathy. The movie is a visual feast for the viewers, and was able to deliver a satisfying experience. Nevertheless, the story touches on several important traditions and beliefs among Chinese people.1.Which one is not suitable to describe the film The Legend of Hei?A.Adventurous.B.Meaningful.C.Heartbreaking.D.Affecting 2.What’s the text aimed at?A.Praising Chinese animation.B.Analyzing Chinese animation.C.Appreciating Chinese animation.D.Recommending Chinese animation. 3.Where is the text probably taken from?A.A guidebook to a library.B.An introduction to modern movies.C.A course on movie making.D.An essay on the art of storytelling.Back in the 1990s, Henry Rotich who is from Kenya, did not know much about China, with his best connection to the country being a teakettle made in Shanghai that was owned by his grandmother.Nevertheless, he applied to study in China when an opportunity presented itself in 1998. Luckily, he got the chance to come to China to pursue his master’s degree in chemistry at the same year. And his main challenge at that time was learning the language. However, he could communicate with people easily by simple Chinese after a month.“During my travels around China as a student, I found people very friendly and helpful. That is how I came to learn their language fast.”“Learning language and culture depends on one’s mindset as well as the opportunity to live in an environment where the language is used daily,” Rotich said. He believes that China’s scholarship program for African students to study in China has been instrumental in helping young Africans learn Chinese and immerse (沉浸) themselves in the culture.To complete his chemistry studies, Rotich spent eight years in China. Asked about the benefits of studying in the country, Rotich, who is married to a Chinese woman, quipped (打趣) that he came back to Kenya with “three degrees” in the same period it would take others to get just two degrees. “The first degree is my wife, the second one is my master’s and finally, my PhD,” he said proudly.Rotich said different countries and people should concentrate on their cultural similarities. He has noted many similarities between the Chinese and Kenyan cultures, and this has helped him appreciate the Chinese way of life. The similarities include respect for the elderly, families gathering during special festivals, and good neighborliness.As chairman of the Kenya-China Alumni Association for Kenyan students who studied in China, Rotich praised the role played by Chinese scholarships in promoting cultural exchanges between the two countries.4.Why did Henry Rotich learn Chinese so fast at the beginning?A.He married a Chinese girl.B.He got lots of help from Chinese people.C.He was more intelligent than other students.D.He devoted all his spare time tostudying5.What can we know about Henry Rotich from the passage?A.He came to China to study Chinese.B.He bought a teakettle made in Shanghai.C.He got three degrees when studying in China.D.He has a good knowledge of Chinese culture.6.What does Rotich think of China’s scholarship program?A.It contributes to the cultural communication.B.It increases the cultural similarities.C.It promotes Kenya’s economic growth.D.It helps young Kenyans get higher degrees. 7.What can be a suitable title for the text?A.Challenges Henry Rotich met in ChinaB.Cultural cooperation between China and KenyaC.Henry Rotich’s studying in China — a wise choiceD.Henry Rotich’s working experience in China — a magic storyIn the last hundred years, the Bali mynah (巴厘岛白椋鸟) has been sought after for its white feathers and blue skin.The capture for sale along with the bird’s habitat loss led to its being listed as “threatened” in 1988. In 1994 the Bali mynah was moved to “critically endangered”. By 2001, experts estimated only about six Bali mynahs were living in the wild, with thousands in captivity (圈养) across the world.Now, conservationists are hoping to increase the mynah population by working with bird breeders and sellers to release them into the wild. Actually, in the 1980s, an organization now called Bird Life International started to work with the government to launch a breeding program for the birds.Breeders can seek government permits to breed the birds. If approved, breeders are given mynahs and can keep 90 percent of the baby birds for private sale. The remaining birds are released at the National Park, where they will be closely watched by park officials.Early mynah releases faced problems. Some birds were infected with some diseases; others were killed by natural hunters. Illegal hunting also continued — the national park’s breeding center was even robbed, with nearly 40 birds stolen.Yet conservation efforts in the last ten years have seen greater success. Tom Squires, a famous conservationist said: “Bird keepers can still keep birds and follow their hobby without causing real problems for wild populations — which is better than species going extinct in the world.”Agus Ngurah, also a well-known conservationist, praised the program. “With the community being the breeders… they are helping us to take care of the birds existing in nature,” he said.Squires noted that there is clear evidence that some released birds have produced young ones. “So that leads me to believe that the population is certainly self-sustaining to an extent,” he said. Meanwhile, 420 Bali mynahs are now found living in the National Park.According to Logan William, another conservationist, “The government should give something back to the community so they can feel the benefits from conservation, and the bird can also benefit.”8.Why is the mynah hunted by humans?A.They are pests.B.They taste good.C.They look beautiful.D.They are countless.9.What can we infer from the three conservationists’ words?A.The government contributes the least.B.Bird keepers can keep the birds freely.C.The efforts of protecting the mynah have paid off.D.The community can breed birds for profits completely.10.How many reasons may cause releasing problems?A.Two.B.Three.C.Four.D.Five.11.What might be the writer’s attitude to the breeding programme?A.Approving.B.Critical.C.Doubtful.D.Opposed.Think twice before you reply to a message with just an emoji (表情符号) . An emoji thatrepresents happiness to one person may express a different emotion to another.To learn more, Ruth Filik at the University of Nottingham, UK, and her colleagues employed 270 British people and 253 people from other countries aged between 18 and 84 years old, with a roughly equal split of men and women, to take part in an online survey. The researchers chose 24 emojis that represented six emotions: happy, disgusted, fearful, sad, surprised or angry, based on the suggested ones that appear when you type out these words. There were four emojis per emotion, representing the different designs used by Apple, Windows, Android and WeChat. Each participant then assigned the emojis to the emotion that they thought was the best match.Women were more likely to match the emojis to the same emotions chosen by the researchers, compared with the men. It may be that women are better at recognizing facial expressions, possibly because they make more eye contact, according to the team. The younger participants also matched up the emojis better than their older counterparts, perhaps because they use these more often. Meanwhile, the British participants matched the emojis better than the others.“For example, it has been suggested that they seldom use the happy emoji to express happiness, instead, they use it for negative meanings such as sarcasm (讽刺) ,” according to the researchers. “When you’re then sending someone a message with an emoji, you can’t just assume that they see it the same way that you do,” says Filik.Isabelle Boutet at the University of Ottawa, Canada, says that matching 24 emojis to just six emotions is quite constrictive. Nevertheless, “there are issues with assigning specific emotional labels to emojis when we don’t know how they’re interpreted by different online communities”, she says. “For example, you would have never thought to use an eggplant as an disapproval if that meaning hadn’t been developed in specific communities.”12.What is paragraph 2 mainly about?A.The research results.B.The research process.C.The research theory.D.The research conditions.13.Who may be better at matching the emojis to the same emotions?A.An old French man.B.A young Chinese man.C.A young British lady.D.An old Japanese lady.14.What does the underlined word “constrictive” mean in the last paragraph?A.Limited.B.Complicated.C.Difficult.D.Professional. 15.What is the text?A.A biography.B.A book review.C.A science fiction.D.A science report.Laughter is a universal language for humans to connect with each other and form social bonds. Even as babies, we giggle when our parents pull funny faces, and then gradually learn to make others laugh as we grow up. 16 Scientists have observed behaviors in animals that suggest that your pets might be secret jokesters.Have you ever seen dogs let people come close to their toy, and then playfully run away with it? Biologist Charles Darwin saw this as the dog’s version of a practical joke. Mare Bekoff, biology professor, also observed dogs playfully teasing each other by approaching slowly and then quickly running away. 17 And he’s also said that animals may goof around (瞎胡闹) as a way to cope with stress.In a 2024 study, Isabelle Laumer and colleagues watched four ape species interact with each other and observed 18 distinct teasing behaviors. They saw young apes move towards an adult quietly, pat them to surprise them and then wait and watch the response, behaviour similar to that shown by human children. 18What about laughing? While playing, dogs sometimes produce a breathy snort (哼) that could sound like laughter. 19 Rats make a joyful squeak (吱吱声) similar to a giggle when they are tickled, says Jeffrey Burgdorf, professor at Northwestern University.20 Are the apes in Laumer’s study really joking around or just attention-seeking? What would be the evolutionary purpose of animals teasing? “In humans, humour can serve as an ice-breaker, removing social barriers and strengthening relationships,” says Laumer. “We don’t know if it’s the same in apes or other animals, but it’s possible.”A.But is it a uniquely human experience?B.His study showed that rats intend to tease.C.Dolphins let out a squeak when they are hungry.D.Dolphins let out sounds of joy when play-fighting.E.His work concluded that dogs just want to have fun.F.But is a rat’s giggle really a sign of a sense of humour?G.So, a sense of humour may have appeared early in our evolutionary timeline.二、完形填空Music is said to make one smarter; exercise is believed to help one’s brain function better. Can exercising to music boost brainpower 21 ?In a cognitive (认知的) ability test, some volunteers were asked to 22 Vivaldi’s “Four Seasons” while exercising. It turned out that they performed better than when they exercised without 23 .“The findings suggest exercise 24 people’s cognitive performance,” said Charles Emery, one of the leading researchers. “And listening to music can enhance 25 . Next, the both will be combined to see what will happen,” Emery 26 .Later, Emery and his colleagues launched another test, where 33 patients were asked to exercise with and without music separately after 27 cardiovascular (心血管的) surgery. After the test, the patients reported they felt better physically and 28 after exercising with or without music. 29 , their improvement on cognitive ability doubled when exercising to music. “Exercising to music seems to bring 30 changes in nervous system, which may have a direct 31 on cognitive ability,” Emery said.“The 32 of the two elements may increase cognitive ability to a degree.” Emery said. But the conclusion was not convincing. 33 , the music styles adopted in the previous tests were not colorful. To further prove their findings, Emery intended to 34 more people using different music types. He said: “Given the diversity of music styles, proving what music type works best is 35 .”21.A.doubly B.partly C.instantly D.absolutely 22.A.sing out B.listen to C.note down D.act out 23.A.movies B.music C.poems D.art 24.A.evaluates B.weakens C.improves D.confirms 25.A.standards B.function C.abilities D.brainpower 26.A.quoted B.discussed C.debated D.added27.A.finishing B.conducting C.accepting D.giving 28.A.heartily B.bodily C.mentally D.morally 29.A.However B.Thus C.Otherwise D.Instead 30.A.positive B.predictive C.various D.negative 31.A.impression B.result C.feedback D.effect 32.A.relation B.combination C.separation D.assumption 33.A.After all B.All in all C.In closing D.In contrast 34.A.test B.teach C.train D.inspire 35.A.influential B.meaningful C.impressive D.incredible三、语法填空阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
2019-2020学年山东省高一第二学期期末英语真题汇编--七选五 Word版含答案
2019—2020学年山东省高一英语第二学期期末真题汇编--七选五2019—2020学年山东省德州市高一英语第二学期质量检测试题真题根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
选项中有两项为多余选项。
The Slow Food Movement started in Rome, Italy in 1986. When a new McDonalds was opening near a beautiful historic place, some people stood outside the restaurant and shouted, “We do not want fast food, we want slow food!"This event wasn't the only thing that started the Slow Food Movement. ___16___ But the food didn't taste the same as he remembered. He learned that the peppers were shipped from abroad because the prices were low. This deeply concerned Carlo.Carlo wanted people to care about where their foods came from and how their foods made their culture special. So he started a group to encourage this idea. It soon became the Slow Food Movement. ___17___ First, what is good food? Good food is fresh. The vegetables are eaten close to the place where they are grown. The fish hasn't been sitting for days before it is eaten. Good food is seasonable. ___18___ Good food satisfies the senses. It should look good, smell good and taste good. And finally, good food is cultural food. Each country has special foods that make it different.Second, food should be clean. Today, there are great concerns about the way people grow and produce food. Farmers use chemicals to kill insects and feed plants. But the chemicals can also harm the natural environment around farms.___19___Clean food means food that does not harm our bodies or the environment.And third, food should be fair. ___20___ All people should be able to purchase healthy food. The people who grow and make food should be paid fairly for their work. They should work in safe, healthy conditions.A. Food should not cost too much money.B. Its goal is to have good, clean, fair food for all people.C. Over time, they can cause health problems in people too.D. That was how the Slow Food Movement got rid of fast food.E. It should be grown at the best time of the year for that food.F. Today the Slow Food Movement has already expanded out of Italy.G. One day Carlo Petrini went to a restaurant to eat a traditional meal.【答案】16. G 17. B 18. E 19. C 20. A2019—2020学年山东省济宁市高一英语第二学期质量检测试题真题阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
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试卷类型:A英语试题注意事项:1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。
回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。
写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。
录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分, 满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。
每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A 、B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。
听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
每段对话仅读一遍。
1.What does the man say about the TV drama?A.It ’s too long.B.It ’s not interesting.C.There are lots of ads.2.When will Bob get to Amy ’s house?A.At 11:20.B.At 10:20.C.At 10:00.3.What kind of music does the man like?A.Jazz.B.Rock.C.Opera.2020郾7山东省泰安市2019-2020学年高一下学期期末考试4.Where will the speakers go?A.To the seaside.B.To a playground.C.To a swimming pool.5.How old is the woman now?A.Sixteen years old.B.Fifteen years old.C.Eleven years old.第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白。
每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。
听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6和第7两个小题。
6.What does the man want to do?A.Work hard.B.Go to Ireland.C.Pay for the woman’s vacation.7.What does the woman think of her trip last year?A.It cost a lot.B.It wasn’t fun enough.C.It made her exhausted.听下面一段对话,回答第8至第10三个小题。
8.What does the man think of the paining?A.It’s silly.B.It’s beautiful.C.It’s quite complex.9.What does the man mean in the end?A.He already ate.B.He’s also hungry.C.He agrees about the painting.10.Where does this conversation probably take place?A.In a classroom.B.In an art gallery.C.In an art supply store.听下面一段对话,回答第11至第13三个小题。
11.Who is the woman?A.A chef.B.Another customer.C.An employee at a grocery store.12.What did the man want to buy in the beginning?A.Green peppers.B.Tomatoes.C.Potatoes.13.What is the man unsure of?A.How much to spend.B.How to cook something.C.Where to find the vegetables.听下面一段对话,回答第14至第16三个小题。
14.What did the man just do?A.He took a hot shower.B.He cleaned his room.C.He reserved a hotel.15.Why does the man’s upper back need some work?A.He lifted weights.B.He moved some rocks.C.He moved a bookcase.16.What will the speakers get if they take the survey?A.An extra trip.B.A free dinner.C.A free airplane ticket.听下面一段独白,回答第17至第20四个小题。
17.After the concert,how did the speaker get back home?A.By car.B.By bike.C.On foot.18.Why couldn’t the speaker get into her house?A.She lost her key.B.Her key was inside.C.The lock was broken.19.How did the speaker plan to get into her house?A.Through the window.B.By calling the police.C.By breaking down the door.20.What did the police see inside the house?A.A thief.B.Some photos.C.The house key.第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
AMusic,nature and picnics in the sun:here are the best operas to catch this summer. Opera Holland Park,LondonFor a mixture of urban and country operas,this open-air theatre is built each summer right in the heart of one of the most quiet parks of London.Book early as tickets sell out fast,and remember to bring a wrap or blanket to keep yourself warm on chillier summer evenings!July4to August3,Glyndebourne Festival Opera,East SussexGlyndebourne is one of the oldest opera festivals in the world.It attracts some of the world’s greatest artists.Besides,the festival’s the perfect occasion to put on your black tie or evening dress,enjoy a long picnic during the90-minute interval(间隔).Summer festivals don’t get better than this.July8to August25,The Grange Festival,HampshireSurrounded by lots of green plants and overseeing a picturesque lake,The Grange Festival in Hampshire is certain to be one of the most impressive visual feasts(视觉盛宴)you’ll ever see.Arrive a bit early to take in the countryside views.During the lengthy interval,you’ll enjoy a romantic dinner—an essential part of the festival.July6to August6,Grange Park Opera,SurreyThough it’s relatively new,the festival attracts some of the world’s top talent and this year’s edition is no different,featuring performances by one of the world’s most charming mezzo-sopranos,Joyce DiDonato,and the charismatic baritone Simon Keenlyside.July6to August13,21.What should you do if you go to Opera Holland Park?A.Put on your best dress.B.Book tickets early.C.Enjoy a romantic dinner.D.Perform on the stage.22.Which of the following may have the most beautiful natural environment?A.Opera Holland Park.B.Grange Park Opera.C.The Grange Festival.D.Glyndebourne Festival Opera.23.What is the purpose of author in writing the text?A.To attract more visitors to Britain.B.To inform you of traveling destinations.C.To advertise some places of interest.D.To introduce British opera festivals.BMelanie was born with spina bifida,a condition that rid her of the ability to walk.All her life,she had been using a wheelchair to get around.Trevor,on the other hand,has been blind since he was born.The two ran into each other at an adaptive rock climbing class.They soon learned that they shared a common love for nature.Knowing all of this,the pair came up with a brilliant idea—with their strengths combined,they would climb the mountains of Colorado together!Before the start of each journey,Melanie,secure in carrier,is hoisted by a friend or a fellow hiker onto Trevor’s back.Her role is to give verbal directions to her partner as they pass through the trail(小径).“I describe everything I see and exactly how Trevor needs to move,”Melanie said of their hiking method.“It just seemed like common sense,”she told Good Morning America.“He’s the legs,I’m the eyes—boom!Together,we’re the dream team.”To them,the best part about hiking as a pair is that they get to give each other the chance to accomplish something that others might believe is impossible.“It made me so happy to help someone experience what I’ve been able to experience my whole life.Just getting on top of a mountain,you just feel that sense of accomplishment. The best part is being able to make her smile.That gives me purpose,”Trevor said.As for Melanie,she says that the activity also gives her the feeling of freedom.“I’ve been in a wheelchair my whole life,and it’s an amazing feeling to leave it miles behind on the trail.I even couldn’t get in it if I wanted to,and that’s a great feeling,”she said.24.What do we know about Melanie and Trevor?A.They are born disabled.B.They are good at sports.C.They show no interest in outdoor activities.D.They’ve known each other since they were born.25.Which of the following can best replace the underlined word“hoisted”in paragraph3?A.Caught.B.Lifted.C.Removed.D.Pushed.26.What does Trevor think of hiking with Melanie?A.He thinks it meaningful.B.He gets the feeling of freedom.C.He thinks the experience amusing.D.He feels it his duty to help Melanie.27.What’s the topic of the text?A.Two people worked together as a team.B.Hiking as a pair proved to be successful.C.Two disabled teamed up for hiking adventures.D.A blind man helped a woman who couldn’t walk.CCan you think of a day without music?We can hear music everywhere:in the streets and at home,over the radio and on TV,in the shops and in the parks.People all over the world are fond of music.They listen to music,they dance to music,and they learn to play musical instruments.Music isn’t only a combination of pleasant sounds.It is an art which reflects life.There are a lot of different kinds of music.Some of them appeared long ago,and some are modern. Folk music appeared long ago,but it is still alive.Folk songs are very pleasant to listen to. Classical music is often connected with the music of the past.Rap is a modern musical style where the singer speaks or shouts the words in time to music with a steady beat.Great Britain has produced more popular music stars than any other country.British groups often set new trends in music.New styles,groups and singers continue to appear. Many of the new bands have been able to use changes in technology to develop their music such as computerised drum machines,synthesisers and other electronic instruments.Tastes differ.So people’s musical interests range from pop and rock music to classical music.My favourite style of music is pop music,because it is full of energy.When I listen to pop music it makes me remember happy times and forget the problems of everyday life.I also enjoy listening to classical music.The music I hate is heavy metal.I find it noisy.When I listen to this style of music it presents to my mind pictures of dark days.My mother and father agree with my tastes in music.Though they prefer to listen to classical,they think that modern music is not too bad.Music appeals to our hearts.It comforts our souls and enriches our minds.Music is beauty in sounds;it is our magic source of inspiration.28.What is the first paragraph mainly about?A.Several types of music.B.The development of musical styles.C.Different musical tastes.D.The importance of music in our lives.29.How is the second paragraph developed?A.By giving examples.B.By analysing reasons.C.By describing courses.D.By making comparisons.30.Why does the author like pop music?A.It is loud and strong.B.It is characterised by a steady beat.C.It sounds energetic.D.It is played with electronic instruments.31.What is the author’s parents’attitude towards his musical taste?A.Doubtful.B.Supportive.C.Dissatisfied.D.Unconcerned.DIf you’ve ever wondered what the process of becoming an astronaut is like,Kennedy Space Center Visitor Complex(KSCVC)now has an experience that puts visitors in the shoes of a space explorer in training.The center’s Astronaut Training Experience(ATE),features four simulations(模拟).They all require teamwork and good communication.Dee Maynard,manager of education programs at KSCVC,said the experience was designed to keep visitors involved the whole time.“When we were designing this,one of our concerns was that we wanted to be having an experience and not waiting around,”Maynard said.“Also, astronaut training is very much a team effort.”Although astronauts go through thousands of hours of training before taking off for space, this training does include some parts that are similar to those of real NASA training.One simulation helps visitors learn what it takes to launch NASA’s Space Launch System rocket.Six people step into the role of launch control and communicate with six others on the Orion capsule.Visitors take turns reading and passing instructions and sets of data from both sides.In mission control(地面指挥中心),they can step into roles including flight director and spacecraft systems officer.Inside the capsule,people try their hand at such jobs as flight engineer and commander.Across the room,there are chairs that are similar to the kind of zero gravity chair.With the press of a switch,the chairs fly across a special floor,giving astronauts-in-training an experience that somewhat simulates the zero gravity environment of space.This part of the experience also offers visitors a chance to learn about the management about sleeping,usingthe toilet and working in space.Two simulations help participants experience what life on Mars might look like.32.What are the qualities most required for the astronaut training at KSCVC?①Working together.②Reading skills.③Data analyzing.④Communication skills.A.①③B.①④C.②③D.②④33.How might people feel when they take part in ATE?A.Busy.B.Bored.C.Worried.fortable.34.We can conclude in the paragraph that follows.A.the readers will get to know more about roles in space.B.the zero gravity environment of space will be described.C.the author might introduce NASA’s Space Launch System.D.the“land and drive on Mars”simulators might be talked about.35.What would be the best title for the text?A.Explore the Future of SpaceB.Realize Your Dream at KSCVCC.Experience Life as an AstronautD.Make Yourself a Great Astronaut第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。