2020年新高考全国卷Ⅰ英语高考试题文档版(山东)(含答案)
绝密★启用前2020年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试英语注意事项：1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。
回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分阅读（共两节,满分50分）第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分,满分37.5分）阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
APOETRY CHALLENGEWrite a poem about how courage,determination,and strength have helped you face challenges in your life.Prizes3Grand Prizes：Trip to Washington,D.C.for each of three winners,a parent and one other person of the winner’s choice.Trip includes round-trip air tickets,hotel stay for two nights,and tours of the National Air and Space Museum and the office of National Geographic World.6First Prizes：The book Sky Pioneer：A Photobiography of Amelia Earhart signed by author Corinne Szabo and pilot Linda Finch.50Honorable Mentions：Judges will choose up to50honorable mention winners,who will each receive a T-shirt in memory of Earhart’s final flight.RulesFollow all rules carefully to prevent disqualification.■Write a poem using100words or fewer.Your poem can be any format,any number of lines.■Write by hand or type on a single sheet of paper.You may use both the front and back of the paper.■On the same sheet of paper,write or type your name,address,telephone number,and birth date.■Mail your entry to us by October31this year.1.How many people can each grand prize winner take on the free trip?A.Two.B.Three.C.Four.D.Six.2.What will each of the honorable mention winners get?A.A plane ticket.B.A book by Corinne Szabo.C.A special T-shirt.D.A photo of Amelia Earhart.3.Which of the following will result in disqualification?A.Typing your poem out.B.Writing a poem of120words.ing both sides of the paper.D.Mailing your entry on October30.BJenifer Mauer has needed more willpower than the typical college student to pursue her goal of earning a nursing degree.That willpower bore fruit when Jennifer graduated from University of Wisconsin-Eau Claire and became the first in her large family to earn a bachelor’s degree.Mauer,of Edgar,Wisconsin,grew up on a farm in a family of10children.Her dad worked at a job away from the farm,and her mother ran the farm with the kids.After high school,Jennifer attended a local technical college, working to pay her tuition（学费）,because there was no extra money set aside for a college education.After graduation,she worked to help her sisters and brothers pay for their schooling.Jennifer now is married and has three children of her own.She decided to go back to college to advance her career and to be able to better support her family while doing something she loves:nursing.She chose the UW-Eau Claire program at Ministry Saint Joseph’s Hospital in Marshfield because she was able to pursue her four-year degree close to home.She could drive to class and be home in the evening to help with her kids.Jennifer received great support from her family as she worked to earn her degree:Her husband worked two jobs to cover the bills, and her68-year-old mother helped take care of the children at times.Through it all,she remained in good academic standing and graduated with honors.Jennifer sacrificed（牺牲）to achieve her goal,giving up many nights with her kids and missing important events to study.“Some nights my heart was breaking to have to pick between my kids and studying for exams or papers,”she says.However,her children have learned an important lesson witnessing their mother earn her degree.Jennifer is a first-generation graduate and an inspiration to her family—and that’s pretty powerful.4.What did Jennifer do after high school?A.She helped her dad with his work.B.She ran the family farm on her own.C.She supported herself through college.D.She taught her sisters and brothers at home.5.Why did Jennifer choose the program at Ministry Saint Joseph’s Hospital in Marshfield?A.To take care of her kids easily.B.To learn from the best nurses.C.To save money for her parents.D.To find a well-paid job there.6.What did Jennifer sacrifice to achieve her goal?A.Her health.B.Her time with family.C.Her reputation.D.Her chance of promotion.7.What can we learn from Jenifer’s story?A.Time is money.B.Love breaks down barriers.C.Hard work pays off.cation is the key to success.CIn the mid-1990s,Tom Bissell taught English as a volunteer in Uzbekistan.He left after seven months, physically broken and having lost his mind.A few years later,still attracted to the country,he returned to Uzbekistan to write an article about the disappearance of the Aral Sea.His visit,however,ended up involving a lot more than that.Hence this book,Chasing the Sea:Lost Among the Ghosts of Empire in Central Asia,which talks about a road trip from Tashkent to Karakalpakstan,where millions of lives have been destroyed by the slow drying up of the sea.It is the story of an American travelling to a strange land, and of the people he meets on his way:Rustam,his translator,a lovely24-year-old who picked up his colorful English in California,Oleg and Natasha,his hosts in Tashkent,and a string of foreign aid workers.This is a quick look at life in Uzbekistan,made of friendliness and warmth,but also its darker side of society. In Samarkand,Mr Bissell admires the architectural wonders,while on his way to Bukhara he gets a taste of police methods when suspected of drug dealing.In Ferghana,he attends a mountain funeral（葬礼）followed by a strange drinking party.And in Karakalpakstan,he is saddened by the dust storms,diseases and fishing boats stuck miles from the sea.Mr Bissell skillfully organizes historical insights and cultural references,making his tale a well-rounded picture of Uzbekistan,seen from Western eyes.His judgment and references are decidedly American,as well as his delicate stomach.As the author explains,this is neither a travel nor a history book,or even a piece of reportage. Whatever it is,the result is a fine and vivid description of the purest of Central Asian traditions.8.What made Mr Bissell return to Uzbekistan?A.His friends’invitation.B.His interest in the country.C.His love for teaching.D.His desire to regain health.9.What does the underlined word“that”in paragraph2refer to?A.Developing a serious mental disease.B.Taking a guided tour in Central Asia.C.Working as a volunteer in Uzbekistan.D.Writing an article about the Aral Sea.10.Which of the following best describes Mr Bissell’s road trip in Uzbekistan?A.Romantic.B.Eventful.C.Pleasant.D.Dangerous.11.What is the purpose of this text?A.To introduce a book.B.To explain a cultural phenomenon.C.To remember a writer.D.To recommend a travel destination.DAccording to a recent study in the Journal of Consumer Research,both the size and consumption habits of our eating companions can influence our food intake.And contrary to existing research that says you should avoid eating with heavier people who order large portions（份）,it’s the beanpoles with big appetites you really need to avoid.To test the effect of social influence on eating habits,the researchers conducted two experiments.In the first, 95undergraduate women were individually invited into a lab to ostensibly（表面上）participate in a study about movie viewership.Before the film began,each woman was asked to help herself to a snack.An actor hired by the researchers grabbed her food first.In her natural state,the actor weighed105pounds.But in half the cases she wore a specially designed fat suit which increased her weight to180pounds.Both the fat and thin versions of the actor took a large amount of food.The participants followed suit,taking more food than they normally would have.However,they took significantly more when the actor was thin.For the second test,in one case the thin actor took two pieces of candy from the snack bowls.In the other case, she took30pieces.The results were similar to the first test:the participants followed suit but took significantly more candy when the thin actor took30pieces.The tests show that the social environment is extremely influential when we’re making decisions.If this fellow participant is going to eat more,so will I.Call it the“I’ll have what she’s having”effect.However,we’ll adjust the influence.If an overweight person is having a large portion,I’ll hold back a bit because I see the results of his eating habits.But if a thin person eats a lot,I’ll follow suit.If he can eat much and keep slim,why can’t I?12.What is the recent study mainly about?A.Food safety.B.Movie viewership.C.Consumer demand.D.Eating behavior.13.What does the underlined word"beanpoles"in paragraph1refer to?A.Big eaters.B.Overweight persons.C.Picky eaters.D.Tall thin persons.14.Why did the researchers hire the actor?A.To see how she would affect the participants.B.To test if the participants could recognize her.C.To find out what she would do in the two tests.D.To study why she could keep her weight down.15.On what basis do we"adjust the influence"according to the last paragraph?A.How hungry we are.B.How slim we want to be.C.How we perceive others.D.How we feel about the food.第二节（共5小题：每小题2.5分,满分12.5分）阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
(精校版)2020年新高考全国卷Ⅱ英语高考试题文档版(海南)(含答案)
姓名____________________准考证号________________绝密★启用前2020年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试英语注意事项：1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号，回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。
录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt?A. £19.15.B. £9.18.C. £9. 15.答案是c.1. What will the speakers do tonight?A. Visit Mary.B. Go out of town.C. Host a dinner.2. How does the woman go to work this week? A. By car. B. By bike. C. On foot3. What time does Dave's meeting star?A. At 8：30B. At 9：00.C. At 10：00.4. What is Helen going to do?A. Buy some booksB. Study in the library.C. Attend a history class.5. What is the woman's feeling now?A. ReliefB. Regret.C. Embarrassment.第二节（共15小题：每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）听下面5段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
2020年高考英语全国卷II试题及答案(word版)
绝密★启用前2020年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（全国卷II）英语（全国卷II适用地区：重庆、陕西、甘肃、宁夏、青海、新疆、黑龙江、吉林、辽宁、内蒙古、海南）注意事项：1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。
回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。
录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段对话。
每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt?A. £19.15.B. £9.18.C. £9.15.答案是C。
1. Where does the conversation probably take place?A. In a supermarket.B. In the post office.C. In the street.2. What did Carl do?A. He designed a medal.B. He fixed a TV set.C. He took a test.3. What does the man do?A. He’s a tailor.B. He’s a waiter.C. He’s a shop assistant.4. When will the flight arrive?A. At 18:20.B. At 18:35.C. At 18:50.5. How can the man improve his article?A. By deleting unnecessary words.B. By adding a couple of points.C. By correcting grammar mistakes.第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）听下面5段对话或独白。
2020年高考英语全国卷II试题及答案(word版)
绝密★启用前2020年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（全国卷 II ）英语（全国卷 II 适用地区：重庆、陕西、甘肃、宁夏、青海、新疆、黑龙江、吉林、辽宁、内蒙古、海南） 注意事项：1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
如需改动，用橡 皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。
回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。
录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡 上。
第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）听下面 5 段对话。
每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A 、B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
每段对话仅读一遍。
例： How much is the shirt?A. ￡19.15. 答案是 C 。
1. Where does the conversation probably take place?A. In a supermarket.2. What did Carl do?5. How can the man improve his article? A. By deleting unnecessary words. B. By adding a couple of points.C. By correcting grammar mistakes.第二节（共 15小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 22.5分）B. ￡9.18.C. ￡9.15.B. In the post office.C. In the street. A. He designed amedal.3. What does the man do?A. He 's a tailor.4. When will the flightarrive?B. He fixed a TV set. B. He 's a waiter. B. At 18:35.C. He took a test. C. He 's a shop assistantC. At 18:50.听下面5段对话或独白。
2022年新高考全国Ⅰ卷英语高考真题文档版(含答案)
2022年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（新高考全国Ⅰ卷）英语本试卷共10页，满分120分。
考试用时120分钟。
注意事项：1. 答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。
用2B铅笔将试卷类型（A）填涂在答题卡相应位置上。
将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处”。
因笔试不考听力，选择题从第二部分的“阅读”开始，试题序号从“21”开始。
2. 作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在试卷上。
3. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不准使用铅笔和涂改液，不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁：考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分）第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
AGrading Policies for Introduction to LiteratureGrading Scale90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.Essays（60%）Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course: Essay 1 =10%; Essay 2=15%; Essay 3=15%; Essay 4=20%Group Assignments（30%）Students will work in groups to complete four assignments（作业）during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework（10%）Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previous class' lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both of which will be graded.Late WorkAn essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be accepted.21. Where is this text probably taken from?A. A textbook.B. An exam paper.C. A course plan.D. An academic article.22. How many parts is a student's final grade made up of?A. Two.B. Three.C. Four.D. Five.23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?A. You will receive a zero.B. You will lose a letter grade.C. You will be given a test.D. You will have to rewrite it.BLike most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste. The arugula（芝麻菜）was to make a nice green salad, rounding out a roast chicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then friends called with a dinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed, the arugula went bad. Even worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I could have made six salads with what I threw out.In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, "food waste goes against the moral grain," as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month's cover story. It's jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away—from “ugly"（but quite eatable）vegetables rejected by grocers to large amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.Producing food that no one eats wastes the water, fuel, and other resources used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem. In fact, Royte writes, "if food waste were a country, it would be the third largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world."If that's hard to understand, let's keep it as simple as the arugula at the back of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time —but for him, it's more like 12 bones of donated strawberries nearing their last days. Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington, D.C., which recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered more than 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished（有瑕疵的）produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields. And the strawberries? V olunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for use in meals down the road.Such methods seem obvious, yet so often we just don't think. "Everyone can play a part in reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more food than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not include the side dish you won't eat," Curtin says.24. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story?A. We pay little attention to food waste.B. We waste food unintentionally at times.C. We waste more vegetables than meat.D. We have good reasons for wasting food.25. What is a consequence of food waste according to the test?A. Moral decline.B. Environmental harm.C. Energy shortage.D. Worldwide starvation.26. What does Curtin's company do?A. It produces kitchen equipment.B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.C. It helps local farmers grow fruitsD. It makes meals out of unwanted food.27. What does Curtin suggest people do?A. Buy only what is needed.B. Reduce food consumption.C. Go shopping once a week.D. Eat in restaurants less often.CThe elderly residents（居民）in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.The project was dreamed up by a local charity（慈善组织）to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people's wellbeing, It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are inuse.Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She said: “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went to school."I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they've gone to bed."It's good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them. I'm enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something useful."There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on the project, said: "Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here."Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: "We are happy to be taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities."28. What is the purpose of the project?A. To ensure harmony in care homes.B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.C. To raise money for medical research.D. To promote the elderly people's welfare.29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?A. She has learned new life skills.B. She has gained a sense of achievement.C. She has recovered her memory.D. She has developed a strong personality.30. What do the underlined words "embark on" mean in paragraph 7?A. Improve.B. Oppose.C. Begin.D. Evaluate.31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?A. It is well received.B. It needs to be more creative.C. It is highly profitable.D. It takes ages to see the results.DHuman speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from the common "m" and "a" to the rare clicks of some southern African languages. But why are certain sounds more common than others? A ground-breaking, five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led to new speech sounds that are now found in half the world's languages.More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals, such as "f" and "v", were more common in the languages of societies that ate softer foods. Now a team of researchers led by Damián Blasi at the University of Zurich, Switzerland, has found how and why this trend arose.They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned（对齐）, making it hard to produce labiodentals, which are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper teeth. Later, our jaws changed to an overbite structure（结构）, making it easier to produce such sounds.The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development of agriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easier to chew at this point. The jawbone didn't have to do as much work and so didn't grow to be so large.Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age, with the use of "f" and "v" increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years. These sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer people today.This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds were present whenhuman beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. "The set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human beings, but rather the huge variety of speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like biological change and cultural evolution," said Steven Moran, a member of the research team.32. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi's research focus on?A. Its variety.B. Its distribution.C. Its quantity.D. Its development.33. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals?A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.B. They could not open and close their lips easily.C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.34. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?A. Supporting evidence for the research results.B. Potential application of the research findings.C. A further explanation of the research methods.D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.35. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds?A. It is key to effective communication.B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.C. It is a complex and dynamic system.D. It drives the evolution of human beings.第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
2021年高考新高考全国Ⅰ卷英语试题(含听力音频、听力原文和答案解析)
绝密★启用前2021年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试英语听力音频 双击图标打开收听.mp4本试卷共10页，共150分，考试时长120分钟。
适用地区：山东、广东、福建、江苏、湖南、湖北、河北注意事项：1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。
回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。
录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7. 5分）听下面5段对话。
每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
每段对话仅读一遍。
例: How much is the shirt?A. ￡19.15.B. ￡9.18.C. ￡9.15.答案是C。
1．Why did the woman go to Mallorca?A. To teach Spanish.B. To look for a job.C. To see a friend. 2．What does the man ask the woman to do?A. Take him to hospital.B. Go to a class with him.C. Submit a report for him.3．Who will look after the children?A. Jennifer.B. Suzy.C. Marie.4．What are the speakers going to do?A. Drive home.B. Go shopping.C. Eat out.5．What are the speakers talking about?A. How to fry fish.B. How to make coffee.C. How to remove a bad smell.第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）听下面5段对话或独白。
2020年高考英语全国卷II试题及答案(word版)
绝密★启用前2020年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（全国卷 II ）英语（全国卷 II 适用地区：重庆、陕西、甘肃、宁夏、青海、新疆、黑龙江、吉林、辽宁、内蒙古、海南） 注意事项：1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
如需改动，用橡 皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。
回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。
录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡 上。
第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）听下面 5 段对话。
每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A 、B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
每段对话仅读一遍。
例： How much is the shirt?A. ￡19.15. 答案是 C 。
1. Where does the conversation probably take place?A. In a supermarket.2. What did Carl do?5. How can the man improve his article? A. By deleting unnecessary words. B. By adding a couple of points.C. By correcting grammar mistakes.第二节（共 15小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 22.5分）B. ￡9.18.C. ￡9.15.B. In the post office.C. In the street. A. He designed amedal.3. What does the man do?A. He 's a tailor.4. When will the flightarrive?B. He fixed a TV set. B. He 's a waiter. B. At 18:35.C. He took a test. C. He 's a shop assistantC. At 18:50.听下面5段对话或独白。
(精校版)2020年全国卷Ⅰ文综高考试题文档版(含答案)
2020年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（新课标1卷）文科综合能力测试注意事项：1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。
回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。
写在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
一、选择题：本题共35小题，每小题4分，共140分。
在每小题给出的四个选项中，只有一项是符合题目要求的。
治沟造地是陕西省延安市对黄土高原的丘陵沟壑区，在传统打坝淤地的基础上，集耕地营造、坝系修复、生态建设和新农村发展为一体的“田水路林村”综合整治模式，实现了乡村生产、生活、生态协调发展（图1）。
据此完成1~3题。
图11．与传统的打坝淤地工程相比，治沟造地更加关注A．增加耕地面积B．防治水土流失C．改善人居环境D．提高作物产量2．治沟造地对当地生产条件的改善主要体现在A．优化农业结构B．方便田间耕作C．健全公共服务D．提高耕地肥力3．推测开展治沟造地的地方①居住用地紧张②生态环境脆弱③坡耕地比例大④农业生产精耕细作A．①③B．①④C．②③D．②④为获得冬季防风、夏季通风的效果，我国东北平原的某城市对一居住区进行了相应的建筑布局规划，规划建筑物为高层（7层以上）和多层（7层或以下）。
图2示意在该居住区内规划的两个居住片区、道路、出入口及当地盛行风向。
据此完成4~6题。
图24．下列建筑布局中，适合居住片区II的是①并列排布②横向错列排布③自由排布④纵向错列排布A．①B．②C．③D．④5．相对居住片区II，居住片区I的建筑布局宜①建筑密度大②建筑密度小③以高层建筑为主④以多层建筑为主A．①③B．①④C．②③D．②④6．该居住区出入口的设计主要是为了避开A．春季盛行风B．夏季盛行风C．秋季盛行风D．冬季盛行风利用大型挖泥船将海底岩石搅碎，并将碎石和泥沙一起吹填造地，成为在海中建设人工岛的主要方式。
(精校版)2020年全国卷Ⅲ英语高考试题文档版(含答案)
绝密★启用前2020年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（全国卷III）英语注意事项：1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。
回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。
录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段对话。
每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt?A. £19.15.B. £9.18.C. £9.15.答案是C。
1. Where does the conversation probably take place?A. In a supermarket.B. In the post office.C. In the street.2. What did Carl do?A. He designed a medal.B. He fixed a TV set.C. He took a test.3. What does the man do?A. He’s a tailor.B. He’s a waiter.C. He’s a shop assistant.4. When will the flight arrive?A. At 18:20.B. At 18:35.C. At 18:50.5. How can the man improve his article?A. By deleting unnecessary words.B. By adding a couple of points.C. By correcting grammar mistakes.第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）听下面5段对话或独白。
(精校版)2020年新高考全国卷Ⅰ历史高考试题文档版(山东)(含答案)
山东省2020年普通高中学业水平等级考试历史注意事项:1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。
回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。
写在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
一、选择题：本题共15小题，每小题3分，共45分。
每小题只有一个选项符合题目要求。
1．战国时期，孟子认为“无礼义，则上下乱”，韩非子认为“义者，君臣上下之事”。
他们所说“义”的实质是A．中央集权政治的准则B．衡量道德修养的标准C．统治阶层的行为规范D．维护等级秩序的工具2．先秦至西汉前期，山东东部地区得“鱼盐之利”，总体上是商业活跃的地方。
西汉中期以后，这一地区的商人活动开始步入低谷。
这是由于西汉政府A．重视关中地区经济发展B．强化了经济控制C．开通了丝路贸易D．以儒家义利观教化百姓3．表1为唐代翰林学士的起源和演进概况。
它反映了唐代表1A．翰林学士逐渐控制了决策权B．文官地位日益提高C．三省六部制渐趋成熟D．朝廷内部权力的再分配4．王安石在变法中“募饥民修水利”，以“赈救食力之农”“兴陂塘沟港之废”。
与“煮粥赈灾”“开仓放粮”等赈灾方式相比，王安石此举力图A．尽量减轻政府的救灾负担B．稳定灾区的社会秩序C．从长远上解决灾民生计问题D．建立政府抗灾救荒体系5．黄宗羲提出，古代圣王倡行“崇本抑末”，其中“抑末”是指禁绝与巫蛊、奇技淫巧等相关的无益于民生的工商业，而有利于民生的工商业皆属本业。
他作出这一论断旨在A．表达对社会现实的不满B．论证变革经济政策的合理性C．宣扬经世致用思想D．促进资本主义萌芽发展6．1873年，华蘅芳等人翻译的《地学浅释》把英国学者赖尔的地质学理论介绍到中国。
赖尔认为，地质的进化过程，不是由超自然力量或者巨大灾变造成的，而是由自然力量在漫长的岁月中逐渐形成的。
【精校版】2020年英语高考试题(全国II卷)(含听力原文及答案)艾斯英语
绝密★启用前2020年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（全国卷II）英语注意事项：1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。
回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。
录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段对话。
每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt?A. £19.15.B. £9.18.C. £9.15.答案是C。
1. Where does the conversation probably take place?A. In a supermarket.B. In the post office.C. In the street.2. What did Carl do?A. He designed a medal.B. He fixed a TV set.C. He took a test.3. What does the man do?A. He’s a tailor.B. He’s a waiter.C. He’s a shop assistant.4. When will the flight arrive?A. At 18:20.B. At 18:35.C. At 18:50.5. How can the man improve his article?A. By deleting unnecessary words.B. By adding a couple of points.C. By correcting grammar mistakes.第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）听下面5段对话或独白。